CISSP Official ISC2 practice tests - Domain 4 complete

60. What common security issue is often overlooked with cordless phones? A. Their signal is rarely encrypted and thus can be easily monitored. B. They use unlicensed frequencies. C. They can allow attackers access to wireless networks. D. They are rarely patched and are vulnerable to malware.

A. Most cordless phones don't use encryption, and even modern phones that use DECT (which does provide encryption) have already been cracked. This means that a determined attacker can almost always eavesdrop on cordless phones, and makes them a security risk if they're used for confidential communication.

28. Chris is building an Ethernet network and knows that he needs to span a distance of over 150 meters with his 1000Base-T network. What network technology should he use to help with this? A. Install a repeater or a concentrator before 100 meters. B. Use Category 7 cable, which has better shielding for higher speeds. C. Install a gateway to handle the distance. D. Use STP cable to handle the longer distance at high speeds.

A. A repeater or concentrator will amplify the signal, ensuring that the 100-meter distance limitation of 1000Base-T is not an issue. A gateway would be useful if network protocols were changing, while Cat7 cable is appropriate for a 10Gbps network at much shorter distances. STP cable is limited to 155 Mbps and 100 meters, which would leave Chris with network problems.

12. What network topology is shown in the image below (6 workstations 1 server in a ring)? A. A ring B. A bus C. A star D. A mesh

A. A ring connects all systems like points on a circle. A ring topology was used with Token Ring networks, and a token was passed between systems around the ring to allow each system to communicate. More modern networks may be described as a ring but are only physically a ring and not logically using a ring topology.

69. What type of firewall design is shown in the image below (Internet connected to router connected to firewall connected to private network)? A. Single tier B. Two tier C. Three tier D. Next generation

A. A single-tier firewall deployment is very simple and does not offer useful design options like a DMZ or separate transaction subnets.

62. Which type of firewall can be described as "a device that filters traffic based on its source, destination and the port it is sent from or is going to"? A. A static packet filtering firewall B. An Application layer gateway firewall C. A dynamic packet filtering firewall D. A stateful inspection firewall

A. A static packet filtering firewall is only aware of the information contained in the message header of packets: the source, destination, and port it is sent from and headed to. This means that they're not particularly smart, unlike Application layer firewalls that proxy traffic based on the service they support or stateful inspection firewalls (also known as dynamic packet inspection firewalls) that understand the relationship between systems and their communications.

63. A phreaking tool used to manipulate line voltages to steal long-distance service is known as what type of box? A. A black box B. A red box C. A blue box D. A white box

A. Black boxes are designed to steal long-distance service by manipulating line voltages. Red boxes simulate tones of coins being deposited into payphones; blue boxes were tone generators used to simulate the tones used for telephone networks; and white boxes included a dual tone, multifrequency generator to control phone systems.

64. Data streams occur at what three layers of the OSI model? A. Application, Presentation, and Session B. Presentation, Session, and Transport C. Physical, Data Link, and Network D. Data Link, Network, and Transport

A. Data streams are associated with the Application, Presentation, and Session layers. Once they reach the Transport layer, they become segments (TCP) or datagrams (UDP). From there, they are converted to packets at the Network layer, frames at the Data Link layer, and bits at the Physical layer.

1. What important factor listed below differentiates Frame Relay from X.25? A. Frame Relay supports multiple PVCs over a single WAN carrier connection. B. Frame Relay is a cell-switching technology instead of a packet-switching technology like X.25. C. Frame Relay does not provide a Committed Information Rate (CIR). D. Frame Relay only requires a DTE on the provider side.

A. Frame Relay supports multiple private virtual circuits (PVCs), unlike X.25. It is a packet-switching technology that provides a Committed Information Rate (CIR), which is a minimum bandwidth guarantee provided by the service provider to customers. Finally, Frame Relay requires a DTE/DCE at each connection point, with the DTE providing access to the Frame Relay network, and a provider-supplied DCE, which transmits the data over the network.

91. Lauren has been asked to replace her organization's PPTP implementation with an L2TP implementation for security reasons. What is the primary security reason that L2TP would replace PPTP? A. L2TP can use IPsec. B. L2TP creates a point-to-point tunnel, avoiding multipoint issues. C. PPTP doesn't support EAP. D. PPTP doesn't properly encapsulate PPP packets.

A. L2TP can use IPsec to provide encryption of traffic, ensuring confidentiality of the traffic carried via an L2TP VPN. PPTP sends the initial packets of a session in plaintext, potentially including usernames and hashed passwords. PPTP does support EAP and was designed to encapsulate PPP packets. All VPNs are point to point, and multipoint issues are not a VPN problem.

22. During a security assessment, Jim discovers that the organization he is working with uses a multilayer protocol to handle SCADA systems and recently connected the SCADA network to the rest of the organization's production network. What concern should he raise about serial data transfers carried via TCP/IP? A. SCADA devices that are now connected to the network can now be attacked over the network. B. Serial data over TCP/IP cannot be encrypted. C. Serial data cannot be carried in TCP packets. D. TCP/IP's throughput can allow for easy denial of service attacks against serial devices.

A. Multilayer protocols like DNP3 allow SCADA and other systems to use TCP/IPbased networks to communicate. Many SCADA devices were never designed to beexposed to a network, and adding them to a potentially insecure network can createsignificant risks. TLS or other encryption can be used on TCP packets, meaning thateven serial data can be protected. Serial data can be carried via TCP packets becauseTCP packets don't care about their content; it is simply another payload. Finally,TCP/IP does not have a specific throughput asdesigned, so issues with throughput are device-level issues.

21. Which email security solution provides two major usage modes: (1) signed messages that provide integrity, sender authentication, and nonrepudiation; and (2) an enveloped message mode that provides integrity, sender authentication, and confidentiality? A. S/MIME B. MOSS C. PEM D. DKIM

A. S/MIME supports both signed messages and a secure envelope method. While the functionality of S/MIME can be replicated with other tools, the secure envelope is an S/MIME-specific concept. MOSS, or MIME Object Security Services, and PEM can also both provide authentication, confidentiality, integrity, and nonrepudiation, while DKIM, or Domain Keys Identified Mail, is a domain validation tool.

8. Chris is configuring IDS to monitor for unencrypted FTP traffic. What ports should Chris use in his configuration? A. TCP 20 and 21 B. TCP 21 only C. UDP port 69 D. TCP port 21 and UDP port 21

A. The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) operates on TCP ports 20 and 21. UDP port 69 is used for the Trivial File Transfer Protocol, or TFTP, while UDP port 21 is not used for any common file transfer protocol.

