Clinical Evaluation and Diagnosis

What is the average range of motion of elbow flexion? a. 0 to 90 degrees b. 0 to 135 degrees c. 0 to 115 degrees d. 0 to 100 degrees e. 0 to 180

b. 0 to 135 degrees

What is the incubation period for HIV and human papillomavirus? a. 4 to 7 days b. 1 to 6 months c. 2 to 14 days d. 1 to 13 weeks e. 1 to 6 weeks

b. 1 to 6 months

The maximal rate at which oxygen is consumed and utilized while exercising is known as the maximal oxygen consumption, or VO2 max. What is the normal range of VO2 max for an average college athlete? a. 80 to 100 mL/kg/min b. 45 to 60 mL/kg/min c. 70 to 80 mL/kg/min d. 45 to 60 dL/g/min e. 25 ro 40 mL/kg/min

b. 45 to 60 mL/kg/min

Which of the symptoms below are seen with acute mountain sickness? I. insomnia II. vomiting III. shortness of breath with exertion IV. headache V. fatigue a. II, III, IV b. I, III, IV, V c. I, II, IV, V d. I, II, III, V e. II, III, IV

b. I, III, IV, V

Which of the following cervical nerve roots represent the sensory dermatomes of the hand? I. C5 II. C6 III. C7 IV. C8 V. T1 a. I, II, III b. II, III, IV c. III, IV, V d. I, III, IV e. I, III, V

b. II, III, IV

The patellar tendon reflex correlates to what spinal level? a. L2 b. L2-4 c. L5 d. L5-S1 e. S1

b. L2-4

Which of the following medications is not an antihistamine drug? a. Dimetapp b. Ultram c. Benedryl d. Claritin e. Allegra

b. Ultram

A type V Salter-Harris fracture involves what kind of fracture through the physeal plate? a. the epiphysis and metaphysis separate without fragmentation b. a crush injury to the epiphysis c. the epiphysis and metaphysis separate with fragmentation d. the epiphysis, metaphysis, and physis all separate from each other e. the metaphysis is separated with fragmentation

b. a crush injury to the epiphysis

Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is characterized by which of the following? a. a depressed QT interval b. a short PR interval and prolonged QRS complex c. a long PR interval and shortened QRS complex d. an elevated QT interval e. very late depolarization of the heart

b. a short PR interval and prolonged QRS complex

Which of the following is an example of a papule? a. a freckle b. a wart c. a hive d. a friction blister e. a fungus

b. a wart

What position should the patient's should be in to manually muscle test the deltoids? a. abducted to 0 degrees and externally rotated to 45 degrees b. abducted to 90 degrees c. flexed with the palm down d. extended with the palm up e. extended with the palm down

b. abducted to 90 degrees

Which of the following muscles abducts the little finger of the hand? a. interossei b. abductor digiti minimi c. lumbricals d. abductor digitorum brevis e. adductor digiti minimi

b. abductor digiti minimi

Which of the following diagnostic tests is considered the "gold standard" for detecting signs of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? a. CT scan b. echocardiogram c. genetic testing d. electrocardiogram e. cardiac stress testing

b. echocardiogram

EIA stands for what clinical entity? a. exercise-induced asthma b. exercise-induced asthma c. exercise-induced allergy d. exercise-induced aneurysm e. exercise-induced angina

b. exercise-induced asthma

Foot drop may be indicative of what pathology? a. plantar nerve injury b. shin splints c. osteochondritis dissecans d. Achilles tendinitis e. peroneal nerve injury

e. peroneal nerve injury

Signs and symptoms of Severs disease include which of the following? a. point tenderness with palpation of the hamate bone b. point tenderness and swelling at the base of the fifth metatarsal c. pain with active ankle inversion d. pain between the first and second metatarsal shafts with toe flexion e. point tenderness at or just anterior to the insertion of the Achilles tendon along the posterior border of the calcaneus

e. point tenderness at or just anterior to the insertion of the Achilles tendon along the posterior border of the calcaneus

A patient presents with loss of strength at the L3 and L4 nerve root levels. What muscle should the athletic trainer test to confirm an injury at this level? a. gluteus minimus b. flexor hallucis longus c. gluteus maximus d. adductor magnus e. quadriceps

e. quadriceps

A positive Thompson's sign is indicative of what problem? a. tight hip flexor b. tight iliotibial band c. ruptured anterior tibialis tendon d. ruptured posterior tibialis tendon e. ruptured Achilles tendon

e. ruptured Achilles tendon

Which of the following muscles does not adduct the shoulder? a. pectoralis major b. teres major c. subscapularis d. latissimus dorsi e. serratus anterior

e. serratus anterior

The biceps brachii tendon reflex correlates to which spinal level? a. C22 b. C4 c. C5 d. C6 e. C7

c. C5

Which of the following tests is appropriate to perform if the athletic trainer suspects the patient has meningitis? a. Brudzinski-Kernig test b. Milgram's test c. Beevor's test d. Halstead's maneuver e. Bowstring test

a. Brudzinski-Kernig test

What is the sensation that a patient might experience just prior to an epileptic seizure called? a. an aura b. a hallucination c. a delusion d. pre-epileptic vertigo e. a premonition

a. an aura

Which 2 structures are injured with a Bankart lesion? a. anterior capsule of the shoulder and the glenoid labrum b. the inferior capsule of the shoulder and glenoid fossa c. the articular surface of the humeral head and glenoid labrum d. the surgical neck of the humerus and the coracoacromial ligament e. the acromioclavicular joint and glenoid fossa

a. anterior capsule of the shoulder and the glenoid labrum

If a palpable "clunk" or shift at approximately 20 to 30 degrees of knee flexion is found during a pivot-shift test, this may be indicative of what? a. anterolateral rotary instability of the knee b. anteromedial rotary instability of the knee c. posterolateral rotary instability of the knee d. posteriomedial rotary instability of the knee e. posterior instability of the knee

a. anterolateral rotary instability of the knee

At what point should the athletic trainer's initial evaluation of an injury begin? a. at the moment the injury is witnessed b. once the patient has been stabilized in the athletic training facility c. once the athletic trainer receives a medical referral from a doctor d. after the patient is seen by the team doctor e. B and D

a. at the moment the injury is witnessed

All of the following are possible factors regarding why a patient might be injury prone except: a. bad luck b. problems at home c. joint hypermobility d. poor endurance e. poor coordination

