CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Problem Area

A commonly used mnemonic to remember the different wireless standards and specifications

"All Beautiful Giraffes Need Acorn Earrings" This can help you recall additional specifications corresponding to the standards in order: 802.11a (5 GHz frequency), 802.11b (2.4 GHz frequency, up to 11 Mbps), 802.11g (2.4 GHz frequency, up to 54 Mbps), 802.11n (multiple frequencies, up to 600 Mbps), and 802.11ac (5 GHz frequency, up to 1.3 Gbps).

Jason would like the fastest internet available at his house, and he called his local fiber-optic provider. Which of the following offers would provide the fastest service to Jason's home network? FTTH FTTN FTTC HFC

"Fiber to the X" (FTTx) is commonly used to describe where the fiber connection ends between the service and the subscriber. The closer the fiber is to the user's network, the faster the service. FTTH (fiber to the house) provides fiber directly to the user's home network making it the fastest option. Traditionally, you will find a 1 Gbps connection or higher with FTTH.

Which of the following types of connectors are used to terminate a CAT 5e network cable? F type RJ-11 RJ-45 Molex

"Rabbits Jump-45 times, Hopping Online!" OBJ 3.1 - RJ-45 refers to a cable termination specification that specifies physical male and female connectors and the pin assignments of data jacks that can be used for networks and VOIP telephone cables. RJ-45 is an 8-pin/8-position plug or jack commonly used to connect computers onto Ethernet-based local area networks (LAN) and consists of two wiring schemes: T568A and T568B. An RJ-11 connector is used to terminate cables used for phone lines. A Molex connector is used to provide power to internal components of a computer from the power supply.

Explain the role of touch pens in mobile devices, highlighting their precision and use cases. How do touch pens enhance user interactions, especially in artistic and professional settings?

"Touch Pens: Artists' Magic Wands! They provide Pixel-Perfect Precision, making digital art a breeze. In professional settings, they become Precision Partners, ensuring accurate selections and notes, just like a talented wizard's wand."

DNS Server:

**DNS Server:** *Function:* Acts as the internet's phonebook, translating human-friendly domain names (like www.example.com) into IP addresses that computers use to identify each other on the network. *Anonymity:* Does not provide anonymity; it primarily focuses on translating domain names into IP addresses. *Encryption:* DNS requests are typically unencrypted, which means that they can potentially be intercepted, leading to privacy concerns. *Speed:* Generally fast and responsive, as DNS resolution occurs quickly, allowing websites to load faster. *Use Cases:* Essential for browsing the internet, accessing websites, sending emails, and any online activity requiring domain name resolution. *Specifications:* DNS servers can be public (like Google's 8.8.8.8) or private (used within specific networks or by Internet Service Providers). Configurations can include primary and secondary servers for redundancy, and security features such as DNSSEC (DNS Security Extensions) can be enabled to enhance security. **Mnemonic:** "Picture the internet as a bustling city; DNS servers are like the city directory. They help you find specific locations (websites) based on names (domain names), but they don't hide your footsteps. It's akin to asking for directions in a crowded square; everyone can hear your question, but the response isn't always private."

TACACS Server vs. RADIUS Server:

**Mnemonic:** "Think of TACACS as the Vault and RADIUS as the Reception Desk. **TACACS** meticulously controls who enters the vault, tracks their every move inside, and ensures they leave when they should. **RADIUS**, on the other hand, manages the front desk, checking people in, allowing access to designated areas, and keeping a record of who came and went. The Vault (TACACS) offers tighter security, while the Reception Desk (RADIUS) efficiently handles a stream of visitors." **TACACS Server vs. RADIUS Server:** *Function:* - **TACACS (Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System) Server:** Primarily used for access control, authorization, and accounting of users trying to access network devices like routers and switches. - **RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) Server:** Designed for authenticating, authorizing, and accounting for users trying to connect to a network, often used for remote access solutions like VPNs. *Anonymity:* - Neither TACACS nor RADIUS servers provide anonymity; they focus on user authentication, authorization, and accounting for network access. *Encryption:* - **TACACS Server:** Supports encryption for the entire authentication process, including usernames and passwords. - **RADIUS Server:** Encrypts only the password during transmission, leaving other data potentially vulnerable to interception. *Scalability:* - **TACACS Server:** Generally offers better scalability, especially in large enterprise environments, due to its robust encryption and authentication features. - **RADIUS Server:** Slightly less scalable than TACACS but still suitable for most medium to large-scale network deployments. *Use Cases:* - **TACACS Server:** Ideal for environments where stringent access control and detailed accounting are critical, such as in corporate data centers. - **RADIUS Server:** Commonly used for granting remote access to networks, like in Virtual Private Network (VPN) setups, Wi-Fi networks, and dial-up connections. *Specifications:* - **TACACS Server:** Supports multiple protocols, including TACACS+, which is an improvement over the original TACACS protocol. - **RADIUS Server:** Uses UDP (User Datagram Protocol) and relies on a shared secret between the server and clien

A developer wants to ensure that no matter what server an administrator deploys their application on, it has all the libraries and dependencies needed for the application to operate properly. How can the developer accomplish this? Client-side virtualization Server-side virtualization Application virtualization Container virtualization

. Container virtualization Container virtualization allows developers to package their applications along with all the necessary libraries and dependencies into containers. These containers are isolated environments that ensure the application will run consistently, regardless of the server it's deployed on. This method simplifies deployment, as developers don't have to worry about the differences in server configurations. Popular containerization platforms like Docker provide a way to achieve this consistency and portability for applications.

A network technician is purchasing a digital subscriber line (DSL) service for a business that transfers large amounts of data back and forth between branches. What is the best connection type for the business? ADSL ISP PSTN Symmetric DSL

. Symmetric DSL Symmetric DSL (SDSL) is the best connection type for a business that transfers large amounts of data back and forth between branches. Unlike asymmetric DSL (ADSL), which provides faster download speeds than upload speeds, symmetric DSL offers equal upload and download speeds. This balanced speed is crucial for businesses that require efficient data transfer in both directions.

Establish a new theory. Implement a plan of action. Test the theory. Implement preventive measures. explain the steps and create a mnemonic to remember it.

1. Establish a new theory (E): Scenario: Imagine scientists researching a new plant species and formulating a theory about its unique properties. Action: Develop a hypothesis or theory based on observations and research. 2. Implement a plan of action (I): Scenario: Picture a team of engineers planning to build a new bridge. Action: Create a detailed plan outlining the steps, resources, and timeline required to test the theory. 3. Test the theory (T): Scenario: Think of a medical researcher conducting experiments to validate a new drug's effectiveness. Action: Perform experiments, gather data, and analyze results to determine if the theory is valid. 4. Implement preventive measures (T): Scenario: Visualize a cybersecurity expert securing a computer network to prevent potential attacks. Action: Put in place security protocols and measures based on the findings from testing the theory to prevent future issues. Using the mnemonic "Every Intelligent Tiger Hunts," you can easily recall the steps in the correct order: Establish (E), Implement (I), Test (T), and Take preventive measures (T).

Let's explore the differences between Thermal, 3-D, Inkjet, and Laser printers:

1. Thermal Printers: Technology: Uses heat-sensitive paper and a thermal print head. Use Case: Commonly used in retail for receipts and labels. Maintenance: Requires cleaning the heating element and replacing thermal paper rolls. Special Paper: Uses special heat-sensitive paper coated with chemicals. 2. 3-D Printers: Technology: Additive manufacturing, building objects layer by layer from digital designs. Use Case: Used for rapid prototyping, custom manufacturing, and creating 3-D models. Maintenance: Requires regular filament (for Fused Deposition Modeling) or resin (for Stereolithography) replacement, print head cleaning, and bed leveling. Materials: Can use various materials, including plastics, resins, metal powders, and ceramics. 3. Inkjet Printers: Technology: Sprays liquid ink droplets onto paper through microscopic nozzles. Use Case: Suitable for high-quality photo printing and general-purpose document printing. Maintenance: Requires regular print head cleaning, cartridge replacement, and alignment for optimal results. Ink Types: Uses dye-based inks for vibrant colors and pigment-based inks for durability. 4. Laser Printers: Technology: Forms electrostatic images on a photosensitive drum using a laser beam, attracting toner particles transferred onto paper and fused with heat and pressure. Use Case: Ideal for high-volume, fast, and efficient document printing, commonly used in office environments. Maintenance: Requires regular toner cartridge replacement, cleaning, calibration, and replacement of consumables like imaging drums and fuser assemblies. Printing Speed: Known for high printing speeds, suitable for large-scale print jobs.

A private IP address is in the range of

10.x.x.x, 172.16-31.x.x, or 192.168.x.x.

Which of the following is used to connect Cat 5e or above networks in an MDF or IDF?

110 punch down block

In United States, the nominal voltage of a power outlet is ____

115v

In Europe, the nominal voltage of a power outlet is ____

220 v

Your company's printer is displaying an error of "Replace cartridge 1. Filament is empty." Based on this error, what kind of printer is your company using? Thermal 3-D Inkjet Laser

3-D printers use a filament to create the objects being printed. A 3D printing filament is a thermoplastic feedstock for fused deposition modeling by 3D printers. There are many types of filament available with different properties, requiring different temperatures to print the final product or object. On the exam, you should be thinking about a 3D printer anytime you see the word filament. An inkjet cartridge is used with an inkjet printer. Toner is used with a laser printer. Ribbon is used with an impact printer. Ribbon or special thermal paper is used with a thermal printer.

Which type of wireless network utilizes the 5 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 54 Mbps? 802.11a 802.11b 802.11g 802.11n 802.11ac

802.11a

Question: Which wireless standard, introduced in 1999, operates in the 5 GHz frequency band and provides data rates of up to 54 Mbps? a) 802.11a b) 802.11b c) 802.11g d) 802.11n e) 802.11ac

802.11a: Answer: a) 802.11a

What are the key features and benefits of the 802.11ac Wi-Fi standard, and how does it enhance wireless network performance compared to its predecessors?

802.11ac offers faster data rates, improved range, and increased capacity, making it ideal for high-density environments and seamless multimedia streaming. Mnemonic: "AC - Accelerate Connection, Amazing Capacity"

Question: Which wireless standard, introduced in 2013, operates in the 5 GHz frequency band, supports wider channel bandwidths, and provides data rates of up to several gigabits per second, making it suitable for high-performance applications? a) 802.11a b) 802.11b c) 802.11g d) 802.11n e) 802.11ac

802.11ac: Answer: e) 802.11ac

Which type of wireless network utilizes the 5 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 6.9 Gbps? 802.11a 802.11b 802.11g 802.11n 802.11ac 802.11ax See all questionsBackNext question

802.11ax The type of wireless network that utilizes the 5 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 6.9 Gbps is **802.11ax Wi-Fi 6**. Wi-Fi 6 is the latest generation of Wi-Fi technology, providing faster speeds and improved efficiency compared to its predecessors. It operates in both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands, but it achieves higher data rates, such as up to 6.9 Gbps, in the 5 GHz band when multiple channels are used. Wi-Fi 6 is designed to handle high-density environments and offers better performance and capacity, making it suitable for modern high-speed wireless networks.

Question: Which wireless standard, introduced in 1999, operates in the 2.4 GHz frequency band and provides data rates of up to 11 Mbps? a) 802.11a b) 802.11b c) 802.11g d) 802.11n e) 802.11ac

802.11b: Answer: b) 802.11b

Question: Which wireless standard, introduced in 2003, operates in the 2.4 GHz frequency band and provides data rates of up to 54 Mbps, making it an extension of the 802.11b standard with higher speeds? a) 802.11a b) 802.11b c) 802.11g d) 802.11n e) 802.11ac

802.11g: Answer: c) 802.11g

Question: Which wireless standard, introduced in 2009, operates in both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands and provides multiple input, multiple output (MIMO) technology, offering higher data rates and improved coverage?a) 802.11ab) 802.11bc) 802.11gd) 802.11ne) 802.11ac

802.11n: Answer: d) 802.11n

What is the 802.11s standard, and how does it enable the creation of self-configuring and self-healing wireless mesh networks? What are the practical applications of Wi-Fi mesh networks in real-world scenarios?

802.11s allows devices to form a wireless mesh network, enabling seamless coverage extension and automatic network healing, ideal for large-scale deployments and areas with challenging layouts. Mnemonic: "Wi-Fi Mesh - Self-Healing, Seamless Connectivity"

How does the 802.3af standard improve network efficiency and simplify installations for devices like IP cameras and VoIP phones?

802.3af standard allows devices to receive up to 15.4W of power over Ethernet cables, eliminating the need for separate power sources. Mnemonic: "PoE - Power Over Ethernet, Fifteen Point Four"

How does the 802.3at standard differ from 802.3af, and what advantages does it offer in terms of power delivery for network devices requiring higher power consumption?

