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D

130. An organic compound that changes from one color to another at a certain pH is called. A. Test solution C. Buffer B. Standard solution D. Indicator

C

130. Performs and evaluate microbiological assay, sterility, pyrogen, and bacteriological test, safety or acute toxicity test. A. Material inspection section B. Analytical laboratory C. Biological testing D. Specification and analytical laboratory

D

131. The assay of menadione sodium sulfate (Vitamin K) uses this method of analysis: A. Gravimetric method C. Precipitation method B. Acid base method D. Redox titration

D

131. This analysis is done by dissolving the substance under examination in an accurately measured quantity of standard solution known to be in excess and back titrating the excess solution with another standard solution. A. Gravimetric analysis B. Acidimetric analysis C. Direct alkalimetric analysis D. Residual titration

C

132. Precipitation method using potassium chromate TS as indicator and silver nitrate standard solution. A. Volhard C. Mohr B. Fajan D. None of the above

D

132. When the alcoholic KOH is used to neutralized the acid and saponify the ester of 1 gram of the oil or fat, the constant determined is: A. Acid value B. Ester value C. Hydroxyl value D. Saponification value

B

133. The instrument used to measure the optical activity of the sample is: A. Refractometer B. Polarimeter C. Spectrometer D. Flame photometer

B

133. The titrant most commonly used for direct compleximetry titration. A. Zinc sulfate C. Silver nitrate B. EDTA D. HClO4

B

173. The ash content of an organic compound is an impurity of: A. Prism B. Lamp house C. Oil D. Volatile oil

D

174. Physical stability is of importance for formulator for the following reasons, EXCEPT: A. Appearance C. Bioavailability B. Uniformity D. Taste

A

174. To keep samples moisture-free the apparatus used is: A. Desiccator B. Furnace C. Incubator D. Oven

C

175. A class of raw materials, which are to be subjected to tests and assays by the Q.C department and are not yet to be used in the production of pharmaceuticals: A. Approved for use materials C. Quarantined materials B. Rejected materials D. In-process materials

D

175. Microbial assay of an antibiotics maybe performed using the following except: A. Test tube inoculation B. Cylinder plate method C. Paper disk method D. Titration process

B

176. A section of the warehouse which houses products which have been bottled, stripped or blister packed, but not yet labeled or packed into boxes/cartons and are still awaiting the final disposition of the Q.C department. A. Finished goods section C. Returned goods section B. In-process section D. Raw material section

B

176. Result of the experiment that are close to one another is considered to be: A. Accurate B. Cylinder plate method C. Approximate D. A and C

D

177. An important parameter in the quality control of tablets, shown to be related to tablet solubility properties: A. Thickness C. Friability B. Disintegration D. Tensile strength

D

177. Flame Spectroscopy procedures maybe divided into: A. Flame emission B. Atomic adsorption C. Nuclear magnetic resonance D. A and B

A

178. An analyst who determines the strength, potency, and percentage purity of a drug pharmaceutical product is performing: A. Pharmaceutical assaying C. Identification test B. Pharmacopoeial testing D. Special method

C

178. Safety and Toxicity test are conducted using: A. Rabbits B. Dogs C. White mice D. Guinea pig

B

191. The type of chromatography where the cellulose of the filter paper is used as the adsorbent is: A. Column B. Paper C. TLC D. Gas

A

192. All of the following are optical devices except: A. pH meter B. Spectrophotometer C. Colorimeter D. Filter photometer

D

192. The theoretical point at which equivalent amounts of analyte and titrant have reacted is called: A. End point C. Equivalence point B. Stoichiometric point D. B and C only

A

193. Salt and water are always the products in ___ reaction. A. Neutralization C. Complexation B. Precipitation D. Redox

B

193. Which of the following is an oxidizing agent? A. Ascorbic acid B. KMnO4 C. Sodium thiosulfate D. Sodium nitrite

B

194. A method used to assay Vitamin B12 and Ca panthothenate is by: A. Iodimetry B. Micro-bio/ turbidimetric C. Fluorometry D. Iodometry

C

194. When a weak acid is titrated with strong alkali, the indicator of choice is: A. Methyl red C. Phenolphthalein B. Methyl orange D. No indicator can be used

A

195. Primary standard sodium carbonate must be heated at a temperature of about 270 ºC for one (1) hour prior to use to convert any ___ that might be present to anhydrous sodium carbonate. A. NaHCO3 C. CO2 B. H2CO3 D. H2O

D

195. The assay of aldehyde content in volatile oil may be by: A. Gravimetric B. Bisulfite C. Hydroxylamine D. B and C

B

196. One of the fundamental laws in spectroscopy is: A. Law of mass action B. Beer's law C. Boyle's law D. Newton's law

D

196. Which of the following can be used to standardize HCl solution? A. Anhydrous sodium carbonate C. Gravimetrically using AgNO3 B. Standard NaOH solution D. All of the above

A

197. Gas chromatography is utilized in the separation of: A. Volatile component in a liquid mixture B. Amino acids C. Blood components D. A and B

D

22. Potentiometry finds application in: A. Biological assay C. Qualitative analysis B. Identification test D. pH determination

B

22. Standards solutions are also known as: A. test solutions B. volumetric solutions C. saturated solution D. none of the choices

D

220. A small volume of intravenous solution has a maximum volume of A. 1000mL B. 200mL C. 500mL D. None of the above

D

220. Drugs containing Ca can be assayed by: A. Gravimetric method C. Complexometric method B. Compleximetry D. All of the above

D

221. A sterile parenteral solution is also non pyrogenic A. All the time B. Most of the time C. Sometime D. Not at all

A

221. Adsorption indicators are used in: A. Precipitimetry C. Permanganometry B. Compleximetry D. Neutralization

C

222. If the bacterial endotoxin limit of a dosage form is 0.25EU/mL it means all components of the preparations shoul contribute A. ≤ 0.25EU/mL B. ≥0.25EU/mL C. <0.25EU/mL D. None of the above

D

222. Which of the following can Not be assayed by sodiyn tetraphenylboron titration? A. KCI C. AgNO3 B. NH4CI D. NaCI

D

223. Finished product sterilization by autoclaving will destroy pyrogens in the preparation A. All the time B. Most of the time C. Sometime D. Not at all

B

223. Metal ion indicator that forms violet complex with Cu: A. Dithiazone C. Hydroxynapthol blue B. Pyridylazonaphthol D. Eriochrome black T

B

224. Sterility Testing of Pharmacopeial articles test for the presence of A. Gram (+) and gram (-) organism B. Aerobic and anaerobic organism C. Both a and b D. None of the above

C

224. Which of the following is an oxidizing agent? A. Thiosulfate C. Bromate B. Arsenite D. Ferrous

B

225. Long term stability testing of pharmaceutical articles is carried out at A. 23 ± 2°C, 60 ± 5% RH B. 25 ± 2°C, 60 ± 5% RH C. 20 ± 2°C, 60 ± 5% RH D. None of the above

C

225. To remove the stain of potassium permanganate, the most effective chemical is: A. Chlorox C. Oxalic acid B. Vinegar D. Calamansi juice

C

226. Accelerated stability testing of pharmaceutical articles at controlled room temperature conditions is carried out at A. 30 ± 2°C, 75 ± 5% RH B. 35 ± 2°C, 75 ± 5% RH C. 40 ± 2°C, 75 ± 5% RH D. None of the above

C

226. HCI and calcium carbonate will react to form a primary product known as: A. Carbonic acid C. Calcium chloride B. Calcium hydroxide D. A and B only

A

227. Differentiating titration is applied to: A. Alkali solution C. Hard water B. Mixture of acids D. Oxidant - reductant

B

227. The minimum time period covered by the data for long term stability studies is A. 6 months B. 12 months C. 18 months D. None of the above

A

228. Assay of selenium sulfide uses ___ method. A. Iodometric C. Koppeschaar's B. Iodimetric D. Titration with hypoiodite

A

228. The minimum time period covered by the data for accelerated stability studies is A. 6 months B. 12 months C. 18 months D. None of the above

C

229. Can be used in the assay of sodium chloride: A. Mohr method C. Fajan method B. Volhard method D. All of the above

A

229. Long term stability testing of pharmaceutical articles stored in a refrigerator is carried out at A. 5 ± 3°C B. 8 ± 3°C C. 4 ± 3°C D. None of the above

C

23. If starch is used as an indicator, the end point is/are: A. appearance of intense blue color B. disappearance of intense blue color C. both of the choices D. none of the choices

A

23. In the assay of sulfonamides, the method used is: A. Diazotization C. Gravimetric B. Acid-base titration D. Volumetric

C

230. Stability indicating test procedures include A. Antimicrobial effectiveness test B. Dissolution test C. All of the above D. None of the above

D

230. True about permanganate method: I. Reaction is carried out in acidic solution II. Standard permanganate is used as titrant in direct and indirect method III. No indicator is required A. I and II only C. I and III only B. II and III only D. I, II and III

B

231. A sterilizing filter has a pore size of A. 0.5 μm B. 0.2 μm C. 1 μm D. None of the above

D

231. Concentrated HCI ( 36.46 g/mol) has a purity of 36.5% w/w and sp.gr. 1.18; approximately how many milliliter of concentrated HCI is needed to prepare 500 ml of 0.2 N solution? A. 3.1 C. 6.8 B. 5.7 D. 8.5

B

232. The reference microorganism for testing the retention efficiency of a sterilizing filter is A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Pseudomonas diminuta C. E. coli D. None of the above

B

232. What weight of 98.5% KHC8H4O4 ( 204 g/mol) is equivalent to 40.0 ml of 0.1 N NaOH? A. 0.82 g C. 0.84 g B. 0.83 g D. 0.85 g

B

233. Autoclaving or Steam Sterilization should be validated to ensure that the likelihood of survival of the most resistant microorganism is no greater than A. 10 -5 B. 10 -6 C. 10 6 D. 10 5

B

233. Exactly 30.2 ml of HCI was consumed in the titration of 1.6 gram of primary standard sodium carbonate ( 106 g/mol). What was the normal concentration of HCI solution? A. 0.5 C. 1.5 B. 1.0 D. 2.0

C

234. 33.5 ml of 0.9998N NaOH was sued in the titration of 50 ml HCI solution. Calculate the normality of HCI. A. 0.6689 C. 0.6699 B. 0.6779 D. 0.6969

B

234. What is the time (in minutes) required to reduce the microbial population by 90% or 1 log cycle (i.e., to a surviving fraction of 1/10), at a specific temperaturE. A. Sterilization time B. D value C. F0 D. None of the above

C

235. A Sodium bicarbonate (84 g/mol) tablet was dissolved in 200 ml of water and consumed 38.2 ml of 0.1009 N HCI. Calculate the % labeled claim. The labeled amount was 325 mg. A. 99.0 % C. 99.6 % B. 99.4 % D. 99.8 %

C

235. What is the time (in minutes) required to provide the lethality equivalent to that provided at 121° for a stated timE. 10% at any wavelength in the range from 290 to 450 nm. A. Sterilization time B. D value C. F0 D. None of the above

C

236. A passing tablet friability result is a maximum weight loss of not more than what percent of the weight of the tablets being testeD. A. 2% B. 5% C. 1% D. None of the above

D

236. Calculate the MgO (40.30 g/mol) content of milk of magnesia, 12.32 g of which was dissolved in 50.00 ml of 1.034 N Sulfuric acid producing a mixture that required 24.6 ml of 1.1255 N sodium hydroxide. A. 3.63 % C. 3.83 % B. 3.73 % D. 3.93 %

B

237. A 4.052 g sample of HCI sp.gr. 1.18 required 44.15 ml of 0.9035 N NaOH in a titration. Calculate the Na2CO3(106) titre of the sample. A. 0.5 C. 0.7 B. 0.6 D. 0.8

D

237. A tablet friability apparatus also test the friability of this dosage form A. Soft gelatin capsule B. Hard gelatin capsule C. Liquid fill capsule D. None of the above

A

238. Disintegration is an essential attribute of this dosage form A. Plain coated tablet B. Hard gelatin capsule C. Chewable tablet D. All of the above

A

238. Twenty sodium salicylate tablets labeled 325 mg were dispersed in sufficient water to make 200.0 ml. A 15.0 ml aliquot of the filtrate was titrated to a bromophenol blue end point in the usual way by 29.11 ml of 0.1 N HCI. Calculate the percent labeled amount of C7H5NaO3 (160.11): A. 95.5 % C. 97.5 % B. 96.5 % D. 98.5 %

D

239. Mixture of NaOH and Na2CO3 was assayed by double indicator method, 42.0 ml of a 0.0955 N HCI was consumed by 2.5 ml sample to produce pph end point. Calculate the % Na2CO3 if % NaOH is 4.12. A. 3 % C. 5 % B. 4 % D. 6 %

B

239. What tablet attribute is correlated with the biological availability of the active ingredient. A. Disintegration B. Dissolution C. Content uniformity D. None of the above

B

24. A term in compleximetry used to indicate a determination of a metal in the presence of another metal. A. Linking C. Complexing B. Masking D. Redox

D

24. Types of chemical reaction used in the volumetric analysis A. redox B. neutralization C. diazotization D. all of the choices E. a and b only