54. Segmentation, sequencing, and error checking all occur at what layer of the OSI model that is associated with SSL, TLS, and UDP? A. The Transport layer B. The Network layer C. The Session layer D. The Presentation layer

A. The Transport layer provides logical connections between devices, including end-toendtransport services to ensure that data is delivered. Transport layer protocols include TCP, UDP, SSL, and TLS.

53. If your organization needs to allow attachments in email to support critical business processes, what are the two best options for helping to avoid security problems caused by attachments? A. Train your users and use anti-malware tools. B. Encrypt your email and use anti-malware tools. C. Train your users and require S/MIME for all email. D. Use S/MIME by default and remove all ZIP (.zip) file attachments.

A. User awareness is one of the most important tools when dealing with attachments. Attachments are often used as a vector for malware, and aware users can help prevent successful attacks by not opening the attachments. Anti-malware tools, including antivirus software, can help detect known threats before users even see the attachments. Encryption, including tools like S/MIME, won't help prevent attachment-based security problems, and removing ZIP file attachments will only stop malware that is sent via those ZIP files.

61. Lauren's organization has deployed VoIP phones on the same switches that the desktop PCs are on. What security issue could this create, and what solution would help? A. VLAN hopping, use physically separate switches. B. VLAN hopping, use encryption. C. Caller ID spoofing, MAC filtering D. Denial of service attacks, use a firewall between networks.

A. VLAN hopping between the voice and computer VLANs can be accomplished when devices share the same switch infrastructure. Using physically separate switches can prevent this attack. Encryption won't help with VLAN hopping because it relies on header data that the switch needs to read (and this is unencrypted), while Caller ID spoofing is an inherent problem with VoIP systems. A denial of service is always a possibility, but it isn't specifically a VoIP issue and a firewall may not stop the problem if it's on a port that must be allowed through.

52. Ben is designing a Wi-Fi network and has been asked to choose the most secure option for the network. Which wireless security standard should he choose? A. WPA2 B. WPA C. WEP D. AES

A. WPA2, the replacement for WPA, does not suffer from the security issues that WEP, the original wireless security protocol, and WPA, its successor, both suffer from. AES is used in WPA2 but is not specifically a wireless security standard.

35. In her role as an information security professional, Susan has been asked to identify areas where her organization's wireless network may be accessible even though it isn't intended to be. What should Susan do to determine where her organization's wireless network is accessible? A. A site survey B. Warwalking C. Wardriving D. A design map

A. Wardriving and warwalking are both processes used to locate wireless networks, but are not typically as detailed and thorough as a site survey, and design map is a made-up term.

Ben is an information security professional at an organization that is replacing its physical servers with virtual machines. As the organization builds its virtual environment, it is decreasing the number of physical servers it uses while purchasing more powerful servers to act as the virtualization platforms. 74. Ben is concerned about exploits that allow VM escape. What option should Ben suggest to help limit the impact of VM escape exploits? A. Separate virtual machines onto separate physical hardware based on task or data types. B. Use VM escape detection tools on the underlying hypervisor. C. Restore machines to their original snapshots on a regular basis. D. Use a utility like Tripwire to look for changes in the virtual machines.

A. While virtual machine escape has only been demonstrated in laboratory environments, the threat is best dealt with by limiting what access to the underlying hypervisor can prove to a successful tracker. Segmenting by data types or access levels can limit the potential impact of a hypervisor compromise. If attackers can access the underlying system, restricting the breach to only similar data types or systems will limit the impact. Escape detection tools are not available on the market, restoring machines to their original snapshots will not prevent the exploit from occuring again, and Tripwire detects file changes and is unlikely to catch exploits that escape the virtual machines themselves.

58. What is the default subnet mask for a Class B network? A. 255.0.0.0 B. 255.255.0.0 C. 255.254.0.0 D. 255.255.255.0

B. A Class B network holds 2^16 systems, and its default network mask is 255.255.0.0.

24. An attack that causes a service to fail by exhausting all of a system's resources is what type of attack? A. A worm B. A denial of service attack C. A virus D. A smurf attack

B. A denial of service attack is an attack that causes a service to fail or to be unavailable. Exhausting a system's resources to cause a service to fail is a common form of denial of service attack. A worm is a self-replicating form of malware that propagates via a network, a virus is a type of malware that can copy itself to spread, and a Smurf attack is a distributed denial of service attack (DDoS) that spoofs a victim's IP address to systems using an IP broadcast, resulting in traffic from all of those systems to the target.

18. What network tool can be used to protect the identity of clients while providing Internet access by accepting client requests, altering the source addresses of the requests, mapping requests to clients, and sending the modified requests out to their destination? A. A gateway B. A proxy C. A router D. A firewall

B. A proxy is a form of gateway that provide clients with a filtering, caching, or other service that protects their information from remote systems. A router connects networks, while a firewall uses rules to limit traffic permitted through it. A gateway translates between protocols.

87. A denial of service (DoS) attack that sends fragmented TCP packets is known as what kind of attack? A. Christmas tree B. Teardrop C. Stack killer D. Frag grenade

B. A teardrop attack uses fragmented packets to target a flaw in how the TCP stack on a system handles fragment reassembly. If the attack is successful, the TCP stack fails, resulting in a denial of service. Christmas tree attacks set all of the possible TCP flags on a packet, thus "lighting it up like a Christmas tree." Stack killer and frag grenade attacks are made-up answers.

79. What type of firewall design does the image below show (Internet connected to router connected to firewall connected to private network & DMZ)? A. A single-tier firewall B. A two-tier firewall C. A three-tier firewall D. A fully protected DMZ firewall

B. A two-tier firewall uses a firewall with multiple interfaces or multiple firewalls in series. This image shows a firewall with two protected interfaces, with one used for a DMZ and one used for a protected network. This allows traffic to be filtered between each of the zones (Internet, DMZ, and private network).

26. The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) and the Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) operate at what layer of the OSI model? A. Layer 1 B. Layer 2 C. Layer 3 D. Layer 4

B. ARP and RARP operate at the Data Link layer, the second layer of the OSI model. Both protocols deal with physical hardware addresses, which are used above the Physical layer (layer 1) and below the Network layer (layer 3), thus falling at the Data Link layer.

37. One of Susan's attacks during a penetration test involves inserting false ARP data into a system's ARP cache. When the system attempts to send traffic to the address it believes belongs to a legitimate system, it will instead send that traffic to a system she controls. What is this attack called? A. RARP Flooding B. ARP cache poisoning C. A denial of ARP attack D. ARP buffer blasting

B. ARP cache poisoning occurs when false ARP data is inserted into a system's ARP cache, allowing the attacker to modify its behavior. RARP flooding, denial of ARP attacks, and ARP buffer blasting are all made-up terms.

