Comprehensive Mock Exam 2 75 questions

Patient presents with a suspicious lesion on her left arm. With the patient's permission the physician marked the area for excision. The margins and lesion measured a total of 0.9 cm. The wound measuring 1.2 cm was closed in layers using 4-0 Monocryl and 5-0 Prolene. Pathology later reported the lesion to be a sebaceous cyst. What codes are reported?

12031, 11401-51, L72.3

A 67 year-old newly diagnosed with DM type 2 is being seen in the office today for dietetic training with the office's dietitian. The training was for an hour and covered special diet instructions, blood glucose monitoring, and instruction on how to administer daily insulin injections. Which HCPCS Level II code(s) will be reported for this session?

G0108 x 2

A patient with bilateral sensory hearing loss is fitted with a digital, binaural, behind the ear hearing aid. What HCPCS Level II and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

V5261, Z46.1, H90.3

A 27 year-old triathlete is thrown from his bike on a steep downhill ride. He suffered a severely fractured vertebra at C5. An anterior approach is used to dissect out the bony fragments and strengthen the spine with titanium cages and arthrodesis. The surgeon places the patient supine on the OR table and proceeds with an anterior corpectomy at C5 with discectomy above and below. Titanium cages are placed in the resulting defect and morselized allograft bone is placed in and around the cages. Anterior Synthes plates are placed across C2-C3, C4-C5, and C5-C6. What CPT® codes should be reported?

63081, 22554-51, 22846, 22854, 20930

An injection is performed to anesthetize a nerve located between two ribs to block chest wall pain. Which CPT® nerve injection code is reported?

64420

A 25 year-old is brought to the burn unit being rescued from a burning house. She sustained 25% second degree burns on her anterior trunk and back and 20% third degree burns on her legs and arms. Total body surface area burned is 45%. What ICD-10-CM code is reported for the burns classified according to the extent of body surface involved?

T31.42

What is ascites?

Fluid in the abdomen

A 56 year-old receives general anesthesia for an open pleura biopsy. An anesthesiologist medically directs two other cases, and medically directs a CRNA on this case. What are the anesthesia codes and modifiers reported for the anesthesiologist and CRNA?

00540-QK, 00540-QX

Angiograms reveal three artery blockages. The patient has COPD, which is a severe systemic disease. The patient undergoes a CABG X 3 venous grafts on cardiopulmonary bypass and cell saver. Code the anesthesia service

00567-P3

A patient is given general anesthesia by the anesthesiologist for a carpal tunnel nerve release. After the surgery the anesthesiologist is called to perform an axillary block for postoperative pain management on the same patient. What are the appropriate CPT® codes?

01810-AA, 64417-59

A 55 year-old male presents in the office with an ingrown toenail on the right and left foot. The procedure was discussed in detail and the patient elected to have it performed. The right foot was prepped and draped in sterile fashion. The right great toe was anesthetized with 50/50 solution of 2 percent lidocaine and .05 percent Marcaine. A mini-tourniquet was placed around the toe for hemostasis in which part of the nail plate and matrixectomy were performed. Phenol was then applied, the toe was then flushed. Tourniquet was released and dressing applied. At this time the patient elected to only have one performed and will return in two weeks for the left foot. Code the procedure.

117580-T5

Procedure Diagnosis: Basal cell carcinoma, left chin. Procedure: Wide local excision of 3.0 cm with 0.3 cm margin basal cell carcinoma of the left chin with a 4 cm closure. Procedure: The patient's left chin was examined. The site of intended excision was marked out. The site was then prepped. The patient was then prepped and draped in the usual fashion. A 15 blade scalpel was then used to make an incision in the previously marked site. It was carried down to the subcuticular fat. The lesion was then sharply dissected off underlying tissue bed using a 15-blade scalpel. It was tagged for pathologic orientation. The hyfrecator was used for hemostasis. The wound was then closed by advancing the tissue surrounding the lesion and closing in layers with 3-0 Vicryl for the deep layer, followed by 5-0 Prolene for the skin. The skin closure was in a running subcuticular fashion. Steri-Strips were then applied. What are the procedure and diagnosis codes?