a. bad luck

Panner's disease is an osteochondritis of which of the following? a. capitellum b. tibial tubercle c. olecranon d. first ray of the foot e. talus

a. capitellum

Which of the following are common complications of hepatitis C? a. cirrhosis and liver cancer b. bile duct constricture and gastroesophageal reflux disease c. cirrhosis and colon cancer d. ascites and pancreatic cancer e. gastritis

a. cirrhosis and liver cancer

Which of the following diseases is the most commonly inherited disorder among White Americans? a. cystic fibrosis b. Tay-Sachs disease c. down syndrome d. sickle-cell anemia e. hemophilia

a. cystic fibrosis

After a severe head injury, an individual may posture as follows: extension of the lower limbs and flexion of the elbows, wrists, and fingers. This condition is known as what? a. decortication b. decerebration c. decellebration d. dystonia e. dyskinesia

a. decortication

All of the following are symptoms of caffeine withdrawal except: a. diaphoresis b. fatigue c. headache d. irritability e. runny nose

a. diaphoresis

______ and ______ are 2 signs of diabetic coma. a. drowsiness, acetone-smelling breath b. seizures, pale/clammy skin c. seizures, a bounding pulse d. flushed skin, giddiness e. pale skin, weak pulse

a. drowsiness, acetone-smelling breath

A patient has been diagnosed with bulimia and has a known history of laxative abuse. Complications of chronic laxative use include which of the following? a. electrolyte imbalance and dehydration b. hyperactivity c. hematemesis d. chronic nasal congestion e. all of the above

a. electrolyte imbalance and dehydration

An athlete sustains a neck injury during an ice hockey game and is complaining of numbness and tingling along the ulnar border of this forearm and fourth and fifth fingers. Which of the follow roentgenograms would be most appropriate in detecting nerve root compression? a. electromyography or nerve conduction velocity test b. CT scan MRI c. myelography d. sonography e. plain film radiograph

a. electromyography or nerve root conduction velocity test

Changes in blood pressure may occur as a result of many factors. Two of these factors may include _________ and _________. a. exercise, change in posture b. change in posture, respiratory rate c. level of consciousness, body size d. respiratory rate, pH levels of the blood e. change in mood, respiratory rate

a. exercise, change in posture

The athlete may have difficulty performing what actions if the medial and lateral pectoral nerves are injured? a. flexion, adduction, and internal rotation of the upper arm b. shoulder shrugs c. abduction and external rotation of the upper arm d. extension, internal rotation, and adduction of the upper arm e. flexion, abduction, and external rotation of the upper arm

a. flexion, adduction, and internal rotation of the upper arm

A ______ is a device used to measure joint range of motion. a. goniometer b. dynamometer c. caliper d. flexometer e. sphygmomanometer

a. goniometer

What is a quick method of testing the motor ability of the sacroiliac nerve root? a. have the patient walk on his or her toes b. manually resist ankle inversion c. manually resist great toe extension d. assess the patient's ability to squat e. resisted ankle eversion

a. have the patient walk on his or her toes

Results of severe fluid restriction during weight loss attempts by a wrestler may include which of the following? a. higher resting heart rate b. increased renal flow c. increased stroke volume d. higher O2 consumption e. lower resting heart rate

a. higher resting heart rate

All of the following movements occur in the sagittal plane except: a. hip abduction b. shoulder flexion c. knee extension d. hip flexion e. elbow flexion

a. hip abduction

Which of the following conditions is also known as Graves' disease? a. hyperthyroidism b. hypothyroidism c. hirsutism d. hyperparathyroidism e. polymyositis

a. hyperthyroidism

A patient reports to the athletic trainer with the presence of lesions on his upper lip and mouth area that look like blisters with a crusted yellow appearance and a red, weeping base. What is the probable cause of these lesions? a. impetigo b. HIV c. shingles d. a fungal infection e. hives

a. impetigo

A patient sustains a blunt trauma injury to the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. What structure might be injured in this area? a. liver b. gallbladder c. spleen d. pancreas e. kidney

a. liver

What happens when a patient consumes a simple sugar prior to an event? a. may cause a sudden decrease in blood glucose because of a sudden increase in insulin production b. may lead to a sudden increase in blood glucose because of a decrease in insulin blood glucose c. may lead to increased blood levels of electrolytes d. may lead to hyperlipidemia e. may cause a sudden increase in bilirubin levels

a. may cause a sudden decrease in blood glucose because of a sudden increase in insulin production

Mumps is a contagious viral disease that is primarily manifested by a. parotitis b. splenomegaly c. retinopathy d. maculopapular rash e. pancreatitis

a. parotitis

The ______ pulse and ________ pulse should be palpated after an acute traumatic injury to the knee area to make sure the peripheral circulation to the involved limb is adequate. a. posterior tibial, dorsalis pedis b. anterior tibial, plantar c. saphenous, dorsalis pedis d. femoral, posterior tibial e. femoral, popliteal

a. posterior tibial, dorsalis pedis

What is one of the greatest concerns and primary life-threatening effect of rhabdomyolysis? a. renal failure b. heart failure c. high blood glucose levels d. heart arrhythmias e. blunt trauma to the abdomen

a. renal failure

How is the strength of the pes anserinus musculature manually muscle tested? a. resistance to knee flexion and internal rotation of the lower leg b. resistance to knee extension and hip adduction c. resistance to knee flexion and external rotation of the lower leg d. resistance to knee extension and internal rotation of the lower leg e. resistance to knee flexion and ankle inversion

a. resistance to knee flexion and internal rotation of the lower leg

Which test, if positive, is indicative of a torn posterior cruciate ligament? a. sag sign b. anterior drawer sign c. McMurray's sign d. ober's sign e. lachman's sign

a. sag sign

To test the function of the rhomboid major muscle, the athletic trainer should ask the patient to perform what movement? a. scapular retraction b. shoulder internal rotation c. scapular protraction d. shoulder shrug e. shoulder external rotation

a. scapular retraction

What position is the "recommended" position for manually muscle testing the gluteus medius muscle? a. side-lying, with the affected limb on top b. supine c. prone d. sitting e. standing

a. side-lying, with the affected limb on top

What is the best position for the patient to be in to muscle test the piriformis? a. sitting b. prone c. supine d. side-lying e. standing

a. sitting

A patient is brought to the athletic training facility after sustaining a hard kick to the abdominal area. Which of the following symptoms is not a sign of a significant abdominal injury? a. slow, deep respirations b. increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure c. ashen-colored skin d. rapid, shallow respirations e. rebound tenderness