802.3at (PoE+) provides up to 30W of power, making it suitable for devices like IP cameras with pan-tilt-zoom features and high-performance wireless access points. Mnemonic: "PoE+ - Plus Power, Thirty Watts"

5.0% complete Question Every time a user attempts to save a file, the computer shows an error that reads, "Cannot read from the source disk." What kind of issue does this indicate? POST issue Drive issue Power issue RAID failure

A "cannot read from the source disk" error indicates an issue with a fixed disk drive that is failing. Bad sectors typically cause this on a hard disk drive. Power-on self-test (POST) is a diagnostic program implemented in the system firmware that checks the hardware to ensure the components required to boot the PC are present and functioning correctly. A power issue might arise due to a fault in the power supply unit (PSU), incoming electricity supply, power cables/connectors, or fuses. In a redundant array of independent disks (RAID), if one of the underlying devices fails, the volume will show up as "degraded," but the data on the volume will still be accessible.

A non-tech savvy laptop user orders a new hard drive from a large online retailer to install in the laptop. When the drive arrives, the user discovers that it is physically too big to install. What size drive did the user order? 1.8 in. 9.5 mm 7 mm 3.5 in.

A 3.5" disk drive is the traditional drive size that is used in desktop systems. These are magnetic drives. Laptop HDDs are usually 2.5" form factor, though sometimes the 1.8" form factor is used. The 1.8" drive is used in smaller and more compact laptops. A standard 2.5" drive has a z-height of 9.5 mm. The z-height is a measurement derived from the size of the internal components. An ultraportable laptop might require a 7 mm (thin) or 5 mm (ultrathin) drive. These drives are the smallest traditional drive sizes.

The office inkjet printer is missing lines when it is printing. What is the correct maintenance step that needs to be performed in the printer? Print head alignment Print head cleaning Load roller replacement Eject roller replacement

A blocked or dirty print head nozzle will show on the printed material as a missing line. This can typically be corrected by running a print head cleaning cycle. An improper alignment of the print head will make output media appear skewed. Calibrating the printer will correct this. The load roller is the roller that initially feeds the paper by turning the paper against the stack to feed it into the printer. If paper continuously fails to feed into the printer, this roller may need to be replaced. The eject roller will either deliver the paper to the output tray or to the duplexing unit. If the paper jams continuously during output, this roller may need to be replaced.

Which type of internet connection allows for high-speed bi-directional data communication over a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC) connection? Fiber Satellite DSL Cable

A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network's high bandwidth.

A printer support technician at a corporate office receives a call from the administrative office that the office inkjet printer is online but it is making a grinding noise while printing. What type of error is this? Paper jam Print quality issue Carriage mechanism fault Incorrect page orientation

A carriage mechanism holds the ink cartridges in an inkjet printer. Grinding noises during printing are a symptom of a carriage mechanism fault. A paper jam occurs when paper incorrectly feeds through the printer and gets lodged within. A print quality issue is when a job prints, but the printed media is smudged, faded, skewed, or has other defects. Incorrect orientation (portrait or landscape) will cause the output media to be printed incorrectly. A finishing tray may incorrectly staple, fold, or punch media if the pages are not printed in the correct orientation.

A technician must determine why a computer is overheating. Which of the following may be the cause? (Select all that apply.) Blanking plates are covering slots. A fan is not working. The area is too warm. There is an invalid cable specification.

A computer can overheat because a fan is not working. Proper cooling is vital to the lifespan and performance of the processor. A computer can overheat because an area is too warm. The technician should check whether the PC is near a hot radiator or in direct sunlight. A technician should always use blanking plates to cover up slots in the back or front of the PC. Holes can create gaps, allowing dust and debris to make their way to computing components. An invalid cable specification can cause display issues. If the display is on and the technician can rule out a problem with the input source, they should check the cable.

15.0% complete Question A desktop technician determined that a computer could not connect to the network because the network drop was not working. What possibilities are open to the technician for getting the computer back on the network? (Select all that apply.) A.Repair the drop. B.Implement preventive measures. C.Replace the drop. D.Implement a workaround.

A desktop technician determined that a computer could not connect to the network because the network drop was not working. What possibilities are open to the technician for getting the computer back on the network? (Select all that apply.) Repair the drop. Implement preventive measures. Replace the drop. Implement a workaround.

You work as a PC Technician for a real estate company. The company has decided to use laptops instead of desktops in the office so that the real estate agents can easily take their laptops with them when they leave to show properties for sale. You want to create an easy solution for the agents to quickly connect an external monitor, keyboard, mouse, a wired network connection, and an additional hard drive for storage to the laptop whenever they come back into the office. Unfortunately, the laptops used by the agents don't have a built-in wired network connection. Which type of device should you choose to provide all the functionality above? Port replicator Thunderbolt Docking station USB 4-port hub

A docking station is a sophisticated type of port replicator designed to provide additional ports (such as network or USB) and functionality (such as expansion slots and drives) to a portable computer when used at a desk. A port replicator is a simple device to extend the range of ports (for example, USB, DVI, HDMI, Thunderbolt, network, and so on) available for a laptop computer when it is used at a desk. The difference between a docking station and a port replicator is that a docking station can add additional capabilities beyond what is already integrated into the laptop.

You connected your laptop to a new wireless network and received an IP address automatically. Which of the following servers allowed this to occur? DHCP server DNS server Proxy server TACACS+ server

A dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) serve is a server configured with a range of addresses to lease. Hosts can be allocated an IP address dynamically or be assigned a reserved IP address based on the host's MAC address. The server can also provide other configuration information, such as the location of DNS servers.

A user's device allows them to bypass the screen lock using biometric authentication. Which of the following are biometric authentication methods the user can configure? (Select all that apply.) PIN Fingerprint reader Facial recognition Voice recognition

A fingerprint reader is an example of an authentication mechanism that allows a user to perform a biometric scan to operate an entry or access system. Facial recognition is a biometric authentication method stored as a digital data template, and a smartphone can use it to authenticate a user. Voice recognition is an additional method of biometric authentication. A personal identification number (PIN) is not a biometric authentication method, but the user can use it as an authentication method or as part of two-factor authentication (2FA).

A hardware technician is following CompTIA's A+ troubleshooting model for diagnosing a monitor with a squiggly screen. The technician suspects the monitor screen is squiggly because it is located directly under a fluorescent light. What is the next step the technician should take? Identify the problem. Test the theory. Establish a plan of action. Verify full system functionality.

A hardware technician is following CompTIA's A+ troubleshooting model for diagnosing a monitor with a squiggly screen. The technician suspects the monitor screen is squiggly because it is located directly under a fluorescent light. What is the next step the technician should take? Identify the problem. Test the theory. Establish a plan of action. Verify full system functionality.

Heat sinks

A heat sink is a block of copper or aluminum with fins. The fins expose a larger surface area to the air around the component to achieve a passive cooling effect by convection.

An organization located on a large piece of rural property needs to connect its office building on the north side of the property with its warehouse and shipping operation on the south side of the property. The organization decides to connect the locations using long-range fixed wireless. What frequency spectrum must the organization use to ensure that nobody else can use the same frequency band? Unlicensed Licensed 802.11ax DFS

A licensed frequency spectrum means that the organization purchases the exclusive right to use a frequency band within a given geographical area from the regulator. Unlicensed spectrum means the operator uses a public frequency band, such as 900 MHz, 2.4 GHz, and 5 GHz. Anyone can use these frequencies, meaning that interference is a risk. 802.11ax, or Wi-Fi 6, can support up to eight clients, giving it better performance in congested areas. Wi-Fi 6 also adds support for uplink MU-MIMO and OFDMA. Dynamic frequency selection (DFS) is a regulatory feature of wireless access points that prevents the use of certain 5 GHz channels when in the range of a facility that uses radar

Samantha recently purchased a touchscreen laptop to use for her child to do their schoolwork. Her child just came home from school and said that they accidentally dropped their laptop earlier today. Samantha has asked you to troubleshoot the issue. You open up the laptop and turn on the screen. You look over the laptop, and the screen appears to have some spider web cracks in the panel, but you can still fully see the images on the display. You attempt to operate the laptop using the touchscreen and it appears to be fully responsive to your touch. Which of the following components MOST likely needs to be replaced? LCD panel GPU Inverter Digitizer

A liquid crystal display (LCD) panel is a type of display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges. LCD panels are used on laptops and have replaced CRT monitors as the main type of computer display screen for desktops, as well.

A technician plans a memory upgrade for a fleet of computers for sales users. When evaluating the various types of memory modules, what module types are commonly used for ultraportable laptops? (Select all that apply.) DIMM SODIMM Mini-DIMM Micro-DIMM

A mini-DIMM has a smaller form factor than a small outline DIMM (SODIMM) form factor and is used in compact and ultraportable devices. A micro-DIMM has a much smaller form factor than a small outline DIMMs (SODIMM). A micro-DIMM is used with ultraportable devices. A dynamic inline memory module (DIMM) is a memory form factor that is used in desktop systems. Laptop memory is packaged in small outline DIMMs (SODIMMs). A SODIMM is like a DIMM only it has a smaller form factor for laptop use rather than on a desktop. However, SODIMM is not used in ultra-portable laptops.

Multicast Address (IPv4 and IPv6)

A multicast address is used to send data to a specific group of hosts within a network. It's a single packet sent from the sender and received by multiple recipients. For example, in IPv4, the multicast address 224.0.0.1 is reserved for all hosts on the same network segment. In IPv6, multicast addresses are structured differently, such as FF02::1 for all nodes on the local network segment.

A network technician wants all PCs on the network to go to a server to get their boot settings. What boot option in system settings will the technician configure on the PCs? Fixed disk Optical drive USB Network/PXE

A network technician wants all PCs on the network to go to a server to get their boot settings. What boot option in system settings will the technician configure on the PCs? Fixed disk Optical drive USB Network/PXE

An administrator needs to supply power to a handset through the switch; however, the switch does not support Power over Ethernet (PoE). How can the administrator solve this problem? A managed switch An unmanaged switch A power injector A hub

A power injector

redundant power supply unit

A redundant power supply unit, also called a failover power supply unit, is a second power supply unit in a computer system.

Dion Training's video editing laptop has a defective keyboard. You have been asked to replace the keyboard. What type of cable should be connected to the internal laptop keyboard during your replacement? USB SATA Ribbon cable ZIF

A ribbon cable is any cable with wires that run parallel on a flat plane down the length of the cable. Ribbon cables are typically used to connect internal components in laptops to save space. These laptop ribbon cables are usually hardwired into one component and connect to the motherboard or other components with a small connector clip.

85.0% complete Question A technician is troubleshooting an issue with a computer. Although the computer is on the network, the server will not authenticate a user. What kind of problem does this indicate? A.Disk failure B.Inaccurate date/time C.Cabling issues D.Overheating

A technician is troubleshooting an issue with a computer. Although the computer is on the network, the server will not authenticate a user. What kind of problem does this indicate? Disk failure Inaccurate date/time Cabling issues Overheating

What type of printer uses a heating element to create images on paper? Inkjet printer Laser printer 3-D printer Thermal printer

A thermal printer is a printer that uses a heating element to create an image on the printed media. Inkjet printers are printers that use ink for printing documents. The ink is kept in one or more cartridges that may need to be replaced during normal printer maintenance. Laser printers are printers that use toner for printing documents. Toner is kept in a cartridge that may need to be replaced during normal printer maintenance. A 3-D printer builds a solid object from successive layers of material. Though there are multiple types of 3-D printers with varying functions, common printer maintenance includes cleaning the print bed and extruder and replacing used filament.

Rather than purchasing a fixed number of software licenses, a business only wants to pay for the number of licenses they actually need at any given time. What kind of cloud service model is this business pursuing? A.SaaS B.IaaS C.PaaS D.DaaS

A. **SaaS (Software as a Service)** The business is pursuing a Software as a Service (SaaS) model. In a SaaS model, businesses can use software applications provided by a third-party vendor over the internet. Instead of purchasing a fixed number of software licenses, they can pay for the number of licenses they need at any given time, making it a flexible and cost-effective solution. With SaaS, software is hosted centrally, and users can access it via the internet, typically through a web browser, without worrying about software installation, maintenance, or licensing issues.

What might be the cause if a computer fails to complete POST and there is no display on the monitor?

A. Faulty motherboard

Question 7: What should you check if a computer beeps twice during POST?

A. Keyboard connection

What does a continuous beep during POST indicate?

A. RAM failure

50.0% complete Question A network technician installs virtual machines in hypervisor software that runs on a host operating system (OS). What kind of hypervisor setup is this? (Select all that apply.) A.Type 1 B.Type 2 C.Guest OS D.Bare metal

A. Type 1 B. Type 2 Explanation: A Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on the hardware to control the hardware and manage guest operating systems. It does not require a host operating system and provides better performance and stability. Examples of Type 1 hypervisors include VMware ESXi, Microsoft Hyper-V Server, and Xen. In Type 2 hypervisors, the hypervisor application installs onto a host OS, and the computer must have resources to run the host OS, the hypervisor, and the guest operating systems. In a guest OS (or host-based) system, the hypervisor application is itself installed onto a host OS. The hypervisor software must support the host OS. A Type 1 hypervisor installs directly onto the computer and manages access to the host hardware without going through a host OS. A bare metal virtual platform means that a Type 1 hypervisor installs directly onto the computer and manages access to the host hardware without going through a host OS.