11644, 12052-51, C44.319

Indication: Patient has a hypertrophic scar on the posterior side of the left leg, at the level of the knee. This has begun to restrict his mobility. His physical therapy trial was unsuccessful. Procedure: After the proper induction of anesthesia, the subcutaneous tissue of the patient's left leg beneath the scar was infiltrated with crystalloid solution containing epinephrine to minimize blood loss. The scar was then excised down to viable dermis. Hemostasis was obtained with epinephrine soaked pads. Skin was harvested from the patient's thigh in a split thickness fashion and was used to cover the 90 sq cm defect created by the surgery. The graft was secured with skin staples, and then dressed with fine mesh gauze followed by medication-soaked gauze. The donor site was dressed with mesh followed by Adaptic™, followed by a dry dressing and an Ace wrap. What are the CPT® codes?

15100, 15002

Indications: 55 year-old female had a sizeable 1.5 cm basal cell carcinoma on the right upper lip. She had a 2 cm defect. After excision, it was reconstructed in a first stage with a nasolabial cheek flap. The margins were clear and she is planned for the second stage. Operative Procedure: Under intravenous sedation, patient is supine, the face was prepped and draped. Division performed to the bridge between the base of the flap of the upper lip. Unfurled the base of the flap that was excised until it was soft and pliable. It is defatted and laid back onto the cheek with interrupted 5-0 Monocryl and running 6-0 plain catgut. Similar procedure was performed on the redundant portion of the flap and permanently set into the upper lip. Steri-strips applied. Which CPT® code and modifier are used?

15630-58

Patient complains of chronic/acute arm and shoulder pain following bilateral carpal tunnel surgery. Patient is followed by pain management for over a year. Physician finally diagnoses patient with reflex dystrophy syndrome (RSD). Physician performs six trigger point injections into four muscle groups. How is this encounter reported?

20553

A 35 year-old female patient presents with acute onset of severe pain since October. Her workup has revealed evidence of disk herniation with loss of lordosis at the C5-C6. Intraoperative findings were consistent with two large fragments of free disk fragments in the foramen at C5-C6 on the right side. After general anesthesia, the patient was placed on the operative table in the supine position. All pressure points were cushioned and a transverse skin incision was fashioned under fluoroscopic guidance over the C5-C6 disc space. Dissection through the platysma eventually allowed for exposure of the anterior entrance to the vertebral body of C5 and C6 and retractors were inserted to maintain adequate exposure. The operating microscope was brought into the field. Caspar posts were placed and slight distraction allowed exposure. A complete discectomy was performed at C5-C6 by using endplate curets pituitary rongeurs and Kerrison rongeurs. The posterior longitudinal ligament was resected and beneath the posterior longitudinal ligament, two significant sized disc fragments were noted in the foramen at C5-C6. These were removed using pituitary and Decker instruments. The endplates were then decorticated so that they were parallel to each other and a midline keel was performed on AP and lateral fluoroscopy. A size #1 by 5 mm interbody Kineflex-C device was placed under fluoroscopic guidance. Satisfied with the positioning of the device, the decision was made to close. What is the correct CPT® code for this procedure?

22856

Patient is seen in the hospital's outpatient surgical area with a diagnosis of a displaced comminuted closed fracture of the lateral condyle, right elbow. An ORIF procedure was performed, which included the following techniques: An incision was made in the area of the lateral epicondyle. This was carried through subcutaneous tissue, and the fracture site was easily exposed. An inspection revealed the fragment to be rotated in two places, about 90 degrees. It was possible to manually reduce this quite easily, and the manipulation resulted in an almost anatomic reduction. This was fixed with two pins driven across the humerus. The pins were cut off below skin level. The wound was closed with plain catgut subcutaneously and 5-0 nylon for the skin. Dressings and a long arm cast were applied. Which is the correct ICD-10-CM and CPT® code assignment?