83. What type of firewall is known as a second-generation firewall? A. Static packet filtering firewalls B. Application-level gateway firewalls C. Stateful inspection firewalls D. Unified Threat Management

B. Application-level gateway firewalls are known as second-generation firewalls. Static packet filtering firewalls are known as first-generation firewalls, and stateful packet inspection firewalls are known as third-generation firewalls. UTM, or Unified Threat Management is a concept used in next generation firewalls.

95. What speed is Category 3 UTP cable rated for? A. 5 Mbps B. 10 Mbps C. 100 Mbps D. 1000 Mbps

B. Category 3 UTP cable is primarily used for phone cables and was also used for early Ethernet networks where it provided 10 Mbps of throughput. Cat 5 cable provides 100 Mbps (and 1000 Mbps if it is Cat 5e). Cat 6 cable can also provide 1000 Mbps.

96. What issue occurs when data transmitted over one set of wires is picked up by another set of wires? A. Magnetic interference B. Crosstalk C. Transmission absorption D. Amplitude modulation

B. Crosstalk occurs when data transmitted on one set of wires is picked up on another set of wires. Interference like this is electromagnetic rather than simply magnetic, transmission absorption is a made-up term, and amplitude modulation is how AM radio works.

Ben is an information security professional at an organization that is replacing its physical servers with virtual machines. As the organization builds its virtual environment, it is decreasing the number of physical servers it uses while purchasing more powerful servers to act as the virtualization platforms. 73. The VM administrators recommend enabling cut and paste between virtual machines. What security concern should Ben raise about this practice? A. It can cause a denial of service condition. B. It can serve as a covert channel. C. It can allow viruses to spread. D. It can bypass authentication controls.

B. Cut and paste between virtual machines can bypass normal network-based data loss prevention tools and monitoring tools like an IDS or IPS. Thus, it can act as a covert channel, allowing the transport of data between security zones. So far, cut and paste has not been used as a method for malware spread in virtual environments and has not been associated with denial of service attacks. Cut and paste requires users to be logged in and does not bypass authentication requirements.

19. During troubleshooting, Chris uses the nslookup command to check the IP address of a host he is attempting to connect to. The IP he sees in the response is not the IP that should resolve when the lookup is done. What type of attack has likely been conducted? A. DNS spoofing B. DNS poisoning C. ARP spoofing D. A Cain attack

B. DNS poisoning occurs when an attacker changes the domain name to IP address mappings of a system to redirect traffic to alternate systems. DNS spoofing occurs when an attacker sends false replies to a requesting system, beating valid replies from the actual DNS server. ARP spoofing provides a false hardware address in response to queries about an IP, and Cain & Abel is a powerful Windows hacking tool, but a Cain attack is not a specific type of attack.

17. Ben has configured his network to not broadcast a SSID. Why might Ben disable SSID broadcast, and how could his SSID be discovered? A. Disabling SSID broadcast prevents attackers from discovering the encryption key. The SSID can be recovered from decrypted packets. B. Disabling SSID broadcast hides networks from unauthorized personnel. The SSID can be discovered using a wireless sniffer. C. Disabling SSID broadcast prevents issues with beacon frames. The SSID can be recovered by reconstructing the BSSID. D. Disabling SSID broadcast helps avoid SSID conflicts. The SSID can be discovered by attempting to connect to the network.

B. Disabling SSID broadcast can help prevent unauthorized personnel from attempting to connect to the network. Since the SSID is still active, it can be discovered by using a wireless sniffer. Encryption keys are not related to SSID broadcast, beacon frames are used to broadcast the SSID, and it is possible to have multiple networks with the same SSID.

80. What challenge is most common for endpoint security system deployments? A. Compromises B. The volume of data C. Monitoring encrypted traffic on the network D. Handling non-TCP protocols

B. Endpoint security solutions face challenges due to the sheer volume of data that they can create. When each workstation is generating data about events, this can be a massive amount of data. Endpoint security solutions should reduce the number of ompromises when properly implemented, and they can also help by monitoring traffic after it is decrypted on the local host. Finally, non-TCP protocols are relatively uncommon on modern networks, making this a relatively rare concern for endpoint security system implementations.

76. When a host on an Ethernet network detects a collision and transmits a jam signal, what happens next? A. The host that transmitted the jam signal is allowed to retransmit while all other hosts pause until that transmission is received successfully. B. All hosts stop transmitting and each host waits a random period of time before attempting to transmit again. C. All hosts stop transmitting and each host waits a period of time based on how recently it successfully transmitted. D. Hosts wait for the token to be passed and then resume transmitting data as they pass the token.

B. Ethernet networks use Carrier-Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) technology. When a collision is detected and a jam signal is sent, hosts wait a random period of time before attempting retransmission

84. Steve has been tasked with implementing a network storage protocol over an IP network. What storage-centric converged protocol is he likely to use in his implementation? A. MPLS B. FCoE C. SDN D. VoIP

B. Fiber Channel over Ethernet allows Fiber Channel communications over Ethernet networks, allowing existing high-speed networks to be used to carry storage traffic. This avoids the cost of a custom cable plant for a Fiber Channel implementation. MPLS, or Multiprotocol label Switching, is used for high performance networking; VoIP is Voice over IP; and SDN is Software-Defined Networking.

9. FHSS, DSSS, and OFDM all use what wireless communication method that occurs over multiple frequencies simultaneously? A. Wi-Fi B. Spread Spectrum C. Multiplexing D. Orthogonal modulation

B. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS), Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS), and Orthogonal Frequency-Division Multiplexing (OFDM) all use spread spectrum techniques to transmit on more than one frequency at the same time. Neither FHSS nor DHSS uses orthogonal modulation, while multiplexing describes combining multiple signals over a shared medium of any sort. Wi-Fi may receive interference from FHSS systems but doesn't use it.

68. Cable modems, ISDN, and DSL are all examples of what type of technology? A. Baseband B. Broadband C. Digital D. Broadcast

B. ISDN, cable modems, DSL, and T1 and T3 lines are all examples of broadband technology that can support multiple simultaneous signals. They are analog, not digital, and are not broadcast technologies.

Lauren's organization has used a popular instant messaging service for a number of years. Recently, concerns have been raised about the use of instant messaging.(Internet via -A- to Firewall then router then switch then (a) workstation with IM traffic via TCP 80 & (c) workstation, Workstation (b) receives from Internet IM traffic via TCP 80) 31. How could Lauren's company best address a desire for secure instant messaging for users of internal systems A and C? A. Use a 3rd party instant messaging service. B. Implement and use a locally hosted IM service. C. Use HTTPS. D. Discontinue use of IM and instead use email, which is more secure.

