CHM/lab operation practice questions

a mother and young child arrive at the outpt lab with a physicians order for a lead test on the child. the phleb decides to perform a dermal puncture. what procedure is important to implement when a test fir lead is collected by finger puncture that would NOT b necessary prior to an anticubital puncture?

thoroughly washing pts hands with soap and water

in healthy individuals, calcitonin is synthesized by which cells in the body?

thyroid C cells

CSF is collected, name the order of the tubes where they will be transported to what departments?

tube 1: chemistry tube 2 microbiology tube 3: hematology

a lab tech pipetted 200 uL of serum in a test tube and add 5mL of saline. what is the dilution ratio? a. 1:2.5 b. 1:25 c 1: 26 d. 1:50

1:26 200 ul + 5000mL of diluent = 5200mL of total volume. 5200 / 200 uL of serum = 1:26

in order to correctly prepare a 4M solution of NaOH, how many grams are needed to be added to 200mL of solution?

1mol NaOH = 40g 1M = 1mol/1L 4M = 4mol/1L 1L = 1000mL conc x vol = substance amount needed (4mol/1L) x 200 mL x (40g/1mol) x (1L/1000mL) = 32g

after experiencing extreme jaundice, abdominal pain and vomiting from extensive hepatocellular damage. a pts hepatic function panel is analyzed in the lab. the ALT is too high for the instrument to read. the lab tech performs an ALT dilution using 100 uL of pt sample to 400 uL of diluent. the result now reads 369u/L. how should the lab tech report these ALT results?

100 u/L + 400 uL diluent = 500 u/L total volume. 500/100 = 1:5 dilution factor. 369 u/L x 5 dilution factor = 1845 u/L

which of the following would be considered a normal CSF glucose level if the serum glucose is 70 mg/dL? a. about 100 b. about 45 c. about 60 d. about 70

about 45 mg/dL

medical record audit define

part of root cause analysis

a liquid ion exchange membrane electrode using the antibiotic valinomycin is MOST selective for a. Na b. glucose c. Cl d. K

potassium (K)

a nucleic acid used to identify a hybridization target is termed: a. probe b. oligonucleotide c. amplicon d none of the above

probe

which of the following conditions would argue in favor of TDM for a given drug? a. the drug has a low degree of protein binding b. the drug is given chronically c. the drug has low toxicity and few side effects d. the effective and toxic concentrations are not well defined

the drug is given chronically

define realiability

the measurement or detection of a select substance provides info about an illness or health status that assists with diagnosis, treatment or monitoring of the pt.

What weight of H2SO4 is contained in 200 ml of a 4 molar H2SO4 solution? (Atomic weight: H= 1; S = 32; 0 = 16) A. 78.4 g b. 156.8 g c. 39.2 g d. 15.68 g

(4M) (02L) = x g needed / 98 (formula wt) 0.8 = x g/98 gmw = 78.4g molarity x molecular weight x volume = grams

the purpose of a recovery study is to determine how much of the analyte can be detected in the presence of all other compounds in the pt sample. in a recovery experiment, a small aliqout of concentrated analyte is added into the pt sample. in order for the physiological matrix to be minimally affect, the original pt sample should not be diluted with the aliqout by more than what %? a. 1% b. 5% c. 10% d. 20%

10%

what minimum level of specific resistance (megohms @ 25C) is required for a type 1 water system? a. 10.0 b. 5.0 c. 2.0 d. 0.1

10.0

to ensure quality within the preanalytical phase of the lab testing, quality assurance acitivites includes monitoring preanalytical variables EXCEPT a. selection of reference materials used for validation purposes. b. lab test utilization c. positive pt identification d. the stability of pt specimens during transport

selection of reference materials used for validation purposes.

the statistics for a specific lab test method are shown below: 10 false neg & 40 true neg 20 false pos & 150 true pos what is the sensitivity of this test? a. 33% b. 65% c. 88% d. 94%