C

240. 10 ml sample of diluted phosphoric acid consumed 35.0 ml of 1.002 N NaOH to produce a thymolphthalein end point. If the indicator blank is 0.7 ml, what is the % w/v H3PO4 (98)? A. 16.2 % C. 16.8 % B. 16.5 % D. 17.0 %

B

240. A belonging to climatic zone IV is officially described as A. Temperate B. Hot, humid C. Hot, dry D. None of the above

D

241. The Philippines belong to what climatic zone A. I B. II C. III D. None of the above

A

241. The experimental way of determining when equivalent amounts of reactants have reacted together is known as. A. Titration C. Standardization B. Stoichiometric method D. Equivalence point

B

242. Assay of atropine in belladonna is an example of: A. Proximate assay C. Both A and B B. Ultimate assay D. Neither A nor B

C

242. Which of the following is not an official hard gelatin capsule size for human consumption A. 000 B. 00 mL C. 0000 D. None of the above

C

243. A calibrated volumetric apparatus was calibrated using standards traceable to A. ASTM B. ATCC C. NIST D. None of the above

A

243. A solution of known concentration used to standardize another solution is: A. Primary standard C. Secondary standard B. Dilute solution D. B and C

D

244. Pharmaceutical articles like raw materials must not harbor these organism except. A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Salmonella D. None of the above

A

244. The process of determining the exact concentration of a solution is: A. Standardization C. Redox B. Neutralization D. Acidimetry

C

245. The type of ligand where EDTA belongs: A. Unidentate C. Hexadentate B. Bidentate D. Tridentate

A

245. The units of osmolar concentration are usually expressed as A. mOsM B. mOsm C. mOSm D. none of the above

C

246. Clean room classification are specified in Federal standard A. 211E B. 210E C. 209E D. None of the above

C

246. Ferric alum TS is used as indicator in volumetric precipitation method if the titrant is: A. AgNO3 C. NH4SCN B. BaCI2 D. NH4CI

A

247. Air particle counts in clean rooms is base on what particle size A. 0.5 μm B. 0.2 μm C. 1 μm D. None of the above

B

247. The pH of a solution is usually measured using: A. Platinum electrode C. Mercury electrode B. Glass electrode D. Calomel electrode

C

248. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance is sued for: A. Radioisotopes C. Identification of chemicals B. Irradiation D. A and B

A

259. Given a tablet thickness of 0.47 cm, what should be the acceptable tablet weight range? A. 0.1170-0.1430 g B. 0.1203-0.1398 g C. 0.0300-0.2300 g D. 0.0550- 0.2050 g

C

26. Other name of ferrous phenanthrolinE. A. eosin Y B. crystal violet C. ferroin D. ferric alum

A

270. In SQC, the control chart prepared based on the number of fraction defective is called: A. Attribute chart B. Beer's plot C. Bar chart D. Variable chart

B

270. The minimum amount of moisture present in vegetable drugs should be ___ % for the Toluene. A. 1 C. 3 B. 2 D. 4

D

271. Common component of cap liners, stoppers, and parts of dropper assemblies: A. Metal B. plastic C. Glass D. Rubber

B

271. If the wavelength of light is 10 - 7 cm, this is equal to one ___. A. um C. Angstrom B. nm D. m

B

272. This class of drugs require batch certification from the Bureau of Food and Drugs A. Anti-convulsants B. Antibiotics C. analgesic D. Vitamins

D

272. Which of the following components of energy is NOT involved in spectroscopy? A. Electronic C. Rotational B. Vibrational D. Translational

A

273. Calculate the water equivalence factor of Karl Fischer (KF) reagent, if 179.5 mg sample of sodium tartrate dihydrate required 15.3 ml of KF reagent? A. 1.8 C. 2.2 B. 2.0 D. 2.4

C

273. While waiting for its release by the quality control, materials are held in: A. Packing area B. Quarantine area C. Analytical laboratory D. Biological laboratory

C

274. A plot of absorbance against concentrations of a standard drawn in straight line is: A. Spectral absorbance plot C. Beer's plot B. Calibration curve plot D. Standardization plot

B

274. One of the following is a secondary packaging component: A. Caps B. Corrugated cartons C. vials D. Bottles

A

275. A test which is determined by selecting not less than 30 tablets from each production batch and assaying 10 tablets individually as directed in the assay of the individual compedial monograph. A. Content uniformity B. Weight variation C. Disintegration test D. Dissolution test

A

275. The radiant energy required in the analysis of drugs using fluometry. A. UV C. IR B. VIS D. All of the above

D

276. The following are used in Fourier Transformed Infra Red (FTIR) transmission technique, EXCEPT: A. KBr pellet C. Liquid petrolatum B. NaCI pellet D. ATR

B

276. The gas that is used in gas sterilization is: A. Oxygen B. Ethylene oxide C. Carbon dioxide D. Nitrogen

D

277. Nephelometric method for drug assaying is applied to: A. Suspensions C. Colloids B. Turbid solutions D. B and C only

B

277. The bioassay for Parathyroid Injection is based on measuring the increase in serum calcium in A. Cat B. Dog C. Sheep D. Rat

C

278. Biological reactivity test(s) in vitro except A. Agar diffusion test B. Direct contact test C. Implantation test D. Elution test

C

278. Which of the following substances is least applicable for ester value determination? A. Fats C. Alcohols B. Essential oils D. Fatty oils

C

279. Animal employed for the biological assay of oxytocin injection A. Pigeon B. Rabbit C. Chicken D. Rat

A

279. The bisulfite method is used on assaying volatile oils to determine: A. Aldehyde content C. Ester content B. Acid content D. Alcohol content

D

28. Primary standard in the standardization of ceric sulfate solution A. potassium hydrogen phthalate B. calciuim carbonate C. sodium bicarbonate D. arsenic trioxide

C

28. Safety or toxicity for infusion plastic sets is conducted using: A. Dogs C. White mice B. Food ingestion D. Rabbits

C

280. Bleeding is a main stability problem seen in A. Capsules B. Emulsions C. Ointments D. Tablets

C

280. The principle involved in the isulfite method for assay of volatile oils is.... A. Formation of insoluble complex C. Formation of soluble product B. Formation of turbidity D. Formation of a dense liquid

D

281. In phenol content determination of volatile oil, the layer in the graduated neck of the cassia flask reached 2.7 ml from the sample of 10 ml after treatment with KOH solution. The % oil is.. A. 73 % C. 7.3 % B. 69 % D. 27 %

C

281. The test for content uniformity is required for A. Film-coated tablets B. Solutions for inhalation C. suspensions D. Liquid-filled soft capsules

C

282. Powdered glass test is done on the following except A. Borosilicate glass B. Soda lime glass C. Treated soda lime glass D. General purpose soda lime glass

B

282. Which of the following is NOT true about NMR A. C-NMR uses C-13 C. Sample probe is very small B. Very sensitive analytical technique D. TMS is used as reference standard

A

283. In what type of dosage form is the determination of zeta potential needed? A. Suspensions B. Solutions C. emulsions D. Aerosols

A

283. The adsorbent used in paper chromatography is: A. Cellulose C. Silica B. Alumina D. Charcoal

C

284. Determine the shelf-life of a product A. Sampling inspection program B. Validation program C. Stability testing program D. All

A

284. In using a spectrophotometer to measure the concentration of the sample, the following date were obtained: absorbance of the standard = 0.39, absorbance of the sample - 0.42, concentration of the standard = 15 mcg. The concentration of the sample is ___ mcg. A. 16.15 C. 15.75 B. 17.5 D. 14.5

D

285. The QC manager is not in charged of this section A. Analytical laboratory B. Biological testing laboratory C. Specs and analytical program D. Research and development section

D

285. True about NMR spectroscopy, EXCEPT: A. External magnetic field is applied to the sample B. Radio wave is applied C. Protium is used D. Used for mixtures

D

286. Plane polarized light can be produced by using: A. CaCO3 C. Icelandspar B. Polaroid D. All of the above

A

286. The dye used in the leaker test A. Methylene blue B. Phenolphthalein C. Thymol blue D. None of the above

A

287. A defect that may affect the function of an object and therefore, may render the product useless. A. Major defect B. Critical defect C. Minor defect D. Ocular defect

B

287. Which of the following solvents in NOT used in NMR studies? A. CCI4 C. Ether B. CHCI3 D. CS2

B

288. A firm's removal or correction of a distributed product which involves no violation A. Drug recall B. Market withdrawal C. Stock recovery D. None of the above

B

288. Gypsum is added to silica which is used as adsorbent in TLC to serve as: A. Hardening agent C. Thickening agent B. Binder D. Lubricant

C

289. In gas chromatography, the stationary phase is: A. Inert gas C. High boiling zliquid B. Powedered adsobent D. Volatile oil

B

289. Which question is used to predict the shelf life of a drug product? A. Michaelis-Menten equation B. Arrhenius theory C. Hixson-Crowell equation D. Stokes equation

A

29. Chemical analysis which determines the amount of percentage content in which the component of a substance is present: A. Quantitative C. Qualitative B. Proximate D. Ultimate

A

29. In the standardization of iodine solution, why is there a need to boil the solution of arsenic trioxide? A. it increases the solubility B. it makes the solution stable C. both a and c D. none of the choices

A

290. The operating speed for paddle in dissolution apparatus is: A. 50 rpm C. 150 rpm B. 100 rpm D. 200 rpm

C

290. The sampling and examination of all raw materials received by the factory is a function of the : A. Documentation section B. Biological testing laboratory C. Material inspection method D. Analytical laboratory

A

291. GC is utilized in the resolution of: A. Volatile compounds C. Water soluble compounds B. Biological compounds D. B and C only

D

291. Pyrogen test in vitro: A. Colorimeter B. Cylinder-plate method C. Fluorophotometer D. LAL method

A

292. In column chromatography, the resulting patterns with several bands is: A. Chromatogram C. Spectrum B. Eluate D. Adsorbate

B

292. Potency of a 100 mg tablet at expiry date: A. 95 mg B. 90 mg C. 105 mg D. 110 mg

A

293. A critical defect that would stop the packaging line operations: A. Wrong labels B. Misaligned labels C. Inverted labels D. smeared labels

A

293. When the current flows from SHE to the substance, the electrode potential of ___ is designated for the substance? A. + C. 0 B. - D. >

D

294. Standard Operating Procedures (SOP): A. Concerned with record keeping B. Step by step method on how to go about a job C. Done to facilitate recall D. All of these are correct

A

294. U.S.P. Method 1 for iodine value determination is ___ method. A. Hanus C. Hubi's B. Wij's D. Wagner's

B

295. Samples of raw materials in the quarantine area will not be subjected to this test: A. Physical and organoleptic examination B. Leaker test C. Potency assay D. Microbiological test

A

295. When alcoholic KOH is used to neutralize the acid and saponify the ester in 1 gm of the of fat, the constant determined is: A. Acid value C. Acetyl value B. Ester Value D. Iodine value

B

296. Calculate the water content of Streptomycin powder using 3.5 g sample. The water equivalence factor of the KF reagent was 4.6 and the volume consumed was 9.2 ml. The % water content was: A. 1.2 C. 12.1 B. 1.21 D. 1.1

B

296. It is the partial or complete separation of the top or bottom of a tablet from the main body A. Lamination B. Capping C. Mottling D. Picking

C

297. In NMR analysis, many absorption peak are split into mutiplets because of the phenomenon known as: A. Proton chemical shifts C. Spin - spin coupling B. Chemical exchange D. Nuclear magnetic moment

A

31. A molecule which provides groups of attachment to metal ions. A. Ligand B. Chelate C. Both a and b D. None of the choices

A

53. In the SQC, the control chart prepared based on the number of fraction defective is called: A. Attribute chart C. Beer's plot B. Bar chart D. Variable chart

A

54. A 4.59 mL sample of HCl, specific gravity 1.3, required 50.5 mL of 0.9544N NaOH in a titration. Calculate the % w/w HCl. A. 29% B. 1% C. 92% D. 69%

B

54. The number of linear openings per square inch is known as: A. Sieve C. Both A and B B. Mesh D. None of these

B

55. Test used to determine the strength of tablets includes: A. Content uniformity C. Weight variation B. Hardness D. Both A and B

B

55. What is the titer value for 0.05 M calcium chloride with 2 moles of water? MW= 142.9 A. 3.57 mg B. 7.15 mg C. 73.5 mg D. 53.7 mg

D

13. Lower control limit if mean is 10.5 ml and one standard deviation is 0.025. A. 10.450 ml C. 10.575 ml B. 10.420 ml D. 10.425 ml

C

1. A buret with a glass stopcock can be used for: A. Alcohols C. Acids B. Bases D. Salts

A

1. Most of the official drugs containing calcium and zinc are assayed by A. Complexometry C. Precipitimetry

D

1. Other name of Ferric ammonium sulfate A. Ferric alum B. Fe NH4 (SO4)2 C. Fe (NH4)2(SO4)2 D. A and B E. A and C

C

10. A tool for detecting variations in a process A. Pie cahrt C. QC chart

A

10. Describes how close a measured value is to the true valuE. A. Accuracy B. Precision C. Range D. Standard deviation

B

10. Using the Karl Fischer method, determine the moisture content of a sample of raw material where a 63 mg sample consumed 0.75 ml of titrant. Water equivalence factor is 1.10. A. 1.8% C. 2.10% B. 1.3% D. 0.74%