B. If a business need requires instant messaging, using a local instant messaging server is the best option. This prevents traffic from traveling to a third-party server and can offer additional benefits such as logging, archiving, and control of security options like the use of encryption.

2. During a security assessment of a wireless network, Jim discovers that LEAP is in use on a network using WPA. What recommendation should Jim make? A. Continue to use LEAP. It provides better security than TKIP for WPA networks. B. Use an alternate protocol like PEAP or EAP-TLS and implement WPA2 if supported. C. Continue to use LEAP to avoid authentication issues, but move to WPA2. D. Use an alternate protocol like PEAP or EAP-TLS, and implement Wired Equivalent Privacy to avoid wireless security issues.

B. LEAP, the Lightweight Extensible Authentication Protocol. is a Cisco proprietary protocol designed to handle problems with TKIP. Unfortunately, LEAP has significant security issues as well and should not be used. Any modern hardware should support WPA2 and technologies like PEAP or EAP-TLS. Using WEP, the predecessor to WPA and WPA2, would be a major step back in security for any network.

55. The Windows ip config command displays the following information: BC-5F-F4-7B-4B-7D What term describes this, and what information can be gathered from it? A. The IP address, the network location of the system B. The MAC address, the network interface card's manufacturer C. The MAC address, the media type in use D. The IPv6 client ID, the network interface card's manufacturer

B. Machine Access Control (MAC) addresses are the hardware address the machine uses for layer 2 communications. The MAC addresses include an organizationally unique identifier (OUI), which identifies the manufacturer. MAC addresses can be changed, so this is not a guarantee of accuracy, but under normal circumstances you can tell what manufacturer made the device by using the MAC address.

32. Which of the following drawbacks is a concern when multilayer protocols are allowed? A. A range of protocols may be used at higher layers. B. Covert channels are allowed. C. Filters cannot be bypassed. D. Encryption can't be incorporated at multiple layers.

B. Multilayer protocols create three primary concerns for security practitioners: They can conceal covert channels (and thus covert channels are allowed), filters can be bypassed by traffic concealed in layered protocols, and the logical boundaries put in place by network segments can be bypassed under some circumstances. Multilayer protocols allow encryption at various layers and support a range of protocols at higher layers.

20. A remote access tool that copies what is displayed on a desktop PC to a remote computer is an example of what type of technology? A. Remote node operation B. Screen scraping C. Remote control D. RDP

B. Screen scrapers copy the actual screen displayed and display it at a remote location. RDP provides terminal sessions without doing screen scraping, remote node operation is the same as dial-up access, and remote control is a means of controlling a remote system (screen scraping is a specialized subset of remote control).

67. Jim's organization uses fax machines to receive sensitive data. Since the fax machine is located in a public area, what actions should Jim take to deal with issues related to faxes his organization receives? A. Encrypt the faxes and purge local memory. B. Disable automatic printing and purge local memory. C. Encrypt faxes and disable automatic printing. D. Use link encryption and enable automatic printing.

B. Sensitive information contained in faxes should not be left in a public area. Disabling automatic printing will help prevent unintended viewing of the faxes. Purging local memory after the faxes are printed will ensure that unauthorized individuals can't make additional copies of faxes. Encryption would help keep the fax secure during transmission but won't help with the public location and accessibility of the fax machine itself, and of course, enabling automatic printing will only make casual access easier.

82. Susan is writing a best practices statement for her organizational users who need to use Bluetooth. She knows that there are many potential security issues with Bluetooth and wants to provide the best advice she can. Which of the following sets of guidance should Susan include? A. Use Bluetooth's built-in strong encryption, change the default PIN on your device, turn off discovery mode, and turn off Bluetooth when it's not in active use. B. Use Bluetooth only for those activities that are not confidential, change the default PIN on your device, turn off discovery mode, and turn off Bluetooth when it's not in active use. C. Use Bluetooth's built-in strong encryption, use extended (8 digit or longer) Bluetooth PINs, turn off discovery mode, and turn off Bluetooth when it's not in active use. D. Use Bluetooth only for those activities that are not confidential, use extended (8 digit or longer) Bluetooth PINs, turn off discovery mode, and turn off Bluetooth when it's not in active use.

B. Since Bluetooth doesn't provide strong encryption, it should only be used for activities that are not confidential. Bluetooth PINs are four-digit codes that often default to 0000. Turning it off and ensuring that your devices are not in discovery mode can help prevent Bluetooth attacks.

Lauren's organization has used a popular instant messaging service for a number of years. Recently, concerns have been raised about the use of instant messaging. (Internet via -A- to Firewall then router then switch then (a) workstation with IM traffic via TCP 80 & (c) workstation, Workstation (b) receives from Internet IM traffic via TCP 80) 29. What protocol is the instant messaging traffic most likely to use based on the diagram? A. AOL B. HTTP C. SMTP D. HTTPS

B. TCP 80 is typically HTTP.

10. Which authentication protocol commonly used for PPP links encrypts both the username and password and uses a challenge/response dialog that cannot be replayed and periodically re-authenticates remote systems throughout its use in a session? A. PAP B. CHAP C. EAP D. LEAP

B. The Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol, or CHAP, is used by PPP servers to authenticate remote clients. It encrypts both the username and password and performs periodic reauthentication while connected using techniques to prevent replay attacks. LEAP provides reauthentication but was designed for WEP, while PAP sends passwords unencrypted. EAP is extensible and was used for PPP connections, but it doesn't directly address the listed items.

Chris is designing layered network security for his organization. Using the diagram below (Internet via -A- to Firewall then router then switch then 5 workstations, Web server connected to firewall via -B-, VPN concentrator connected to router via -C-) 13. What type of firewall design is shown in the diagram? A. A single-tier firewall B. A two-tier firewall C. A three-tier firewall D. A four-tier firewall

B. The firewall in the diagram has two protected zones behind it, making it a two-tier firewall design.

98. Chris is setting up a hotel network, and needs to ensure that systems in each room or suite can connect to each other, but systems in other suites or rooms cannot. At the same time, he needs to ensure that all systems in the hotel can reach the Internet. What solution should he recommend as the most effective business solution? A. Per-room VPNs B. VLANs C. Port security D. Firewalls

B. VLANs can be used to logically separate groups of network ports while still providing access to an uplink. Per-room VPNs would create significant overhead for support as well as create additional expenses. Port security is used to limit what systems can connect to ports, but it doesn't provide network security between systems. Finally, while firewalls might work, they would add additional expense and complexity without adding any benefits over a VLAN solution.