Any address from 169.254.1.0 to 169.254.254.255 is considered an ______address

APIPA

ATX12V

ATX12V is the version 2 PSU standard which defines a 24-pin (2x12) P1 form factor to replace the 20-pin one.

Define all network standards: 802.3af (Afraid), 802.11ac (Acorns), 802.3at (at), and 802.11s (Sight).

Absolutely, let's break down each network standard for a middle schooler: 1. **802.3af (Afraid):** - **Definition:** This standard, often known as PoE (Power over Ethernet), allows devices like cameras and phones to receive power through the same cable that connects them to the internet. It's like getting both your electricity and internet from the same wire! - **Specs:** Provides up to 15.4 watts of power over Ethernet cables. 2. **802.11ac (Acorns):** - **Definition:** This is a Wi-Fi standard. It's like the highway for your internet signals, allowing your devices to connect to the internet wirelessly. 802.11ac is like a really fast and efficient highway that helps your devices, like laptops and smartphones, communicate with the internet smoothly and quickly. - **Specs:** Offers high-speed wireless connections, much faster than older Wi-Fi standards. 3. **802.3at (at):** - **Definition:** Similar to 802.3af, it's another standard for providing power to devices through Ethernet cables. However, it can provide more power, making it suitable for bigger devices like video conferencing systems or advanced security cameras. - **Specs:** Provides more power (up to 30 watts) over Ethernet cables compared to 802.3af. 4. **802.11s (Sight):** - **Definition:** This standard is about creating mesh networks. Imagine your Wi-Fi signals like a bubble around your router. 802.11s allows multiple Wi-Fi devices to work together and expand this bubble, making sure you have good internet coverage all around your house, even in places where the signal is usually weak. - **Specs:** Enables the creation of mesh networks, improving Wi-Fi coverage in larger areas. These standards help different devices connect to the internet, either by providing power through cables or by ensuring a strong and fast wireless connection.

Accessing the System Setup Program (BIOS/UEFI):

Action: To access the BIOS/UEFI setup program, restart your PC. During the boot process, you need to press a specific key. Common keys include 'F2', 'F10', 'F12', or the 'Delete' key. The correct key to access BIOS/UEFI is usually displayed on the screen briefly during startup. Once you press the correct key, you'll enter the BIOS/UEFI setup menu.

Restarting the PC:

Action: To restart your PC, click on the Start menu in the bottom left corner of the screen. Then, click on the Power icon and select Restart from the menu. Alternatively, you can press the 'Ctrl + Alt + Delete' keys together and choose Restart from the options menu that appears.

80.0% complete Question Which of the following central processing unit (CPU) architectures implements a system-on-chip (SoC) where all the controllers, including video, sound, networking, and storage, are part of the CPU? IA-32 x86 x64 ARM

Advanced RISC Machine (ARM) designs implement an SoC which means that all the controllers, including video, sound, networking, and storage, are part of the CPU. The IA-32 (Intel Architecture) and x86-32 instruction sets define a CPU as IBM PC compatible. Intel and Advanced Micro Devices (AMD) design and manufacture IA-32. The x86-32 and IA-32 instruction sets define a CPU as IBM PC compatible. Intel and Advanced Micro Devices (AMD) design and manufacture IA-32. The x64 instruction set, developed initially by AMD as AMD64 or x86-64, extends the x86 instruction set for 64-bit operation.

Advanced Technology Extended (ATX)

Advanced Technology Extended (ATX) is the original PSU standard in which the P1 connector is 20-pin (2x10) and wires with black insulation are ground, yellow are +12 V, red are +5 V, and orange are +3.3 V.

You have just finished building a Windows server, installing its operating system, updating its security patches, formatting a dedicated data partition, and creating accounts for all of the company's employees. What is the next thing that must be configured to provide users with the ability to access the data contained on the server's data partition? Print server RAID storage File sharing Audit logging See all questionsBackNext question

After building a Windows server, installing the operating system, updating security patches, formatting a dedicated data partition, and creating user accounts, the next step to provide users with the ability to access the data contained on the server's data partition is **setting up appropriate file or folder permissions**. File or folder permissions determine who can access specific files or folders, as well as what actions (such as read, write, modify, or delete) they can perform. Here's what you should do: 1. **Set Permissions:** Specify which users or groups have access to the data partition and what actions they are allowed to perform. You can set permissions by right-clicking the folder or file, selecting "Properties," and then navigating to the "Security" tab. From there, you can add users or groups and define their permissions. 2. **Share the Folder (Optional):** If you want users to access the data partition over the network, you might need to share the folder. Right-click the folder, select "Properties," and go to the "Sharing" tab. From there, you can share the folder and configure share permissions, which work in conjunction with the file or folder permissions to control access. 3. **Map Network Drives (Optional):** If the server is part of a network, users can map network drives on their computers to access the data partition conveniently. You can create logon scripts or provide instructions for users to map network drives to the shared folders. By configuring appropriate file or folder permissions, and optionally sharing the folder and mapping network drives, users will be able to access the data contained on the server's data partition as per their defined access rights.

A technician needs to replace a solid-state drive (SSD) in a user's laptop. The technician requested the purchasing department to order a drive that has higher bus speeds than other SSDs and fits into a PCI Express bus. Which drive type does the purchasing department order? M.2 mSATA SATA uSATA

An M.2 SSD usually interfaces with the PCI Express bus, allowing much higher bus speeds than SATA. M.2 adapters can be of different lengths. A card with a Mini-SATA (mSATA) interface might house an SSD. These cards resemble Mini PCIe cards but are not physically compatible with Mini PCIe slots. Laptop hard disk drives (HDDs) are usually 2.5" form factor, though sometimes they use 1.8" form factor. These drives use a traditional SATA connector. The uSATA connector is the same as the mSATA connector, and they sometimes use the names interchangeably.

What is the name of a computer system that is designed to perform a specific and dedicated function? UTM system Legacy system Patch system Embedded system

An embedded system is a computer system designed to perform a specific, dedicated function. These systems can be as small and simple as a microcontroller in an intravenous drip-rate meter or as large and complex as an industrial control system managing a water treatment plant. Embedded systems might typically have been designed to operate within a closed network. The network elements are all known to the system vendor, and there is no connectivity to wider computer data networks.

A user states that a mobile phone does not hold a very good charge. What might the cause be? (Select all that apply.) Improper battery charging Lack of power management An aging battery Broken digitizer

An improper charging routine will reduce the usable life of a battery. Following manufacturer instructions on the proper charging and discharging of the battery is recommended. Making use of power management features included with a device/OS to prolong battery life is a good practice. As batteries age, the maximum charge they can sustain decreases, so short battery life will usually indicate that the battery needs replacing. Symptoms such as the touch screen not responding to input indicate a problem with the digitizer. This would not affect battery life.

An employee prints documents and photos on the office inkjet printer, but they are printing in the wrong color. What is the correct maintenance step the employee needs to perform on the printer? Print head cleaning Ink cartridge replacement Print head alignment Eject roller replacement

An inkjet printer has one or more cartridges that hold the ink used in printing media. When the ink bin is empty, the printer will print incorrect colors on the output media or refuse to print until the cartridge is replaced. Blocked or dirty nozzles will show on the printed material as a missing line. This can typically be corrected by running a print head cleaning cycle. An improper alignment of the print head will make that output media appear skewed. Calibrating the printer will correct this. The eject roller will either deliver the paper to the output tray or the duplexing unit. If the paper jams continuously during output, this roller may need to be replaced.

Question 1: Discuss the role of DNS servers in the context of internet infrastructure. How does the Domain Name System facilitate the translation of domain names into IP addresses, and what is the significance of caching in DNS resolution?

Answer 1: Mnemonic: "DNS servers are the internet's phonebooks! They Decode Names into IP addresses. Caching is their memory - the more they remember, the faster you get your webpages. Think of it as a librarian who knows exactly where the books are without searching the entire library!"

Question 1: How can you enhance the security of an SSH server to protect against brute-force attacks and unauthorized access attempts?

Answer 1: Mnemonic: "Imagine your server as Fort Knox! Set strong Passwords, limit login Attempts, employ Firewalls, and regularly Update your security protocols. Remember, a Secure Server Hides no secrets!"

Question 1: Contrast POP3 and IMAP protocols in terms of email retrieval. What are the advantages and disadvantages of using POP3 for accessing emails, especially in environments with limited bandwidth?

Answer 1: Mnemonic: "POP3 is like Postal Service! It Pops into your mailbox, grabs all your mail, and brings it to you. But remember, it's like snail mail - once you download it, it's on your device. IMAP, on the other hand, keeps your mailbox synchronized - it's like having a personal butler for your emails!"

Question 1: Describe the differences between SMTP, SMTPS, and STARTTLS in the context of email communication. How does each protocol contribute to email security?

Answer 1: Mnemonic: "SMTPS and STARTTLS are like email bodyguards! SMTPS is the Security Muscleman, always encrypted. STARTTLS is the Trusty Locksmith, upgrading regular SMTP connections to encrypted ones. Secure emails are like secret handshakes; only the right recipients can read them!"

Question 2: Describe common DNS attacks such as DNS spoofing, DNS amplification, and DNS tunneling. How can DNS servers be configured to mitigate these attacks and enhance overall DNS security?

Answer 2: Mnemonic: "DNS Security? Picture a fortress! Double-check for Spoofs, Never fall for Amplifications, and Seal every Tunnel. Fortify your DNS castle, and the internet dragons won't stand a chance!"

Question 2: Explain the concept of email retention policies in the context of POP3 servers. How can administrators configure POP3 servers to retain emails for specific durations while ensuring efficient storage management?

Answer 2: Mnemonic: "POP3 policies? Easy as PIE! Purge Old Emails, Increase Storage if needed, and Ensure backups are done regularly. Just like a bakery ensuring their pies are fresh, POP3 servers keep their emails crisp and clean!"

Question 2: In the context of email deliverability, what techniques can SMTP servers employ to prevent spam and ensure legitimate emails reach recipients' inboxes? How do SPF, DKIM, and DMARC protocols enhance email authentication and prevent spoofing?

Answer 2: Mnemonic: "SPF, DKIM, and DMARC: the email superheroes! SPF verifies the Sender, DKIM adds a Signature for integrity, and DMARC acts like a Bouncer, rejecting fake emails. Think of it as the 'SDD' rule: Secure, Don't Spoof, Deliver!"

Question 2: Explain the process of setting up and configuring SSH key-based authentication for secure server access. What are the advantages of using key-based authentication over password-based authentication?

Answer 2: Mnemonic: "SSH keys are like VIP passes! Generate your Key Pair, keep the Private one safe (it's your backstage pass!), and distribute the Public one widely. With keys, you're in the server like a rockstar without typing a single password!"

a. Explain the purpose of a Lightning to Type A USB cable. What kind of devices does it typically connect, and what should users be mindful of when using it?

Answer: A Lightning to Type A USB cable is designed for Apple devices, featuring a Lightning connector on one end and a Type A connector on the other. It is used to connect iPhones, iPads, and other Apple devices to computers, chargers, or accessories. Users should ensure they are using genuine Apple-certified cables to avoid compatibility issues and ensure safe charging and data transfer.

What is the physical configuration of a Type A to Type A USB cable with USB 3 compatibility, and how can it be identified?

Answer: A Type A to Type A USB cable with USB 3 compatibility features two Type A connectors on both ends, denoted by a blue tab to indicate USB 3 compatibility. This cable is used for connecting devices that support USB 3.0 or higher for high-speed data transfer.

Describe the connectors on a Type B Micro to Type A USB cable with USB 3 compatibility, and what does the blue tab signify? (ps3 charger)

Answer: A Type B Micro to Type A USB cable with USB 3 compatibility has a Micro-B connector on one end and a Type A connector on the other, both marked with a blue tab indicating USB 3 compatibility. This cable is commonly used to connect devices like external hard drives or digital cameras to computers, enabling fast data transfer.

What does a Type C to Type C USB cable look like, and what are its key features? (google pixel charger)

Answer: A Type C to Type C USB cable has identical Type C connectors on both ends. It is a reversible cable, meaning it can be plugged in either way, making it convenient for users. Type C cables support faster data transfer, higher power delivery for charging, and various protocols like USB 3.1 and Thunderbolt 3, making them versatile for connecting a wide range of devices such as laptops, smartphones, and peripherals.

a. What is an adapter, and how can you remember its purpose easily?

Answer: An adapter is a device that Adapts Different Accessories for Proper Integration. Think of it as the bridge that adapts various devices, allowing them to work together seamlessly. Specifications: Adapters come in various types, including network adapters (for connecting to networks), graphics adapters (for video output), and audio adapters (for sound output), each with specific data transfer rates and compatibility standards.

a. What are the primary metrics used to measure the performance of PCIe devices? Explain each metric briefly.

Answer: BTL: Remember "Bandwidth, Throughput, Latency." Bandwidth measures the speed (Gigabytes per second), Throughput gauges data transfer rate, and Latency measures response time in nanoseconds.