A

100. An analyst who determines the strength, potency, and percentage purity of a drug or pharmaceutical product is performing: A. Pharmaceutical assaying C. Pharmacopeial test B. Identification test D. Special test

D

100. Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. Potassium dichromate is an oxidizing agent II. Potassium dichromate is used chiefly for the determination Fe+2 and indirectly sample that will oxidized Fe+2 to Fe+3. III. Potassium dichromate to chronous ion, gains 6 electrons A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I, II, and III

D

101. Type of alkaloidal assay where the total alkaloids are determined. A. Ultimate C. Extraction B. Specific D. Proximate

A

13. The QC manager is in charge of the following sections EXCEPT A. Specification and assay development B. Analytical testing laboratory C. Research and development studies D. Biological testing

C

101. Which of the statement/s is/are correct? I. Direct titration of a reducing agent with iodine is called iodometry. II. In iodimetry, an oxidizing agent is added to excess I- to produce iodine which us then titrated with sodium thiosulfatE. III. In iodimetry, starch TS can be added at the beginning of the titration. IV. In iodometry, starch TS can be added at the beginning of the titration. A. I only B. II only C. III only D. IV only E. I, II, III, and IV

B

102. Koppeschaar's solution is also known as: A. 0.1 N Iodine solution B. 0.1 N Bromine solution C. 0.1 M sodium nitrite solution D. 0.1 N sodium thiosulfate solution

A

102. The measurement of a base of a given sample by titration with a standard acid is known as: A. Acidimetry C. Alkalimetry B. Compleximetry D. Redox

D

103. Assay of sulfa drugs can be determined by this reaction with sodium nitritE. A. Neutralization B. Complexation C. Precipitation D. Diazotization

A

103. Which of the following substance is assayed by residual alkalimetric analysis. A. Aspirin C. Hydrochloric acid B. Sodium hydroxide D. Zinc oxide

A

104. 0.1 N Bromine is employed as: A. Oxidizing agent B. Reducing agent C. Masking agent D. Demasking agent

B

104. The molecular weight of NaOH is 40. How many grams of NaOH pellets are needed to make 500mL of 1.5 N solution? A. 20 C. 40 B. 30 D. 60

C

105. A precisely manufactured glass tube with graduations enabling to measure the volume of liquid delivered through the stopcock at the bottom. A. Separatory funnel B. Graduated cylinder C. Buret D. Pipet

A

105. Which of the following is the most effective chemical substance in removing stains of potassium permanganate? A. Oxalic acid C. Chalk B. Sodium thiosulfate D. Vinegar

B

106. Dichlorophenol-indophenol solution is standardized using: A. Sulfanilamide USP B. ascorbic acid USP C. Sulfathiazole USP D. Resorcinol USP

C

106. Which of the following indicators is the least used for acid-base titration? A. Methyl Orange C. Ferric Alum B. Phenolpthalein D. Methyl Red

D

107. 1 N HCl VS can be standardized using: A. Sodium bicarbonate B. Potassium phthalate C. Sodium oxalate D. Tromethamine

B

107. Residual method titration with EDTA is applicable to what metal ion? A. Calcium C. Zinc B. Aluminum D. Magnesium

C

108. Chemical reactions that involves a change in the valence number of reacting substances. A. Neutralization C. Oxidation-Reduction B. Complexation D. Precipitation

B

108. Method II of determining iodine value is also known as: A. Hub's method B. Wij's method C. Hanus method D. All of the choices

C

109. A process wherein the sample is made to liberate iodine, which is then titrated with a standard solution of sodium thiosulfate. A. Volumetric titration C. Iodometry B. Back titration D. Iodimetry

C

109. Residual titration method is also known as: A. Direct titration B. Indirect titration C. Back titration D. Redox titration

D

11. During shipment of the finished product to the wholesale or retail outlets, the responsible person should ensure: A. Product identification C. Segregation of different types B. No damage, spillage or breakage D. All of the above

A

11. Primary standard in the standardization of perchloric acid A. Potassium hydrogen phthalate B. Calcium carbonate C. Benzoic acid D. Sodium carbonate

D

11. The QC Department is important to A. Ensure uniform production B. Safeguard public health C. Ensure that the product complies with the FDA requirements D. AOTA

A

110. Malic acid represent in cherry juice may be determined by: A. Indirect Permanganate oxidation Method B. Direct Permanganate Oxidation Method C. Alkalimetry D. Acidimetry

B

110. To determine the total ash, the sample is incinerated at a temperature of 675 + - 25°C. This temperature is represented by: A. Very dull heat B. Dull red heat C. White red heat D. Bright red heat

A

111. Iodometry is an indirect analysis of: A. Oxidizing agents C. Acids B. Reducing agents D. Bases

B

111. The standard substance used in checking the cleanliness of Abbe refractometer by determining its refractive index is: A. Rose oil B. Water C. Methanol D. Peanut oil

A

112. Coulometric Titration of water determination is also known as: A. Method I c B. Method II C. Method I a D. Method III

A

112. The chemical factor used in calculation of percent purity of a substance in volumetric analysis. A. mEq weight C. Molality B. Molarity D. None of the above

C

113. Adsorption indicators are used in: A. Complexity C. Volumetric Precipitation B. Acidimetry D. Alkalimetry

C

113. Perchloric acid in glacial acetic acid and perchloric acid in dioxane are volumetric solution used in what type of analysis? A. Direct acidimetry B. Direct alkalimetry C. Non-aqueous acidimetry D. Non-aqueous alkalimetry

C

114. The indicator used in permanganate titration: A. Methyl Orange C. Permanganate solution B. Phenolpthalein D. Methyl Red

C

114. The primary standard used in the standardization of the above VS is: A. Sodium carbonate B. Sodium bicarbonate C. Potassium biphthalate D. Benzoic acid

B

115. The indicator for EDTA direct titration of calcium carbonate: A. Thymol blue C. Methyl red B. Hydroxynapthol blue D. Methylene blue

D

13. The term dried to constant weight means that two consecutive weighing do not differ by more than: A. 0.0002 g B. 0.2 mg C. 0.5 mg/g D. All of the choices E. C only

B

115. Which of the following statement/s is/are true? I. Phenol is assayed using residual iodometry using excess bromine solution. II. 0.1 N Bromine solution contains potassium bromide and potassium bromatE. III. Bromine vapor is liberated from KBr and KBrO3 in basic environment. A. I only B. I and II only C. I, II, and III D. None of the choices

C

116. A 1.5g of liquefied phenol was dissolve in enough water to make 1000mL. A 30 mL sample of the solution was treated with 30 mL of 0.1 N Bromine solution and HCl. The mixture was treated with KI and titrated with 8.7 mL of 0.1N sodium thiosulfatE. It was also found that 21 mL of 0.1N sodium thiosulfate was required in the titration of the iodine liberated when 20 mL of the bromine solution was treated with KI and HCl. Compute for the % phenol in the samplE. MW Phenol = 94. A. 59.4 B. 69.4 C. 79.4 D. 89.4

A

116. To find the mEq factor of an oxidizing agent, divide the molecular weight by: A. No. of electrons gained C. Valence B. No. of electrons lost D. Replaceable hydrogen

B

117. A term in compleximetry used to indicate a determination of a metal in the presence of another metal is: A. Redox C. Linking B. Masking D. Complexing

B

117. Hydrolysis products of ASA A. Acetic acid + sodium hydroxide B. Acetic acid + salicylic acid C. Salicylic acid + sodium hydroxide D. Sodium salicylate + water

A

118. The measurement of a base of a given sample by titration of standard acid is: A. Acidimetry B. Alkalimetry C. Compleximetry D. Redox Titration

C

118. Two substance reacting upon reaching the endpoint must have the same: A. Normality C. No. of equivalents B. Volume D. Weight

D

119. A characteristic of a substance which is suitable for non-aqueous titrimetry is: A. Weakly reactive B. Weakly basic C. Very soluble in water D. a and b E. b and c

C

119. The method of assay for sulfonamides is: A. Acid-base titration C. Diazotization with nitrite B. Gravimetric D. Redox titration

A

12. Primary standard in the standardization of sodium methoxidE. A. Benzoic acid B. Sodium bicarbonate C. Sodium carbonate D. Potassium hydrogen phthalate

C

12. The functions of QC include the following EXCEPT A. Analytical control B. Inspection control C. Auditing D. Planning

C

12. To find the mEq factor of an oxidizing agent is to divide the molecular weight by: A. Valence C. No. of electrons gained (VDGEROA) B. No. of electron lost D. Replaceable hydrogen

A

120. To remove stain of KMnO4, the most effective chemical substance is : A. Oxalic acid B. Sodium thiosulfate C. Vinegar D. Bromine solution

A

120. Which of the following is a reducing agent? A. Ascorbic acid C. Iodine B. Potassium Permanganate D. Hydrochloric acid

C

121. Chemical analysis, which determines the amount or percentage content of a certain component in a sample. A. Qualitative C. Quantitative B. Proximate D. Gravimetric

D

121. The oxidation number of Mn in KMnO4 is: A. +2 B. +1 C. +5 D. +7

D

122. The indicator used in the assay of weak acid reacting with a strong base is: A. Methyl red TS C. Eriochrome Black B. Methyl orange TS D. Phenolpthalein

B

122. Which of the following chemicals is not included in preparing the Karl Fischer reagent? A. Pyridine B. Acetone C. Sulfur dioxide D. Iodine

B

123. The process in which the exact concentration of solution is determineD. A. Neutralization B. Standardization C. Titration D. Complexation

D

123. The substance being analyzed is the: A. Titrant C. Salt B. Indicator D. Analyte

B

124. Expression of concentration in volumetric EXCEPT: A. Normality C. Molarity B. Titer D. Molality

B

124. Titer is an expression of concentration of solution is determineD. A. g of solute/ 100 mL B. g or mg/mL C. g of solute / L D. b and c

A

125. Methyl orange in base medium is colored: A. Yellow B. Pink C. Colorless D. Green

A

125. The assay procedures in volumetric precipitation were introduced by the following scientists, EXCEPT: A. Arrhenlus C. Fajan B. Mohr D. Volhard

C

126. Assay of zinc oxide is what type of analysis? A. Alkalimetric residual B. Acidimetric direct C. Acidimetric residual D. Alkalimetric direct

A

126. The terms used when equivalent amount of each reactants have reacted are the following EXCEPT: A. End point C. Stoichiometric B. Equivalence point D. Theoretical point

D

127. Component of a blank used in the assay of a substance are, EXCEPT: A. Solvent C. Indicator B. Reagent D. Analyte

D

127. The indicator used if weak acid is titrated with strong alkali. A. Methyl orange B. Methyl red C. Phenol red D. Phenolphthalein

B

128. Phenolphthalein in alkali medium is colored: A. Yellow B. Pink C. Colorless D. Blue

C

128. The color of phenolphthalein in vinegar. A. Pink C. Colorless B. Yellow D. Orange

D

129. Suppository that does not melt at body temperature is what kind of defect? A. Major B. Critical C. Minor D. Performance

D

129. The primary standard used in the assay of potassium permanganate. A. Hydrogen peroxide C. Potassium dichromate B. Sulfuric acid D. Sodium oxalate

C

134. Analysis in which separation of the constituents from the sample is done and then weighing the product is: A. Volumetric analysis B. Instrumental method of analysis C. Gravimetric analysis D. Special method of analysis

B

134. The masking agent used in the assay of Mg with EDTA in the presence of Aluminum. A. Triethanolamine C. Potassium cyanide B. Thioglycol D. Ammonium fluoride

B

135. The end point of iodometry using starch TS as indicator is: A. Intense blue color B. Disappearance of blue color C. Greenish-blue color D. Disappearance of green-blue color

A

135. The substance used to form a film over the precipitated silver chloride particles in Volhard's method. A. Nitric acid C. Triethanolamine B. Sodium chloride D. Nitrobenzene

D

136. Assay of sodium nitrite is an example of: A. Neutralization C. Complexation B. Precipitation D. Redox method

A

136. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct? I. Ester value is the number of mg of KOH required to saponify the ester in 1 g of fat or oil. II. Ester value = saponification value + Acid value III. Ester value determination is applicable to fats, volatile oils, and alcohols. A. I only B. I and II only C. I, II, and III D. All of the statements are incorrect

B

137. Ceric sulfate is a/an: A. Precipitating agent C. Reducing agent B. Oxidizing agent D. Complexing agent

D

137. Which of the following area is not a responsibility of quality control manager? A. Specification and analytical development B. Biological testing lab C. Analytical lab D. Market research

B

138. Hexane is the best solvent extracting: A. Resins B. Fats C. Volatile oil D. Acid

D

138. The valence number of Mn in KmnO4 is: A. +2 C. +5 B. +1 D. +7

D

139. The apparatus used to wash down drops of standard solution clinging to the tip of the buret: A. Bobcock bottle C. Acetylization flask B. Cassia flask D. Wash bottle

B

139. What is the other name of Koettsdorfer number? A. Acid value B. Saponification value C. Ester value D. Iodine value

C

14. Gas chromatography is utilized in the separation and identification of: A. Amino acid C. Volatile liquids in a mixture B. Alkaloids D. Blood components