24579-RT, S42.451A

A 47 year-old patient was previously treated with external fixation for a type IIIA open left tibia fracture. There is now nonunion of the left proximal tibia and he is admitted for open reduction of tibia with bone grafting. Approximately 30 grams of cancellous bone was harvested from the iliac crest. The fracture site was exposed and the area of nonunion was osteotomized, cleaned, and repositioned. Interfragmentary compression was applied and three screws and the harvested bone graft were packed into the fracture site. What are the correct codes for this diagnosis and procedure?

27724, S82.102N

Pre-Operative Diagnosis: Right lung mass Indications: Patient with a mass in the right lung identified on routine X-ray presents for bronchoscopy and biopsy. Procedure: The patient was brought to the endoscopy suite and the mouth and throat were anesthetized. The bronchoscope was inserted and advanced through the larynx to the bronchus. The bronchoscope was introduced into the right bronchus. Using fluoroscopic guidance, the tip of the bronchoscope was maneuvered into the area of the mass. A closed biopsy forceps was passed through the channel in the bronchoscope and then through the bronchial wall. A tissue sample was obtained. There were no other abnormalities appreciated in the right side and the bronchoscope was removed. The specimen was labeled and sent to pathology for testing. The patient tolerated the procedure well. Pathology indicates that the lung mass is cancer. What are the procedure and diagnosis codes?

31628, C34.91

56 year-old with lung cancer developed an effusion that is suspicious for malignancy. Needle aspiration is performed to obtain a sample of the fluid for pathological examination. A needle is inserted between the ribs and into the pleural space, and the fluid is withdrawn. The specimen is sent to pathology. Choose the CPT® code that reports the procedure described

32554

Mr. Y presents to outpatient surgery for placement of a dual chamber pacemaker after multiple attempts to manage his bradycardia medically. Atrial and ventricular leads were placed under fluoroscopic guidance via the subclavian vein. Testing confirmed appropriate placement and conduction. The left chest was then infiltrated with Epinephrine and a pocket was opened for placement of the generator. The leads were attached to the generator and the generator was programmed. Appropriate pacing was confirmed. The skin pocket was closed in layers and dressing placed. Select the appropriate CPT® code(s).

33208

2 year-old male requires a central venous catheter. Using xylocaine local anesthesia a percutaneous approach is used in the neck and venous access is achieved. A subcutaneous tunnel is created from the anterior chest wall to the venotomy site and the catheter passed through the tunnel. The CV catheter is then placed at the superior vena cava and sutured in position. Which procedure code is used?

36557

A 67 year-old female has CAD, atrial fibrillation, claudication and several chronic conditions that have been marginally controlled with medication. The doctor decided that the benefits outweigh the risks for her having a single vessel cardiopulmonary bypass using an arterial graft. Her medication Heparin has been stopped for several days. She was admitted in the hospital a day before the surgery. In the operating room, general anesthesia was administered. After the chest is opened the patient begins to hemorrhage and drops in blood pressure. The decision is made to stop the procedure and close the chest. How is this service coded?

33533-74

The physician performs a selective catheterization of the right renal artery and renal angiography. The puncture site was the right femoral artery. Which CPT® code(s) is (are) reported?

36251-RT

A 42 year-old patient was in the hospital three days ago in which a lumbar puncture was performed to find the etiology of the patient's headaches. Today he is in the neurology clinic because after having the lumbar puncture the headaches have increased in intensity over the past three days. The neurologist examines the patient and finds a CSF leak from the lumbar puncture. A blood patch is performed by epidural injection to repair the leak. Code the CPT® code(s) for today's visit.

62273

An 11 year-old patient is seen in the OR for a secondary palatoplasty for complete unilateral cleft palate. Shortly after general anesthesia is administered, the patient begins to seize. The surgeon quickly terminates the surgery in order to stabilize the patient. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported for the surgeon?