a. slow, deep respirations

The athletic trainer asks a patient to shrug his shoulders after a neck and shoulder injury. He has difficulty performing this movement, even though it is not painful. What nerve is injured? a. spinal accessory b. dorsal scapular c. long thoracic d. suprascapular e. thoracoscapular

a. spinal accessory

If the calcaneofibular ligament of the ankle is torn, which of the following would be positive? a. talar tilt test b. anterior drawer sign c. distraction test d. clunk test e. Hawkins-Kennedy test

a. talar tilt test

When evaluating the inert structures of a joint, passive range of motion is used to determine all of the following except: a. the patient's willingness to move b. limitations of joint motion c. joint stability d. muscle elastiity e. soft tissue elasticity

a. the patient's willingness to move

What type of force typically causes injury to the medial collateral ligament, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate ligament of the knee? a. a valgus force with the tibia in external rotation b. a varus force with the knee in full extension c. a valgus force with the femur in external rotation d. a valgus force with the knee in recurvatum e. a valgus force with the knee in full flexion

a. valgus force with the tibia in external rotation

Following multiple ankle sprains over the course of the year, the athletic trainer detects some weakness of the invertors and evertors of a patient's ankle. Which of the following muscles does not invert the ankle? a. tibialis posterior b. extensor digitorum longus c. flexor digitorum longus d. flexor hallucis longus e. C and D

b. extensor digitorum longus

An athlete sustains a blow to the head with a temporary loss of consciousness. He appears to have a lucid period in which he seems to be normal for a period of a couple hours and then becomes significantly lethargic. What type of medical emergency would the athletic trainer suspect? a. ruptured intervertebral disc at level C3, 4 b. extradural hemorrhage c. basilar fracture d. subdural hemorrhage e. contrecoup fracture

b. extradural hemorrhage

The contact phase of the running gait is divided into which components? a. forward swing and foot strike b. foot stroke, midsupport, and take-off c. follow-through, forward swing, and foot descent c. follow-through, forward swing, and foot descent d. midsupport, take-off, and foot descent e. foot strike, follow-through, and foot descent

b. foot stroke, midsupport, and take-off

Which of the following muscles is not involved in internal rotation of the hip? a. adductor magnus b. gluteus maximums c. gracilis d. tensor fasciae latae e. gluteus minimus

b. gluteus maximus

If there is inflammation at the site of the medial epicondyle of the elbow, which of the following would be positive? a. tennis elbow test b. golfer's elbow test c. tinel's sign d. finkelstein's test e. allen's test

b. golfer's elbow test

A tennis player comes to the athletic trainer complaining of medial thigh pain. He is limping and has pain with resisted hip adduction and hip flexion. There is diffuse tenderness and ecchymosis along the proximal aspect of the medial thigh. What is the probable cause of the pain? a. hip flexor rupture b. groin strain c. medial hamstring strain d. popliteal strain e. patellar tendon rupture

b. groin strain

A patient has a wrist injury that is limiting his ability to supinate his forearm. In what plane of motion does supination and pronation of the forearm take place (in the anatomical position)? a. frontal b. horizontal c. sagittal d. vertical e. A and C

b. horizontal

A patient comes to the athletic training facility after being kicked in the lower leg by an opponent during a football game. He is complaining of decreased sensation in the L4 dermatome. What is this change in sensation called? a. paresthesia b. hypoesthesia c. hyperesthesia d. referred pain e. anesthesia

b. hyposthesia

Foot pronation results in _______ of the tibia during midsupport in the running gait. a. external rotation b. internal rotation c. abduction d. adduction e. retroversion

b. internal rotation

Type I diabetes is characterized by an impaired capacity to secrete insulin due to a beta cell defect. This type of diabetes is commonly seen in what type of individual. a. obese, geriatric b. lean, insulin, dependent c. noninsulin dependent, obese d. noninsulin dependent, juvenile e. none of the above

b. lean, insulin dependent

Which of the carpal bones is most commonly dislocated? a. scaphoid b. lunate c. cuboid d. hamate e. triquetral

b. lunate

What is the proper method to manually muscle test the biceps femoris muscle? a. sitting, resting knee extension b. lying prone, resisting knee flexion with the tibia in external rotation c. sitting, resisting hip flexion d. lying prone, resisting knee flexion with the tibia in internal rotation e. sitting, resisting elbow flexion

b. lying prone, resisting knee flexion with the tibia in external rotation

Which of the following structures is affected in an individual who has been diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (AKA Lou Gehrig disease)? a. epidermis b. motor neuron c. axon d. neuromuscular junction e. prefrontal cortex of the brain

b. motor neuron

An athlete collides with a teammate during an ice hockey game and sustains a blow to the jaw with a hockey stick. He is holding his lower face with his hands and is in intense pain. All of the following procedures will assist the athletic trainer in determining if there is a fracture of the jaw except: a. have the athlete bite and observe for a malocclusion b. palpate the jaw for a hematoma c. ask the athlete to open and close his mouth, noting asymmetry with movement d. palpate for jaw deformity when it is at rest, open, and closed e. see if the athlete can retract his jaw and observe for difficulty with movement

b. palpate the jaw for a hematoma

If a patient whom an athletic trainer is working with has a history of asthma, what daily test should he or she use to monitor the patient's condition? a. metered-dose inhaler b. peak flow meter c. ventilator d. breatholizer e. volume spirometer

b. peak flow meter

A wrestler comes into the athletic training facility after sustaining a major elbow injury. There is intense pain, and the area is grossly swollen. The athlete is unable to straighten his elbow, and the forearm appears shortened. The athletic trainer suspects an acute dislocation. Which 2 areas would the athletic trainer check for possible vascular impairment? a. the ulnar and radial pulses b. radial pulse and color of the nailbeds after compression c. brachial and radial pulses d. arterial and venous circulation e. axilla and anticubital fossa

b. radial pulse and color of the nailbeds after compression

What is the proper position to manually muscle test the anterior deltoid? a. shoulder in full internal rotation with the palm facing the floor, the force directed downward b. shoulder at 90 degrees of abduction, full external rotation, and supination with the force directed downward c. resistance to the first 30 degrees of abduction d. arm at 90 degrees of flexion, palm facing downward, and the force is in the downward direction e. shoulder at 45 degrees of abduction

b. shoulder at 90 degrees of abduction, full external rotation, and supination with the force directed downward