A

14. Other name of systematic error A. Determinate B. Indeterminate C. Random D. Both b and c

A

14. The FIFO Policy must always be observed to A. Assures that the oldesy stock is used first C. Contain the information regarding the activity of the active ingredient

C

140. The following are methods of determining the end point in precipitimetry: A. Use of adsorption indicators C. Formation of turbidity B. Cessation of precipitation D. Appearance of turbidity

A

140. The unsaponifiable matter present in animal fats is: A. Cholesterol B. Phytosterol C. Lard D. Wax

A

141. The crude fiber of a drug usually consist of: A. Cellulose B. Cholesterol C. Phytosterol D. All of the choices

B

141. The quality control manager is in-charge of the following sections, EXCEPT: A. Analytical laboratory B. Specifications and analytical development C. Research and development D. Biological testing laboratory

C

142. The unsaponifiable matter present in vegetable oils and fats is: A. Cholesterol B. Cellulose C. phytosterol D. lard

B

142. Used to describe the overall organization body designed to assure product quality. A. Quality control C. Drug assaying B. Quality assurance D. All of the above

D

143. If a 0.47 g sample of potassium iodide yielded 0.7564 g of silver iodide precipitate by gravimetric assay, compute for the % purity of the potassium iodidE. MW KI = 165.90; MW AgI = 234.76 A. 83.7% B. 93.7% C. 103.7% D. 113.7%

C

143. Serve as basis in accepting or rejecting the product. A. Standards C. A and B B. Specifications D. None of the above

B

144. It shows mainly the conformance or non-conformance of the material to specifications. A. Variable defects C. Minor defects B. Attribute defects D. Ocular defects

A

144. Which of the following volumetric solutions is used in diazotization analysis of sulfa drugs? A. 0.1 M sodium nitrite B. 0.05 edetate disodium C. 0.01 M sodium nitrite D. 0.1 N Iodine solution

B

145. Crack in the bottle is an example of ___ defect. A. Minor C. Critical B. Major D. Serious

C

145. Phenol is assayed using this method of analysis. A. Residual alkalimetry B. Volumetric precipitation C. Residual iodometry using excess bromine D. Iodimetry

A

146. Calculate the molarity of sodium nitrite volumetric solution, if 31.6 mL of this solution reacts with 0.5004 g of sulfanilamide (C6H8N2O2S) to reach an end point. MW of sulfanilamide = 172.2 A. 0.09196 B. 0.91960 C. 0.21090 D. 0.01209

C

146. Environmental monitoring is conducted by: A. Material inspection section C. Biological testing laboratory B. Analytical laboratory D. Specification and analytical laboratory

C

147. A 0.5110 g sample of sulfathiozole was assayed using 18.8 mL of 0.1005 M sodium nitrite solution in a titration. Each mL of 0.1 M sodium nitrite is equivalent to 25.53 mg of C9H9N3O2S2. Calculate the % C9H9N3O2S2 in the samplE. A. 99% B. 95% C. 94% D. 93%

C

147. A basic quality function is that of deciding whether the product conforms to specifications. This function is generally called ___. A. Sampling C. Acceptance B. Standard D. Inspection

A

148. It is a finite number of objects selected from a batch of a product. A. Sample C. Population B. Sampling D. Inspection number

D

148. Which of the following standard solutions is not used in redox titration? A. Sodium thiosulfate solution B. Iodine solution C. Bromine solution D. Sodium hydroxide solution

B

149. Assay of ASA (raw material) is an example of what method of analysis? A. Direct alkalimetry B. Residual alkalimetry C. Direct acidimetry D. Residual acidimetry

B

149. In a ___, a decision is made after the result of the second sampling is known. A. Single sampling C. Multiple sampling B. Double sampling D. None of the above

B

15. Ferric ammonium sulfate is used as indicator in the standardization of: A. Silver nitrate B. Ammonium thiocyanate C. Edetate disodium D. All of the choices

C

15. The Kjeldahl method of analysis is used to determine A. Lipids C. Nitrogen

C

15. The name of the originator of using silver nitrate as the titrant and potassium chromate as the indicator in volumetric precipitation of chloride. A. Volhard C. Mohr B. Beer D. Fajan

C

150. Assay of sodium nitrite is an example of what method of analysis? A. Direct titration - Redox B. Indirect titration - Redox C. Residual titration - Redox D. Iodimetry

D

150. The following are the numbers that must be specified in sampling plan, EXCEPT: A. Population C. Acceptance B. Sample D. Rejection

D

151. An analyst who determines the strength, potency and percentage purity of a drug or pharmaceutical product is performing: A. Special method B. Identification test C. Pharmacopeial testing D. Pharmaceutical assaying

D

151. The following are the member countries that worked in the improvement of MIL-STD-105D, EXCEPT: A. USA C. Canada B. UK D. Australia

A

152. The MIL-STD-105D is used in sampling by: A. Attribute C. Defects B. Variable D. A and B only

C

152. Two substances reacting upon reaching the end point must have the same A. Normality B. Volume C. Number of mEq D. Weight

A

153. AQL is defined in the ABC standard as: A. Maximum percent defectives C. Rejection number B. Acceptance quality level D. Acceptance number

B

153. Most of the official drugs containing Calcium and Magnesium are determine by: A. Gravimetric B. Complexometry C. Bioassay D. Non-aqueous matter

A

154. In a table for sample size code, the inspection level ___ is used when less discrimination is needed. A. I C. III B. II D. S

D

154. Type of titration used in volumetric analysis: A. Direct B. Residual C. Indirect D. All of the above

C

155. The iodine value of an oil is a quantitative measure of: A. Phenol coefficient B. Saturated fatty acid C. Unsaturated fatty acid D. Unsaponifiable matter

C

155. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the use of Q.C stickers? A. Decision stickers are pasted on the top of quarantine stickers B. Green stickers means approved for use C. Green sticker should be pasted above the red sticker D. Red sticker can be pasted even without removing yellow sticker

A

156. A sample of 0.1350 g of As2O3 was assayed iodimetrically using 23.4 mL of 0.1055 N iodine solution (atomic weight: As=74.92, O=16) The percentage purity of the sample is: A. 90.44 B. 90.23 C. 89.0 D. 90.54

A

156. Approved raw materials are audited to assure that they are rotated in such a manner that the old stocks are used first. This is known as: A. FIFO C. FIPA B. IFOF D. FOFI

B

157. Calculate the water content of streptomycin powder using 3.50 g samplE. The water equivalence factor, F, of the KF reagent was 4.6 and the volume consumed was 9.2 mL. The % water content was: A. 1.20 B. 1.21 C. 12.10 D. 1.10

C

157. The following are examples of primary packaging components, EXCEPT: A. Plunger C. Boxes B. Seals D. Stripping

B

158. Minimum criteria for acceptance of printed materials, EXCEPT: A. Color C. Cleanliness B. Expiration date D. Shape

D

172. Which of the following given has the principal concern for residual contamination which could alter or adversely affect a subsequent product and cannot be detected by an ordinary SOP methods? A. Assay validation C. Process validation B. Instrument validation D. Cleaning validation

D

158. Twenty tablets of Ascorbic acid weighed 4.250 g and a powdered sample of 0.3075 g used up 21.5 mL of 0.1085 N iodine solution. What was the amount of Ascorbic acid per dose of 2 tablets? Each mL of 0.1 N iodine is equivalent to 8.80 mg of C6H6O6 (Ascorbic Acid). The amount is: A. 283.7 mg B. 141.86 mg C. 0.2836 g D. A and C

C

159. Labeling requirements for drugs and cosmetics, EXCEPT: A. Name C. Description B. Lot number D. Business address

C

159. The primary staining reagent of the Gram procedure is: A. Methyl red B. Carbol fucshin C. Crystal violet D. Saffranin

B

16. Reassay date of thiamine Hcl if tested in December 1992. A. 6/93 C. 12/94 B. 12/93 D. 6/94

B

16. The end point of using number ferric ammonium sulfate is: A. White precipitate B. Red-brown color C. Pink color D. Blue color

D

160. Package insert include the following text, EXCEPT: A. Action C. Indication B. Warning D. Expiration date

D

160. The bacterial structure responsible for selective permeability is: A. Cell wall B. Fimbriae C. Spore D. Cytoplasmic membrane

D

161. One of the physico-chemical test conducted for containers. A. Stress crack resistance C. Light Transmission B. Torque D. Thermal analysis

A

161. The measurement of a base of a given sample by titration with the standard acid is: A. Acidimetry B. Alkalimetry C. Complexometry D. Redox

B

162. Analysis where separation of the constituent from the sample is done that weighing the products is: A. Volumetric B. Gravimetric C. Special D. Gasometric method

C

162. Torque test is an example of: A. Container control C. Closure control B. Leak test D. Volatilization test

C

163. Adsorption indicators are used in: A. Complexometric reaction B. Acidimetry C. Volumetric precipitation D. Alkalimetry

A

163. Based on the stability of raw materials, reassay date assigned to flavoring agent is: A. 6 months C. 24 months B. 12 months D. 36 months

D

164. This is generated to explain in detail the reason behind a procedure and proper sequence of step to be done, and how equipments are maximum performance. A. Manufacturing monograph C. Batch record B. Quality control monograph D. Standard operating procedure

A

164. Titer is an expression of concentration in terms of: A. g of solute per 100 mL B. g or mg of solute per mL C. g per liter D. A and C

A

165. Iodimetry is what type of titration? A. Direct B. Indirect C. Residual D. A and C

D

165. It means any distinctive combinations of markings, letters, or number by which the history of the manufacture and control of a batch or lot of a product can be determined. A. Batch number C. Control number B. Lot number D. All of the above

C

166. The type of alkaloidal assay where the total alkaloids are determines is: A. Ultimate B. Specific C. Proximate D. Precision

D

166. Which of the following is NOT included in the minimum test requirement for solid preparations? A. Friability C. Hardness B. Weight variation D. Pourability

C

167. Minimum requirements common to solid and liquid preparations, EXCEPT: A. Color C. Texture B. Odor D. Taste

A

167. To measure optical activity of a sample, the instrument used is: A. Polarimeter B. Refractometer C. Spectrometer D. Flame photometer

A

168. For the sample size of 8 with AQL of 1.5, the acceptance number is: A. 0 C. 2 B. 1 D. 3

B

168. The indicator for EDTA titration against CaCO3 is: A. Thymol blue B. Hydroxynapthol blue C. Methyl red D. Methylene blue

A

169. If AQL is 1.0 and the sample size is 13, the rejection number is: A. 1 C. 3 B. 2 D. 4

B

169. In neutralization methods in aqueous medium, a product is: A. Oil B. Salt C. Precipitate D. A and B

A

17. Find the acid number of a raw material a mole weighing 1.230 g which required 30 ml of 0.1100 N NaOH to bring out the end point using alcoholic KOH in the titration. A. 150.54 mg/g C. 109.18 mg/g B. 157.72 mg/g D. 124.41 mg/g

B

17. Limit moisture in nonaqueous titrimetric analysis is less than: A. 0.5 % B. 0.05 % C. 0.2 % D. 0.02 %

B

170. Ability of the formulation to remain within its physical, chemical, therapeutic and toxicological specifications. A. Endurance C. Purity B. Stability D. Friability

D

170. The moisture content of a drug maybe: A. Water of hydration B. Water in the adsorbed form C. Water of crystallization D. All of the above

B

171. Results that agree closely with one another are said to be: A. Accurate C. Bias B. Precise D. A and B only

A

171. The oxidation number of atomic iodine is: A. +1 B. +2 C. +4 D. +3

A

172. A spectrophotometer differs from a colorimeter is that it consists of: A. Prism B. Lamp house C. Cell compartment D. B and C

B

173. High Efficiency Particulate Air ( HEPA ) is an example of: A. Mill C. Dryer B. Filter D. Sprayer

C

179. A parenteral is declared pyrogenic if the temperature rise in rabbits is: A. Less than 1.4°C in the 9 readings of the 3 rabbits B. 0.6°C in in the 1 of the 9 readings C. >1.4°C in the 9 readings of the 3 rabbits D. None of the above

A

179. One of the following is NOT an in-process control for tablets. A. Bioavailability C. Hardness and thickness B. Weight variation D. Disintegration

B

18. A critical defect that would stop the packaging operation is: A. Misaligned label C. Smeared label B. Wrong label D. Inverted label

C

18. Complete reaction: H2C4H4O6 + NaOH - A. Na2C4H4O6 B. H2O C. Both a and c D. None of the choices

D

180. Content uniformity test is used to ensure which of the following quality in tablet products? A. Disintegration C. Purity B. Bioavailability D. Potency

C

180. The ester value determination of substance is applicable to the following except: A. Fats B. Volatile oil C. Alcohols D. Fatty oils

A

181. In Gas chromatography, the results of the assay is expressed in: A. Retention on the column B. Rf value C. Volume of the gas used D. Adsorbent

D

181. Which of the following apparatus is the least accurate? A. Pipet C. Volumetric flask B. Buret D. Graduated cylinder

B

182. The process by which the exact concentration of a solution is determined by: A. Neutralization B. Standardization C. Hydration D. Titration