42220-53, Q35.9, R56.9

Preoperative Diagnosis: Chronic tonsillitis. Chronic adenoiditis. Postoperative Diagnosis: Same. Procedure: Tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. Patient is a 24 year-old male who was taken to the operating room and put under IV sedation by the anesthesia department. An initial curettage of adenoids was done and packing was placed. The left tonsil was then identified and dissected out extracapsular and removed with scissors. Hemostasis was maintained by packing the left tonsil. Next, the right tonsil was identified and incision was made. Dissection was done extracapsular and the right tonsil was then removed. Both the right and left tonsil were sent as specimens as well as adenoid tissue. What are the procedure and diagnosis codes?

42821, J35.03

Diagnostic esophagogastroduodenoscopy of the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum was performed after esophageal balloon dilation (less than 30 mm diameter) was done at the same operative session. Code the procedure(s).

43249

Patient with RUQ pain and nausea suspected of having a stone or other obstruction in the biliary tract is brought in for ERCP under radiologic guidance. Procedure: The patient was brought to the outpatient endoscopy suite and placed supine on the table. The mouth and throat were anesthetized. Under radiologic guidance, the scope was inserted through the oropharynx, esophagus, stomach, and into the small intestine. The ampulla of vater was cannulated and filled with contrast. It was clear that there was an obstruction in the common bile duct. The endoscope was advanced retrograde to the point of the obstruction, which was found to be a stone that was removed with a stone basket. The rest of the biliary tract was visualized and no other obstructions or anomalies were found. The scope was removed without difficulty. The patient tolerated the procedure well.

43264, 74328-26

A 42 year-old has a lesion on his pancreas. The physician passes the biopsy needle through the skin and removes tissue to be sent to pathology. Fluoroscopic guidance is used to obtain the biopsy. Physician's report and interpretation is placed in the record. Code this encounter.

48102, 77002-26

A 57 year-old patient with chronic pancreatitis presents to the operating room for a pancreatic duct-jejunum anastomosis by the Puestow-type operation. What are the correct CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes for the encounter?

48548, K86.1

Preoperative Diagnosis: Right hydronephrosis Postoperative Diagnosis: Right hydronephrosis Operation: Cystoscopy and right retrograde pyelogram Procedure: Patient prepped and draped in the dorsolithotomy position. Placed under general anesthesia a 23 French cystoscope was passed into the bladder. No tumors were visualized. Urine from the bladder was sent for urine cytology. Then a 6 French access catheter was passed into the right ureteral orifice. Contrast was injected and there were no filling defects noted. There was no fixed tumor and no stone. There was mild hydroureteral nephrosis against the bladder. There was a narrowing at the UVJ no abnormalities. Renal pelvis barbotaged with saline and renal pelvis urine sent to pathology for urine cytology. After the retrograde pyelogram was performed the access catheter was removed. Interpretation and report are in the medical record. What CPT® codes are reported?

52005-RT, 74420-26

A 55 year-old man with complaints of an elevated PSA of 6.5 presents to the outpatient surgical facility for prostate biopsies. The patient is placed in the lateral position. Some calcifications were found in the right lobe, with no obvious hypoechogenic abnormality. The base of the prostate was infiltrated and random needle biopsies were performed under ultrasonic guidance by the physician. His interpretation was reported in the record. What is (are) the CPT® code(s)?

55700, 76942-26

A laparoscopic assisted total hysterectomy is planned for a patient who has severe intramural fibroids. After inserting the laparoscope, extensive adhesions are noted to the extent that the ligaments supporting the uterus cannot be visualized. The physician decides to convert the procedure to an open abdominal hysterectomy in which the uterus and cervix are removed. What CPT® code(s) should be reported?

58150

A 30 year-old disabled Medicare patient is scheduled for surgery due to the discovery of what looks like an ovarian mass on the right ovary. On entering the abdomen, the surgeon finds an enlarged ovarian cyst on the right, but the ovary is otherwise normal. The left ovary is necrotic looking. The decision is made, based on the patient's age, to remove the cyst from the right ovary and to remove the entire left ovary and fallopian tube. Code this encounter.