Question: Cable internet often shares bandwidth among multiple users in a neighborhood. How does this shared bandwidth affect the speed and reliability of the internet connection during peak usage times, and what measures are taken by service providers to mitigate these issues?

Answer: Cable internet shares bandwidth among multiple users in a neighborhood. During peak usage times, when many people are online simultaneously, the shared bandwidth can lead to slower speeds for individual users. Service providers implement network management techniques to balance usage, but heavy congestion can still affect internet performance during busy hours.

Question: Discuss the evolution of cellular internet technologies from 3G to 4G and 5G. What are the main differences between these generations in terms of data speed, latency, and capacity? How has 5G revolutionized internet connectivity?

Answer: Cellular internet technologies have evolved from 3G (third generation) to 4G (fourth generation) and 5G (fifth generation). Each generation represents significant advancements in data speed, latency, and capacity. 5G, the latest generation, offers much higher speeds, lower latency, and the ability to connect a massive number of devices simultaneously, making it a game-changer for internet connectivity, especially in urban areas.

Describe the importance of cleaning rollers in an inkjet printer. Explain the impact of dirty rollers on print quality and suggest a mnemonic to remember the cleaning process.

Answer: Cleaning rollers ensures Proper paper feeding, Less ink smudging, and Even print distribution. Dirty rollers cause Paper jams, Uneven printing, and Print head damage. Mnemonic: "PLE" - Proper feeding, Less smudging, Even distribution.

Describe the process of cleaning the print head in an inkjet printer, and provide a mnemonic to remember the steps involved.

Answer: Cleaning the inkjet print head involves removing the cartridges, moistening a lint-free cloth with distilled water, gently wiping the print head, and reinstalling the cartridges. Mnemonic: "CARW" - Cartridges out, Apply water, Rub gently, Cartridges in.

Explain the considerations for selecting impact paper. Discuss the impact of paper quality on print durability. Use the mnemonic "PACT" to remember the selection criteria.

Answer: Consider Perforation, Absorbency, Compatibility, and Thickness when selecting impact paper. Quality paper ensures Print clarity, Abrasion resistance, Compatibility, and Text longevity. Mnemonic: "PACT" - Perforation, Absorbency, Compatibility, Thickness.

Explain the factors to consider when selecting special thermal paper for thermal printers. Emphasize the importance of paper quality and durability. Create a mnemonic to remember these factors.

Answer: Consider Thickness, Heat resistance, Absorbency, and Longevity when selecting special thermal paper. Quality paper ensures Sharp prints, Durability, and Efficient use. Mnemonic: "THAL" - Thickness, Heat resistance, Absorbency, Longevity.

Explain the factors to consider when selecting resin for a 3-D printer, focusing on print quality and safety. Create a mnemonic to remember the factors.

Answer: Consider Transparency, Impact resistance, Toxicity, and Layer adhesion for resin selection. Mnemonic: "TILT" - Transparency, Impact resistance, Layer adhesion, Toxicity.

What factors should be considered when replacing ink cartridges in an inkjet printer, and how can the acronym "PIC" help in remembering these factors?

Answer: Consider printer compatibility, Ink type, and Color codes when replacing ink cartridges. The acronym "PIC" (Printer compatibility, Ink type, Color codes) can help remember these essential factors.

Question: What are the limitations of DSL internet in terms of distance from the provider's central office, and how does distance impact the internet speed? Are there any advancements in DSL technology that have addressed these limitations?

Answer: DSL internet speed is impacted by the distance between the user's location and the provider's central office. The signal weakens as the distance increases, leading to slower speeds for users located farther away. Advancements like VDSL (Very-High-Bit-Rate DSL) have increased speeds and mitigated some distance-related issues, but the limitations of distance from the central office still apply.

What is DVI, and how can you easily recall its purpose and types?

Answer: DVI stands for "Digital Visual Interface." Remember it as "Diverse Video Inputs," representing its ability to support various video signals and its different types such as DVI-I, DVI-D, and DVI-A. Specifications: DVI-I supports both digital and analog signals, DVI-D supports digital signals only, and DVI-A supports analog signals only. DVI connectors can transmit high-quality video resolutions, including Full HD (1920x1080) and higher, making them suitable for modern digital displays.

a. What does EIDE stand for, and how can you memorize it effectively?

Answer: EIDE stands for "Enhanced Integrated Drive Electronics." To remember, use the phrase "Every Integrated Device Excels," indicating the improved integration and performance of EIDE drives in computers. Specifications: EIDE supports up to four devices per IDE channel, providing data transfer rates of up to 133 MB/s (in EIDE Ultra ATA/133). It uses a 40-pin flat ribbon cable and allows for faster and more efficient data transfer compared to older IDE standards.

i. What physical specifications should you check to ensure that a PCIe card fits into a specific slot on a motherboard?

Answer: FXS: Remember "Form Factor, Xtent, Shape." Check the card's form factor (e.g., x16, x1), ensure it fits within the case's extent, and verify its shape to fit into the slot without obstruction.

Explain the calibration process for feeders in inkjet printers. Emphasize the role of calibration in preventing paper misfeeds. Use the mnemonic "CALM" to remember the calibration steps.

Answer: Feeder calibration involves Checking sensors, Adjusting alignment, Loading paper, and Monitoring the print job. Proper calibration prevents Continuous misfeeds, Alignment issues, Load errors, and Misprints. Mnemonic: "CALM" - Check, Adjust, Load, Monitor.

Question: Explain the technology behind fiber optic internet and why it is considered one of the fastest and most reliable internet connection types. What are the challenges in deploying fiber optic networks on a large scale?

Answer: Fiber optic internet uses light signals transmitted through optical fibers to provide high-speed internet connectivity. It offers significantly faster speeds and higher bandwidth than traditional copper-based connections like DSL or cable. Fiber optic networks are reliable and less susceptible to interference, making them ideal for high-bandwidth applications and services.

Describe the process of maintaining the fuser assembly in a laser printer. Explain the risks associated with improper fuser maintenance. Use the mnemonic "FIRE" to remember the key steps.

Answer: Fuser assembly maintenance involves Fixing issues, Inspecting for damage, Replacing faulty parts, and Ensuring proper temperature. Improper maintenance can lead to Paper jams, Overheating, Fire hazards, and Electrical damage. Mnemonic: "FIRE" - Fix, Inspect, Replace, Ensure.

Explain the proper handling and storage procedures for 3-D printing resin. Emphasize the impact of resin contamination on print quality. Create a mnemonic to remember the handling steps.

Answer: Handle resin with Clean tools, Avoid contaminants, and Seal containers. Improper handling causes Contamination, Print defects, and Equipment damage. Mnemonic: "CASE" - Clean tools, Avoid contaminants, Seal containers, and Ensure proper handling.

Describe the maintenance procedure for the heating element in thermal printers. Explain the consequences of a malfunctioning heating element. Use the mnemonic "HEAT" to remember the maintenance steps.

Answer: Heating element maintenance involves Handling with care, Ensuring proper voltage, Avoiding overheating, and Testing regularly. A malfunctioning heating element can cause Excessive heat, Abnormal odors, and Thermal paper damage. Mnemonic: "HEAT" - Handle, Ensure, Avoid, Test.

a. If it wasn't a Lightning cable, what alternative cable could it be, and what can help you remember its purpose?

Answer: It could be a USB-C cable. Think of it as "Universal Serial Bus for Connectivity," representing its versatility in connecting various devices, including smartphones, laptops, and peripherals. USB-C cables are reversible and support high-speed data transfer and power delivery.

a. If it wasn't a Thunderbolt version 3 cable, what other Thunderbolt cable might it be, and how can you recall its version number?

Answer: It might be a Thunderbolt 2 cable. Remember it as "Two Times the Speed," indicating its faster data transfer rate compared to the original Thunderbolt version. Thunderbolt 2 cables are identifiable by their distinctive shape and provide high-speed connectivity for compatible devices.

a. What cable might it be if it wasn't a DisplayPort cable, and how can you recall its significance?

Answer: It might be a VGA cable. Remember it as "Versatile Graphics Adapter," a common cable for connecting monitors to computers. VGA cables transmit analog signals and are recognized by their blue connectors, widely used before digital interfaces became prevalent.

a. What type of cable was it if it was not an HDMI cable, and what can help you remember its features?

Answer: It was a DVI cable. To remember, think of it as "Diverse Video Interface," indicating its ability to support various video signals. DVI cables come in different types, including DVI-I, DVI-D, and DVI-A, accommodating both digital and analog signals.

Describe the importance of leveling the print bed in 3-D printers. Explain the consequences of an unlevel print bed. Use the mnemonic "LEVEL" to remember the leveling process.

Answer: Leveling the print bed ensures Proper adhesion, Precise prints, and Prevents warping. An unlevel bed causes Layer misalignment, Extrusion issues, and Leveled print errors. Mnemonic: "LEVEL" - Proper Leveling ensures adhesion, precision, and prevents warping.

i. When installing a new PCIe card, what system requirements should you consider to ensure compatibility and optimal performance?

Answer: MCP: Remember "Motherboard, Compatibility, Power." Check the motherboard's PCIe slot type, ensure compatibility with the card's form factor, and verify the Power Supply Unit (PSU) wattage and PCIe power connectors.

What does DIMM signify in computer hardware, and why is it an essential component in desktop computers?

Answer: Mnemonic: "DIMM: Desktop's Indispensable Memory Module! It stands for Dual Inline Memory Module. Think of it as the 'Data Dynamo.' It's Desktop's Delight, Instantly Multiplies Memory. Every DIMM ensures Desktops Dole Out Data in Multitudes!" Specifications: DIMMs are larger memory modules typically used in desktop computers. They come with various pin configurations, such as 240 pins for DDR3 and DDR4 generations, providing ample memory capacity for various computing tasks.

What is GDDR5, and how does it enhance the graphical performance of GPUs in gaming computers and consoles?

Answer: Mnemonic: "GDDR5: Gamer's Dream, Delivers Dynamite Displays! It stands for Graphics Double Data Rate 5. Imagine it as the 'Gaming Guru' - it's Fast, Glorious, and Dazzles with Dynamic Graphics. GDDR5 ensures Games Get Delightful, Realistic, and Responsive!" Specifications: GDDR5 is a type of graphics memory that operates at high speeds, typically ranging from 1,500 to 5,000 MHz. It provides substantial bandwidth, making it ideal for handling large textures and complex graphical tasks in gaming environments.

What defines a legacy system in the context of technology, and what challenges are often associated with its maintenance?

Answer: Mnemonic: "Legacy systems are the Elders of Technology! They're the wise old wizards who've been around. Limited Compatibility can be a hurdle, like speaking an ancient language in a modern world. Outdated Hardware might slow them down, akin to an old horse in a race. Yet, they hold valuable knowledge and experience, making them both a blessing and a challenge!" Specifications: Limited Compatibility: May not seamlessly integrate with modern software or devices, causing compatibility issues. Outdated Hardware: Relies on old technology, which can lead to slower processing speeds and reduced efficiency. Valuable Data: Often stores crucial historical data, making its preservation vital despite its challenges.

What does a patch system refer to in the realm of software, and why are regular updates important for maintaining cybersecurity?

Answer: Mnemonic: "Patching is like Mending Armor! Patches are the stitches that repair vulnerabilities, keeping your software strong. Regular updates are like Fortifying Walls - they reinforce your defenses, ensuring that sneaky digital foes can't find weak spots. Remember, a well-patched system is a Shielded Castle!" Specifications: Patches: Small software updates designed to fix specific issues or vulnerabilities within a program. Cybersecurity: Regular patching is crucial for addressing security vulnerabilities, preventing cyberattacks, and ensuring data protection.

Question: Describe the primary function of a ribbon cable in a computer system and its variations. How does its structure impact data transmission and organization within the computer?

Answer: Mnemonic: "Ribbon Cable: Rowdy Connections, Reliable Flow! Imagine it as a 'Rowdy Road,' hosting Multiple Lanes for Data. Flat, Wide, and Organized - the 'Right Route' for Data Travel, ensuring Reliable Flow!" Specifications: Ribbon cables are flat, wide cables with multiple conductors, often used to connect internal components in computers. They are organized into different color-coded strands, ensuring efficient data transmission while maintaining order within the system.

Question: Explain the differences between SATA I, SATA II, and SATA III standards in terms of data transfer rates and compatibility. How do these specifications influence the performance of storage devices?

Answer: Mnemonic: "SATA: Speedy Accelerated Transmission Arena! SATA I, the 'Starter,' runs at 1.5 Gbps. SATA II, the 'Intermediate,' zips at 3 Gbps. SATA III, the 'Top Turbo,' rockets at 6 Gbps. SATA: Speeding Always to Top Achievements!" Specifications: SATA I operates at 1.5 Gbps, SATA II at 3 Gbps, and SATA III at 6 Gbps. SATA III is backward compatible with SATA I and SATA II, ensuring seamless integration with various devices.