B

182. Which of the following is the least true about cleaning volumetric apparatus? A. Adherence of droplets to the wall of buret is positive evidence that the apparatus is dirty B. Hot cleaning solution should be used C. Solution to be contained in it is used in final rinsing D. All of the above

A

183. The infrared region of the spectrometer used to identify a substance uses a wavelength range of: A. 3-5 μm B. 380-780 μm C. 200-380 μm D. 15-300 μm

D

183. Which of the following can be used in cleaning glass wares? A. Sodium dichromate in sulfuric acid B. Trisodium phosphate solution C. Solution of synthetic detergent D. All of the above

D

184. The calibration of burets may be performed by means of : A. Ostwald-calibrating pipet C. Mohr buret B. Kiehl buret D. A and B only

C

184. The primary standard used to standardize Karl Fischer reagent is: A. Sodium carbonate anhydrous B. Potassium biphthalate C. sodium tartrate dihydrate D. sodium bicarbonate

C

185. Apparatus used in cooling the sample or object and keeping them dry. A. Crucibles C. Dessicator B. Rubber policeman D. Evaporating dish

B

185. the molecular weight of sulfuric acid is 98. Its equivalent weight is: A. 98 B. 49 C. 0.098 D. 0.049

D

186. The ideal type of buret used for bases: A. Glass buret C. Geissler's buret B. Teflon buret D. Mohr buret

B

186. The type of ash where sulfuric acid used to whiten the ash is: A. acid insoluble ash B. sulfated ash C. loss on ignition D. ROI

B

187. It is an expression of the concentration for solution in terms of the number of milliequivalents per milliliter of solution. A. Molar C. Molal B. Normal D. Formal

B

187. The oil from peppermint can be determined by using: A. Cassia flask B. Bobcock bottle C. Pycometer D. Titration

B

188. It is a process of determining the more accurate concentration of roughly prepared standard solution. A. Titration C. Calibration B. Standardization D. Assay

B

188. The molecular weight of NaOH is 40. How many grams of sodium hydroxide pellets are needed to make 500 mL of 1.5 N solution? A. 20 B. 30 C. 40 D. 60

D

189. May be defined as the weight of a substance chemically equivalent to 1 ml of the standard solution. A. Titrant C. Molarity B. Equivalent weight D. Titer

C

189. Using spectrophotometer to measure the concentration of a sample, the following data were obtained: absorbance (A) of the standard solution was 0.55. A of the sample was 0.58. Concentration of the standard used was 16.5 mcg. The concentration of the sample was: A. 15.5 mcg B. 17.55 mcg C. 17.40 mcg D. 15.9 mcg

A

19. A ligand that binds to a metal ion through only one atom. A. Monodentate B. Bidentate C. Tridentate D. Tetradentate

C

19. An instrument use to measure the durability of tablets to shipping/transportation against shock and abrasion. A. Metal detector C. Friabilator B. Top loading balance D. Colorimeter

A

190. Nephelometry is based on the measurement of light that is ______ by the particles of a suspension. A. Reflected B. Absorbed C. Transmitted D. Absorbed

D

190. Which of the following substance/s is/are the least used as primary standard grade for standardization of basic solutions. A. Sulfamic acid C. Potassium biphthalate B. Benzoic acid D. THAM

B

191. The temperature specified in the USP and NF for volumetric measurement is: A. 20 ºC C. 30 ºC B. 25 ºC D. A and B only

B

197. What is the use of barium hydroxide in the preparation of standard NaOH solution? A. Preservative B. Precipitate any CO3 present in solution C. Prevent reaction of NaOH with CO3 D. Catalyst

C

198. In column Chromatography, the separation of the sample mixture into a series of narrow bands in a column is called: A. Chromatogram B. Eluent C. Development D. A and B

C

198. In the preparation of a standard solution of NaOH more than 1 equivalent, 4.0 g of NaOH is weighed because it is: A. Volatile C. Hygroscopic B. Effervescent D. Corrosive

D

199. In spectrometry, when a test solution is prepared and observed identically with a reference standard, they are called: A. Isomeric substance B. Similar solutions C. Similar preparations D. B and C

C

199. Milk of Magnesia is assayed by: A. Direct acidimetry C. Residual acidimetry B. Direct alkalimetry D. Residual alkalimetry

C

2. The following is/are example/s of metal-ion indicators. I. Murexide II. Calmagite III. Pyrocathecol violet IV. Ferric alum A. I only B. I and II only C. I, II, and III D. I, II, III and IV

D

2. The operation speed for paddle in a dissolution apparatus is: A.150 rpm C.100 rpm B. 200 rpm D. 50 rpm

D

2. Type of alkaloidal assay where the total alkaloids are determined B. Spectrophotometric D. Proximate

A

20. Methods of microbial assay of antibiotics: A. Turbidimetric C. Both A and B B. Cylinder plate D. None of the above

D

20. Which of the following is added to maintain the pH of sodium thiosulfate in optimum range for the stability of the solution? A. Sodium bicarbonate B. Chloroform C. Thymol D. Sodium carbonate

D

200. Beer's plot in spectrometry is prepared to determine: A. Absorbance of the sample B. Wavelength to be used C. Blank D. Concentration of the drug substance

A

200. The most suitable indicator to use in the assay of sodium bicarbonate by direct acidimetry. A. Methyl orange C. Phenolphthalein B. Methyl red D. Thymolphthalein

A

201. A one percent (1%) solid in liquid solution is officially (USP) understood as: A. 1g in 100 mL B. 100 mg in 1 mL C. 10g in 1000 mL D. 10 g in 1 L

D

201. The following substances can be assayed successfully only by residual method, EXCEPT: A. ZnO C. Magnesium carbonate B. Aspirin D. Acetic acid

A

202. The USP macro method for determination of total nitrogen is: A. Method I C. Method III B. Method II D. Method IV

A

202. When packaging and storage requirements specifies a "well close container" it is understood that; A. Contents are protected from extraneous solids B. Contents are protected from extraneous solids and liquids C. Contents are protected from extraneous solids, liquids and vapors D. Contents are protected from extraneous solids, liquids, vapors and gas

D

203. In Kjeldahl method of nitrogen determination, addition of which of the following can hasten the digestion of ammonia with sulfuric acid? A. Potassium sulfate C. Copper sulfate B. Selenium D. All of the above

C

203. When packaging and storage requirements specifies a "tight container" it is understood that; A. Contents are protected from extraneous solids B. Contents are protected from extraneous solids and liquids C. Contents are protected from extraneous solids, liquids and vapors D. Contents are protected from extraneous solids, liquids, vapors and gas

D

204. Standardization can be optional to: A. 0.1 N oxalic acid C. 0.1 N ceric sulfate B. 0.1 N potassium dichromate D. 0.1 N silver nitrate

D

204. When packaging and storage requirements specifies a "hermetic container" it is understood that; A. Contents are protected from extraneous solids B. Contents are protected from extraneous solids and liquids C. Contents are protected from extraneous solids, liquids and vapors D. Contents are protected from extraneous solids, liquids, vapors and gas

B

219. The oxidation number of sulfur in sodium thiosulfate is: A. 1 C. 3 B. 2 D. 4

D

205. Roughly prepared standard solution of oxalic acid can be standardized using: A. Pure iodine in KI C. Standad permanganate solution B. Standard NaOH solution D. All of the above

C

205. The quality of water recommended in the preparation of compedial dosage forms is A. Deionized water B. Distilled water C. Purified water D. Water for injection

C

206. Metal ion indicator is used in: A. Precipitimetry C. Compleximetry B. Fajan method D. Ceremetry

C

206. The quality of water recommended in the preparation of parenteral solutions is A. Sterile purified water B. Purified water C. Water for injection D. Sterile water for injection

C

207. Metallic impurities detected in the USP Heavy Metal test are A. Lead and mercury B. Copper and tin C. Both a and b D. None of the above

B

207. Standard solution used in precipitation method: A. Disodium edetate C. AgCl B. Ammonium thiocyanate D. Ferric alum

C

208. Treated soda lime glass is classified as A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. NP

B

208. Used to prevent one element from interfering in the analysis of another element: A. Nitrobenzene C. Evaporation B. Masking D. Buffering

A

209. A Soda Lime glass becomes a Treated Soda Lime glass through A. Dealkilation B. Oxidation C. Hydrolysis D. None of the above

A

209. Assay of sodium nitrite can be done using: A. Indirect permanganometry C. Diazotization B. Iodometry D. All of the above

B

21. Retention or preservation of samples and records of all pharmaceutical products should be monitored for signs of deterioration. The length of time they should be stored is: A. 2 years after date of expiration C. 2 years B. 1 year after date of expiration D. 3 years

C

21. Standard solution in non-aqueous titrimetric analysis-acidimetry A. perchloric acid B. hydrogen bromide C. both a and b D. none of the choices

A

210. The end point using this indicator is illustrated by the formation of a secondary colored precipitate in: A. Potassium chromate C. Fluorescein B. Ferric alum D. Thiosulfate

B

210. The water attack test determines the chemical resistance to water of what type of glass? A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. NP

A

211. The type of glass most suitable for parenteral preparation is A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. NP

A

211. Which of the following is added to maintain the pH of thiosulfate solution in optimum range for the stability of the solution? A. Sodium carbonate C. Thymol B. Sodium bicarbonate D. Chloroform

A

212. An amber glass bottle for an oral syrup preparation is considered light resistant if it allows not more than what percent of light to be transmitted? A. 10% at any wavelength in range from 290 to 450 nm B. 15% at any wavelength in range from 290 to 450 nm C. 20% at any wavelength in range from 290 to 450 nm D. 25% at any wavelength in range from 290 to 450 nm

C

212. If starch TS is used as indicator, end point is illustrated by: A. Appearance of blue color C. Either B. Disappearance of blue color D. Neither

C

213. The equilibrium constant for the reaction of metal ion ith ligand is called: A. Solubility constant C. Stability constant B. Solubility product constant D. Ionization constant

A

213. The suitability of plastic materials intended for use as a container of drug products is determined through what type of test? A. Biological Reactivity Test, In Vitro B. Biological Reactivity Test, In Vivo C. Both a and b D. None of the above

B

214. The classification plastic materials intended for use as a container of drug products is determined through what type of test? A. Biological Reactivity Test, In Vitro B. Biological Reactivity Test, In Vivo C. Both a and b D. None of the above

...

214. What is the use of chloroforn in sodium tetraphenylboron titration? A. Solvent C. Stabilizer B. Extraction indicator D. Catalyst

D

215. Can be assayed by direct titration with standard acetic acid: A. Sodium bicarbonate C. Ammonium chloride B. Dilute HCI D. KOH

A

215. Plastic materials which comply with the requirements of Biological Reactivity Test, In Vitro are essentially? A. Non cytotoxic B. Non carcinogenic C. Both a and b D. None of the above

A

216. The conductivity of water is expressed in what unit? A. μS/cm B. μS/cm2 C. μmho2/cm D. None of the above

B

216. Which of the following is/are true about auxiliary complexing agent? I. They are ligands II. They are masking agents III. Hydroxynapthol blue is an example A. I only C. II and III only B. I and III only D. I,II and III

B

217. The acceptable pH level of water used for pharmaceutical compounding is A. Between 6.0 and 7.0 B. Between 5.0 and 7.0 C. Between 7.0 and 8.0 D. None of the above

D

217. Zn will not interfere in the analysis of Ca using EDTA at pH: A. 2 C. 8 B. 4 D. 13

A

218. Bacteria labile solution: A. Sodium thiosulfate C. Potassium dichromate B. Potassium permanganate D. Oxalic acid

B

218. In the manufacture of sterile parenteral solutions all added raw materials must be sterilE. A. Necessary B. Not necessary C. Always D. None of the above

D

219. A large volume intravenous solution has a minimum volume of A. 1000mL B. 200mL C. 500mL D. None of the above

A

248. The level in microbiological environmental monitoring is that level of microorganism that shows a potential drift from normal operating procedurE. A. Alert level B. Action level C. Both a and b D. None of the above

B

249. In validation procedures the closeness of test results obtained by that method to the true value is called A. Precision B. Accuracy C. Specificity D. None of the above

B

249. Potentiometry find application in: A. Biologic assay C. Qualitative analysis b. pH determination D. A and B

A

25. Use of KI in the preparation of iodine solution. A. Solubilizing agent B. Change in pH of the solution C. As preservative D. All of the choices

D

25. cGMP is: A. An agency created by RA 3720 B. Also known as Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act C. Both A and B are correct D. Both A and B are incorrect

C

250. In column chromatography, the separation of the sample mixture into a series of narrow bands in a column is: A. Chromatogram C. Development B. Eluant D. A and C

A

250. In validation procedures, what is the degree of agreement among individual test results when the method is applied repeatedly to multiple sampling of a homogeneous samplE. A. Precision B. Accuracy C. Specificity D. None of the above

D

251. Beer's plot in spectrometry is prepare to determine: A. Absorbance the sample C. Absorbance the Blank B. Wavelength be used D. Concentration of the sample

C

251. Which is not a method of neutralizing the antimicrobial properties of a product A. Neutralization by chemical inhibition B. Neutralization by dilution C. Neutralization by sterilization D. None of the above

B

252. A plot of absorbance against concentration of a standard drawn in straight line is: A. Charle's C. Lamber's B. Beer's D. B and C