97. What two key issues with the implementation of RC4 make Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) even weaker than it might otherwise be? A. Its use of a static common key and client-set encryption algorithms B. Its use of a static common key and a limited number of initialization vectors C. Its use of weak asymmetric keys and a limited number of initialization vectors D. Its use of a weak asymmetric key and client-set encryption algorithms

B. WEP's implementation of RC4 is weakened by its use of a static common key and a limited number of initialization vectors. It does not use asymmetric encryption, and clients do not select encryption algorithms.

34. Chris uses a cellular hot spot (modem) to provide Internet access when he is traveling. If he leaves the hot spot connected to his PC while his PC is on his organization's corporate network, what security issue might he cause? A. Traffic may not be routed properly, exposing sensitive data. B. His system may act as a bridge from the Internet to the local network. C. His system may be a portal for a reflected DDoS attack. D. Security administrators may not be able to determine his IP address if a security issue occurs.

B. When a workstation or other device is connected simultaneously to both a secure and a nonsecure network like the Internet, it may act as a bridge, bypassing the security protections located at the edge of a corporate network. It is unlikely that traffic will be routed improperly leading to the exposure of sensitive data, as traffic headed to internal systems and networks is unlikely to be routed to the external network. Reflected DDoS attacks are used to hide identities rather than to connect through to an internal network, and security administrators of managed systems should be able to determine both the local and wireless IP addresses his system uses.

89. One of the findings that Jim made when performing a security audit was the use of non-IP protocols in a private network. What issue should Jim point out that may result from the use of these non-IP protocols? A. They are outdated and cannot be used on modern PCs. B. They may not be able to be filtered by firewall devices. C. They may allow Christmas tree attacks. D. IPX extends on the IP protocol and may not be supported by all TCP stacks.

B. While non-IP protocols like IPX/SPX, NetBEUI, and AppleTalk are rare in modern networks, they can present a challenge because many firewalls are not capable of filtering them. This can create risks when they are necessary for an application or system's function because they may have to be passed without any inspection. Christmas tree attacks set all of the possible flags on a TCP packet (and are thus related to an IP protocol), IPX is not an IP-based protocol, and while these protocols are outdated, there are ways to make even modern PCs understand them.

25. What speed and frequency range is used by 802.11n? A. 54 Mbps, 5 GHz B. 200+ Mbps, 5GHz C. 200+ Mbps, 2.4 and 5 GHz D. 1 Gbps, 5 GHz

C. 802.11n can operate at speeds over 200 Mbps, and it can operate on both the 2.4 and 5 GHz frequency range. 802.11g operates at 54 Mbps using the 2.4 GHz frequency range, and 802.11ac is capable of 1 Gbps using the 5 GHz range. 802.11a and b are both outdated and are unlikely to be encountered in modern network installations.

78. What is the speed of a T3 line? A. 128 kbps B. 1.544 Mbps C. 44.736 Mbps D. 155 Mbps

C. A T3 (DS-3) line is capable of 44.736 Mbps. This is often referred to as 45 Mbps. A T1 is 1.544 Mbps, ATM is 155 Mbps, and ISDN is often 64 or 128 Mbps.

33. What network topology is shown in the image below (workstations on both sides of cable)? A. A ring B. A star C. A bus D. A mesh

C. A bus can be linear or tree-shaped and connects each system to trunk or backbone cable. Ethernet networks operate on a bus topology.

4. Lauren's and Nick's PCs simultaneously send traffic by transmitting at the same time. What network term describes the range of systems on a network that could be affected by this same issue? A. The subnet B. The supernet C. A collision domain D. A broadcast domain

C. A collision domain is the set of systems that could cause a collision if they transmitted at the same time. Systems outside of a collision domain cannot cause a collision if they send at the same time. This is important, as the number of systems in a collision domain increases the likelihood of network congestion due to an increase in collisions. A broadcast domain is the set of systems that can receive a broadcast from each other. A subnet is a logical division of a network, while a supernet is made up of two or more networks.

92. Jim is building a research computing system that benefits from being part of a full mesh topology between systems. In a five-node full mesh topology design, how many connections will an individual node have? A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five

C. A full mesh topology directly connects each machine to every other machine on the network. For five systems, this means four connections per system.

65. Chris needs to design a firewall architecture that can support separately a DMZ, a database, and a private internal network. What type of design should he use, and how many firewalls does he need? A. A four-tier firewall design with two firewalls B. A two-tier firewall design with three firewalls C. A three-tier firewall design with at least one firewall D. A single-tier firewall design with three firewalls

C. A three-tier design separates three distinct protected zones and can be accomplished with a single firewall that has multiple interfaces. Single- and two-tier designs don't support the number of protected networks needed in this scenario, while a four-tier design would provide a tier that isn't needed.

Chris is designing layered network security for his organization. Using the diagram below 15. If Chris wants to stop cross-site scripting attacks against the web server, what is the best device for this purpose, and where should he put it? A. A firewall, location A B. An IDS, location A C. An IPS, location B D. A WAF, location C

C. An intrusion protection system can scan traffic and stop both known and unknown attacks. A web application firewall, or WAF, is also a suitable technology, but placing it at location C would only protect from attacks via the organization's VPN, which should only be used by trusted users. A firewall typically won't have the ability to identify and stop cross-site scripting attacks, and IDS systems only monitor and don't stop attacks.

3. Ben has connected his laptop to his tablet PC using an 802.11g connection. What wireless network mode has he used to connect these devices? A. Infrastructure mode B. Wired extension mode C. Ad hoc mode D. Stand-alone mode

C. Ben is using ad hoc mode, which directly connects two clients. It can be easy to confuse this with stand-alone mode, which connects clients using a wireless access point, but not to wired resources like a central network. Infrastructure mode connects endpoints to a central network, not directly to each other. Finally, wired extension mode uses a wireless access point to link wireless clients to a wired network.

100. Ben knows that his organization wants to be able to validate the identity of other organizations based on their domain name when receiving and sending email. What tool should Ben recommend? A. PEM B. S/MIME C. DKIM D. MOSS

C. Domain Keys Identified Mail, or DKIM, is designed to allow assertions of domain identity to validate email. S/MIME, PEM, and MOSS are all solutions that can provide authentication, integrity, nonrepudiation, and confidentiality, depending on how they are used.

57. Ben is troubleshooting a network and discovers that the NAT router he is connected to has the 192.168.x.x subnet as its internal network and that its external IP is 192.168.1.40. What problem is he encountering? A. 192.168.x.x is a non-routable network and will not be carried to the Internet. B. 192.168.1.40 is not a valid address because it is reserved by RFC 1918. C. Double NATing is not possible using the same IP range. D. The upstream system is unable to de-encapsulate his packets and he needs to use PAT instead.