58925, 58720-59

A patient has ovarian cancer of both ovaries. She has removal of her ovaries with peritoneal washings and assessment of the abdomen for any metastases, including inspection of omentum, diaphragm and multiple biopsies. Lymph nodes in the pelvic and peri-aortic areas were also biopsied. She has previously had a hysterectomy. What are the CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes reported for this service?

58943, C56.1, C56.2

A patient with McCune-Albright syndrome has a fibrous tissue neoplasm of the frontal bone (skull of cranium) extending into the orbit on the left. The surgeon excises the fibrous tissue neoplasm off the bone and down through the dura mater. Prophylactic decompression of the optic nerve was also performed. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

61564, Q78.1

A 63 year-old woman presented to the eye clinic as with symptoms of flashing lights and floaters in the right eye for two days. The ophthalmologist dilates her eyes and checking her with an indirect ophthalmoscope, revealing peripheral retinal break. The physician explains to the patient that there is a high likelihood of retinal detachment. The patient agrees to have the procedure done. The physician lasers the retinal tear and tells the patient to come back in 24 hours for follow-up. The appropriate CPT® code for this visit is:

67145

Parents of a 3 year-old male who has chronic serous otitis media in the right ear have consented to surgery. Patient is placed under general anesthesia and the provider makes an incision in the tympanic membrane. Fluid is suctioned out from the middle ear and a ventilating tube is placed in the ear to provide a drainage route to help reduce middle ear infections. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

69436-RT, H65.21

Due to an elevated CEA level two years following a colon resection, the patient's oncologist ordered a diagnostic liver ultrasound. Which radiology code is reported for this encounter

76705

A 32 year-old pregnant female has gestational diabetes at 34 weeks gestation. Her doctor is concerned about decreased fetal movement. The patient is sent to the radiology department of the hospital for a biophysical profile (BPP). The radiologist performs and interprets four elements scored by the ultrasound and it was reassuring, 8/8. A non-stress test will be performed by the obstetrician at the patient's next office visit, not the radiologist. What is the correct CPT® code for the fetal profile performed by the radiologist?

76819

52 year-old male has a 3.2 cm metastasized lung cancer in his left upper lobe. The tumor cannot be removed by surgery due to the patient having severe respiratory conditions. He will be receiving stereotactic body radiation therapy management under image guidance. There is a delivery of 25 Gy for four fractions under direct supervision of the radiation oncologist. The patient's treatment set up is assessed to manage the execution of the treatment to make any adjustments needed for accuracy and safety. The oncologist reviews and approves all the images used to locate the tumor and images of fields arranged to deliver the dose. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes should be reported?

77435, Z51.0, C78.02

A patient with a manic depressive disorder is being treated with lithium. The physician orders a therapeutic drug test to measure the level of lithium. What is the correct CPT® code?

80178

22 year-old comes into the Emergency Department with convulsions. The ED physician orders a drug screening without identifying any specific drug class to be tested. The lab runs two drug classes screening using an immunoassay multipex strip (dipstick) and the results are visually read. The lab report comes back positive for alcohol and benzodiazepines. The ED physician then orders a confirmatory test to be performed by the lab to confirm both positive results. What CPT® codes are reported?

80305, 80320, 80346

The patient presents with burning urination and frequency. The physician performs a UA dipstick, which shows elevated WBC. He orders a urine culture with identification for each isolate to determine which antibiotic to give to the patient for the infection. What are the appropriate lab codes?

81002, 87088

A patient presents to the ED with crushing chest pain radiating down the left arm and up under the chin. There are elevated S-T segments on EKG. The cardiologist sees and admits the patient to CCU. He orders three serial CPK enzymes levels with instructions that the tests are also to be done with isoenzymes if the initial tests are elevated for that date of service. The CPK enzyme levels were elevated, the lab codes would be:

82550, 82550-91 x 2, 82552, 82552-91 x 2

22 year-old has had no prenatal care. Fundal height indicates a term fetus and by dates it is determined she is 38 weeks pregnant. Few hours prior to admission to Labor and Delivery her membranes ruptured spontaneously. She does not have fever, but the physician performs a rapid antigen test for group B strep. An enzyme immunoassay method is performed. Physician obtains a lower vaginal swab, then observes that it visually shows the patient is negative for the antigen. If clinical risk factors appear, intrapartum antibiotics will be initiated. Which lab test is reported?