D

252. Which is not a biological indicator in the validation of a moist heat sterilization A. Bacillus stearothermophilus B. Bacillus subtilis C. Bacillus coagulans D. None of the above

A

253. The study of the optical activity of a substance is: A. Polarimetry C. Spectrophotometry B. Refractometry D. Potentiometry

D

253. Which is the following is not a terminal sterilization procedure A. Steam sterilization B. Sterilization by filtration C. Dry heat sterilization D. None of the above

D

254. Chromatography can be sued to separate compounds that are: A. Colored C. Precipitate B. Colorless D. A and B

C

254. In validation procedures the ability to assess unequivocally the analyte in the presence of components that may be expected to be present is called A. Precision B. Accuracy C. Specificity D. None of the above

C

255. A water content determination method that uses xylene tube is: A. Gravimetry C. Azeotropic method B. Karlscher Tritrimetry D. Dew point method

B

255. In analytical methods, the measure of its capacity to remain unaffected by small but deliberate variations in method parameters and provides an indication of its reliability during normal usage is calleD. A. Linearity B. Robustness C. Ruggedness D. None of the above

D

256. In infrared spectrometry, water is not used as solvent for the sample because the water will: A. Absorb IR radiation B. Dissolve the sodium chloride cell holder C. Not dissolve the sample D. A and B only

D

256. The following are tablet properties necessary to withstand the mechanical shocks of manufacture, packaging and shipping EXCEPT A. Hardness B. Resistance to weight loss C. Resistance to friability D. Disintegration

C

257. In disintegration, enteric-coated tablets must A. Show no evidence to disintegration after 30 minutes in simulated gastric fluid B. Show no evidence to disintegration after 30 minutes in simulated intestinal fluid C. In simulated intestinal fluid, they should disintegrate in 2 hours plus the time specified D. In simulated gastric fluid, they should disintegrate in 2 hours plus in time specified

C

257. The Law related to spectrometry wherein the power of transmitted light decreases exponentially as the thickness of the solution increases arithmetically: A. Charle's C. Lamber's B. Beer's D. Henry's

A

258. Given a tablet thickness of 0.47 cm, what should be the accepted range? A. 0.4465-0.4935 cm B. 0.4348-0.5050 cm C. 0.4230-0.5170 cm D. 0.3525-0.5875 cm

A

258. The alcohol content of volatile oil can be determined by: A. Bisulfite method C. Acetylization process B. Complexation process D. A and C only

A

259. Based on the problem given, calculate the weight of one (1) tablet. Problem Solving: ACETAMINOPHEN ( 600 mg ) tablets contain nlt 90 % and nmt 110.0 % of the labeled amount of C8H9NO2. ASSAY: Wt. of 20 tablets Acetaminophen =11.960 g Wt. of reference standard: 102.2 mg diluted to 100 ml. 1 ml taken and diluted to 100 ml Wt. of sample : 322.1 mg diluted to 100 ml. 0.04 ml taken and diluted to 100 ml Absorbance of sample = 0.805 Absorbance of standard = 0.705 A. 0.598 C. 0.596 B. 0.569 D. 0.599

D

26. The sampling and examination of all raw materials received by the factory is a function of the: A. Documentation C. Material inspection B. Biological testing laboratory D. Analytical laboratory

A

260. Calculate the weight of reference standard in the final dilution based on the problem given. Problem Solving: ACETAMINOPHEN ( 600 mg ) tablets contain nlt 90 % and nmt 110.0 % of the labeled amount of C8H9NO2. ASSAY: Wt. of 20 tablets Acetaminophen =11.960 g Wt. of reference standard: 102.2 mg diluted to 100 ml. 1 ml taken and diluted to 100 ml Wt. of sample : 322.1 mg diluted to 100 ml. 0.04 ml taken and diluted to 100 ml Absorbance of sample = 0.805 Absorbance of standard = 0.705 A. 0.01022 mg C. 0.0101 mg B. 0.0102 mg D. 0.09090 mg

A

260. Which of the following is NOT used in Method II of USP test for bulk density? A. 250 mL graduated cylinder B. No.18 screen C. Volumeter D. Baffle box

A

261. One of the following is NOT an in-process control for tablet: A. Bioavailability B. Hardness and thickness C. Weight variation D. Disintegration

B

261. What is the weight of sample in the final dilution in mg,based your calculation on the problem given? Problem Solving: ACETAMINOPHEN ( 600 mg ) tablets contain nlt 90 % and nmt 110.0 % of the labeled amount of C8H9NO2. ASSAY: Wt. of 20 tablets Acetaminophen =11.960 g Wt. of reference standard: 102.2 mg diluted to 100 ml. 1 ml taken and diluted to 100 ml Wt. of sample : 322.1 mg diluted to 100 ml. 0.04 ml taken and diluted to 100 ml Absorbance of sample = 0.805 Absorbance of standard = 0.705 A. 0.0129 C. 0.0128 B. 0.01288 D. 0.0134

C

262. Pyrogen test is performed in: A. Pigeons B. Mice C. Rabbits D. Guinea pigs

D

262. What is the percent purity based on the problem given? Problem Solving: ACETAMINOPHEN ( 600 mg ) tablets contain nlt 90 % and nmt 110.0 % of the labeled amount of C8H9NO2. ASSAY: Wt. of 20 tablets Acetaminophen =11.960 g Wt. of reference standard: 102.2 mg diluted to 100 ml. 1 ml taken and diluted to 100 ml Wt. of sample : 322.1 mg diluted to 100 ml. 0.04 ml taken and diluted to 100 ml Absorbance of sample = 0.805 Absorbance of standard = 0.705 A. 99.02 % C. 90.29 % B. 92.90 % D. 90.60 %

D

263. What is the amount of acetaminophen in one (1) tablet? ( based your answer on the problem given): Problem Solving: ACETAMINOPHEN ( 600 mg ) tablets contain nlt 90 % and nmt 110.0 % of the labeled amount of C8H9NO2. ASSAY: Wt. of 20 tablets Acetaminophen =11.960 g Wt. of reference standard: 102.2 mg diluted to 100 ml. 1 ml taken and diluted to 100 ml Wt. of sample : 322.1 mg diluted to 100 ml. 0.04 ml taken and diluted to 100 ml Absorbance of sample = 0.805 Absorbance of standard = 0.705 A. 539.39 mg C. 539.33 mg B. 539.93 mg D. 541.79 mg

C

263. Which is the following statements is NOT true about closure: A. Should fit the thread of the containers B. Should produce no leaks C. Should be made of plastic materials D. Should be reasonably tight and look elegant

D

264. Calculate the potency ( % labeled claim) based your calculation on the problem given. Problem Solving: ACETAMINOPHEN ( 600 mg ) tablets contain nlt 90 % and nmt 110.0 % of the labeled amount of C8H9NO2. ASSAY: Wt. of 20 tablets Acetaminophen =11.960 g Wt. of reference standard: 102.2 mg diluted to 100 ml. 1 ml taken and diluted to 100 ml Wt. of sample : 322.1 mg diluted to 100 ml. 0.04 ml taken and diluted to 100 ml Absorbance of sample = 0.805 Absorbance of standard = 0.705 A. 89.90 % C. 89.09 % B. 89.99 % D. 90.30 %

C

264. Friability testing is done using a Roche friability that must be set to ensure: A. 10 falls of tablets B. Either A or B C. 100 falls of tablets D. 100 rpm

A

265. Based on the problem given, what is your disposition. Problem Solving: ACETAMINOPHEN ( 600 mg ) tablets contain nlt 90 % and nmt 110.0 % of the labeled amount of C8H9NO2. ASSAY: Wt. of 20 tablets Acetaminophen =11.960 g Wt. of reference standard: 102.2 mg diluted to 100 ml. 1 ml taken and diluted to 100 ml Wt. of sample : 322.1 mg diluted to 100 ml. 0.04 ml taken and diluted to 100 ml Absorbance of sample = 0.805 Absorbance of standard = 0.705 A. Approved C. Either B. Disapproved D. Neither

B

265. Evaluation of Aspirin Granules (IPQC) Weight of the sample = 50 grams Height of cone formed (fixed funnel) = 5 cm Diameter of cone formed = 13 cm The repose angle is A. 25° B. 38° C. 30° D. 50°

D

266. If the sample of beeswax has an acid value of 18.45 and ester value of 74, what is the saponication number of the sample? A. 85 % C. 88 % B. 98 % D. 92 %

A

266. The temperature wherein the refrigerator is thermostatically maintained is: A. 36°F and 46°F B. 46°F and 59°F C. -13°F and 14°F D. -23°F and 34°F

B

267. Determine the iodine value of a sample of olive oil weighing 0.21 g if 24.15 ml and 12 ml of 0.11 N sodium thiosulfate solution are required for the blank and residual titrations, respectively. A. 76 % C. 85 % B. 80 % D. 90 %

B

267. Water attack test as an official test for glass is done on: A. Type I glass B. Type II glass C. A and B D. Type III glass

A

268. Content uniformity test is initially conducted in: A. 10 tablets B. 20 tablets C. 15 tablets D. 5 tablets

B

268. Water content determination by Karl Fischer, means: A. Azeotrophic C. Dew point B. Titrimetric D. Electrolytic hydrometric

D

269. Content uniformity test is used to ensure which of the following quality in tablet products: A. Disintegration B. Purity C. Bioavailability D. Potency

D

269. Which of the following is the least in the Karl Fischer reagent? A. Iodine C. Sulfur dioxide B. Pyridine D. Ethanol

B

27. Color of the complex resulting from reaction with ferrous phenanthroline: A. blue B. red C. pink D. violet

B

27. The indicator for EDTA direct titration against CaCO3 is: A. Methyl red C. Methylene blue B. Hydroxynaphthol blue D. Thymol blue

A

297. The round bottom flask used for the dissolution rate in the evaluation of tablets should be submerge in constant temperature water bath maintained at what temperaturE. A. 37°C B. 25°C C. 40°C D. 30°C

C

298. The adsorbent commonly used in GC is: A. Alumina C. Siliceous earth B. Calcium carbonate D. Cellulose

D

298. The type of container which is impervious to air or any other gas under the ordinary or customary conditions of handling, shipping, storage and distribution. A. Tight-container B. Well-closed container C. Single-unit container D. Hermetic container

A

299. The relative tendency of metals, ions of molecules to gain or lose electrons can be studied quantitatively by determination of: A. Electrode C. Heat absorbed B. Electron change D. SHE

C

299. The word GITS as a drug delivery system means A. Gastro-intestinal tract system B. Gastric infection treatment support C. Gastro-intestinal therapeutic system D. General internal therapeutic system

B

3. Assay of diluted HCl is expressed in: A. % w/w B. % w/v C. Both a and b D. None of the choices

A

3. LAL assay method is applicable in the determination of A. Pyrogens C. Microorganisms

D

3. Radiant energy refers to: A. Visible C. UV B. IR D. All of the above

D

30. Indicator in iodometric method of analysis. A. KMnO4 B. Methyl red TS C. Methyl orange TS D. Starch TS

C

30. The addition of overage is justified when: A. The clinical studies show that the overage is safe therapeutically B. The unstable active ingredients cannot be possibly standardized C. Both statements are correct D. Both statements are incorrect

C

300. Phenmetrazine HCI USP is assayed for chloride using 0.1 NagNO3 and the end point is determined potentiometrically using: A. Silver electrode as indicator electrode B. Hg2SO4 as reference electrode C. Ag reference and Hg2SO3 indicator electrode D. A and B only

B

300. The temperature used for ignition to constant weight is: A. 725 ± 25°C B. 800 ± 25°C C. 825 ± 25°C D. 750 ± 25°C

C

31. The period of stability of a preparation is the time from the date of manufacture of the formulation until its chemical or biological activity is not less than ___ of the labeled potency. A. 99% C. 90% B. 93% D. 95%

A

32. Adsorbents used in TLC: A. Silica gel and aluminum oxide C. Silica gel B. Aluminum oxide D. Kieselguhr

D

32. HCl + Calcium carbonate will react to form a primary product known as: A. Carbonic acid B. Calcium hydroxide C. Both a and c D. None of the choices

C

33. Content uniformity test is conducted in: A. 5 tablets C. 10 tablets B. 20 tablets D. 15 tablets

C

33. The reaction between HCl and calcium carbonate can be seen in the standardization of: A. Silver nitrate B. Ammonium thiocyanate C. Edetate disodium D. Sulfuric acid

A

34. A substance which gains electrons in a redox reaction. A. Oxidizing agent B. Reducing agent C. Both a and c D. None of the choices

B

34. The most effective manner to clean glass apparatus is: A. Soaking in detergent C. Rinsing with alcohol B. Treatment with chromic acid D. Rinsing with nitric acid

C

35. Ferrous sulfate is: A. Agent that loses electron C. Reducing agent B. An oxidizing agent D. Both A and C

A

35. The equilibrium constant for the reaction of the metal ion with a ligand is called _____. A. Formation constant B. Solubility product constant C. Solubility constant D. None of the choices

A

36. A test which is determined by selecting not less than 30 tablets from each production batch and assaying 10 tablets individually as directed in the assay of the individual compedial monograph. A. Content uniformity C. Disintegration test B. Weight variation D. Dissolution test