What does SODIMM stand for in the context of computer memory, and how is it different from regular DIMM?

Answer: Mnemonic: "SODIMM is like a Mini Memory Marvel! It stands for Small Outline Dual Inline Memory Module. Think of it as the 'Snug One' - it's Compact, Snuggles into laptops, and is a Mini Marvel. Regular DIMM, on the other hand, is the Desktop Dynamo, designed for larger computers." Specifications: SODIMMs are typically smaller, measuring 2.6 inches in length, and are used in laptops and smaller devices. They have 204 pins and come in various generations like DDR3 and DDR4, ensuring efficient memory usage even in limited spaces.

What are the specific USB specifications that differentiate between USB 2.0, USB 3.0, and USB 3.1? How do these specifications impact data transfer speeds and device compatibility?

Answer: Mnemonic: "USB - Universal Speed Beast! USB 2.0, the 'Steady Stream,' runs at 480 Mbps. USB 3.0, the 'Swift Surge,' speeds up to 5 Gbps. USB 3.1, the 'Supersonic Jet,' blazes at 10 Gbps. USB keeps Uniting, Simplifying, and Boosting speeds!" Specifications: USB 2.0 operates at 480 Mbps, USB 3.0 at 5 Gbps, and USB 3.1 at 10 Gbps. USB 3.1 Gen 2 also introduced Type-C connectors, ensuring faster data transfers and reversible plug orientation.

What is a UTM (Unified Threat Management) system, and how does it enhance network security?

Answer: Mnemonic: "UTM is your Ultimate Guardian! It combines Firewall for sturdy walls, Antivirus for scanning intruders, Intrusion Detection and Prevention for vigilant guards, VPN for secure tunnels, and Content Filtering to keep unwanted guests out. Remember, UTM stands for Unrivaled Total Protection!" Specifications: Firewall: Acts as a protective wall, blocking unauthorized access to the network. Antivirus: Scans for and removes malicious software, safeguarding against infections. Intrusion Detection and Prevention: Identifies and stops suspicious activities, preventing potential attacks. VPN (Virtual Private Network): Establishes secure, encrypted connections over the internet for remote access. Content Filtering: Filters out inappropriate or harmful content, ensuring a safer browsing experience.

What is VRAM, and why is it crucial for seamless gaming experiences and high-resolution video rendering in computers and gaming consoles?

Answer: Mnemonic: "VRAM: Visuals' Radiant Ally, Remarkable Ambiance Magic! VRAM stands for Video Random Access Memory. Picture it as the 'Visual Realism Artisan,' ensuring Vivid Realities, Richer Atmospheres, and Magical Graphics. VRAM is the Reason Artists Smile, Rendering Alluring Moments!" Specifications: VRAM is specialized memory reserved for graphics processing units (GPUs). It's optimized for handling high-resolution textures and intricate graphical elements. VRAM capacities range from 2 GB to 16 GB or more, ensuring smooth gameplay and lifelike visuals in modern games and applications.

What is a ZIF socket, and how does it differ from regular CPU sockets? How does the ZIF socket's design enhance ease of use and minimize potential damage during CPU installation?

Answer: Mnemonic: "ZIF: Zero Injury, Full Safety! ZIF sockets are the 'Zero Insertion Heroes,' ensuring Insertion is as Easy as a Breeze. No Force, No Friction - Just a Simple, Gentle Touch to Install CPUs Safely!" Specifications: ZIF sockets feature a lever mechanism that allows CPUs to be inserted without applying force. This design prevents damage to delicate pins, ensuring safe and easy installation of processors.

i. Explain the concept of PCI Express (PCIe) and how it differs from the traditional PCI.

Answer: PCI Express (PCIe) is like a "Point-to-Point Expressway" in your computer, unlike the traditional PCI "Parking Lot." PCIe uses point-to-point serial connections, allowing faster data transfer rates.

ii. In what situations would it be necessary to use a PCI card instead of a PCIe card in a modern computer?

Answer: PCI cards might be necessary for "Peripheral Compatibility Integration." They are used when older peripherals, such as specific sound cards or specialized industrial equipment, are not compatible with PCIe slots.

i. What is PCI legacy support, and why is it important in modern computer systems?

Answer: PCI legacy support ensures "Past Compatibility Integration." It is essential because many older expansion cards and peripherals still use the PCI interface. Modern motherboards include PCI slots and BIOS/UEFI settings to enable or disable legacy support.

i. Explain the power requirements for PCIe cards. How can you determine if the power supply unit (PSU) can support new PCIe devices?

Answer: PCIe cards need "Stable Power." Check the card's power requirements in watts and ensure the PSU has sufficient wattage. Also, verify the availability of necessary PCIe power connectors and make sure the PSU wattage exceeds the total power requirements of all components for stable power delivery.

i. Compare PCIe and PCI based on speed, compatibility, and usage scenarios.

Answer: PCIe is the "Premium Choice," offering significantly higher speeds, better compatibility with modern devices, and is widely used for high-performance components like graphics cards. PCI, while much slower, is still used for older peripherals due to its legacy support.

ii. What are the key advantages of PCIe over PCI?

Answer: PCIe stands for "Parallel Expressway with Extra Edge." It offers higher data transfer rates, lower latency, support for multiple lanes enabling parallel data transmission, and the ability to hot swap devices without restarting the system.

b. PCI Express Ports: i. Detail the functions of PCIe x16 and PCIe x1 slots. How do they differ in terms of bandwidth and usage?

Answer: PCIe x16 slots offer "Xtreme" bandwidth for graphics cards, while PCIe x1 slots provide basic connectivity for smaller devices. PCIe x16 has 16 lanes, offering significantly higher bandwidth compared to PCIe x1, which has only one lane.

What does the acronym SCSI stand for, and what is a memorable way to recall its full name?

Answer: SCSI stands for "Small Computer System Interface." To remember, think of it as "Some Computers Simply Intrigue," indicating its versatile and intriguing interface used for connecting various devices. Specifications: SCSI supports multiple devices (up to 15 devices per SCSI bus), offers high data transfer rates (up to 320 MB/s in SCSI Ultra320), and allows for long cable lengths (up to 25 meters) for flexible device connectivity.

Question: How does satellite internet work, and what are its advantages and disadvantages in terms of speed, latency, and coverage compared to other types of internet connections such as fiber and cable?

Answer: Satellite internet works by transmitting data signals to and from satellites in Earth's orbit. It provides internet access in remote or rural areas where other types of internet connections might not be available. However, it often suffers from higher latency due to the signal travel distance to and from the satellite, which can affect real-time applications like online gaming or video conferencing.

What is the primary function of the imaging drum in a laser printer, and what mnemonic can you use to remember the order of the imaging process steps?

Answer: The imaging drum in a laser printer is responsible for transferring the electrostatic image onto paper. A helpful mnemonic to remember the imaging process steps is "PCEDTFC," which stands for Processing, Charging, Exposing, Developing, Transferring, Fusing, and Cleaning.

What is the purpose of the ribbon in an impact printer, and how can the mnemonic "PIR" aid in remembering the steps for ribbon replacement?

Answer: The ribbon in an impact printer transfers ink onto paper. To replace it, lift the print head, remove the old ribbon, insert the new ribbon, and secure it properly. Mnemonic: "PIR" - Print head up, Insert new ribbon, Secure it.

b. How does the version number of PCIe (e.g., PCIe 3.0, PCIe 4.0) relate to its performance capabilities?

Answer: The version number indicates the speed of the "Expressway." PCIe 3.0 has 8 GT/s (Gigatransfers per second) per lane, while PCIe 4.0 doubles that to 16 GT/s per lane, providing higher bandwidth.

Discuss the concept of heat sensitivity in thermal paper, and provide a mnemonic to remember the impact of heat on print quality.

Answer: Thermal paper is heat-sensitive, meaning it changes color when exposed to heat. Mnemonic: "HSP" - Heat Sensitive Paper changes color.

c. Describe how throughput and latency are important metrics when evaluating PCIe devices for specific tasks.

Answer: Think Fast! Throughput ensures data moves quickly (measured in GB/s), vital for high-speed tasks. Latency ensures rapid response (measured in nanoseconds), crucial for real-time applications like gaming.

ii. Explain how PCIe lanes work and their significance in data transfer.

Answer: Think of PCIe lanes as "Data Highways." More lanes provide higher bandwidth, allowing for faster data transfer. The number of lanes a PCIe slot has determines its data transfer speed and compatibility with various devices.

Explain the procedure for installing a duplexing assembly in a laser printer, and highlight the advantages of duplex printing. Create a mnemonic to remember the installation steps.

Answer: To install a duplexing assembly, Unplug the printer, Xamine the manual for instructions, Place the assembly carefully, and Link the components securely. Duplex printing saves Paper, Energy, and Time. Mnemonic: "XUPL" - Xamine, Unplug, Place, Link.

Describe the procedure for replacing filament in a 3-D printer, emphasizing the importance of correct diameter and material. Use the mnemonic "FDM" to remember key considerations.

Answer: To replace filament, Feed the new filament, Determine correct diameter and material, and Monitor the printing process. Mnemonic: "FDM" - Feed, Diameter, Material.

Explain the procedure for replacing paper in a thermal printer, emphasizing the importance of using special thermal paper. Create a mnemonic to remember the steps.

Answer: To replace paper in a thermal printer, open the paper compartment, remove the old roll, insert the new roll with the coated side facing the print head, and close the compartment. Mnemonic: "CRIC" - Compartment open, Remove old roll, Insert new roll (coated side facing print head), Close compartment.

Describe the process of aligning the tractor feed in impact printers. Explain the risks of misaligned tractor feed. Use the mnemonic "RAFT" to remember the alignment steps.

Answer: Tractor feed alignment involves Removing debris, Adjusting guides, Fixing misalignment, and Testing with sample prints. Misaligned tractor feed causes Ribbon snags, Alignment issues, Feed errors, and Text distortion. Mnemonic: "RAFT" - Remove, Adjust, Fix, Test.

Question: How does Wireless Internet Service Provider (WISP) technology deliver internet connectivity to remote or underserved areas? What are the challenges faced by WISPs, and how do they ensure reliable and high-speed internet services to their subscribers?

Answer: WISPs use wireless technology, often in the form of radio waves, to provide internet access to users in remote or underserved areas. WISPs establish towers or access points that transmit signals to customer premises equipment, enabling wireless connectivity. Challenges faced by WISPs include spectrum availability, line-of-sight obstructions, and interference, which can affect the quality and reliability of the internet service provided.

Explain the process of replacing the print head in an impact printer, and specify the precautions to be taken to prevent damage. Use the acronym "PAD" to remember the precautions.

Answer: When replacing the print head, Power off the printer, Avoid touching the delicate parts, and Double-check the alignment. Mnemonic: "PAD" - Power off, Avoid touching, Double-check alignment.

Explain the maintenance procedure for replacing toner in a laser printer and specify the key considerations for selecting compatible toner cartridges.

Answer: When replacing toner in a laser printer, ensure the printer is turned off, open the toner compartment, remove the old cartridge, shake the new cartridge gently, insert it firmly, and close the compartment. Considerations for compatible toner include printer model compatibility, page yield, and quality of prints. A helpful tip is to match the toner code with the printer's manual for compatibility (Mnemonic: TCC - Toner Code Compatibility).

What is the main advantage of 802.11n wireless standard over its predecessors? a) Higher data rates b) Lower frequency band c) Smaller coverage area d) Limited device compatibility e) Slower data transfer speed

Answer: a) Higher data rates - The main advantage of 802.11n over its predecessors is higher data rates.

Which wireless network standard introduced in 1997 operates in the 2.4 GHz frequency band, offering data rates up to 11 Mbps? a) 802.11a b) 802.11b c) 802.11g d) 802.11n e) 802.11ac

Answer: b) 802.11b - 802.11b operates in the 2.4 GHz frequency band with data rates up to 11 Mbps.

Which wireless standard, introduced in 2014, operates in both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands, offering data rates up to 1.3 Gbps? a) 802.11a b) 802.11b c) 802.11g d) 802.11ac e) 802.11n

Answer: d) 802.11ac - 802.11ac operates in both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands, offering data rates up to 1.3 Gbps.

What improvement does 802.11ac bring over the 802.11n standard? a) Higher frequency band b) Slower data rates c) Limited device compatibility d) Faster data transfer speed e) Smaller coverage area

Answer: d) Faster data transfer speed - 802.11ac brings improvement in faster data transfer speeds compared to 802.11n.

Which wireless standard, known for its high-speed data transfer and introduced in 2013, operates exclusively in the 5 GHz frequency band? a) 802.11a b) 802.11b c) 802.11g d) 802.11n e) 802.11ac

Answer: e) 802.11ac - 802.11ac operates exclusively in the 5 GHz frequency band.

A customer's computer has a noisy, whining sound coming from it when in use. You opened the case and did not see any dust on the fans. What should you attempt next to eliminate the noise? Clean the fans using a damp cloth Apply compressed air to each of the fans Apply a small amount of oil to the fan's bearings Replace the fans

Apply a small amount of oil to the fan's bearings

ADSL

Asymmetrical DSL (ADSL) provides a fast downlink but a slow uplink, with the latest (ADSL2+) offering downlink rates up to about 24 Mbps and uplink rates of 1.25 Mbps or 2.5 Mbps.