C. Double NATing isn't possible with the same IP range; the same IP addresses cannot appear inside and outside of a NAT router. RFC 1918 addresses are reserved, but only so they are not used and routable on the Internet, and changing to PAT would not fix the issue.

50. What network technology is best described as a token-passing network that uses a pair of rings with traffic flowing in opposite directions? A. A ring topology B. Token Ring C. FDDI D. SONET

C. FDDI, or Fiber Distributed Data Interface, is a token-passing network that uses a pair of rings with traffic flowing in opposite directions. It can bypass broken segments by dropping the broken point and using the second, unbroken ring to continue to function. Token Ring also uses tokens, but it does not use a dual loop. SONET is a protocol for sending multiple optical streams over fiber, and a ring topology is a design, not a technology.

Lauren's organization has used a popular instant messaging service for a number of years. Recently, concerns have been raised about the use of instant messaging.(Internet via -A- to Firewall then router then switch then (a) workstation with IM traffic via TCP 80 & (c) workstation, Workstation (b) receives from Internet IM traffic via TCP 80) 30. What security concern does sending internal communications from A to B cause? A. The firewall does not protect system B. B. System C can see the broadcast traffic from system A to B. C. It is traveling via an unencrypted protocol. D. IM does not provide nonrepudation.

C. HTTP traffic is typically sent via TCP 80. Unencrypted HTTP traffic can be easily captured at any point between A and B, meaning that the instant messaging solution chosen does not provide confidentiality for the organization's corporate communications.

6. Gary is deploying a wireless network and wants to deploy the fastest possible wireless technology. Of the 802.11 standards listed below, which is the fastest 2.4 GHz option he has? A. 802.11a B. 802.11g C. 802.11n D. 802.11ac

C. He should choose 802.11n, which supports 200+ Mbps in the 2.4 GHz or the 5 GHz frequency range. 802.11a and 802.11ac are both 5 GHz only, while 802.11g is only capable of 54 Mbps.

71. ICMP, RIP, and network address translation all occur at what layer of the OSI model? A. Layer 1 B. Layer 2 C. Layer 3 D. Layer 4

C. ICMP, RIP, and network address translation all occur at layer 3, the Network layer.

77. IPX, AppleTalk, and NetBEUI are all examples of what? A. Routing protocols B. UDP protocols C. Non-IP protocols D. TCP protocols

C. IPX, AppleTalk, and NetBEUI are all examples of non-IP protocols. TCP and UDP are both IP protocols, while routing protocols are used to send information about how traffic should be routed through networks.

47. Which of the following options includes standards or protocols that exist in layer 6 of the OSI model? A. NFS, SQL, and RPC B. TCP, UDP, and TLS C. JPEG, ASCII, and MIDI D. HTTP, FTP, SMTP

C. Layer 6, the Presentation layer, transforms data from the Application layer into formats that other systems can understand by formatting and standardizing the data. That means that standards like JPEG, ASCII, and MIDI are used at the Presentation layer for data. TCP, UDP, and TLS are used at the Transport layer; NFS, SQL, and RPC operate at the Session layer; and HTTP, FTP, and SMTP are Application layer protocols.

90. Angela needs to choose between EAP, PEAP, and LEAP for secure authentication. Which authentication protocol should she choose and why? A. EAP, because it provides strong encryption by default B. LEAP, because it provides frequent re-authentication and changing of WEP keys C. PEAP, because it provides encryption and doesn't suffer from the same vulnerabilities that LEAP does D. None of these options can provide secure authentication, and an alternate solution should be chosen.

C. Of the three answers, PEAP is the best solution. It encapsulates EAP in a TLS tunnel, providing strong encryption. LEAP is a Cisco proprietary protocol that was originally designed to help deal with problems in WEP. LEAP's protections have been defeated, making it a poor choice.

Ben is an information security professional at an organization that is replacing its physical servers with virtual machines. As the organization builds its virtual environment, it is decreasing the number of physical servers it uses while purchasing more powerful servers to act as the virtualization platforms. 72. The IDS Ben is responsible for is used to monitor communications in the data center using a mirrored port on the data center switch. What traffic will Ben see once the majority of servers in the data center have been virtualized? A. The same traffic he currently sees B. All inter-VM traffic C. Only traffic sent outside of the VM environment D. All inter-hypervisor traffic

C. One of the visibility risks of virtualization is that communication between servers and systems using virtual interfaces can occur "inside" of the virtual environment. This means that visibility into traffic in the virtualization environment has to be purpose built as part of its design. Option D is correct but incomplete because interhypervisor traffic isn't the only traffic the IDS will see.

49. There are four common VPN protocols. Which group of four below contains all of the common VPN protocols? A. PPTP, LTP, L2TP, IPsec B. PPP, L2TP, IPsec, VNC C. PPTP, L2F, L2TP, IPsec D. PPTP, L2TP, IPsec, SPAP

C. PPTp, L2F, L2TP, and IPsec are the most common VPN protocols. TLS is also used for an increasingly large percentage of VPN connections and may appear at some point in the CISSP exam. PPP is a dial-up protocol, LTP is not a protocol, and SPAP is the Shiva Password Authentication Protocol sometimes used with PPTP.

44. Jim's remote site has only ISDN as an option for connectivity. What type of ISDN should he look for to get the maximum speed possible? A. BRI B. BPRI C. PRI D. D channel

C. PRI, or Primary Rate Interface, can use between 2 and 23 64 Kbps channels, with a maximum potential bandwidth of 1.544 Mbps. Actual speeds will be lower due to the D channel, which can't be used for actual data transmission, but PRI beats BRI's two B channels paired with a D channel for 144 Kbps of bandwidth.

45. SPIT attacks target what technology? A. Virtualization platforms B. Web services C. VoIP systems D. Secure Process Internal Transfers

C. SPIT stands for Spam over Internet Telephony and targets VoIP systems.

11. Which of the following options is not a common best practice for securing a wireless network? A. Turn on WPA2. B. Enable MAC filtering if used for a relatively small group of clients. C. Enable SSID broadcast. D. Separate the access point from the wired network using a firewall, thus treating it as external access.

C. SSID broadcast is typically disabled for secure networks. While this won't stop a determined attacker, it will stop casual attempts to connect. Separating the network from other wired networks, turning on the highest level of encryption supported (like WPA2), and using MAC filtering for small groups of clients that can reasonably be managed by hand are all common best practices for wireless networks.