B

36. NaCl ______ the stability of EDTA complex. A. Increases B. Decreases C. No effect D. None of the choices

A

37. Organic solvents _______ the stability of EDTA complex. A. Increases B. Decreases C. No effect D. None of the choices

A

37. These are instruments under spectrometric methods which operate based on the absorption or emission of electromagnetic radiation as a result of it interation with matter, EXCEPT: A. Potentiometer C. X-ray B. NMR D. IR

B

38. Indicator in Redox Titration using KMnO4 A. Starch TS B. KMnO4 C. Methyl red TS D. Methyl orange

A

38. The ash content of an organic compound is an impurity of: A. Inorganic matter C. Gas B. Carbon D. Volatile oil

D

39. Developed in 1883, this method of analysis remains as one of the accurate and widely used method for determining nitrogen in substancE. A. Non-aqueous titrimetry B. Precipitation C. Redox itration D. Kjeldahl method

A

39. Type of Q.C equipment used for measuring the absorbance of substances between regions 380- 780 nm. A. UV_VIS spectrophotometer C. Mass spectrophotometer B. Infrared spectrophotometer D. Colorimeter

D

4. High pressure liquid chromatography method of analysis is more advantageous than the other column chromatography as to: A. Ease to operate C. More precise B. Greater speed D. All of the above

B

4. Standard solution in precipitation method od analysis A. Disodium edetate B. Silver nitrate C. Sodium Methoxide D. Perchloric acid

A

4. The measurement of a base of a given sample by titration with a standard acid is A. Acidimetry C. Alkalimetry

C

40. Most suitable indicator to use in titration of organic acids A. Methyl red TS B. Methyl orange TS C. Phenolphthalein D. All of the choices

A

40. Type of titration used in volumetric analysis: A. Neutralization C. Direct B. Residual D. Both B and C

A

41. The choice method of determining the alcohol content of pharmaceutical preparation: A. Specific gravity C. Fractional distillation B. Percolation D. Cryoscopic

D

41. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct? I. Non-aqueous alkalimetry is used when the analyte is weakly acidic II. Non-aqueous alkalimetry is used when analyte is acid halidE. III. Non-aqueous alkalimetry is used when the analyte contains heterocyclic nitrogen compounD. IV. Non-aqueous alkalimetry is used when analyte is barbituratE. A. I only B. I and II only C. I, II, and III only D. I, II, and IV

C

42. Indicator/s used in nonaqueous titrimetry I. Nile blue II. Crystal violet III. Malachite green IV. Phenolphthalein A. I only B. I and II only C. I, II, and III only D. I, II, III and IV

C

42. The gram molecular weight of sulfuric acid is 98. A solution containing 49 g/L of solution is: A. 0.2 M C. 1 N B. 0.5 N D. 1 M

A

43. Standard solutions in nonaqueous alkalimetry. I. Lithium methoxide II. Perchloric acid III. Hydrogen bromide IV. Sodium hydroxide A. I only B. I and II only C. I, II, and III only D. I, II, III and IV

B

43. USP steroid identification test: A. Gravimetric C. Fluoroscopic B. Spectrophotometric D. Chromatographic

C

44. The use of chloroform in sodium thiosulfate solution. A. To stabilize the solution B. To increase its solubility C. To prevent bacterial growth D. To maintain pH of the solution

C

44. Which of the following are principles of chromatographic separation? I. Adsorption III. Ion-exchange II. Partition IV. Molecular exclusion A. I and II C. I, II, III and IV B. I, II and III D. None of the above

B

45. Titer is an expression of concentration in terms of: A. g/L C. g of solute/100 ml B. mg/L D. g or mg/ml

C

45. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct? I. The utility of starch as indicator is reduced in the presence of organic solvent. II. The utility of starch as indicator is reduced in the presence of electrolytes. III. The utility of starch as indicator is reduced at temperature above 25 °C IV. The utility of starch as indicator is reduced at temperature of 25°C. A. I only B. I and II only C. I, II, and III D. I, II, III and IV

A

46. Titrating an alkaline sample with an acid standard solution is known as: A. Direct alkalimetry C. Precipitation method B. Gravimetric analysis D. Indirect alkalimetric

D

46. When a weak base is to be titrated with weak acid, the indicator used is: A. Phenolphthalein B. Methyl orange C. Methyl red D. No indicator is suggested

B

47. Retention or preservation of samples and records of all pharmaceutical products should be monitored for sign of deterioration. The length of time they should be stored is: A. 2 years B. 1 year after the expiry date of the product C. 3 years D. 2 years after the expiry date

B

47. The formula to compute the equivalent weight of a reducing agent. A. Molecular weight/ no. of electrons gain B. Molecular weight/ no. of electrons loss C. Both a and b D. None of the choices

B

48. LAL reagent is used to: A. Measure pH of solution C. Prevent the oxidation of parenteral prep B. Test the presence of pyrogens D. Acts as preservative for pharmaceutical

B

48. The used of sodium bicarbonate in the standardization of iodine solution ______. A. Increase the solubility B. as buffer C. As preservative D. To prevent bacterial growth

C

49. Control chart limit which alerts the operator to closely monitor the process: A. Warning limit C. Acceptable limit B. Action limit D. Any of these

C

49. Method/s determining the total nitrogen in a sample A. Macromethod B. Semimicro method C. Both a and c D. None of the choices

A

5. Content uniformity test is to be performed for all tablet products whose active ingredient is: A. 50 mg or smaller C. 130-324 mg B. 324 mg or more D. 130 mg or less

C

5. The following compounds are assayed by acidimetrically EXCEPT A. Sodium hydroxide B. Caffeine C. Citric acid D. Zinc oxide

A

5. Use to prevent one element from interfering in the analysis of another element A. Masking agent B. Demasking agent C. Both a and b D. None of the choices

D

50. In-process inspection tests to be perform during the filling of parenteral products: A. Viscosity B. Light inspection for clarity of solution C. Fill volume D. Light inspection and fill volume

A

50. To keep samples moisture free, the appropriate apparatus to use is: A. Desiccator B. Separatory funnel C. Furnace D. Incubator

B

51. The following is/are true about EDTA: I. EDTA forms strong 1:1 complexes with most metal ions. II. It prevents metal-catalyzed oxidation of fooD. III. It is a pentadentate molecule IV. It contains 3 oxygen and 2 hydrogen atoms that are capable of entering complexation reaction with metal ion. A. I only B. I and II C. II and III D. III and IV

D

51. USP limit for tablet content uniformity: A. 90-110% C. 95-110% B. 90-100% D. 85-115%

D

52. Analysis function would include: A. Shelf-life studies C. Raw material control B. In-process control D. All of these

B

52. Sulfamic acid (H3NSO3) is a primary standard that can be used to standardized sodium hydroxidE. What is the molarity if 33.26 mL reacts with 0.3337 g sulfamic aciD. MW=97 A. 0.304 B. 0.1004 C. 0.1005 D. 0.403

A

53. A 0.2185 g sample of NaCl was assayed using Volhard method using 50 mL of 0.998N silver nitrate and 11.9 mL of 0.1350N ammonium thiocyanate. Calculate the NaCl in the samplE. MW NaCl = 58.45 A. 42.6 B. 62.4 C. 90.5 D. 6.24

A

56. A 10 mL sample of sulfuric acid solution required 16.85 mL of NaOH solution in a titration. Each mL of the NaOH solution was equivalent to 0.2477 g of potassium hydrogen phthalatE. Calculate the sulfuric acid content in %w/v. MW=98 A. 10% B. 20% C. 30% D. 40%

B

56. Which of the given is the least used as sampled materials? A. Final product C. Intermediate product B. Records D. Raw materials

C

57. Limestone consists mainly of the mineral calcite, CaCO3. The carbonate content of 0.5413 g of powdered limestone was measured by suspending the powder in water, adding 10 mL of 1.392 M HCl and heating to dissolve the solid and expel CO2. The excess acid required 39.96 mL of 0.1004 M NaOH for complete titration to a phenolphthalein end point. Find the weight % of the calcite in the limestonE. MW=100 A. 29% B. 39% C. 92% D. 96%

D

57. The presence of cotton fiber in a liquid preparation is considered a/an: A. Critical defect C. Internal defect B. Variable defect D. Ocular defect

D

58. A special residual method in acidimetry intended for the determination of nitrogen content in organic compounds. A. Karl Fischer method C. Volhard method B. Back titration D. Kjeldahl method

B

58. The Kjeldahl procedure was used to analyzed 256μL of a solution containing 37.9 mg protein/mL. The liberated ammonia was collected in 5 mL of 0.0336 M HCl, and the remaining acid required 6.34 mL of 0.010 M NaOH for complete titration. What is the weight % of nitrogen in the protein? MW= 14 A. 3.86 B. 15.1 C. 51.5 D. 5.65

A

59. Assay of 250 mL solution of Dopamine 200 mg injection resulted in the following data. Based on these, determine the amount of Dopamine in 100 mL solution: Sample volume 5.0 mL Solution volume 250.0 mL Absorbance sample 38259 Absorbance standard 20163 A. 0.04 mg/100mL C. 3.8 mg/100mL B. 4.5 mg/100mL D. 4.5 mg/100mL

A

59. How many grams of Cupric (II) Sulfate pentahydrate should be dissolves in a volume of 500 ml to make 8 X 10-3 M solution? MW= 249.54 A. 0.998 B. 9.98 C. 99.8 D. 109.1

C

6. Argentometric titration is titration with ______ ion. A. Magnesium B. Sodium C. Silver D. Potassium

B

6. The statement of expiration date assures the patient: A. Absence of toxicity C. Complete absorption of drug B. Full therapeutic efficacy D. Absence of interaction

A

6. Which of thre following substances is assayed by residual alkalimetric analysis? A. Aspirin C. Hydrochloric acid

A

71. What weight of arsenic trioxide (93.73%) would be used as a sample so that 26.6 mL of 0.1120 N iodine would be needed to titrate it? MW = 197.46 A. 0.14896 g B. 0.4896 g C. 0.1111 g D. 0.9145 g

B

60. The disintegration constant of a radioisotope is 0.0502 day1. Calculate the half life of the radioisotope. A. 11 days C. 15 days B. 13 days D. 21 days

C

60. The molarity of concentrated HCl purchased in the laboratory is approximately 12.1 M. How many mL of this reagent should be diluted to 2 L to make 0.1 M? A. 1.65 B. 6.53 C. 16.53 D. 165.3

B

61. A solution with a final volume of 500 mL was prepared by dissolving 25 mL of methanol (density= 0.7914 g/mL) in chloroform. Calculate the molarity of methanol in the solution. MW= 32. A. 0.12 B. 1.24 C. 12.4 D. 124

C

61. Determine the distance traveled by the solute, if its Rf value is 0.688 and the solvent travels 8.0 cm. the sample weight is 1.02 mg. A. 11.6 cm C. 5.5 cm B. 11.8 cm D. 0.70 cm

B

62. One mole of dichromate ions gains a total of ___ electrons when converted to chromous ion. A. 3 C. 10 B. 6 D. None of the above

A

62. The above solution (question no.61) has a density of 1.454 g/mL. Find the molality of methanol. A. 0.87 B. 0.77 C. 8.7 D. 7.7

B

63. Koetsdorfer number is a synonym for: A. Ester value C. Iodine value B. Saponification value D. Acetate value

C

63. What is the use of HgI2 in the preparation of starch TS? A. To increase the solubility of starch B. To impart color C. As a preservative D. To stabilize the pH

B

64. Process of measuring the actual quantity mass, volume, force, etC. that correspond to an indicated quantity on the scale of an instrument. A. Weighing B. Calibration C. Both a and c D. None of the choices

D

64. The chemical constant used in the analysis of fats and oils are: A. Iodine value C. Acid value B. Saponication value D. All of the above

C

65. Also known as Eosin Y. A. Dichlorofluorescein B. Tetrabromophenolpthalein C. Tetrabromofluorescein D. Xylenol orange

A

65. Water content of raw materials is determined by quality control equipment, such as: I. Ohaus moisture balance III. pH meter II. Karl Fischer Tritrimetry IV. Vacuum oven A. I, II and IV C. I, II and III B. II, III and IV D. I, II, III and IV

B

66. The active fraction of starch which reacts with iodine to form an intense blue color A. Amylopectin B. Amylose C. Glucose D. Sucrose

C

66. The primary standard used to standardize Karl fisher reagent is: A. Anhydrous sodium carbonate C. Sodium tartrate B. Potassium bipthalate D. Sodium oxalate

D

67. Plastic containers for ophthalmic or parenteral preparations are sterilized by: A. Microwave C. Soaking in formalin B. Autoclaving D. Ethylene oxide

B

67. When a reducing analyte is titrated directly with iodine, the method used is called A. Iodometry B. Iodimetry C. Cerimetry D. Permanganometry

B

72. The primary standard used for standardization of Ce(SO4)2 in cerimetric method of analysis is: A. K2Cr2O7 C. KmnO4 B. As2O3 D. H2C2

C

72. The type of alkaliodal assay where the total alkaloid is determineD. A. Ultimate B. Specific C. Proximate D. Extraction

D

68. A sample is: A. Is taken from a population B. It should represent the whole batch from where it is taken C. Is a finite number of objects selected from a population D. All of the above