94% true pos / (true pos x false neg) x 100 = sensitivity 150 true pos / (150 true pos x 10 false neg) x 100

which cardiac muscle biomarker is a regular of myocyte contraction? A. myoglobin B. cTnT C. CK-MB D. CK-MB isoforms

B. cTnT TNI = TnT, TNc biomarkers for cardiac

which clinical lab regulation defines the personnel qualifications and responsibilities of the various positions in the clinical lab? a. AMT b. OSHA c. CLIA d. CLMA

CLIA

which of the following is not directly responsible for setting and monitoring competency requirements for lab personnel? a. CAP b. HCFA c. JCAHO d. CLSI

CLSI

in mass spectrometry, the 4 basic components that are standard in all mass spectrometers include all of the following EXCEPT a. an ion detector b. the mass analyzer c. a column oven d. an ionization source

a column oven

which of the following statements about static electricity and spark hazards is true? a. static electricity is not sufficient to cause an explosion. b. a common potential source for sparks is a metal container or tank. c. static electricity us created by high humidity. d. static electricity build up cannot be reduced.

a common potential source for sparks is a metal container or tank.

define SIPOC

a diagram used to identify key elements in a process: supplier, inputs, outputs and customer.

define nucleic acid

a polymer made of monomers (RNA/DNA)

define shift

a sudden change of values from one level of the control to another

which of the following best defines "specificity"? a. test's ability to correctly identify inidividuals who have a given disease or d/o. b. a tests ability to correctly exclude individuals who do not have the given disease or d/o. c. ability of a test to detect small amounts of a substance or to measure a rxn. d. the measurement or detection of a select substance provides important info about an illness or health status.

a tests ability to correctly exclude individuals who do not have the given disease or d/o.

define QCP

a written document describing the practices and procedures performed by the lab

a standard is used to check the _____ of a method or instrument. a. precision b. accuracy c. variance d. stability

accuracy

a medical event occurs that results in serious injury to a pt. all systems, process, and common causes that were involved in the adverse event should be evaluated. a method that can be implemented to effectively study the underlying causes is known as: a. failure mods and effect analysis b. monitoring of quality indicators c. medical record audit d. root cause analysis

root cause analysis

which of the following terms is used to describe a sudden change in the quality control datamean that persists throughout subsequent days of testing? a. variance b. dispersion c. shift d. trend

shift

the risk of exposure of a person to an infection of TB disease may be related to which of the following? a. born in the U.S b. high social status c. socially disadvantaged d. person in non-high risk groups

socially disadvantaged

which one of the following is a detergent added to gel media that enhances separations A. AMPHOLYTE SOLUTION b. sodium dodecyl sulfate c. zwitterion d. silica

sodium dodcecyl sulfate: used to denature proteins and enhance separation

define concurrency

testing that is run in parallel or at the same time

the term analytical specificity refers to

the ability to measure only that substance being assayed

define dispersion

the amount of data is distributed on a levey jennings chart

according to the mchaelis-menton kinetics theory, when a rxn is performed in zero order kinetics:

the substrate concentration is in excess and the rxn rate is dependent on the enzyme conc.

a slow progressive drift of values away from the mean is called a. shift b. dispersion c. trend d. variance

trend: a low progressive drift of values away from the mean

define trend

a slow progressive drift in values away from the mean

which of the following is used to analyze risk and highlight aspects of a process that should be targeted for improvements? a. voice of customers (VOC) b. quality control plan (QCP) c. supplier, inputs, process, outputs and customers (SIPOC) diagram. d. failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA)

FMEA: used primarily to evaluate a process.

define codon

3 nucleotide base sequence that codes for amino acids

define failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA)

used to evaluate a process prior to its implementation. its purpose is to identify ways in which a process might possibly fail with the goal being to eliminate or reduce the likley hood of such failure

define VOC (voice of customers)

used to understand what the customers what from the customers perspective

define validity

whether the test measures what it is supposed to measure

a 56 yr old woman with a hx of high BP and cardiovascular disease is evaluated by her physician due to recent loss of appetite, the doctor reviews the following test results: Plasma creatinine: 2.4 mg/dL urine creatinine: 65 mg/dL urine volume (24 hrs): 1400 mL what is the GFR rate for this pt?