Two major symptoms of a spontaneous pneumothorax include _______ and _______. a. bradycardia, cyanosis b. sudden chest pain, dyspnea c. apnea with rales, rhonchi d. left shoulder pain, cyanosis e. diaphoresis, bradycardia

b. sudden chest pain, dyspnea

What evaluative test is used to examine the integrity of the lateral collateral ligament of the knee? a. pivot shift test b. valgus stress test c. lachman's test d. varus stress test e. none of the above

d. varus stress test

"Spearing" in football is a dangerous technique. Football coaches have discontinued this practice when teaching tackling techniques because it may cause severe head and neck injuries. What is the resulting force on the cervical spine when a football player spears an opponent? a. sudden neck extension b. sudden neck hyperflexion with rotation c. sudden neck lateral flexion d. sudden neck rotation e. sudden vertebral axial distraction

b. sudden neck hyperflexion with rotation

Allen's test is used to test what? a. the integrity of the vertebral arteries b. the integrity of the radial and ulnar arteries of the hand c. for carpal tunnel syndrome d. for tarsal tunnel nerve entrapment e. integrity of the ulnar nerve

b. the integrity of the radial and ulnar arteries of the hand

What is wrong with an athlete eating a 12- to 16-ounce steak, baked potato, scrambled eggs, and coffee with sugar 4 hours prior to an event? a. coffee with sugar may take as long as 3 hours to metabolize b. the intestinal tract will be full at the time of competition because it is a large meal c. the athlete may be hungry 8 hours later after he or she competes d. nothing; the pre-event meal should be at least 500 calories or more e. nothing; the athlete should eat whatever makes him or her feel comfortable

b. the intestinal tract will be full at the time of competition because it is a large meal

Sickle-cell anemia may cause rhabdomyolysis in the athlete. Which of the following is a cardinal sign of rhabdomyolysis? a. bleeding from the ear b. the presence of myoglobin in the urine c. yellowing of the nailbeds of the fingers and toes d. yellowing of the conjuctiva of the eyes e. dyspnea

b. the presence of myoglobin in the urine

During your examination of a patient who has been complaining of weakness when using the rowing machine in the weight room, you notice his right latissimus dorsi muscle appears atrophied. Which nerve is affected? a. trigeminal b. thoracodorsal c. dorsal scapular d. thoracic spinal e. none of the above

b. thoracodorsal

The flexor pollicis longus is responsible for which of the following actions? a. great toe flexion b. thumb flexion c. thumb flexion and adduction d. thumb flexion and abduction e. none of the above

b. thumb flexions

A patient comes to your office complaining of intense itching and burning pain between his toes, and he cannot find anything to help alleviate the symptoms. The area is reddened with some white flakes. What might you recommend? a. neosporin ointment b. tinactin spray c. silvadene cream d. eucerin cream e. hydrocortisone

b. tinactin spray

What does a positive drop-arm sign indicate? a. posterior shoulder subluxation b. torn rotator cuff muscle c. axillary nerve injury d. a labral tear e. humeral head fracture

b. torn rotator cuff muscle

Which of the following is a simple movement to check the integrity of the radial nerve? a. elbow flexion b. wrest extension c. forearm supination d. thumb-to-little finger opposition e. shoulder flexion

b. wrist extension

A patient with an infection or serious disease, such as leukemia, might demonstrate an abnormally raised white blood cell count. What is the normal leukocyte count? a. 200,000 to 400,000/ cu mm b. 500 to 1500/ cu mm c. 4000 to 10,000 cu/ mm d. 1000 to 40,000/ cu mm e. 250 to 500/ cu mm

c. 4000 to 10,000/ cu mm

A patient reports having had recent upper respiratory infection 2 weeks ago and is now having rapidly evolving bilateral muscle weakness of unknown origin. He is afebrile. what should the athletic trainer suspect? a. systemic lupus erythematosus b. autonomic dysreflexia c. Guillain-Barre syndrome d. acute myelogenous lymphoma e. lyme disease

c. Guillain-Barre syndrome

Which of the following signs is tested for when a deep vein thrombosis is suspected after a traumatic incident occurs involving the lower leg? a. Babinski's sign b. Thompson's sign c. Homan's sign d. Battle's sign e. Ballotment sign

c. Homan's sign

Which of these muscles are innervated by the tibial nerve? I. gastrocnemius II. flexor hallucis longus III. extensor hallucis longus IV. tibialis anterior V. biceps femoris a. I, II, III, IV b. II, III, V c. I, II, V d. I, III, IV, V e. I, II, III

c. I, II, V

With the patient sitting, the scapula stabilized, and the shoulder maximally flexed, the patient complains of pain and appears apprehensive. This is a positive ________ test. a. Yergason's b. Speed's c. Neer's d. Compression e. Hawkins-Kennedy

c. Neer's

A basketball player reports to the athletic training facility complaining of a "burning" pain along the lateral aspect of his right knee during and after running. No edema or ecchymosis is found during the exam, but he is tender to palpation of the affected area. Which of the following special tests might be positive? a. Lachman's test b. Patellar apprehension test c. Ober's test d. Sag sign e. Faber's test

c. Ober's test

A patient you have just evaluated for a possible head injury has a noticeable facial droop on the left side of his face. Which cranial nerve is involved? a. I b. IV, V c. VII d. III, IX e. II, VI

c. VII

You are covering a football game when 2 players collide. You notice that one player grabs his neck and shakes his arm. When you examine him, he complains of lateral neck discomfort and a feeling of "numbness" or "burning" down his arm. His arm is hanging limp by his side. In a few minutes, the symptoms subside. What do you suspect? a. carpal tunnel syndrome b. long thoracic nerve injury c. a "burner" or pinched nerve syndrome d. dorsal scapular nerve injury e. thoracic outlet syndrome

c. a "burner" or pinched nerve syndrome

What is the usual mechanisms of injury for a Colles' fracture? a. fall on a closed fist b. a fall on a bent elbow c. a fall on an outstretched arm and hand d. a twisting movement of the knee when the lower leg is planted e. direct trauma to the forearm

c. a fall on an outstretched arm and hand

You evaluate a basketball player who has sustained a finger injury while attempting to catch a ball. During your examination) you observe that the athlete is unable to extend the distal phalanx and the tip of his finger is positioned in approximately 30 degrees of flexion. You determine the athlete has a mallet finger. This injury is caused by which of the following? a. tenosynovitis of the abductor pollicis longus b. a subungual hematoma c. a sprain of the extensor pollicis brevis d. an avulsion of the extensor tendon from its insertion e. Dupuytren's contracture