If a computer displays a "No Bootable Device" error message after POST, what could be the issue?

B. Missing or corrupt operating system

What is the primary purpose of POST during the computer boot process?

B. To test and initialize hardware components

BIOS vs UEFI

BIOS (Basic Input/Output System): BIOS is the older system for booting up computers. It provides a basic set of instructions to help the computer start up. It uses a simple menu-like interface to initiate hardware and load the operating system. UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface): UEFI is the newer and more advanced system for booting up computers. It offers a graphical interface with more features and customization options. UEFI supports larger hard drives, faster boot times, and enhanced security features. It can also connect to the internet, allowing for firmware updates and additional functionalities. In essence, both BIOS and UEFI serve the same fundamental purpose of starting up the computer, but UEFI provides a more advanced and versatile experience with additional capabilities.

You are troubleshooting a customer's PC. You realize there is a problem with the RAM and decided to replace the faulty module. You turn on the PC, and after a few seconds, you hear a single beep. What does hearing a single beep indicate? Possible faulty RAM module BIOS detected an error BIOS completed POST CMOS battery needs to be replaced

BIOS completed POST OBJ 5.2 - During the bootup process, a power-on self-test (POST) is performed. A single beep is commonly used to indicate the successful completion of the POST. Based on the POST results, different series of beeps may be played to indicate the status of the system. For example, if a single beep was heard, this could indicate a successful POST after a new hardware installation has been completed. Each manufacturer uses different POST codes, so it is important to consult the manual for the motherboard or BIOS in use by the system.

Jason wants to order a new gaming laptop for his son for his birthday. The laptop display must support a high refresh rate of 120 Hz or 144 Hz. Which of the following types of laptop displays should Jason purchase to meet this requirement?

BJ-1.2: A twisted nematic (TN) LCD panel uses technology where the panel is black when no electric current is running through the liquid crystal cells because the cells align themselves in a twisted state. When an electric current is applied, the liquid crystal cells untwist, allowing light to pass through, resulting in a white display screen. TN displays can be made with high refresh rates of 120 Hz or 144 Hz which makes them popular with gamers.

You are working on a customer's laptop. The image on the display suddenly becomes very dark and hard to see. You attempt to adjust the brightness and contrast of the laptop's display using the special function keys, but this doesn't brighten the display much. You pull out a bright flashlight and can see the image displayed a little better when using it. Which of the following components is MOST likely faulty and needs to be replaced? Inverter Digitizer GPU LCD panel See all questionsBackNext question

Based on the symptoms described, the most likely faulty component in this scenario is the backlight or inverter of the laptop's display. The backlight is a light source placed behind the LCD screen that illuminates the display and makes the image visible. The inverter, on the other hand, is a component that provides power to the backlight. When the backlight or inverter fails, the screen appears very dark, making it difficult to see the displayed content. Using a flashlight and being able to see the image better indicates that the LCD panel itself is working, but the backlight is not functioning properly. Replacing the faulty backlight or inverter should resolve the issue and restore the brightness and visibility of the laptop's display. It's recommended to have the laptop inspected and repaired by a professional technician to ensure a proper replacement.

A Windows-based laptop has an internal battery that requires tools to access and remove. What steps should a repair technician take prior to opening the laptop to install a replacement? (Select all that apply.) Discharge the battery. Power the laptop off. Disconnect the AC power. Charge the battery.

Before inserting or removing any battery pack, it is recommended and best to turn the machine off. This will prevent issues with the operating system and is a best practice for safety. When working on a laptop to replace any physical component, it is recommended to unplug the laptop from the AC wall outlet for safety purposes. Discharging a battery will drain what available charge remains. This is not a required step when replacing a laptop battery. Charging a battery will provide the battery with the maximum amount of power the battery can maintain. Charging the battery is not required.

What is the name of the networking protocol used by macOS to find available printers on the network to use? Internet Printing Protocol Bonjour Line Printer Daemon Cloud Print

Bonjour, Apple's zero-configuration networking protocol, automates certain aspects of network configuration; the protocol enables devices connected to the local area network to discover and connect automatically. Businesses can use Bonjour to make the sharing of files and devices easier; the technology works with wired and wireless LANs. After enabling Bonjour on a workstation, other computers on the network can detect and install printers or scanners attached to the workstation or access files from shared folders.

An employee is complaining that their workstation is not booting into Windows when they reboot their machine. You noticed that during the reboot, the system is loading into a PXE-based OS. What should you do next? Boot into recovery mode to fix the boot order Reboot PC to determine if it will boot from the HDD Boot to BIOS and select the HDD from the boot order Press F12 to boot into boot mode and select the correct device

Boot to BIOS and select the HDD from the boot order OBJ-5.3: PXE (Preboot Execution Environment) is a network boot execution process allowing you to retrieve an image from a PXE server. It is often used for reimaging computers in corporate deployments. To boot from the hard drive instead, the BIOS's boot order should be changed from PXE to HDD. Rebooting the workstation will just reload the PXE-based OS again. Since the system is booting to the PXE environment, it is bypassing the internal hard drive's OS making recovery mode an invalid choice.

A user wants to print a spreadsheet horizontally on a piece of paper instead of vertically to fit more columns on a single page. What setting should the user enable on the printer for this print job to achieve this result?

By default, Microsoft Excel prints worksheets in portrait orientation (taller than wide). You can change the page orientation to landscape on a worksheet-by-worksheet basis. Page orientation is how a rectangular page is oriented for normal viewing. The two most common types of orientation are portrait (taller rather than wider) and landscape (wider rather than taller).

90.0% complete Question A developer wants to ensure that all the clients that use their application are always using the latest most updated version. How can the developer make sure of this? A.Client-side virtualization B.Server-side virtualization C.Application virtualization D.Container virtualization

C. Application virtualization Application virtualization allows developers to encapsulate the application and its dependencies, making it possible to run the application on different systems without installation. This method ensures consistency and allows for easy updates. By managing the virtualized application centrally, developers can ensure that all clients are using the latest and most updated version without requiring individual installations or updates on each client device.

What does POST stand for in the context of computers?

C. Power-On Self-Test

Which component is NOT typically checked during POST?

C. Printer

Question 8: Which of the following is a common symptom of a failing hard drive?

C. Slow performance and file read/write errors

what the hell is Ink Ribbon Toner Filament ?

Certainly! Here are the modified explanations for each association: 1. **Ink for HP:** - *Imagine a happy pen named Harry Printing (HP) happily dipping himself in ink to write!* - **Explanation:** Ink is the liquid used in printers to create text and images on paper. In this analogy, the pen named Harry Printing represents HP printers. Just like a pen needs ink to write, HP printers use ink to print documents and pictures. 2. **Zebra Print for Epson:** - *Imagine Epson as a skilled fashion designer. She uses zebra print fabric to create trendy Amazon labels!* - **Explanation:** "Zebra print" in this context represents the specialized labels used for printing Amazon labels, often with a black-and-white zebra pattern. Epson, the printer brand, is compared to a fashion designer who skillfully uses zebra print fabric to create stylish and recognizable labels specifically tailored for Amazon shipping and packaging needs. 3. **Toner for Canon:** - *Picture a musical Canon camera playing a "toner" (tune) so loud that everyone can hear it!* - **Explanation:** Toner is a fine powder used in laser printers and photocopiers to create images and text on paper. In this analogy, imagine a Canon camera (a well-known brand) playing music made of toner powder. This emphasizes the connection between Canon (brand) and toner (printing material). 4. **Filament for 3D printers:** - *Visualize a 3D printer with a magical wand (filament) creating objects in thin air like a wizard!* - **Explanation:** Filament is a material (often plastic) used in 3D printers to create physical objects layer by layer. In this imagery, the filament is compared to a magical wand used by a wizard. The 3D printer, like a wizard, creates objects seemingly out of thin air using the filament as its magical tool. These associations provide simplified explanations for various printing materials and technologies.

A network technician needs to create a sandbox that has an isolated environment to analyze viruses, worms, and Trojans. What is the most appropriate environment for the technician to do this in? Client-side virtualization Server-side virtualization Application virtualization Container virtualization

Client-side virtualization is the most appropriate environment. As the guest OS will contain malware, it cannot infect the technician's computer or network without misconfiguration of the host. Server-side virtualization means deploying a server role as a virtual machine. For server computers and applications, the main use of virtualization is better hardware utilization through server consolidation. Application virtualization means that the client either accesses an application hosted on a server or streams the application from the server ensuring that they are always using the latest version. Container virtualization dispenses with the idea of a hypervisor and instead enforces resource separation at the OS level. The OS defines isolated containers for each user instance to run in.

What type of connector is used to terminate a coaxial cable?

Coaxial cables are terminated using **F-type connectors**. F-type connectors are widely used for various applications, including cable television, satellite television, broadband internet, and some forms of computer networking. They provide a reliable connection for coaxial cables, ensuring proper signal transmission for audio and video signals.

Explain DDR SDRAM, emphasizing its double data rate feature. Craft an analogy or mnemonic to convey the concept of data doubling. Additionally, specify the primary characteristic of DDR SDRAM and its advantage in data transmission."

DDR SDRAM is like a double-sided tape where data sticks twice as fast. Imagine writing a message (data) on both sides of a card simultaneously, effectively doubling your output. The key feature is its double data rate, allowing data to be transmitted on both the rising and falling edges of the clock signal. This feature significantly improves data transmission rates. Pros: Enhanced Bandwidth: DDR SDRAM offers higher bandwidth due to its double data rate feature, improving data transfer speeds. . DDR SDRAM typically has transfer speeds ranging from 800 MT/s to 6400 MT/s, significantly improving data transmission rates. Efficiency: Its ability to transfer data on both clock edges increases the efficiency of data transmission. Improved Performance: DDR SDRAM enhances overall system performance, especially in applications requiring high data throughput. Cons: Complex Design: DDR SDRAM's double data rate implementation requires complex circuitry, increasing manufacturing complexity. Compatibility Challenges: Different generations of DDR SDRAM may not be compatible, requiring careful consideration during system upgrades.

Describe DRAM, highlighting its unique data storage method. Create a mnemonic or analogy to elucidate the dynamic nature of DRAM. Also, specify the main characteristic of DRAM and its utilization in modern computing devices.

DRAM is akin to a dynamic library where books (data) are constantly rewritten to preserve information. Imagine it as erasing and rewriting a chalkboard (memory cell) each time new data is stored. The central characteristic is its dynamic nature, requiring constant refreshing to maintain stored information. It's widely used in modern computing devices, including PCs and smartphones. DRAM typically has a transfer speed ranging from 800 MT/s (million transfers per second) to 3200 MT/s, making it suitable for various applications. It's widely used in modern computing devices, including PCs and smartphones. Pros: Cost-Efficiency: DRAM is relatively inexpensive to produce, making it accessible for mass production. Density: It can store a large amount of data in a small physical space. Versatility: It's compatible with various applications and devices, ensuring widespread use. Cons: Slower Than Some Alternatives: DRAM is slower than certain other types of memory like SRAM. Requires Refreshing: The dynamic nature demands constant refreshing, which consumes power and affects performance.

Which of the following cloud services should an organization choose in order to deliver virtual desktops to end-users over the Internet on a per-user license basis? DaaS PaaS IaaS SaaS

Daas

A customer is complaining that they smell a foul odor coming from their computer. If you open up the PC's case and look inside, which of the following would you expect to see? Distended capacitors Unplugged Molex connector Broken LED light Unseated RAM module

Distended capacitors OBJ 5.2 - A distended capacitor on a motherboard is an indication of a fault on the motherboard. Capacitors can bulge and release a substance that has a foul smell when they fail. Capacitors are tiny electrical components that are soldered onto the motherboard and aid in the storage and use of DC voltage. An unplugged Molex connection, broken LED light, or unseated RAM module would not produce any kind of odor or smell.

Compare the functionality of docking stations with port replicators in expanding mobile devices' capabilities. How do these accessories provide seamless connectivity and enhance productivity for users on the go?

Docking Stations vs. Port Replicators: Connecting Worlds! Docking stations are the Masters of Multitasking; they transform your device into a Complete Command Center. Port Replicators, like Trusty Translators, ensure a Seamless Connection, letting you work anywhere, just like you're at your desk."