26.32 mL/min (Ucr/Pcr) x (vol/min) = GFR (mL/min) (65mg/dL / 2.4 mg/dL) x (1400mL / 1440 min) = 26.32 mL/min

3 hour GTT procedure

4 specimens are collected 1st sample FBG 2 hr collection, 3 hr collection after drinking a 100g dose of glucose solution.

which of the following is true regarding cardiovascular disease + adipose tissue? A. inflammation cytokines, synthesized and released by adipose tissue, contributes to levels of cardiovascular disease. B. increase synthesis + secretion of PA-1 in metabolic syndrome contributes to cardiovascular disease by increased BP. C. obesity in metabolic syndrom contributes to develop cardiovascular disease by increased synthesis + secretion of adipose tissue D. none of the above

A. inflammation cytokines, synthesized and released by adipose tissue, contributes to levels of cardiovascular disease.

what is the best type of fire extinguisher to use with wood or paper fires? a. Co2 b. halon c. ABC d. water-soda

ABC

the following BEST describes serum HCG levels during pregnancy A. rise in levels through pregnancy B. highest levels found at the end of pregnancy C. rapid rise during 1st trimester, slow decline during 2nd trimester and may level off through out the pregnancy D. slow rise in levels during 1st trimester, rapid rise during 2nd trimester, slow decline throughout the rest of the pregnancy

C. rapid rise during 1st trimester, slow decline during 2nd trimester and may level off through out the pregnancy

cancer markers

CA125: ovarian cancer CEA: colon cancer CA19-9: pancreatic cancer PSA: prostate cancer

all of the following statements concerning CK-MB (CK-2) are true EXCEPT A. greater than 5% or 10 u/L followed by an LDH-1 : LDH-2 flip is specifically evidence of MI. B. CK-MB levels can be normal with increased total CK. C. CK-MB + TNI levels can be increased after AMI. D. CK-MB levels are normal in cardiac ischemia

D. CK-MB levels are normal in cardiac ischemia CK-MB abnormalities are released in increased amounts from cardiac muscle when heart is damaged.

deviation from beers law are caused by A. very low conc. of absorbing material B. polychromatic light C. very high conc. of substance being measured in a colorimetric rxn. D. stray light

D. Stray light beers law: absorbance directly proportional to the conc. of a solution, stray light can alter the absorbance results.

which of the following would not be considered a normal part of a routine electrolyte panel? a, Na b. K c. Mg d. Cl

Mg

what cardiac marker rises within 1-3 hrs after chest pain, peaks 2-6 hours and is normal after 24 hrs?

Myoglobin

Fluorometers are designed so that the path of the exciting light is at a right angle to the path of the emitted light. What is the purpose of this design? A. Prevent loss of emitted light B. Prevent loss of the excitation light C. Focus emitted and excitation light upon the detector D. Prevent excitation light from reaching the detector

Prevent excitation light from reaching the detector

with a run, one control is above +2SD and the other below -2SD from the mean. what do these results indicate?

R4s rule is violated due to random error

molecular diagnostic utilizes blotting techniques to separate nucleic acids, nothern blotting separates a. RNA b. DNA c. proteins d. DNA and RNA

RNA

mrs.jones a diabetic is admitted to the hospital on 11/25. it appears that she has had an AMI. but did not feel the severe chest pain. b/c of diabetic neuropathy. she has not felt well since 11/20 and her physician believes she possibly had an AMIon 11/20. assuming that the infarct was uncomplicated, which of the following cardiac biomarkers would most likely still be elevated and would assist in an AMI diagnosis? a. myglobin b. CK-MB c. TNI d. all of the above

TNI: remains elevated after an AMI for 8-21 days.

define translation

The process that converts an mRNA message into a polypeptide, which bond together to form proteins, takes place in a ribosome

