Chapter 51: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function: Trauma, Infection, and Disease
Manifestations of fibromyalgia often include (Select all that apply.) a. generalized pain. b. sensitivity to heat. c. headaches. d. fatigue. e. sleep disturbance.
a. generalized pain. c. headaches. d. fatigue. e. sleep disturbance.
Muscular dystrophy includes a number of muscle disorders that are a. genetically transmitted. b. easily prevented and managed. c. autoimmune in nature. d. demyelinating focused.
a. genetically transmitted.
The most common type of osteomyelitis is a. hematogenous. b. contiguous focus. c. Brodie abscess. d. direct invasion.
a. hematogenous.
Characteristics of scoliosis include (Select all that apply.) a. involvement of lateral curvature of the spine. b. increase during periods of rapid growth. c. more common in boys. d. identifiable by uneven shoulders or scapular prominence. e. possibility of leading to respiratory complications.
a. involvement of lateral curvature of the spine. b. increase during periods of rapid growth. d. identifiable by uneven shoulders or scapular prominence. e. possibility of leading to respiratory complications.
The most common site affected in Paget's disease is the a. lower spine. b. skull. c. pelvis. d. joints.
a. lower spine.
Healing of a fractured bone with a poor alignment is called a. malunion. b. nonunion. c. disunion. d. delayed union.
a. malunion.
Pain with passive stretching of a muscle is indicative of a. noncontractile tissue injury. b. contractile tissue injury. c. vascular insufficiency. d. skeletal muscle damage.
a. noncontractile tissue injury.
The disease that is similar to osteomalacia and occurs in growing children is a. rickets. b. osteosarcoma. c. Paget disease. d. osteopenia.
a. rickets.
The displacement of two bones in which the articular surfaces partially lose contact with each other is called a. subluxation. b. subjugation c. sublimation. d. dislocation.
a. subluxation.
A unique characteristic feature of fibromyalgia is the presence of a. tender point pain. b. head pain. c. contractures. d. muscle atrophy.
a. tender point pain.
Most muscle strains are caused by a. a tear in an adjoining tendon. b. abnormal muscle contraction. c. muscle asymmetry. d. bleeding into the muscle.
b. abnormal muscle contraction.
A risk factor for osteoporosis is a. endometriosis. b. early menopause. c. late menopause. d. ovarian cysts.
b. early menopause.
In older women, osteoporosis is thought to be primarily because of a. dietary inadequacies. b. estrogen deficiency. c. malabsorption syndrome. d. inactivity.
b. estrogen deficiency.
Paget's disease is characterized by a. overactivity of osteoblasts leading to multiple bone tumors. b. excessive bone resorption followed by excessive formation of fragile bone. c. inflammatory disorder resulting in fusion of spine joints. d. failure of resorption by osteoclasts resulting in hard bones.
b. excessive bone resorption followed by excessive formation of fragile bone.
Assessment of an extremity six hours after surgical alignment and casting demonstrates pulselessness and pallor. The priority action to take is to a. increase the administration his pain medication. b. initiate action to have the cast split or removed. c. note the increase in pain in his chart, and recheck the extremity in 30 minutes. d. elevate the extremity to relieve swelling.
b. initiate action to have the cast split or removed.
Anticholinesterase inhibitors may be used to manage a. muscular dystrophy. b. myasthenia gravis. c. fibromyalgia. d. rheumatoid arthritis.
b. myasthenia gravis.
Bone healing may be impaired by a. excessive vitamin C. b. nicotine use. c. a high-protein diet. d. immobilization.
b. nicotine use.
Compartment syndrome occurs secondary to a. bone infarction. b. soft-tissue damage. c. muscle necrosis. d. breakdown of RBCs.
b. soft-tissue damage.
A compound, transverse fracture is best described as a bone that is a. broken in two or more pieces. b. cracked but not completely separated. c. broken along the long axis. d. broken and protruding through the skin.
d. broken and protruding through the skin.
Inflammation of the sacs that overlie bony prominences is called a. epicondylitis. b. arthritis. c. tendinitis. d. bursitis.
d. bursitis.
Pain in fibromyalgia involves a. muscle inflammation. b. autoimmune destruction of muscle tissue. c. nerve inflammation. d. changes in pain transmission in the spinal cord.
d. changes in pain transmission in the spinal cord.
The pathophysiology of osteomalacia involves a. increased osteoclast activity. b. collagen breakdown in the bone matrix. c. crowding of cells in the osteoid. d. inadequate mineralization in the osteoid.
d. inadequate mineralization in the osteoid.
Rickets is characterized by soft, weak bones resulting from a deficiency of a. calcium. b. estrogen. c. phosphate. d. vitamin D.
d. vitamin D.
Following a bone fracture, the most likely event to occur is a. development of a blood clot beneath the periosteum. b. leukocyte infiltration into bone tissue. c. blood vessel growth at the fracture site. d. migration of osteoblasts to the fracture site.
a. development of a blood clot beneath the periosteum.
What type of fracture generally occurs in children? a. Greenstick b. Stress c. Nightstick d. Colles
a. Greenstick
Which disorder usually causes skeletal pain and involves significant bone demineralization from vitamin D deficiency? a. Osteomalacia b. Osteopenia c. Osteomyelitis d. Osteoporosis
a. Osteomalacia
The most common source of osteomyelitis is a. an infection that migrates via the bloodstream. b. direct invasion from a fracture. c. surgical contamination. d. a joint prosthesis.
a. an infection that migrates via the bloodstream.
A fracture in which bone breaks into two or more fragments is referred to as a. comminuted. b. open. c. greenstick. d. stress.
a. comminuted.
A patient diagnosed with diabetes, smokes a pack of cigarettes daily and eats very few green leafy vegetables. After experiencing a fractured toe, this patient is at risk for a. delayed healing. b. malunion. c. nonunion. d. dysunion.
a. delayed healing.
Complete healing of a bone fracture occurs when a. no movement of the break is detectable. b. the callus has been completely replaced with mature bone. c. the fracture site and surrounding soft tissue are pain free. d. a cast is no longer required to stabilize the break.
b. the callus has been completely replaced with mature bone.
The person at highest risk of a greenstick fracture from falling off a tall ladder is age a. 68. b. 44. c. 8. d. 23.
c. 8.
The disorders characterized by softening and then enlargement of bones is referred to as a. osteomyelitis. b. osteoporosis. c. Paget disease. d. rickets.
c. Paget disease.
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease in which a. neuronal demyelination disrupts nerve transmission. b. muscles become increasingly bulky but weakened. c. acetylcholine receptors are destroyed or dysfunctional. d. acetylcholine release from motor neurons is disrupted.
c. acetylcholine receptors are destroyed or dysfunctional.
The complication which is not likely to result from a compound, transverse fracture of the tibia and fibula is a. bone infection. b. fat emboli. c. air embolus. d. compartment syndrome.
c. air embolus.
The most common symptom of multiple myeloma is a. pathologic fracture. b. fever. c. bone pain. d.term-36 osteomyelitis.
c. bone pain.
A bone disorder that results from insufficient vitamin D is referred to as a. rickets. b. osteoporosis. c. osteomalacia. d. subluxation.
c. osteomalacia.
A malignant bone-forming tumor is referred to as a(n) a. rhabdosarcoma. b. liposarcoma. c. osteosarcoma. d. chondrosarcoma.
c. osteosarcoma.
People who have osteoporosis are at risk for a. rhabdomyolysis. b. osteomyelitis. c. osteomalacia. d. bone fractures.
d. bone fractures.