Natalie's computer is having difficulty accessing websites. She reports that she started receiving pop-ups on her screen before this connectivity problem began. You search the computer and find a piece of malware installed, so you remove it. You also do a full virus scan of the computer, ensure her computer has the most up-to-date virus definitions and is set the anti-virus software to automatically scan the computer every night at 2 am. As you return the computer to Natalie, you verify that she can now successfully access the websites again. What is the NEXT step you should perform according to the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology? Verify functionality Test the theory to determine the cause Document findings, actions, and outcomes Establish a theory of probable cause

Document findings, actions, and outcomes

What is the sixth step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology? Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures Document findings, actions, and outcomes Test the theory to determine the cause

Document findings, actions, and outcomes

A warehouse user reports an issue with a laptop to the IT helpdesk. The issue is that the laptop becomes very hot after only a few minutes of use whether it is plugged in or not. The user states that laptop use is under the usual circumstances. What does IT conclude the likely problem to be? Faulty AC adapter Battery discharging Dust and debris Room temperature

Dust trapped in laptop cooling vents acts as an insulator and can prevent proper cooling. It can also slow or stop the fan. The vents are likely the issue due to the warehouse environment. A faulty AC adapter can cause a number of issues with a laptop. However, in this case, the problem exists even when the laptop is not plugged in. A battery discharging can cause a laptop to feel warm or hot, however, in this case, the temperature is out of the norm. The room temperature can impact the operating temperature of a device. In this case, the user reports no out-of-the-ordinary circumstances.

A network technician troubleshoots a computer that is getting a limited connectivity message and an address in the automatic private IP addressing (APIPA) 169.254.x.y range instead of receiving a lease for an IP configuration from the DHCP server. What are some steps the technician should take to troubleshoot this issue? (Select all that apply.) Establish the scope of the issue. Check the configuration of patch cords. Check the VLAN configuration. Sample the elapsed time between arriving packets

Establish the scope of the issue. Check the configuration of patch cords. Check the VLAN configuration The technician should establish the scope of the issue. If the issue affects multiple users, the problem is likely to be the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server itself. The technician should check the configuration of the patch cords and verify that the wall port connects to an appropriate port on a switch via the patch panel. The technician should check the virtual LAN (VLAN) configuration. If the switch port does not have the correct VLAN ID, it can have the same effect as connecting the host to the wrong switch port. Sampling the elapsed time between arriving packets is a method the technician would use to test for jitter in a voice over IP network.

Transfer Roller:

Explanation for a Five-Year-Old: A transfer roller is like a gentle press. After the printer adds colors and pictures to the paper, the roller makes sure everything sticks properly, so the pictures don't smudge or come off. Flashcard: Term: Transfer Roller Memorization: Picture it as a "Color Squeezer" - it squeezes colors onto the paper. Specification: Often made of conductive rubber, applies even pressure to transfer toner powder onto paper, ensures precise and clear prints. These flashcards with simple explanations, mnemonics, and specifications will help in understanding and remembering these essential printer components.

Duplexing Assembly:

Explanation for a Five-Year-Old: A duplexing assembly is like a helper that can flip the paper over, so the printer can draw or write on both sides, just like you can use both sides of a piece of paper. Flashcard: Term: Duplexing Assembly Memorization: Think of it as a "Paper Flipper" - it flips the paper for printing on both sides. Specification: Contains gears and rollers, rotates paper to print on its backside, saves paper by enabling double-sided printing.

Pickup Roller:

Explanation for a Five-Year-Old: A pickup roller is like a friendly hand inside the printer. It grabs a piece of paper and helps it move along so the printer can draw or write on it. Flashcard: Term: Pickup Roller Memorization: Think of it as a "Paper Pal" - it helps pick up paper. Specification: Made of rubber, rotates to grip paper, ensures smooth paper feeding.

Transfer Belt:

Explanation for a Five-Year-Old: A transfer belt is like a magic carpet for paper. It carries the paper inside the printer to the right spot, so the printer can add colors and pictures on it. Flashcard: Term: Transfer Belt Memorization: Imagine it as a "Paper Transporter" - it transports paper inside the printer. Specification: Flat, wide belt, electrically charged to attract toner powder for printing.

A networking student is learning about IP addressing and discovers which of the following facts are NOT true regarding IPv6? Divided into two main parts. Will replace IPv4. Expressed in hexadecimal notation. Expressed in dotted decimal notation. To make IPv4 addresses easier to use, they

Expressed in dotted decimal notation. To make IPv4 addresses easier to use, they are in dotted decimal notation. IPv6 addresses are in hexadecimal notation. An IPv6 address divides into two main parts: the first 64 bits designate the network ID, while the second 64 bits designate a specific interface. The pool of available IPv4 public addresses is not very large, compared to the number of devices that need to connect to the internet, so IP version 6 (IPv6) will replace IPv4 completely. IPv6 addresses are in hexadecimal notation. To express a 128-bit IPv6 address in hex, the binary address divides into eight double-byte (16-bit) values delimited by colons.

You are setting up a cable television in a customer's home. Which connector type should be used to connect the TV tuner to the wall jack when using a coaxial cable? ST RJ-45 F type DB-9 See all questionsBackSkip question

F Type

What type of connector is used to terminate a coaxial cable? RJ-45 F type DB-9 RJ-11

F type

A web designer is securely uploading files to a web server. What protocol is the designer using to do this? SMB NetBIOS FTPS FTP

FTPS The plain File Transfer Protocol (FTP) allows a client to upload files to a web server, but it is unencrypted and poses a high-security risk. FTP-Secure (FTPS) encrypts FTP sessions and is more prevalent than FTP now. Server Message Block (SMB) is the application protocol underpinning file and printer sharing on Windows networks. SMB usually runs directly over the TCP/445 port. Windows previously used Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS) instead of TCP/IP. NetBIOS allowed computers to address one another by name and establish sessions for other protocols, such as SMB. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) allows a client to upload and download files from a network server. A common use of FTP is uploading files to websites.

An engineer is designing a new computer system and wants to provide active cooling to improve airflow and dissipate heat from around the components. What will the engineer use in the system? Heat sinks Fans Thermal paste Thermal pads

Fans

If a computer boots successfully, but the screen displays strange characters instead of the normal graphics, what could be the issue?

Faulty RAM

What does ST connector stand for?

Firstly, ST stands for Straight Tip. Secondly, the ST Connector has definitely become one of the most important Fiber Connectors in Telecom. By definition, the ST Connector is a Fiber Connector that consists of round ceramic ferrules, and a plug and a socket that are locked with a half-twist bayonet lock.

Dion Training wants to order some new laptops for their video editors. The video editors want to ensure the display has the best color accuracy when using a 60 Hz refresh rate. Which of the following types of displays should the company purchase to meet this requirement? IPS TN VA Plasma See all questionsBackSkip question

For video editing tasks that require the best color accuracy, a display with an **IPS (In-Plane Switching) panel** is highly recommended. IPS panels provide excellent color accuracy, wide viewing angles, and consistent color reproduction across the screen. They are known for their ability to display accurate and vibrant colors, making them ideal for tasks such as video editing, graphic design, and other color-sensitive applications. When it comes to the refresh rate, a 60 Hz refresh rate is standard and suitable for most video editing tasks. Higher refresh rates (e.g., 120 Hz, 144 Hz) are more beneficial for gaming and fast-paced motion graphics but are not essential for tasks that prioritize color accuracy and visual clarity. Therefore, Dion Training should purchase laptops with **IPS displays** and a **60 Hz refresh rate** to ensure the best color accuracy for their video editors.

Continuous Beep:

General system error, indicating potential overheating or hardware failure.

A customer wants to build a home server that would allow their family to stream locally stored video files on a home network. The home server should also have fault tolerance to ensure the server's data is not inadvertently lost in the event of a hard disk drive failure. Which of the following configurations would BEST meet these requirements? (Select TWO)

Given the requirements for a home server capable of streaming locally stored video files, having fault tolerance, and considering the listed components (32 GB of RAM, dedicated GPU, Gigabit NIC, and a dual-core CPU), the best configurations would involve implementing a robust storage solution along with network redundancy. Therefore, the best options are: 1. **RAID 1 (Mirroring):** - **Explanation:** RAID 1 mirrors data across two drives, providing fault tolerance by duplicating the content. If one drive fails, the data remains intact on the other drive. - **Reasoning:** This configuration ensures fault tolerance, allowing the server to continue functioning if one of the hard drives fails. It provides data redundancy and safeguards against inadvertent data loss due to a single hard disk drive failure. 2. **Network Attached Storage (NAS) with Gigabit Ethernet Link Aggregation:** - **Explanation:** A NAS system with Gigabit Ethernet Link Aggregation combines multiple network interfaces (Gigabit NICs) into one logical connection, increasing network bandwidth and redundancy. - **Reasoning:** Link Aggregation enhances network performance and reliability, ensuring smooth streaming of video files over the home network. It also provides network redundancy, allowing the server to remain accessible even if one network interface or cable fails. By combining RAID 1 for local storage fault tolerance and NAS with Gigabit Ethernet Link Aggregation for network redundancy and increased bandwidth, the home server can effectively meet the requirements of streaming video files and maintaining fault tolerance in case of a hard disk drive failure.

A mobile device user is traveling out of the area and left their device somewhere outside. The user wants to track where they last had their mobile device in order to retrace their steps and find the device. Which of the following options is the system that relies solely on satellite communication to pinpoint a device's location and help the user find their device? Geolocation Location Service Near Field Communication Global Positioning System

Global Positioning System (GPS) is a means of determining the device's latitude and longitude based on information received from orbital satellites via a GPS sensor. Geolocation is the use of network attributes to identify (or estimate) the physical position of a device. A mobile device operates a location service to determine its current position. Location service is a feature of mobile computing that identifies or estimates the device's geographical position using GPS and/or network data. Near-field communication allows for very short-range data transmission - usually up to 20 cm/8 in. This type of communication system is best suited for chip readers and would not assist in locating a device.

A company uses cell phones that do not have SIM cards and can only be managed by a specific network provider. The company wants to buy 3G cell phones that have SIM cards so they can switch to any chosen provider. What network type best suits the company's needs? GSM CDMA PRL LTE

Global System for Mobile Communication (GSM) allows subscribers to use a removable subscriber identity module (SIM) card to use an unlocked handset with their chosen network provider. Code division multiple access (CDMA) means that the provider directly manages the handset and there is no removable SIM card. A preferred roaming list (PRL) provides the information that the cellular radio needs to connect to the network and a user can trigger an update to the list in the device's settings or by dialing a code. Long-term evolution (LTE) is a packet data communications specification providing an upgrade path for both GSM and CDMA cellular networks. LTE Advanced provides 4G standard network access.

o mitigate the heat a high-end gaming system will generate, an engineer is using a liquid-based cooling system in the design. Which of the following components are NOT a part of an open-loop, liquid-based cooling system? Fans Heat sinks Water blocks Water loop

Heat sinks are not a part of a liquid-based cooling system. A heat sink is a block of copper or aluminum with fins which expose a larger surface area around the component to the air. Fans are a part of a liquid-based cooling system and engineers position them at air vents to dispel the excess heat. Water blocks and brackets attach to each device to remove heat by convection. These attach in a similar way to heat sink/fan assemblies and then connect to the water loop. A water loop is a part of a liquid-based cooling system and the water loop/tubing and pump push the coolant added via the reservoir around the system.

High Availability (HA)

High availability means that a system is operational and accessible with very little downtime. HA is achieved through redundancy, failover mechanisms, and other strategies to minimize service interruptions. HA ensures that services remain available even during scheduled maintenance or unexpected outages, providing reliable and continuous service to users.

80.0% complete Question A network technician is configuring an email connection that will have a permanent connection to the mail server. What kind of email connection is the technician configuring? SMTP HTML POP3 IMAP

IMAP

You have been asked to set up the corporate email on several mobile devices for Dion Training's employees. The employees will use their mobile devices to check their email when out of the office, but they will also need to check their email from their desktop computers. Which of the following mail protocols should you configure to allow the employees to receive their mail and maintain the read/unread status across all of their devices? SMTP POP3 IMAP HTTPS

IMAP

You have been asked to set up the corporate email on several mobile devices for Dion Training's employees. The employees will use their mobile devices to check their email when out of the office, but they will also need to check their email from their desktop computers. Which of the following email protocols should you configure to allow the employees to receive their mail and maintain the read/unread status across all of their devices? POP3 SMTP IMAP HTTPS See all questionsBackSkip question

IMAP-IMAP is designed to synchronize email messages between the email server and multiple devices. When an email is read or marked as unread on one device, the changes are reflected across all devices that are connected to the same IMAP email account. This ensures consistent email status (read/unread) across mobile devices and desktop computers.

What are the key differences between LCD and OLED display technologies in mobile devices, focusing on their individual pixel illumination methods and contrasts?

IPS Specifications: Incredible Picture Sideways! IPS displays boast a Wide Viewing Angle (typically 178 degrees) and a High Color Gamut (commonly covering 99% of sRGB). These specs ensure Accurate Colors and Crisp Images, making IPS your go-to choice for vibrant visuals.

You are trying to select the best device to install to proactively stop outside attackers from reaching your internal network. Which of the following devices would be the BEST for you to select? IDS IPS Proxy server Syslog server See all questionsBackNext question

IPS not only detect blocks bad ip address.

15.0% complete Question A hardware technician is reinstalling a heat sink with a central processing unit (CPU). Which of the following steps should the technician take to reinstall the heat sink? (Select all that apply.) Clean it. Thermal paste. Pop up the CPU at a 45º angle. Wear an ESD wrist strap.