66. Lauren's networking team has been asked to identify a technology that will allow them to dynamically change the organization's network by treating the network like code. What type of architecture should she recommend? A. A network that follows the 5-4-3 rule B. A converged network C. A software-defined network D. A hypervisor-based network

C. Software-defined networking provides a network architecture than can be defined and configured as code or software. This will allow Lauren's team to quickly change the network based on organizational requirements. The 5-4-3 rule is an old design rule for networks that relied on repeaters or hubs. A converged network carries multiple types of traffic like voice, video, and data. A hypervisor-based network may be software defined, but it could also use traditional network devices running as virtual machines.

36. The DARPA TCP/IP model's Application layer matches up to what three OSI model layers? A. Application, Presentation, and Transport B. Presentation, Session, and Transport C. Application, Presentation, and Session D. There is not a direct match. The TCP model was created before the OSI model.

C. The DARPA TCP/IP model was used to create the OSI model, and the designers of the OSI model made sure to map the OSI model layers to it. The Application layer of the TCP model maps to the Application, Presentation, and Session layers, while the TCP and OSI models both have a distinct Transport layer.

51. Which OSI layer includes electrical specifications, protocols, and interface standards? A. The Transport layer B. The Device layer C. The Physical layer D. The Data Link layer

C. The Physical Layer includes electrical specifications, protocols, and standards that allow control of throughput, handling line noise, and a variety of other electrical interface and signaling requirements. The OSI layer doesn't have a Device layer. The Transport layer connects the Network and Session layers, and the Data Link layer packages packets from the network layer for transmission and receipt by devices operating on the Physical layer.

38. Sue modifies her MAC address to one that is allowed on a network that uses MAC filtering to provide security. What is the technique Sue used, and what non-security issue could her actions cause? A. Broadcast domain exploit, address conflict B. Spoofing, token loss C. Spoofing, address conflict D. Sham EUI creation, token loss

C. The process of using a fake MAC (Media Access Control) address is called spoofing, and spoofing a MAC address already in use on the network can lead to an address collision, preventing traffic from reaching one or both systems. Tokens are used in token ring networks, which are outdated, and EUI refers to an Extended Unique Identifier, another term for MAC address, but token loss is still not the key issue. Broadcast domains refers to the set of machines a host can send traffic to via a broadcast message.

7. What common applications are associated with each of the following TCP ports: 23, 25, 143, and 515? A. Telnet, SFTP, NetBIOS, and LPD B. SSH, SMTP, POP3, and ICMP C. Telnet, SMTP, IMAP, and LPD D. Telnet, SMTP, POP3, and X Windows

C. These common ports are important to know, although some of the protocols are becoming less common. TCP 23 is used for Telnet; TCP 25 is used for SMTP (the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol); 143 is used for IMAP, the Internet Message Access Protocol; and 515 is associated with LPD, the Line Printer Daemon protocol used to send print jobs to printers. POP3 operates on TCP 110, SSH operates on TCP 22 (and SFTP operates over SSH), and X Windows operates on a range of ports between 6000 and 6063.

59. Jim's organization uses a traditional PBX for voice communication. What is the most common security issue that its internal communications are likely to face, and what should he recommend to prevent it? A. Eavesdropping, encryption B. Man-in-the-middle attacks, end-to-end encryption C. Eavesdropping, physical security D. Wardialing, deploy an IPS

C. Traditional private branch exchange (PBX) systems are vulnerable to eavesdropping because voice communications are carried directly over copper wires. Since standard telephones don't provide encryption (and you're unlikely to add encrypted phones unless you're the NSA), physically securing access to the lines and central connection points is the best strategy available.

23. What type of key does WEP use to encrypt wireless communications? A. An asymmetric key B. Unique key sets for each host C. A predefined shared static key D. Unique asymmetric keys for each host

C. WEP has a very weak security model that relies on a single, predefined, shared static key. This means that modern attacks can break WEP encryption in less than a minute.

75. WPA2's Counter Mode Ciper Block Chaining Message Authentication Mode Protocol (CCMP) is based on which common encryption scheme? A. DES B. 3DES C. AES D. TLS

C. WPA2's CCMP encryption scheme is based on AES. As of the writing of this book, there have not been any practical real-world attacks against WPA2. DES has been successfully broken, and neither 3DES nor TLS is used for WPA2.

43. Ben has deployed a 1000Base-T 1 gigabit network and needs to run a cable to another building. If Ben is running his link directly from a switch to another switch in that building, what is the maximum distance Ben can cover according to the 1000Base-T specification? A. 2 kilometers B. 500 meters C. 185 meters D. 100 meters

D. 1000Base-T is capable of a 100 meter run according to its specifications. For longer distances, a fiber-optic cable is typically used in modern networks.

42. Lauren wants to provide port-based authentication on her network to ensure that clients must authenticate before using the network. What technology is an appropriate solution for this requirement? A. 802.11a B. 802.3 C. 802.15.1 D. 802.1x

D. 802.1x provides port-based authentication and can be used with technologies like EAP, the Extensible Authentication Protocol. 802.11a is a wireless standard, 802.3 is the standard for Ethernet, and 802.15.1 was the original Bluetooth IEEE standard.

85. What type of network device modulates between an analog carrier signal and digital information for computer communications? A. A bridge B. A router C. A brouter D. A modem

D. A modem (MOdulator/DEModulator) modulates between an analog carrier like a phone line and digital communications like those used between computers. While modems aren't in heavy use in most areas, they are still in place for system control and remote system contact and in areas where phone lines are available but other forms of communication are too expensive or not available.

94. What type of attack is most likely to occur after a successful ARP spoofing attempt? A. A DoS attack B. A Trojan C. A replay attack D. A man-in-the-middle attack

D. ARP spoofing is often done to replace a target's cache entry for a destination IP, allowing the attacker to conduct a man-in-the-middle attack. A denial of service attack would be aimed at disrupting services rather than spoofing an ARP response, a replay attack will involve existing sessions, and a Trojan is malware that is disguised in a way that makes it look harmless.

40. SMTP, HTTP, and SNMP all occur at what layer of the OSI model? A. Layer 4 B. Layer 5 C. Layer 6 D. Layer 7

D. Application-specific protocols are handled at layer 7, the Application layer of the OSI model.

46. What does a blue-snarfing attack target? A. Data on IBM systems B. An outbound phone call via Bluetooth C. 802.11b networks D. Data from a Bluetooth-enabled device

D. Bluesnarfing targets the data or information on Bluetooth-enabled devices. Bluejacking occurs when attackers send unsolicited messages via Bluetooth.

39. Jim's audit of a large organization's traditional PBX showed that Direct Inward System Access (DISA) was being abused by third parties. What issue is most likely to lead to this problem? A. The PBX was not fully patched. B. The dial-in modem lines use unpublished numbers. C. DISA is set up to only allow local calls. D. One or more users' access codes have been compromised.