c. an avulsion of the extensor tendon from its insertion

During a return to play progression for a concussion, what is the typical time frame between stages? a. 12 hours b. 1 hour c. at least 24 hours d. 1 month e. none of the above

c. at least 24 hours

Which muscle supinates the forearm and flexes the shoulder? a. brachialis b. coracobrachialis c. biceps brachii d. flexor pollicis longus e. pronator quadratus

c. biceps brachii

Speed's test is an evaluative test for which of the following problems? a. thoracic outlet syndrome b. supraspinatus tendinitis c. bicipital tendinitis d. ruptured biceps tendon e. rupture of the brachialis muscle

c. bicipital tendinitis

During the inflammatory response, leukocytes are drawn to the site of injury by chemical mediators. This process is known as which of the following? a. margination b. coaxing c. chemotaxis d. emigration e. integration

c. chemotaxis

How is cranial nerve VIII tested? a. having the patient identify an odor b. using a snellen chart c. crumpling paper near the ear d. resisting a shoulder shrug e. having the patient stick out his or her tongue

c. crumpling paper near the ear

After an acute musculoskeletal injury, such as a shoulder dislocation, the body releases a natural opiate-like substance that provides temporary pain relief. What is this substance called? a. prostaglandins b. substance P c. endorphins d. insulin e. histamines

c. endorphins

Which nerves innervate the hip adductor musculature? a. femoral, superior gluteal b. femoral, tibial c. femoral, obturator d. femoral, obturator, inferior gluteal e. tibial, obturator

c. femoral, obturator

What quick test can be performed to check if nerve root L5 is intact? a. have the patient flex his or her hip while standing b. have the patient walk on his or her toes c. have the patient extend his or her great toe d. have the patient extend his or her hip e. have the patient flex his or her knee

c. have the patient extend his or her great toe

Trendelenburg's test is a method used to evaluate the competence of what structures? a. hip flexors b. peroneal muscles c. hip abductors d. erecetor spinae e. abdominals

c. hip abductors

What type of gait deviation might the athletic trainer see with a patient who has sustained an ankle injury and has decreased range of motion in dorsiflexion? a. lateral trunk bending b. trendelenburg gait c. hip hiking d. wide walking base e. extension lag

c. hip hiking

Which of the following structures is not part of the pelvis? a. coccyx b. pubic symphysis c. ileum d. innominate bones e. sacrum

c. ileum

A patient informs the athletic trainer that he is taking tetracycline for a respiratory infection. Tetracycline will bind with which of the following 2 minerals to form a non-absorbable complex (and therefore should not be taken before meals)? a. potassium and zinc b. sodium and magnesium c. iron and calcium d. iron and phosphorus e. folic acid and niacin

c. iron and calcium

What problem might the athletic trainer see if the L4 nerve root was compressed? a. hip flexor weakness b. plantar flexion c. knee extension weaknes d. dorsiflexion weakness e. drop foot

c. knee extension weakness

A patient is poked in the eye with a finger and comes to the athletic trainer for evaluation. The patient is having significant difficulty opening his eye. Which of the following muscles might have sustained an injury? a. levator capitis inferioris b. splenius capitis c. levator palpebrae superioris d. levator palpebrae orbitis e. scalenes

c. levator palpebrae superioris

What nerve passes through the carpal tunnel? a. musculocutaneous b. radial c. median d. ulnar e. cubital

c. median

A patient has just been diagnosed with plantar fasciitis. All of the following would be appropriate measures to provide support/relief to the affected area except: a. an orthotic for arch support b. low dye taping c. metatarsal pad d. a heel cup e. stretching program

c. metatarsal pad

The athletic trainer notices one of the baseball players routinely cleans his cleats after every game and practice so no dirt is visible and checks his equipment bag multiple times to assure himself his "lucky towel" is with him. This is an example of what type of behavior? a. schizophrenic b. anxiety c. obsessive-compulsive d. passive-aggressive e. A and B

c. obsessive-compulsive

Tenderness and pain with induration and swelling of the pretibial musculature following overexertion is indicative of which syndrome? a. chondromalacia b. pes anserinus bursitis c. periostitis d. nerve compression syndrome e. tarsal tunnel syndrome

c. periostitis

"Cauliflower ear" is an injury to which structure of the ear? a. tympanic membrane b. external auditory canal c. pinna d. eustachian tube e. internal auditory canal

c. pinna

One of your female gymnasts has been complaining of feeling generally fatigued on a constant basis. After being examined by the team physician, he orders a complete blood count. This blood test assesses all of the following except: a. red blood cell count b. white blood cell count c. plasma volume d. hemoglobin levels e. platelet count

c. plasma volume

Which of the following muscles does not extend the trunk? a. semispinalis (thoracic) b. erector spinae c. quadratus lumborum d. multifidi e. gluteus maximus

c. quadratus lumborum

The supinator muscle is innervated by which of the following nerves? a. musculocutaneous nerve b. axillary nerve c. radial nerve d. median nerve e. A and D

c. radial nerve

What may proteinuria indicate? a. pancreatitis b. possible gallstones c. renal or urinary tract pathology d. diabetes e. crohn's disease

c. renal or urinary tract infection

A lacrosse player comes limping into the athletic training facility with assistance from a coach. He is holding his leg in slight hip and knee flexion. there is a large bulge in the proximal thigh. During the exam, the athletic trainer requests the athlete to extend his knee as he sits on the edge of a taping table. He is able to partially straighten his leg, although there is pain down the anterior thigh area with the attempt to move it. What does the athletic trainer suspect is wrong? a. biceps femoris rupture b. femoral nerve injury c. ruptured rectus femoris muscle d. obturator nerve injury e. ilipsoas rupture

c. ruptured rectus femoris muscle

What is an excessive lateral curvature of the vertebral column called? a. kyphosis b. spondylolysis c. scoliosis d. lordosis e. ankylosing spondylolysis

c. scoliosis

All of the following are useful in evaluating low back pathology except: a. valsalva's maneuver b. bilateral straight leg test c. scouring test d. lasegue's test e. slump test

c. scouring test

During your evaluation of a patient's shoulder, you notice his left scapula is "winging." What does this indicate? a. rhomboid weakness b. deltoid weakness c. serratus anterior weakness d. upper trapezius weakness e. long thoracic nerve entrapment