87802

A patient had several panic attacks at work disturbing her coworkers. She had been unable to explain any particular reason for her behavior. Her employer requested she be referred for counseling. After several sessions, her psychiatrist provided reports for her primary care provider and her insurer about her status and prognosis. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported for the preparation of the report?

90889, F41.0

The patient is admitted to the hospital for a radio16 channel EEG to determine the focus of her cerebral seizures. The test also consists of EEG recording and interpretation with nurse attendance. The EEG is performed in 12 hours. Select the appropriate coding.

95956-26-52

A patient is coming in to have osteopathic manipulative treatment (OMT) performed on two root lesions in his cervical region and three root lesions in the thoracic region. Which CPT® code is reported by the physician for the OMT?

98925

Physician performs a medical review and documentation on an 83 year-old patient who has been in the hospital for the last two days with confusion. Problem focused exam where she is alert and oriented x 3 today. Low medical decision making by ordering an echocardiogram and to continue IV fluids. Patient is not safe to return home. What E/M code is reported for this visit?

99231

This morning a 48 year-old is placed in observation status from the emergency room with severe diarrhea and extreme thirst. The physician performs a comprehensive history, comprehensive examination and determines the patient is suffering from dehydration. The physician places the patient on IV saline 500 ml and conducts normal saline hydration for a couple hours. The medical making decision making is of moderate complexity. Patient is discharged home in the late evening on the same day and is told to return if symptoms occur again. The E/M service(s) for this encounter is:

99235

A four year-old patient presents with pain in the left forearm following a fall from a chair. The injury occurred one hour ago. Her mom applied ice to the injury but it does not appear to help. The ED physician performs a detailed history, expanded problem focused examination and medical decision making of moderate complexity. An X-ray is ordered, which shows a fracture of the distal end of the radius as read by the radiologist. The ED physician consults with an orthopedic surgeon. The ED physician performs moderate conscious sedation with Ketamine for 30 minutes. The fracture is reduced and cast applied by an orthopedic surgeon. The child was monitored with pulse oximetry, cardiac monitor and blood pressure by the ED physician frequently. The patient was discharged with a sling and requested to follow up with the orthopedic surgeon. Code the services performed by the ED physician.

99283-25, 99155, 99157

The patient is a 35 year-old male who presents to the emergency department (ED) after several hours of low back pain, nausea, and chills. The ED physician takes a detailed history and performs a comprehensive examination. A urinalysis lab and CT of the abdomen is ordered. The results of the CT show two small kidney stones. The ED physician discusses the results with the patient and tells him the stones are small and will pass on their own. Medical decision making (MDM) of moderate complexity is made with the patient being discharged, with a prescription of pain medication, and with a diagnosis of kidney stones. Select the E/M code and diagnosis code(s).

99284, N20.0

Patient comes in today at 4 months of age for a checkup. She is growing and developing well. Her mother is concerned because she seems to cry a lot when lying down but when she is picked up she is fine. She is on breast milk but her mother has returned to work and is using a breast pump but hasn't seemed to produce enough milk. PHYSICAL EXAM: Weight 12 lbs. 11 oz., Height 25in., OFC 41.5 cm. HEENT: Eye: Red reflex normal. Right eardrum is minimally pink, left eardrum is normal. Nose: slight mucous Throat with slight thrush on the inside of the cheeks and on the tongue. LUNGS: clear. HEART: w/o murmur. ABDOMEN: soft. Hip exam normal. GENITALIA normal although her mother says there was a diaper rash earlier in the week. ASSESSMENT Four month-old well check Cold Mild thrush Diaper rash PLAN: Okay to advance to baby foods Okay to supplement with Similac Nystatin suspension for the thrush and creams for the diaper rash if it recurs Mother will bring child back after the cold symptoms resolve for her DPT, HIB and polio What E/M code(s) is/are reported?