D. Direct Inward System Access uses access codes assigned to users to add a control layer for external access and control of the PBX. If the codes are compromised, attackers can make calls through the PBX or even control it. Not updating a PBX can lead to a range of issues, but this question is looking for a DISA issue. Allowing only local calls and using unpublished numbers are both security controls and might help keep the PBX more secure.

16. Susan is deploying a routing protocol that maintains a list of destination networks with metrics that include the distance in hops to them and the direction traffic should be sent to them. What type of protocol is she using? A. A link-state protocol B. A link-distance protocol C. A destination metric protocol D. A distance-vector protocol

D. Distance-vector protocols use metrics including the direction and distance in hops to remote networks to make decisions. A link-state routing protocol considers the shortest distance to a remote network. Destination metric and link-distance protocols don't exist.

93. What topology correctly describes Ethernet? A. A ring B. A star C. A mesh D. A bus

D. Ethernet uses a bus topology. While devices may be physically connected to a switch in a physical topology that looks like a star, systems using Ethernet can all transmit on the bus simultaneously, possibly leading to collisions.

48. What network topology is shown below (4 workstation all connected to each other)? A. A ring B. A bus C. A star D. A mesh

D. Fully connected mesh networks provide each system with a direct physical link to every other system in the mesh. This is very expensive but can provide performance advantages for specific types of computational work.

99. During a forensic investigation, Charles is able to determine the Media Access Control address of a system that was connected to a compromised network. Charles knows that MAC addresses are tied back to a manufacturer or vendor and are part of the fingerprint of the system. To which OSI layer does a MAC address belong? A. The Application layer B. The Session layer C. The Physical layer D. The Data Link layer

D. MAC addresses and their organizationally unique identifiers are used at the Data Link layer to identify systems on a network. The Application and Session layers don't care about physical addresses, while the Physical layer involves electrical connectivity and handling physical interfaces rather than addressing.

70. During a review of her organization's network, Angela discovered that it was suffering from broadcast storms and that contractors, guests, and organizational administrative staff were on the same network segment. What design change should Angela recommend? A. Require encryption for all users. B. Install a firewall at the network border. C. Enable spanning tree loop detection. D. Segment the network based on functional requirements.

D. Network segmentation can reduce issues with performance as well as diminish the chance of broadcast storms by limiting the number of systems in a segment. This decreases broadcast traffic visible to each system and can reduce congestion. Segmentation can also help provide security by separating functional groups who don't need to be able to access each other's systems. Installing a firewall at the border would only help with inbound and outbound traffic, not cross-network traffic. Spanning tree loop prevention helps prevent loops in Ethernet networks (for example, when you plug a switch into a switch via two ports on each), but it won't solve broadcast storms that aren't caused by a loop or security issues. Encryption might help prevent some problems between functional groups, but it won't stop them from scanning other systems, and it definitely won't stop a broadcast storm!

56. Chris has been asked to choose between implementing PEAP and LEAP for wireless authentication. What should he choose, and why? A. LEAP, because it fixes problems with TKIP, resulting in stronger security B. PEAP, because it implements CCMP for security C. LEAP, because it implements EAP-TLS for end-to-end session encryption D. PEAP, because it can provide a TLS tunnel that encapsulates EAP methods, protecting the entire session

D. PEAP provides encryption for EAP methods and can provide authentication. It does not implement CCMP, which was included in the WPA2 standard. LEAP is dangerously insecure and should not be used due to attack tools that have been available since the early 2000s.

41. Lauren uses the ping utility to check whether a remote system is up as part of a penetration testing exercise. If she wants to filter ping out by protocol, what protocol should she filter out from her packet sniffer's logs? A. UDP B. TCP C. IP D. ICMP

D. Ping uses ICMP, the Internet Control Message Protocol, to determine whether a system responds and how many hops there are between the originating system and the remote system. Lauren simply needs to filter out ICMP to not see her pings.

Chris is designing layered network security for his organization. Using the diagram below 14. If the VPN grants remote users the same access to network and system resources as local workstations have, what security issue should Chris raise? A. VPN users will not be able to access the web server. B. There is no additional security issue; the VPN concentrator's logical network location matches the logical network location of the workstations. C. VPN bypasses the firewall, creating additional risks. D. VPN users should only connect from managed PCs.

D. Remote PCs that connect to a protected network need to comply with securitybsettings and standards that match those required for the internal network. The VPN concentrator logically places remote users in the protected zone behind the firewall, but that means that user workstations (and users) must be trusted in the same way that local workstations are.

81. What type of address is 127.0.0.1? A. A public IP address B. An RFC 1918 address C. An APIPA address D. A loopback address

D. The IP address 127.0.0.1 is a loopback address and will resolve to the local machine. Public addresses are non-RFC 1918, non-reserved addresses. RFC 1918 addresses are reserved and include ranges like 10.x.x.x. An APIPA address is a self-assigned address used when a DHCP server cannot be found.

86. Which list presents the layers of the OSI model in the correct order? A. Presentation, Application, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical B. Application, Presentation, Session, Network, Transport, Data Link, Physical C. Presentation, Application, Session, Transport, Data Link, Network, Physical D. Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical

D. The OSI layers in order are Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, and Physical.

88. Modern dial-up connections use what dial-up protocol? A. SLIP B. SLAP C. PPTP D. PPP

D. The Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is used for dial-up connections for modems, IDSN, Frame Relay, and other technologies. It replaced SLIP in almost all cases. PPTP is the Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol used for VPNs, and SLAP is not protocol at all!

5. Sarah is manually reviewing a packet capture of TCP traffic and finds that a system is setting the RST flag in the TCP packets it sends repeatedly during a short period of time. What does this flag mean in the TCP packet header? A. RST flags mean "Rest." The server needs traffic to briefly pause. B. RST flags mean "Relay-set." The packets will be forwarded to the address set in the packet. C. RST flags mean "Resume Standard." Communications will resume in their normal format. D. RST means "Reset." The TCP session will be disconnected.

D. The RST flag is used to reset or disconnect a session. It can be resumed by restarting the connection via a new three-way handshake.

27. Which of the following is a converged protocol that allows storage mounts over TCP, and which is frequently used as a lower-cost alternative to Fibre Channel? A. MPLS B. SDN C. VoIP D. iSCSI

D. iSCSI is a converged protocol that allows location-independent file services over traditional network technologies. It costs less than traditional Fibre Channel. VoIP is Voice over IP, SDN is Software-defined networking, and MPLS is Multiprotocol Label Switching, a technology that uses path labels instead of network addresses.