The accuracy of an immunoassay is its ability to discriminate between results that are true positives and results that are true negatives. Two parameters of test accuracy are specificity and sensitivity. Which of these statements apply to an immunoassay with high specificity? a. accurately identifies the presence of disease b. accurately identifies the absence of disease c. has many false positives d. has many false negatives

accurately identifies the absence of disease

the product produced in amplification is termed

amplicon

define mutagen

any agent that causes genetic mutations

DEFINE flammable liquid.

any liquids with a flashpoint below 37C

define carcinogen

any substance that causes cancer

when should a pipette be wiped off? a. before lowering the meniscus to the calibration mark b. after lowering the meniscus to the calibration mark. c. never if it a volumetric pipette d. only if it is a TC pipette

before lowering the meniscus to the calibration mark

which of the following techniques is likely to an adverse effect on a capillary specimen? a. mixing the specimen containing an anticoag. by gently inverting the sealed specimen container several times after collection. b. puncture of the cleansed site after alcohol is completely dry. c. beginning collection immediately following puncture d.holding the hand from which blood is being collected in a downward position during collection

beginning collection immediately following puncture. first drop of blood should be wiped away before collection

error rates in the lab are estimated at what rates? a. between 1:10 and 1:100 results b. between 1:32 and 1:1260 results. c. between 1:164 and 1:8300 results. d. between 1:250 to 1:11500 results.

between 1:164 and 1:8300 results.

ALP is not found in A. bone B. intestine C. placenta D. brain

brain

materials such as strong acids and bases are classified as a. mutagens b. chemical irritants c. flammable liquids d. carcinogens

chemical irritants: any liquid or solid that causes visible destruction or rreversible alteration in human skin tissues at the site of contact

which of the following lipoproteins will form a creamy layer at the top of stored, non fast plasma specimens? a. high density lipoproteins b. low density lipoproteins c. chylomicrons d. very low density lipoproteins

chylomicrons

random error

defined as loss of precision as a result of inaccuracy

statistical error

defined as the distance or deviation from the average

systemic error

defined as the loss of accuracy consistently to a reproducible value different from the mean.

clerical error

defined as when numbers and letters are miskeyed into a lab instrument, calculator or computer.

a routine SPS with normal proteins result ____ zones or bands. a. five b. six c. ten d. twelve

five bands

what does FTE stand for?

full time equivalent

Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency

gamma bands are low, indicative of AAT.

also known as the "right to know" law which of these OSHA regulations first dealt with specific information related to the contents of chemicals used in the workplace? a. blood born pathogens 1910. 1030 b. formaldehyde 1910.1048 c. occupational exposure 1910.1450 d. hazard communications 1910.1200

hazard communications 1910.1200

Specimens for blood gas determination should be drawn into a syringe containing:

heparin

which of the following is the most common technique that is used by the clinical lab for TDM? a. immunoassay b. electrophoresis c. atomic absorption d. ion selective electrode voltimetry

immunoassay

all of the following hormones stiumlate gluconeogensis, the formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources such as amino acids, glycerol and fatty acids EXCEPT a. insulin b. T4 (thyroxine) c. cortisol d. glucagon

insulin

which of the following is the main function of the ASCP? a. set standards for CLIA competency testing. b.assure lab compliance with CLSI standards c. maintain a registry of certified personnel d. certify CLIA competency of lab personnel

maintain a registry of certified personnel

albuterol is a fasting acting bronchodilation used acutely during asthma attacks. all of the reasons below explain why TDM for albuterol available or common, EXCEPT? A. it is not chronically used drug so toxicity is less likely B> half life short, drug is cleared quickly C. wide therapeutic window D. narrow therapeutic window

narrow therapeutic window

proteins in a buffer that sets the pH at 8.6 will become ____ charged and migrate to the _____

negatively, cathode

based on the following specificity and sensitivity information, which of the answer choices is true? procedure 1: detected 70/100 true positives and 100/100 true negs procedure 2; detected 90/100 true pos and 80/100 true negs a. procedure 1 is more sensitive and less specific. b. procedure 2 is more sensitive and less specific. c. procedure 1 is more sensitive and more specific. d. procedure 2 is more sensitive and more specific.