99391

A two month-old returns for a well check up and several shots (Rota, DTaP-HepB-IPV, Pneumococcal PCV13) with her pediatrician. He offers suggestions to the mom, completes the exam, and counsels her on the vaccinations. How should this be coded

99391-25, 90460 x 3, 90461 x 4, 90680, 90723, 90670

At the request of the mother's obstetrician, a neonatologist is called to attend the birth of an infant being delivered at 29 weeks gestation. During delivery, the neonate was pale and bradycardic needing resuscitation. Neonatologist performs the suctioning and bag ventilation on this 1000 gram neonate was performed with 100 percent oxygen. Brachycardia worsened, requiring endotracheal intubation and insertion of an umbilical line for fluid resuscitation. Later this critically ill neonate was moved from the delivery room and admitted to the NICU with severe respiratory distress and continued hypotension. What are the appropriate procedure codes reported by the neonatologist?

99465, 99468-25, 31500-59, 36510-59

Which of the following statements regarding advanced beneficiary notices (ABN) is TRUE?

An ABN must be completed before delivery of items or services are provided.

In order to use the critical care codes, which statement is TRUE?

Critical care services can be provided in an internist's office

What is the full CPT® code description for 61535?

Craniotomy with elevation of bone flap; for removal of epidural or subdural electrode array, without excision of cerebral tissue (separate procedure)

Which modifier should be append to a CPT®, for which the provider had a patient sign an Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN) form because there is a possibility the service may be denied because the patient's diagnosis might not meet medical necessity for the covered service?

GA

Which of the following terms is one who has an overload of sodium?

Hypernatremia

Following the MUGA scan, the physician documents that the patient has developed congestive heart failure as an adverse effect of the Trastuzumab she received as a treatment for her breast cancer. The trastuzumab antineoplastic antibiotic therapy is being discontinued while the heart failure management is attempted pharmaceutically. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

I50.9, T45.1X5A, C50.919

A 35 year-old female returns to her primary care provider for follow up of an upper respiratory infection diagnosed the previous week. Her condition has not improved and her cough has increased. She has a long history of smoking and currently smokes one pack a day. She uses a bronchodilator for her chronic bronchitis which is caused by her smoking history. The physician changes her antibiotics to treat both her chronic and acute bronchitis. Provide the diagnosis codes for this visit.

J20.9, J41.0, Z72.0

The patient is a 75 year-old woman who is here for follow-up after an incident last week in which she had an FB lodged in her throat. An emergency esophagoscopy was performed and the piece of hamburger meat removed and biopsy performed. She is positive for Barrett's esophagus. She has GERD which is currently being treated by medication and is here today to be evaluated for photodynamic therapy What diagnosis codes should be reported for today's visit?

K22.70, K21.9

A person who has nephritis has inflammation in what location?

Kidney

A pediatrician examines an adolescent that has a thoracic curvature of the spine which is called:

Kyphosis

Which of the following is an example of fraud?

Reporting a biopsy and excision performed on the same skin lesion during the same encounter

Which of the following services are covered by Medicare Part B?

Minor surgery performed in a physician's office

Which of the following patients might be documented as having meconium staining?

Newborn with pneumonia

The patient is a 16 year-old female with pelvic pain. Her ultrasound is normal. A laparoscopy found several small cysts in the area of the fallopian tubes. These cysts are called

Paratubal cysts

Lordosis is a disorder of which anatomical site?

Spine

Complete this series: Pulmonary, Aortic, Mitral, and ________are valves of the heart.

Tricuspid

Which Z code category can only be reported as a first listed diagnosis code?

Z03

The mother, at 38-weeks gestation, advances to severe pre-eclampsia during labor. Fetal heart rate deceleration during contractions are not improved with the administration of oxygen, so a low transverse cesarean section is performed in the hospital. There is evidence of intrauterine growth retardation. The male infant weighs 1587 gm and has Apgars of 3 and 5. Select the ICD-10-CM codes for the newborn's chart.

Z38.01, P00.0, P03.811, P05.9