c. serratus anterior weakness

What is the typical mechanism of injury for an anterior shoulder dislocation? a. shoulder abduction with internal rotation b. maximal shoulder extension c. shoulder abduction with external rotation d. shoulder adduction with internal rotation e. shoulder flexion with internal rotation

c. shoulder abduction with external rotation

In what position should the patient be to manually muscle test the hip flexors, and where should the athletic trainer's force be directed during testing? a. prone, with the force directed down onto the posterior thigh b. side-lying, with the force directed down onto the side of the thigh c. sitting, with the force directed down onto the anterior aspect of the thigh d. sitting, with the force directed down onto the medial aspect of the thigh e. none of the above

c. sitting, with the force directed down onto the anterior aspect of the thigh

What is the primary target of the AIDS virus in the body? a. neutrophils b. basophils c. t-helper lymphocytes d. phagocytes e. red blood cells

c. t-helper lymphocytes

All of the following are true about infectious mononucleosis except: a. the attack rate is highest between 15 to 25 year old b. the virus is excreted in saliva c. the primary symptom is low back pain d. it is caused by transmission of the Epstein-Barr virus e. it causes splenomegaly

c. the primary symptom is low back pain

Which of the following medications is not an NSAID? a. aspirin b. motrin c. tylenol d. celebrex e. aleve

c. tylenol

Which dermatome correlates to the T7 nerve root? a. axilla b. nipple line c. xyphoid process, costal margin d. umbilicus e. anterior superior iliac spine

c. xyphoid process, costal margin

Which muscle grade denotes active muscle movement in a gravity-eliminated position? a. -3/5 b. +3/5 c. 5/5 d. 1/5 e. 2/5

e. 2/5

During an upper quarter screen, checking the strength of thumb extension correlates to what nerve root? a. T1 b. T3 C. C5 D. C4 e. C8

e. C8

A loss of water equaling what percent of body weight will begin to threaten athletic performances? (this one is not right yikes- I don't have the options) a. 10-20% b. 0.5-1% c. 17% d. 12% e. 8%

d. 12%

Body fat percentage should not go below ______ in females because the internal organs lose a protective layer of fat. a. 20% b. 25% c. 17% d. 12% e. 8%

d. 12%

When the athletic trainer places his or her thumb over the patient's distal bicep tendon and strikes the thumb with the reflex hammer, which nerve level is being evaluated? a. C8 b. C7 c. C6 d. C5 e. C4

d. C5

Asking the patient to move his or her eyes from side to side and up and down tests the integrity of which cranial nerve? a. II b. V c. I d. III e. VIII

d. III

A second-degree burn will have which of the following characteristics? a. a raised, reddened appearance b. a white, mottled appearance c. a blackened, hard appearance d. a reddened area with blisters e. blanched, shiny appearance

d. a reddened area with blisters

What is the most common mechanism of injury for an anterior shoulder dislocation? a. adduction and external rotation b. abduction and internal rotation c. adduction and internal rotation d. abduction and external rotation e. abduction and extension

d. abduction and external rotation

A grade I ankle inversion sprain involves which structure? a. tibiofibular ligament b. posterior talofibular ligament c. calcaneofibular ligament d. anterior talofibular ligament e. spring ligament

d. anterior talofibular ligament

When a patient reports to the athletic trainer complaining of lateral hip pain, all of the following conditions might be the source of pain except: a. trochanteric bursitis b. strain of the gluteus medius c. lumbar discogenic disease d. avulsion of the ischial tuberosity e. strain of the tensor fasciae latae

d. avulsion of the ischial tuberosity

Which of the following organisms is one of the most common causes of vaginitis in women? a. AIDS b. genital herpes c. chlamydia trachomatis d. candida e. gonorrhea

d. candida

A soccer player sustains a mild head injury during a game. The athletic trainer administers a Romberg's test on the sideline, assessing which of the following? a. disorder of the medulla b. function of the cerebral cortex c. function of the temporal lobe of the brain d. cerebellum or basal ganglia dysfunction e. disorder of the parietal lobe of the brain

d. cerebellum or basal ganglia dysfunction

All of the following are controlled by the cranial nerves except: a. vision b. smell c. tongue movement d. cervical flexion e. hearing

d. cervical flexion

All of the following are signs of an injury except: a. change in skin color or texture b. change in body temperature c. change in blood pressure d. complaint of headaches e. change in respiratory rate

d. complaint of headaches

Which of the following is one of the most common eye injuries sustained in athletics? a. detached iris b. detached retina c. zygomatic fracture d. corneal abrasion e. hypertrophic retina

d. corneal abrasion

Information gained during the palpation phase of the athletic trainer's initial assessment might include all of the following except: a. presence of crepitus b. sensory function c. presence of a deformity d. degree of functional movement e. A and B

d. degree of functional movement

All of the following are symptoms to an overtrained patient except: a. emotional liability b. loss of appetite c. reduced concentration d. excessive motivation e. fatigue

d. excessive motivation

The rectus femoris muscle _______ and _______ when it contracts. a. flexes the hip, externally rotates the hip b. extends the hip, flexes the knee c. flexes the knee, plantar flexes the ankle d. flexes the hip, extends the knee e. extends the hip, extends the knee

d. flexes the hip, extends the knee

Which of the following conditions often contributes to shoulder impingement? a. acute bicipital tendinitis b. suprascapular nerve entrapment c. adhesive capsulitis d. glenohumeral instability e. serratus anterior weakness

d. glenohumeral instability

A positive clunk test is indicative of what pathology? a. unstable ankle b. olecranon fracture c. meniscus tear of the knee d. glenoid labrum tear e. anterior cruciate ligament tear

d. glenoid labrum tear

How is cranial nerve IX tested? a. having the patient identify an odor b. using a snellen chart c. having the patient stick out his or her tongue d. having the patient swallow e. by touching the patient's cheek lightly with a finger

d. having the patient swallow

While elevating a patient's shoulder, you note that the patient is unable to abduct through the full range of motion against gravity. When performing a manual muscle test, this finding would be assigned which of the following muscle grades? a. +2/5 b. 3/5 c. -4/5 d. 1/5 e. -3/5

e. -3/5

During a track meet, you notice one of the runners appears somewhat disoriented. During your assessment of this athlete, you find he is complaining of being lightheaded, his skin is cool and clammy, he is sweating profusely, and his radial pulse is rapid. You take a rectal temperature and find it is mildly elevated (102ºF). You suspect the athlete is suffering from which of the following problems. a. heat cramps b. prickly heat c. heat stroke d. heat exhaustion e. hematuria