procedure 2 is more sensitive and less specific.

the most accurate observation about osmotic pressure is that it is

proportional to the concentration of solute particles.

the degree in which a measure is considered in producing the same results when measuring the same analyte is called: a. reliability b. validity c. accuracy d. concurrency

reliability: shows the level of consistency of the results when running the same test with the same method.

the wavelenght of the light measured by a spectrophotometer is generally designated in nm. a nm is equal in m to a. 10^ -11 b. 10^ -9 c. 10^-4 d. 10^-2

10^ -9

Define sensitivity

lab test that can identify the presence of a disease in a person who will test positive for that disease high sensitivity low false negs

what represents a diagram of a spectrophotometer?

light source, monochrometer, cuvette detector, readout

an assayed glucose control produces the following 10 runs: 99, 99, 99, 98, 98, 98, 98, 97, 97, 97,. the established range for this control is 90-92. where does the problem lie with this control? a. precision b. accuracy c. sensitivity d. specificity

accuracy

which of the following proteins has the FASTEST electrophoretic mobility? a. ablumin b. alpha globluins c beta globulins d. gamma globulins

albumin

which of the following is a bronchodilator used to treat a 39 yr old male asthamtic patient? a. theophylline b. digoxin c. phenobarbital d. amitriptyline

theophylline: used to treat asthma and other airway diseases digoxin: treats heart failure and arrhythmias phenobarbital: prevents seizures amitriphtyline: antidepressant

all of the following statements below regarding amylase and lipase in pancreatitis are TRUE EXCEPT a. amylase + lipase are as predictive in chronic as in acute pancreatitis b. diagnosis sensitivity is increased by assaying both amy + lip. c. urinary amy: creatinine ratio is the most sensitive test for acute pancreatisis d. serum lipase peaks at 24 hrs after an episode of acute pancreatisis and remains high for 7-8 days.

amylase + lipase are as predictive in chronic as in acute pancreatitis

the production of netural 17-ketosteroids is a measure of which of the following? a. cholesterol production b. androgen production c. estrogen production d. growth hormone

androgen production

when evaluating a pt for a suspected wilsons disease dx, low values of plasma ceruloplasmin would be expected along with a. decreased urine copper b. increased urine copper c. normal urine coppe d. increased serum copper

increased urine copper

a cytochrome P450 2D6 (CYP2D6) ultrarapid metabolize (UM) would require _____ dose of an active drug that is metabolized by CYP2D6 than a CYP2D6 etensive metabolizer (EM)

is higher

define shift

a sudden change in values from one level of the control chart to another

the gradual deterioration of an instruments light source would most likely be reflected in the quality control (QC) results as: a. selection of reference materials used for validation purposes b. a shift when the QC data consecutively falls on one side of the mean in a period of time c. a source of random error d. as bias 1-2 SD on either side of the mean

a trend where the QC data continues to increase or decreased over a period of time

which of the following choices when describing the principles of competitive radioimmunoassay procedures? a, ab will react w/ preferentially with the labeled ag. b. ab will react w/ preferentially with the unlabeled ag. c. ab will react with labeled ag only. d. ab will react equally with labeled and unlabeled ag.

ab will react equally with labeled and unlabeled ag.

which of the following is true concerning atherosclerosis? a. atherosclerosis is the same as arteriosclerosis b. atherosclerosis is the deposition of plaques containing cholesterol and lipids on the innermost layer of the walls of large and medium sized arteries. c. atherosclerosis is the main outcome that is assessed in risk marker studies d. most human do no have significant atherosclerosis

atherosclerosis is the deposition of plaques containing cholesterol and lipids on the innermost layer of the walls of large and medium sized arteries.

all of the following are components of a basic single beam spectrophotometer EXCEPT a. beam splitter b. cuvette c. prism d. light source

beam splitter

which one of the following states regarding factors that affect the mobility or rate of migration in electrophoresis is NOT correct? a. charged particles migrate toward the same charged electrode b. the velocity of migration is controlled by the net charge of the particle c. the velocity of migration is controlled by the strength of the electric field d. the velocity of migration is controlled by the electrophoretic temp.