C

68. The 0.1 N iodine solution is standardized using A. Potassium permanganate B. Potassium hydrogen phthalate C. Arsenic trioxide D. Sodium carbonate

B

69. Instrument to determine the tightness of a cap is: A. Crimper C. Resister B. Torque tester D. pH meter

A

69. Iodimetry is an indirect analysis of: A. Oxidizing agent B. Reducing agent C. Acid D. Base

C

7. A common sampling plan that uses master tables to interpret the results A. 100% inspection C. Military standard

B

7. A factor obtained by taking the ratio of the actual normality to the theoretical normality is: A. Titer C. Flame photometer B. Normality factor D. Polarimeter

B

7. Fajans titration uses ____ indicator. A. Acid-base B. Adsorption C. Metal-ion D. None of the choices

D

70. Its primary objective is to monitor all features of a product. A. SOP C. Stability testing B. Sampling D. IPQC

A

70. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct according to USP 27? I. In azeotropic method of water of analysis toluene is used as solvent. II. In azeotropic method of analysis toluene and xylene are used as solvents. III. In azeotropic method of analysis toluene, xylene, and water are used as solvents. A. I only B. I and II only C. I, II, and III D. None of the statement is correct

D

71. It has a high degree of purity and is used in direct standardization purposes: A. Technical grade C. Primary standard B. CP grade D. Any of the above

B

73. In paper partition chromatography, what is the Rf value of a compound if the solute travels 3.1 cm and the solvent moves 4.3 cm after 5 minutes? A. 3.605 C. 13.33 B. 0.721 D. 1.387

C

73. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct? I. Method I of water content determination in USP 27 is the azeotropic toluene distillation methoD. II. Method II of water content determination in USP 27 is the titrimetric methoD. III. Method III of water content determination in USP 27 is the gravimetric methoD. IV. Method I of water content determination in USP 27 is the Karl Fischer methoD. A. I only B. II only C. III only D. IV only

B

74. A sampling inspection in which decision is made to accept or not to accept an item: A. Rejection number C. Acceptance number B. Acceptance sampling D. Any of the above

D

74. Residue on ignition is also called: A. Loss on ignition B. Loss on drying C. Acid-soluble ash D. Sulfated ash

D

75. Indicators used for acid-base titration, EXCEPT: A. Methyl red C. Phenolphthalein B. Methyl orange D. Ferric alum

B

75. Primary standard used to standardized Karl Fischer reagent is: A. Anhydrous sodium carbonated B. Sodium tartrate C. Potassium hydrogen phthalate D. Sodium oxalate

A

76. Method 1 for determining alcohol-soluble extractives is also known as: A. Hot extraction method B. Cold extraction method C. Hot compressed method D. Cold compressed method

D

76. Sample size of bottles to check for cap tightness. A. 10 C. 20 B. 30 D. 15

C

77. Quantitative analysis of morphine. A. Ultimate analysis C. Ultimate assay B. Proximate assay D. Proximate analysis

C

77. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct I. Iodine value is a quantitative measure of the amount of unsaturated fatty acid in fats. II. Method I of determining iodine value is also known as Hanus methoD. III. Wij's method is also a method of determining iodine valuE. IV. Hubl's method is official method of determining iodine valuE. A. I only B. I and II C. I, II and III D. All of the statements are correct

B

78. Koettsdorfer number is also known as: A. Acid value B. Saponification value C. Ester value D. Iodine value

C

78. What is the normality of sulfuric acid containing 73.5 g/500 mL of solution? A. 2.0 N C. 3.0 N B. 2.5 N D. 1.0 N

A

79. The gram-equivalent weight of sodium oxalate (MW = 134 g/mole) is: A. 67 B. 0.067 C. 0.114 D. 0.026

D

79. Three months of acceptable data at 37-400C/75% RH can be extrapolated to ___ year/s expiry date. A. 1 C. 4 B. 5 D. 2

B

8. Materials to be sampled include the following EXCEPT A. Final records B. Records C. Intermediate products D. Raw materials

D

8. Reasons why residual titration are performeD. A. Reaction proceeds slowly B. Poor solubility of the sample C. Sample does not give sharp end point D. All of the choices

D

8. To measure the optical activity of a sample, the instrument used is: A. Spectrometer C. Flame photometer B. Refractometer D. Polarimeter

B

80. Orthophenanthroline TS is used as indicator in A. Permanganometry B. Ceric sulfate titration C. iodometry D. Iodimetry

D

80. The periodic examination on the quality of inventories is a function of: A. Quality coordination office C. Analytical lab B. Biological testing lab D. Material inspection section

A

81. A sample of Chlorpheniramine maleate weighing 0.502 g was assayed by nonaqueous titrimetry using 22.2 mL of perchloric acid with normality of 0.1125. Calculate the % purity of the samplE. Each mL of 0.1 N perchloric acid is equivalent to 19.54 mg of C16H19CLN2. C4H4O4 A. 97.2 B. 72.9 C. 27.9 D. 9.72

B

81. The spotting agnt for amino acids in paper chromatography is: A. Potassium chromate C. Silver nitrate B. Ninhydrin D. Iodine

C

82. Calculate the weight of oxalic acid required to prepare 1000 mL of 0.5 N of the solution. MW = 126 A. 36.5 g B. 63.5 g C. 31.5 g D. 23.5 g

D

82. Negligible ash in a pharmaceutical preparation is: A. 200 mg C. 500 mg B. 1000 mg D. 500 mcg

B

83. If 10g of olive oil required 20 mL of 0.0211 N NaOH in the titration of the free fatty acids. What is the acid number of the oil? A. 2.9 B. 2.4 C. 11.50 D. 115

A

83. The reassay date of raw material is based on their: A. Stability C. Quantity purchased B. Price D. None of the above

A

84. Does the acid value of the above conform with the official requirement? (In 10g of olive oil, the specification is <5mL of 0.1N NaOH.) A. Yes B. No C. Uncertain D. None of the above

D

84. Quality must be built into the product during: A. Research C. Production B. Development D. All of the above

D

85. In phenol contain determination of a volatile oil, the layer in the graduated neck of the cassia flask read 2.3 mL obtained from a sample of 10 mL of the oil after treatment with KOH solution. The % phenol is: A. 73 B. 69 C. 7.3 D. 77

B

85. Recommended indicator in the assay of alkaloids: A. Phenolphthalein C. Methyl orange B. Methyl red D. Litmus paper

D

86. A 4.0570 g sample of chlorinated lime was mixed with enough water to make 1000mL. A 100 mL of the mixture was treated with potassium iodide and acetic acid, then titrated with 22.4 mL of sodium thiosulfate solution. A 20 mL sample of sodium thiosulfate was found to be equivalent to 0.2996 g of pure iodinE. Calculate the available chlorine in the samplE. MW Iodine = 126.9 ; MW Cl = 35.45 A. 27.35% B. 27.45% C. 29.02% D. 23.1%

C

86. The titrant in non-aqueous alkalimetry is: A. Ammonium hydroxide C. Sodium methoxide B. Perchloric acid D. Sodium hydroxide

D

87. Military standard table is also known as: A. Government sampling plan B. MIL-STD-105D C. ABC-STD 105D D. All of the choices

A

87. Two substances reacting upon reaching the end point must have the same: A. Number of equivalents C. Normality B. Volume D. Weight

A

88. In radiopharmacy, REM means A. Roentgen equivalent man C. Radiation per minute B. Radiation per mill second D. Roentgen exposure per minute

A

88. The % hexane extractive obtained from 27.5820 g of crude drug yielding a residue of 0.9155g of extractive is: A. 3.32% B. 33.2% C. 4.30% D. 4.6%

B

89. Calculate the menthyl acetate content in % if 9.5 g sample of peppermint oil was refluxed with 25 mL of 0.5N alcoholic KOH and required 22.5 ml of 0.4900N HCl for the residual titration. The blank was run using the same volume of 0.5N alcoholic KOH and required 26.0mL of 0.4900N HCl to bring about the end point. Each mL of 0.5N alcoholic KOH consumed in the saponification is equivalent to 99.15 mg menthyl acetatE. A. 4.82% B. 3.58% C. 4.80% D. 8.4%

D

89. One of the laws in spectrophotometry: A. Law of mass action C. Newton's law B. Boyle's law D. Beer's law

C

9. In phenol content determination of a volatile oil, the layer in the graduated neck of the cassia flask read 2.7 ml obtained from a sample of 10 ml of the oil after treatment of KOH. The % phenol is: A. 69.8 C. 73.0 B. 27.0 D. 7.30

A

9. Solutions containing all the reagents and solvents used in the analysis, but no deliberately added analytE. A. Blank solution B. Solution with sample C. Standard solution D. Test solution

A

9. The process of removing an appropriate number of items from a population in order to make interferences to the entire population is called A. Sampling C. Statistics

A

90. Calculate the % alkaloid extracted from a bark of plant using 1.0215g of the crude drug; the volume of 0.0245N sulfuric acid added to the extract was 25.7 mL, the excess was back titrated by 21.75 mL of 0.0225N sodium hydroxide solution. Each ml of 0.02N sulfuric acid is equivalent to 3.8858 mg of the alkaloiD. A. 2.67% B. 6.72% C. 7.62% D. 6.5%

B

90. Substances that have the power of rotating the plane polarized light are said to be. A. Light sensitive C. Active constituents B. Optically active D. Dextrorotatory

A

91. Determine the iodine value of an unknown sample of oil weighing 0.21g if 26mL and 12 mL of 0.1100 N of sodium thiosulfate are required for the blank and residual titration respectively. A. 90 B. 93 C. 108 D. 200

A

91. Nephelometry is based on the measurement of light that is: A. Reflected C. Absorbed B. Transmitted D. Adsorbed

A

92. Identify the sample of the above question with USP requirement of: A. Persic oil 90-108 B. Corn oil 102-128 C. Olive oil 79-88 D. None of the choices

B

92. The process of determining the volume of standard solution required to react with a known amount of substance being assayed. A. Neutralization C. Oxidation B. Titration D. Hydrolysis

A

93. Color of phenolphthalein in caustic potash. A. Pink C. Colorless B. Yellow D. Orange

D

93. Find the acid value of oleic acid sample weighing 2g which require 45mL 0f 0.1102 NaOH to bring about the end point. A. 196 B. 200 C. 345 D. 139

A

94. If a sample of white wax is found to have an ester value of 65.7 and a saponification value of 74.2, what is the acid value of the sample? A. 8.5 B. 86.5 C. 186.5 D. 56.5

A

94. The potency of drug component is commonly determined by: A. HPLC C. GC B. Titrimetric method D. Spectrophotometric method

A

95. A 50 mL aliquot of solution containing .450g of magnesium sulfate in 0.5L required 37.6 mL of EDTA solution for titration. How many mg of calcium carbonate will react with 1 mL of this EDTA solution? MW magnesium sulfate = 120.37; MW CaCO3 = 100 A. 0.9943 mg B. 9.99 mg C. 99.94 mg D. 9943 mg

C

95. The index of refraction of a volatile oil is determined by using: A. Pectrophotometer C. Refractometer B. Pycnometer D. Polarimeter

A

96. A type of sampling which is permitted if the first one falls: A. Double C. Both A and B B. Single D. None of the above

C

96. The following is/are true about auxillary complexing agent. I. Eriochrome black is an example of an auxillary complexing agent II. Auxillary complexing agents are also ligands III. Auxillary complexIng agents binds the metal strong enough to prevent the hydroxide from precipitating, but weakly enough to give up the metal ion when EDTA is addeD. IV. It is used to permit many metals to be titrated in alkaline solution with EDTA. A. I only B. II and III C. II, III, and IV D. III, and IV E. I, II, III and IV

D

97. The following is/ are true about EDTA titration. I. EDTA titration is also known as complexometric titration. II. The equilibrium constant in EDTA titration is called EDTA indicator. III. For end-point detection, commonly used indicator is called EDTA indicator IV. EDTA titration technique includes displacement titration. A. I only B. II and III C. I, II, and III D. I, II and IV E. I, II, III and IV

A

97. What is preferred for standardization of permanganate? A. Sodium oxalate C. Hydrogen peroxide B. Sodium carbonate D. Sodium nitrate

D

98. Instability will be accelerated by: A. Temperature C. Light B. Heat D. All of the above

D

98. Which of the following statement/s is/are true? I. A redox indicator is a compound that changes color when it goes from oxidized to reduced state II. Starch is a redox indicator III. Ferroin is a redox indicator IV. The hydrolysis is product of starch is glucose which is a reducing agent A. I only B. I and II C. III, I, II, and III D. I, III, and IV E. I, II, III, and IV

C

99. Assay of NaCl in table salt by precipitation as AgCl, filtration, drying, and weighing the residue is classified as: A. Precipitimetry C. Gravimetric analysis B. Volhard method D. Residual precipitimetry

C

99. Which of the following statement/ is/are correct? I. KMnO4 can be standardized using arsenic trioxide II. KMnO4 serves as indicator in acidic solution. III. Hydrogen peroxide can be analyzed using KMnO4. IV. KMnO4 in acidic solution is reduced to colorless Mn+2 A. I and II B. I, II, and III C. II, III, and IV D. II and IV E. I, II, III and IV


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