d. heat exhaustion

Mast cells release which of the following chemicals to initiate the inflammatory response? a. bradykinins b. antigens c. lysosomes d. histamine e. antibodies

d. histamine

All of the following injuries might be associated with a "popping" sensation of the knee joint except: a. anterior cruciate ligament injury b. torn meniscus c. subluxed patella d. iliotibial band friction syndrome e. B and C

d. iliotibial band friction syndrome

A second-degree medial collateral ligament sprain is characterized by all of the following except: a. pain along the medial joint line b. no gross knee instability, but milk ligamentous laxity is noted in full knee extension during valgus stress testing c. difficulty in actively flexing and extending the knee d. immediate, severe pain following the feeling of a "pop" in the knee; the pain quickly subsides and the athlete is left feeling a dull ache in the knee joint e. A and B

d. immediate, severe pain following the feeling of a "pop" in the knee; the pain quickly subsides and the athlete is left feeling a dull ache in the knee joint

What is the hallmark sign of peripheral arterial disease? a. numbness of the hands and feet b. pallor of the hands and feet c. hyperlipidemia d. intermittent claudication e. pain and cramping of the lower extremities while in sitting

d. intermittent claudication

All of the following parameters should be assessed when checking the neurovascular status of an injured limb except: a. sensation b. the pulse distal to the injury c. motor function d. joint range of motion e. atrophic change

d. joint range of motion

A baseball player comes to see the athletic trainer and is complaining of diffuse pain, clicking, and a sensation of "slipping" of his right shoulder when throwing. What pathology might the athletic trainer suspect with this type of presentation? a. torn rotator cuff b. thrower's exostosis c. acromioclavicular joint pathology d. labral pathology e. bicipital tendinitis

d. labral pathology

Which of the following is not a good source of vitamin C? a. broccoli b. strawberries c. oranges d. nuts e. spinach

d. nuts

All of the following are risk factors for osteoporosis except: a. early menopause b. high consumption of alcohol, cigarettes, and caffeine c. sedentary lifestyle d. obesity e. lack of folic acid in the diet

d. obesity

A patient is brought to the athletic training facility after being struct in the back of the head with a bat by accident. The patient is complaining of blurred vision. Which lobe of the brain has been affected? a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital e. cerebellum

d. occipital

While training in a high-altitude climate (eg, 900 to 10,000 feet), a rock climber experiences acute dyspnea, cough, headache, and weakness. What is the probable cause of these symptoms? a. asthma b. pleurisy c. bronchitis d. pulmonary edema e. pneumonia`

d. pulmonary edema

A young gymnast sustains a fracture/dislocation of the right talus and is immobilized in nonweightbearing for 6 weeks. After the cast is removed, she begins to complain of skin hypersensitivity, pain that is disproportional to the injury, and a significant resistance to move her ankle or toes. The athletic trainer recognizes this to be the initial symptoms of which of the following disorders? a. cauda equina b. post fracture syndrome c. myasthnia gravis d. reflex sympathetic dystrophy e. muscular dystrophy

d. reflex sympathetic dystrophy

How is cranial nerve XI tested? a. having the patient identify an odor b. using a snellen chart c. having the patient smile d. resisting a shoulder shrug e. checking pupil reaction to light

d. resisting a shoulder shrug

During exercise, the body's oxygen stores are greatly diminished. The recovery O2 is used for all of the following except: a. replacing O2 dissolved in tissue fluids b. returning muscle myoglobin to resting values c. increasing venous oxyhemoglobin to pre-exercise levels d. returning the catecholamine level i n the blood to normal e. A and B

d. returning the catecholamine level in the blood to normal

What is one of the most common symptoms of a lumbar discogenic injury? a. dull, localized backache b. localized swelling with muscle guarding c. inability to backward bend d. sharp, radiating pain down the back of the leg e. pain with only forward flexion

d. sharp, radiating pain down the back of the leg

What are the 3 most commonly affected organ systems in Marfan syndrome? a. skeletal, auditory, sensory b. dermatological, auditory, neurological c. neurological, cardiovascular, gastrointestinal d. skeletal, ocular, cardiovascular e. neurological, cardiovascular, ocular

d. skeletal, ocular, cardiovascular

A gymnast reports to the athletic trainer with a complaint of low back pain, which has been present for approximately 1 week. After being sent to the doctor for evaluation, a "scottie dog" defect is seen on x-ray. This finding confirms which conditioin? a. fractured transverse process of a vertebra b. fractured demifacet of a vertebra c. spondylolisthesis d. spondylolysis e. a and B

d. spondylolysis

Which of the following muscles does not extend and laterally flex the neck? a. plenius capitis b. splenius cervicis c. levator scapulae d. sternocleidomastoid e. multifidus

d. sternocleidomastoid

Submaximal exercise tests, which evaluate physical working capacity by measuring heart rate increases with exercise, include all of the following except: a. progressive pulse rate test b. Harvard step test c. Cooper 12-minute run-walk test d. the Saltin-Astrand VO2 debt test e. none of the above

d. the Saltin-Astrand VO2 debt test

True leg-length discrepancy is measured between which 2 points? a. the posterior inferior iliac spine to the medial malleolus b. the umbilicus to the midpatella c. the umbilicus to the lateral malleolus d. the anterior superior iliac spine to the medial malleolus e. the anterior superior iliac spine to Gerdy's tubercle

d. the anterior superior iliac spine to the medial malleolus

A football quarterback is sacked during a game. He comes off the field holding his throwing arm and complains of chest and anterior shoulder pain. After evaluating the athlete, the athletic trainer suspects a torn pectoralis major muscle. Which of the following physical findings will be seen if the athletic trainer is correct? a. ecchymosis around the xyphoid process b. palpable defect in the posterior axilla c. weakness in abduction and external rotation d. weakness in adduction, flexion, and internal rotation of the affected arm e. weakness in adduction and external rotation

d. weakness in adduction, flexion, and internal rotation of affected arm

When taking a history during a physical examination of a patient, all of the following information is pertinent except: a. the mechanism of the injury b. if a "pop" or "snap" was heard or felt c. if the patient is on medication d. whether the patient has medical insurance or not e. history of previous injury