charged particles migrate toward the same charged electrode

define accuracy

closeness of a measurement to the true value

what is the purpose of the t-test?

comparison of two means from matched groups

all of the following are learning domains that must be considered in a medical lab science program EXCEPT? a. cognitive domain b. affective domain c. psychomotor domain d. comprehension domain

comprehension domain

zinc deficiency in the eldery is often caused by

decreased intake and absorption

root cause analysis define (RCA)

determines the underlying cause of adverse events

which of the following would you find in a primary hyperparathyroidsim case? a. elevated serum Ca and decreased serum P b. elevated serum Ca and elevated serum P c. decreased serum Ca and decreased serum P d. decreased serum Ca and increased serum P

elevated serum Ca and decreased serum P

which of the following is a cause of metabolic alkalosis? a. late stage of salicylate poisoning b. uncontrolled DM c. renal failure d. excessive vomiting

excessive vomiting

all of the following hormones produced primilary in pancreatic islets EXCEPT A. gastrin B. glucagon C. insulin D. pancreatic polypeptide

gastrin : produced in GI tract

an electrophoresis separation of LD isoenzyme that demonstrates elevation in LD-1 greater than LD-2 could be indication of

hemolysis

which of the following anticoag. will not produce a significant effect on Ca levels in plasma? a. EDTA b. heparin c. oxalates d. citrate

heparin

where are most acute phase proteins synthesized?

hepatocytes

which of the formulas given below is used to calculate MCHC? a. hgb x 10/rbc b. hct x 10 / rbc c. rbc / hgb x 10 d. hgb x 100 / hct

hgb x 100 / hct

the usual radiation source in atomic absorption instruments is the: a. xenon arc b. deuterium lamp c. tungsten lamp d. hollow cathode lamp

hollow cathode lamp

to assess drug conc. during the trough phase, blood should be drawn

immediately before the next dose is given

which of the following methods maybe employed to definitively identify bence-jones proteins? a. immunoelectrophoresis b. sulfosalicyclic acid precipitation c. heat precipitation at 40-60C d. urine dipstick

immunoelectrophoresis

classic automated blood cell counters are based on

impedance principle

a characteristic of a good cardiac biomarker is

it can be detected even if it present in a low conc. in the peripheral blood

which of these processes would be characteristic of "lean" lab production? a. hold routine specimens in the specimen processing area until all phlebs have completed their morning rounds. b. process and deliver pt samples to the testing areas in batches. c. load pt samples onto automated analyzers as the samples arrive to the work area. d. techs constantly leaving their workstations to locate regularly used supplies for their bench

load pt samples onto automated analyzers as the samples arrive to the work area.

monitoring of quality indicators define

mainenance of quality healthcare, prevent medical errors

if a positive result for a rapid HIV test is obtained. all of the following are possible next steps EXCEPT a. no additional testing required b. perform western blot c. perform IFA d. perform line umminoassay

no additional testing is required

a tool used to show chain of command defining responsibility and authority is

organizational chart

a serum sample is received in the clinical chemistry department of the lab. the first time sample is assayed, the result is 600mg/dL, the tech makes 2 mL of 1:2 dilution of the original sample. if only 1mL sample is analyzed. what would the result be? original sample is 600mg/dL a. 100 b. 300 c. 600

original: 600 dilution: 1:2 600/2 = 300 mg/dL

there are several different types of media that can be used in electrophoresis. Most methods uses a gel- cellulose acetate, agarose or polyacrylamide gel. which one of the following statements is true regarding these gels? A. the compounds used to make cellulose acetate gets are cacrinogenic. B. polyacrylamide gels are composed of polysaccahrides and acrylamides. C. polyacrylamide gels have the greatest resolution or separation of solutes. D. cellulose acetate and agarose gels are the more commonly used gels.