d. whether the patient has medical insurance or not

What is the average range of motion of knee flexion? a. 0 to 180 degrees b. 0 to 120 degrees c. 0 to 100 degrees d. 0 to 155 degrees e. 0 to 135 degrees

e. 0 to 135 degrees

During your examination of a football player who has sustained a low back injury during a tackle, you find that he is reporting dulled sensation along the dorsum of his right foot, he has difficulty walking on his heels, and his patellar tendon reflex is diminished. You suspect which of the following nerve root(s) is affected? a. L3 b. L4 c. L2 d. S1 to S3 e. L5

e. L5

Which of the following tests is used to detect a possible meniscal tear in the knee? a. Faber's test b. Allen's test c. Jerk test d. Lachman's test e. McMurray's test

e. McMurray's test

The athletic trainer performs a cervical distraction test on a patient. A positive finding is observed. This is indicative of which of the following? a. tumor b. soft tissue inflammation c. traction injury to the brachial plexus d. cervical disc herniation e. a nerve root compression or facet dysfunction

e. a nerve root compression or facet dysfunction

Which of the following signs/symptoms are present in a depressed patient? a. decreased appetite b. insomnia c. fatigue d. feeling of hopelessness e. all of the above

e. all of the above

A baseball player has been stung by a bee. This player has a history of a severe allergy to bee stings. A couple of minutes after being stung, the area becomes red and raised and begins to itch. The athlete begins to complain that his tongue feels thick, and he starts to have difficulty breathing. What type of shock is he beginning to develop? a. neurogenic b. metabolic c. hypovolemic d. respiratory e. anaphylactic

e. anaphylactic

You notice one of your gymnasts has lost a significant amount of weight over the past month. She is always concerned about her image when she discusses her performance with you. What might you suspect as the problem? a. drug dependence b. depression c. narcissism d. bipolar disease e. anorexia nervosa

e. anorexia nervosa

What would be the most appropriate type of roentgenogram for a possible tibial stress fracture? a. xray b. PET scan c. MRI d. CT scan e. bone scan

e. bone scan

A positive Phalen's sign is suspect of what problem? a. tarsal tunnel syndrome b. long thoracic nerve injury c. thoracic outlet syndrome d. suprascapular entrapment syndrome e. carpal tunnel syndrome

e. carpal tunnel syndrome

Changes in cognition and behavior and disorientation after a traumatic head injury are indicative of dysfunction of which part of the brain? a. basal ganglia b. pons c. cerebellum d. occipital lobe e. cerebrum

e. cerebrum

Lysosomes function to do which of the following during the inflammatory process? a. increase vascular permeability b. cease the inflammatory process c. cause platelets to adhere to the collagen matrix d. act as a catalyst in the formation of bradykinins e. contain enzymes that digest material brought into the cytoplasm of the cells during phagocytosis

e. contain enzymes that digest material brought into the cytoplasm of the cells during phagocytosis

Which of the following is the underlying cause of multiple sclerosis? a. hyperactivity of the synapses within the brain b. inflammation of the middle cerebral artery c. a genetic disorder d. low levels of dopamine production e. demyelination of the neurons of the central nervous system

e. demyelination of the neurons of the central nervous system

During digestion, food passes through the small intestine as it is being broken down into smaller components. Which area of the small intestine does it pass through first? a. ileum b. esophagus c. jejunum d. cecum e. duodenum

e. duodenum

A soccer player has fractured his right lower leg, been placed in a cast, and given crutches. The addition of crutches does what to his center of gravity? a. moves it to the left b. moves it to the midabdominal area c. moves it to the right d. there is no effect on the center of gravity e. enlarges the base of support

e. enlarges the base of support

Which muscle flexes both the foot at the knee? a. biceps femoris b. flexor digitorum c. posterior tibialis d. anterior tibialis e. gastrocnemius

e. gastrocnemius

A leading cause of hypothyroidism is Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which is an autoimmune disorder. What is the primary symptom of this disease? a. depression b. "butterfly" rash c. atrophic skin d. deviated trachea e. goiter

e. goiter

The adrenal glands release all of the following hormones except: a. aldosterone b. cortisol c. epinephrine d. norepinephrine e. growth hormone

e. growth hormone

A patient who sustains a severe or career-ending injury may go through a progression of emotional reactions, which are frequently seen with an individual who has experienced a significant loss. All of the following are included in this series of reactions except: a. bargaining b. anger c. acceptance d. denial e. guilt

e. guilt

One of the hormones that the pancreas produces is glucagon. What is the function of this hormone? a. it stimulates the increase of glucose transport out of the blood and into cells b. it facilitates a build-up of glucose in the liver c. it stimulates an increase in metabolism d. it facilitates the breakdown of fat in the pancreas e. it stimulates the release of glucose from the liver into the blood

e. it stimulates the release of glucose from the liver into the blood

What internal organ is diseased if the patient presents with jaundice? a. spleen b. pancreas c. gallbladder d. kidney e. liver

e. liver

Which of the following is an indirect method of monitoring oxygen consumption? a. measuring respiratory rate b. measuring vital capacity c. drawing blood gases during testing d. measuring tidal volume e. measuring heart rate

e. measuring heart rate

The inflammatory process includes all of the following signs and symptoms except: a. redness b. pain c. warmth d. swelling e. numbness

e. numbness

When evaluating a patient for Singing-Larson-Johansson disease, the athletic trainer should be sure to do the following: a. abduct, extend, and externally rotate the shoulder while palpating the brachial pulse b. palpate for effusion over Gerdy's tuercle c. perform Thompson's test d. check the level of the sacroiliac joints e. palpate the inferior patellar pole with the patient's knee extended and the patellar tendon relaxed

e. palpate the inferior patellar pole with the patient's knee extended and the patellar tendon relaxed

What is spina bifida occulta? a. complete herniation of the spinal cord and meninges through a defect in the neural tube b. complete herniation of the meninges through a defect in the neural tube c. partial herniation of the spinal cord and meninges through a defect in the neural tube d. partial herniation of the meninges through a defect in the neural tube e. the incomplete formation of the posterior vertebral arch without herniation of the meninges or spinal cord

e. the incomplete formation of the posterior vertebral arch without herniation of the meninges or spinal cord

When testing for paresthesia of the C5 nerve root, where should the athletic trainer perform pinprick testing? a. base of the neck b. at the nipple line c. the medial aspect of the arm d. the lateral aspect of the forearm e. the lateral aspect of the upper arm over the middle deltoid

e. the lateral aspect of the upper arm over the middle deltoid