polyacrylamide gels have the greatest resolution or separation of solute

which of the following is true of genotype screening in pharmacogenomics? a. genotype screening gives a better overall picture of drug metabolism than measuring metabolism with probe drugs. b. genotyping does not take into account drug interactions which can affect metabolism . c. genotyping typically involves measuring only one mutation site or polymorhism

polyacrylamide gels have the greatest resolution or separation of solute

an indirect latex agglutination assay was used to test for CRP in a pt sample. the results of the serial dilution are provided: tube 1: 1:3 dilution positive tube 2: 1:6 dilution positive tube 3: 1:12 dilution positive tube 4: 1:24 dilution negative tube 5: 1:48 dilution negative a. positive 1:3 b. positive 1:6 c. positive 1:12 d. positive 1:24

positive 1:12

a reference lab has 23, 264 hrs of total paid labor time. of this amount 2781 hours are nonproductive hours. if your employees work 40 hours a week each year, what is the total number of productive FTE needed to run the lab?

productive hours = total house - nonproductive hours = 20,483 hours productive FTE = 20,483/ 2080 hours per person = 9.8 FTE

which one of the following is not an acute phase protein? a. alpha 1 antitrypsin b. CRP c. protein S d. fibrinogen

protein S is a glycoprotein

a male pt's urea nitrogen value is 15mg/dL and his creatinine is 5mg/dL. if this pt is not undergoing dialysis, what conclusion would you draw from these results? a. pt lab results are normal b. pt is in early stage of renal disease c. one of the values is in error d. pt has suffered muscle deterioration

pt is in early stage of renal disease

when 2 consecutive controls are greater than -/+ 2SD units from the mean. what should you do first? a. recalibrate, repeat controls, followed by pt specimens b. repeat controls before taking any corrective action c. shut down the equipment and call service d. prepare free standard

recalibrate, repeat controls, followed by pt specimens

to ensure quality within the preanalytical phase of lab testing. quality assurance acitivities including monitoring all of the following EXCEPT a. selection of reference materials used for validation purposes b. lab test utilization c. positive pt identifcation d. the stability of the pt specimens during transport

selection of reference materials used for validation purposes

the quality of a test to show a positive result in the presence of the disease it was designed to detect is known as: a. specificty b. sensitivity c. precision d. accuracy

sensitivty

all of the following are qunatitative methods for the determination of albumin EXCEPT a. serum protein electrophoresis b. nepelometry c. sulfosalicyclic acid precipitiation d. colorimetric spectrophotometry

sulfosalicyclic acid precipitation: semiquantitative method

in a PCR amplification method which of the following is amplified? A.target B. signal C. primer D. enzyme

target PCR is a target amplification that uses DNA polymerase. signal: the detection levels that an analyte is quantified or detected. primers: short sequences of bases made specifically to recognize and bind to the section of DNA to be amplified. enzyme: copies the DNA sequence on each half of the helix from the forward to the reverse primer to form 2 double helix DNA

define variance

the SD squared and is another distribution of QC data

define precision

the ability to produce the same values for replicate measurements of the same sample

defne dispersion

the amount that data are distributed on a levy jennings chart

which of the following factors would least affect an orally adminstered drug absorption and/or distribution in the body? a. regional blood flow b. the position of the pt when the drug is taken c. the integrity of the GI tract d. the pts age

the position of the pt when the drug is taken

define specificty

the probability that the pt who does not have the disease will test negative for the disease high specificity low false positives

an obese adult with premature arteriosclerosis is seen in the clinic. when her serum is tested no chylomicrons are presented. LDL levels are normal, and VLDL levels are increased. there is an increased in trigs and slight increased in cholesterol. lipoproteins revelas a heavy pre-beta band. she has no skin rash uric acid is increased. this pt most likely has what type of hyperlipoproteinemia? A. type I B. type III C. type IV D. type V

type IV (hypertriglyceridemia): high trig and increased VLDL (type I: deficiency of lipoprotein lipase. type II: most common, classified into IIa & IIb, depending on the elevation of trig and LDL cholesterol. type III: high chylomicrons & LDL. type V: high VLDL & chylomicrons. similar to type I.)