If reinstalling the same heat sink, the hardware technician should clean old thermal grease from the surfaces of the heat sink. When installing a heat sink, the hardware technician should apply a small amount of new grease in an X pattern. The technician should not apply too much—if it overruns, the excess could damage the socket. The technician should take anti-electrostatic discharge (ESD) precautions, such as wearing an ESD wrist strap, when handling and storing CPUs. Laptop RAM is in a smaller form factor called small outline DIMM (SODIMM). The memory fits into slots that pop up at a 45º angle to allow the technician to insert or remove the chips.

35.0% complete Question A technician is troubleshooting a video display that is fuzzy. What has caused this? Insecure connector Burn-in Resolution mismatch Incorrect color display

If the output resolution does not match the display device's native resolution, the image will appear fuzzy. This typically happens if the video card's driver is faulty or incorrectly configured. If a technician does not securely insert the video cable and connectors at both ends, this could cause a flickering or flashing image. Burn-in is when the same static image displays on-screen for an extended period and the monitor's picture elements are damaged. This causes a ghost image to "burn" permanently onto the display. If a computer produces digital art, it is very important that the technician calibrate the display to scanning devices and print output to avoid an incorrect color display.

A printer support technician at a corporate office receives a call from the administrative office that their printer is showing online, but nothing is printing out. When checking the print server, there are multiple documents queued for the printer. What type of error is this? Print quality issue Garbled print issue Printer connectivity issue Print spooler issue If the printer is online, but

If the printer is online, but multiple jobs are queued and a job cannot be deleted, this is a symptom of a print spooler issue. A restart of the print spooler service may be required. A print quality issue occurs when a job prints but the output is smudged, faded, or arrives with unusual marks. When a printer prints multiple blank pages or pages with only a few characters on them, this is garbled printing. This commonly occurs because of a missing or incorrect print driver. A printer connectivity issue might arise either because the device cannot be located when trying to install it or because the OS reports an installed device is offline or unavailable.

A technician is troubleshooting a failed redundant array of independent disks (RAID) configuration and is unable to access the RAID configuration utility. What does this indicate? Disk failure Boot process failure Controller failure Multiple disk failure

If the technician cannot access the RAID configuration utility, this indicates that the controller itself is likely to have failed. However, the data on the volume should be recoverable. Most desktop-level RAID solutions can tolerate the loss of only one disk, so the technician should replace it as soon as possible. If the RAID failure affects the boot process, the technician can use the RAID configuration utility to verify its status. If a volume is not available, either multiple disks (more than the tolerated number of disks) have failed, or the controller has failed.

Which of the following ports should you block at the firewall if you want to prevent a remote login to a server from occurring?

If you want to prevent remote logins to a server, you should block port 22. Port 22 is the default port used for SSH (Secure Shell) protocol, which is commonly used for remote logins and secure command-line access to servers. By blocking incoming traffic on port 22 at the firewall, you restrict the ability of remote users to log in to the server via SSH.

What is MU-MIMO, and how does it work in Wi-Fi?

Imagine your Wi-Fi router is like a superhero with many arms. MU-MIMO lets the router talk to multiple devices at once, like having different conversations with different friends. This means everyone gets to talk to the router faster, and there's less waiting for your turn. It makes your Wi-Fi faster when lots of devices are connected, like when you're playing games on your tablet while your friend watches videos on their phone.

Broadcast Address (IPv4)

In IPv4, the broadcast address is used to send data packets to all devices on a specific local network. For instance, if a local network has the IP range 192.168.1.0 to 192.168.1.255, the broadcast address for this network would be 192.168.1.255. When a packet is sent to this address, it reaches all devices within that local network.

In IPv4, the loopback address is_____

In IPv4, the loopback address is **127.0.0.1**.

20.0% complete Question A network technician configures a foundational cloud setup that will allow the developers to start all application development using a standardized server and database setup. What type of cloud service model is the technician configuring? A.SaaS B.IaaS C.PaaS D.DaaS. PaaS (Platform as a Service)

In a PaaS model, cloud providers offer a platform allowing customers to develop, run, and manage applications without dealing with the complexity of building and maintaining the underlying infrastructure. In this scenario, the network technician is setting up a standardized server and database setup, which aligns with the characteristics of a Platform as a Service (PaaS) model. PaaS provides developers with the tools and environment they need to build and deploy applications without worrying about the underlying infrastructure configuration. SaaS (Software as a Service): Examples: Google Workspace, Microsoft 365, Salesforce, Dropbox. SaaS delivers software applications over the internet on a subscription basis. Users can access these applications through a web browser without needing to install or maintain the software locally. IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service): Examples: Amazon Web Services (AWS), Microsoft Azure, Google Cloud Platform (GCP), DigitalOcean. IaaS provides virtualized

Which of the following type of hard disk drives would be installed in a low-end office desktop? 5400 rpm 7200 rpm 10,000 rpm 15,000 rpm See all questionsBackNext question

In a low-end office desktop, the typical 3.5-inch SATA hard disk drives (HDDs) commonly operate at a speed of **5,400 revolutions per minute (RPM)**. While there are faster HDDs available (such as 7,200 RPM drives), 5,400 RPM drives are often chosen for budget desktops due to their lower cost and energy efficiency. These drives offer a balance between performance and affordability, making them suitable for everyday office tasks and basic storage needs.

A user returned a new laptop to the helpdesk with complaints that the screen was too dark and that the desktop image they put on it burned into the display. What kind of display does the laptop have? Touch screen LED TFT OLED

In an organic light-emitting diode (OLED) display, or technically an advanced matrix OLED (AMOLED), the panel does not require a separate backlight but the screen is darker and images burn into the screen easier. A touch screen is a display screen combined with a digitizer that is responsive to touch input. Smartphone, tablet, and hybrid tablet/laptop form factors all use touch screens. Light-emitting diodes (LED) are small, low-power lamps used both as diagnostic indicators, the backlight for a TFT display, and (as an organic LED array) in high-quality flat panels. A thin-film transistor (TFT) is a specific display technology used to implement modern flat-panel LCD displays. The liquid crystal elements and transistors sit on the TFT.

In modern laptops, especially those with LED (Light Emitting Diode) or OLED (Organic Light Emitting Diode) displays, inverters are not required. Inverters were used in older LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) laptops to power the fluorescent lamps used for backlighting the display. However, with the advancement in display technologies, most laptops have transitioned to LED or OLED displays. LED and OLED displays are more energy-efficient and do not require inverters. Therefore, if you're dealing with a laptop that has an LED or OLED display, it does not have an inverter. Inverters are associated with older LCD displays that used fluorescent backlighting.

In modern laptops, especially those with LED (Light Emitting Diode) or OLED (Organic Light Emitting Diode) displays, inverters are not required. Inverters were used in older LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) laptops to power the fluorescent lamps used for backlighting the display. However, with the advancement in display technologies, most laptops have transitioned to LED or OLED displays. LED and OLED displays are more energy-efficient and do not require inverters. Therefore, if you're dealing with a laptop that has an LED or OLED display, it does not have an inverter. Inverters are associated with older LCD displays that used fluorescent backlighting.

You are troubleshooting an older wireless network that is running Wireless G (802.11g). This network appears to have a lot of collisions and interference. You look up the configuration on two of the three access points in the areas and see they are using Channel 1 and Channel 6. To prevent interference and ensure non-overlapping of the channels, what channel should the third access point utilize? Channel 9 Channel 10 Channel 11 Channel 12

In the 2.4 GHz frequency range, which includes Wireless G networks, there are 11 channels available for Wi-Fi networks. Channels 1, 6, and 11 are the only non-overlapping channels, meaning they do not interfere with each other when used in close proximity. In this scenario, the first access point is using Channel 1, and the second access point is using Channel 6. To prevent interference and ensure non-overlapping of the channels, the third access point should utilize **Channel 11**. By using non-overlapping channels (1, 6, and 11), you can maximize the efficiency of your wireless network and minimize interference between access points.

say it 10 times (match for other games) In this phrase, each word represents one of the network standards: 802.3af (Afraid), 802.11ac (Acorns), 802.3at (at), and 802.11s (Sight).

In this phrase, each word represents one of the network standards: 802.3af (Afraid), 802.11ac (Acorns), 802.3at (at), and 802.11s (Sight). (match question if using match)

A network technician is purchasing new displays for the graphics design team. Which type of thin-film transistor (TFT) will be optimal for supporting that type of work? TN Digitizer In-plane switching VA

In-plane switching (IPS) uses crystals that rotate rather than twist. The main benefit is to deliver better color reproduction at a wider range of viewing angles making it the best TFT option for graphics design work. Twisted nematic (TN) crystals twist or untwist in response to the voltage level. This is the earliest type of TFT technology . A touch screen is also known as a digitizer because of the way it converts analog touch input to digital software instructions. The digitizer is in between a layer of protective glass and the display panel. Vertical alignment (VA) uses crystals that tilt rather than twist or rotate. This technology supports a wide color gamut and the best contrast-ratio performance.

A technician at Dion Training is troubleshooting an issue with a workstation. The technician believes that the CMOS battery needs to be replaced based on the symptoms they observed. Which of the following symptoms did the technician likely observe to lead them to this conclusion? Incorrect date/time on the workstation Continuous reboot Burning smell Distended capacitors

Incorrect date/time on the workstation

When printing to a multifunction printer, the printer staples the pages sideways. What type of error is this? Paper jam Print quality issue Carriage mechanism fault Incorrect page orientation

Incorrect orientation (portrait or landscape) will cause the output media to print incorrectly. For example, a finishing tray may incorrectly staple, fold, or punch media if the user does not place the pages in the correct orientation. A paper jam occurs when paper incorrectly feeds through the printer and gets lodged within the printer. A print quality issue occurs when a job prints, but the printed media gets smudged, faded, skewed, or has other defects. A carriage mechanism holds the ink cartridges in an inkjet printer. Grinding noises during printing are a symptom of a carriage mechanism fault.

0 Beeps:

Indicates a successful POST, often referred to as the "Sleep Hero."

75.0% complete Question A network technician sets up the wireless network in such a way that each client device connects to the network via an access point (AP). What type of configuration is this? Frequency bands Infrastructure mode DFS Channels

Infrastructure mode means that the technician configures each client device (station) to connect to the network via an access point (AP). A frequency band is a portion of the microwave radio-frequency spectrum in which wireless products operate, such as the 2.4 GHz band or 5 GHz band. Dynamic frequency selection (DFS) is a regulatory feature of wireless access points that prevents the use of certain 5 GHz channels when in range of a facility that uses radar. Wi-Fi products have frequency bands. Channels are smaller bands with those frequency bands that allow multiple networks to operate at the same location without interfering with one another.

ISPs

Internet service providers (ISPs) establish high-speed links between their networks, using transit and peering arrangements to carry traffic to and from parts of the internet they do not physically own.

A technician is sent to the personal office space of the organizations board to set up a SOHO environment for the executive. While preparing for the home installation, the technician creates a list of items that will be needed to successfully setup and configure the SOHO network. What is the function of using a switch in a SOHO environment? It connects to the service provider cabling and transfers frames over the link It allows local computers and other host types to connect to the network via RJ-45 ports It forwards packets over the WAN interface if a location destination IP address is not available It allows hosts to connect to the network over Wi-Fi

It allows local computers and other host types to connect to the network via RJ-45 ports

A support technician plugged a monitor with a USB C cable connector into a USB C port on the computer, but the monitor would not function. Why would the monitor not work?

It was not a Thunderbolt version 3 cable. USB-C may not work for display purposes without a Thunderbolt-capable cable. Thunderbolt version 3 uses the same connectors as a USB-C cable. The high-definition multimedia interface (HDMI) cable is the most widely used video interface, but it has a beveled connector to ensure correct orientation and will not fit in a USB C port. The DisplayPort cable supports similar features to HDMI, but the Video Electronics Standards Association (VESA) keyed these connectors against incorrect orientation, and they will not fit in a USB C port. The Lightning port and connector cable are proprietary to Apple and only Apple's iPhone and iPad mobile devices use it.

Question: What is a LAN, and what distinguishes it from other network types? Provide examples of devices commonly found in a LAN, and explain its typical coverage area and usage scenarios.

LAN (Local Area Network):Answer: Picture a LAN as a Lively Amalgamation of Neighborhoods! It's like a cozy, bustling village of digital devices, where computers, printers, and smartphones dance harmoniously together. Think of LAN as a digital block party, where everyone knows each other and shares resources within a limited area, like your home, office, or school.

Tim's laptop was recently upgraded to Windows 11 but is now running more slowly due to the increased memory requirements. He has decided to install some additional RAM to speed up the laptop. Which of the following should he install? SODIMM GDDR5 DIMM VRAM

Laptops and integrated PCs usually use SODIMM memory due to the memory module's smaller footprint. A small outline dual inline memory module (SODIMM) can be purchased in various types and sizes to fit any laptop.

Which of the following technologies could be used in an unlicensed long-range fixed wireless system?

Long-range fixed wireless can be licensed or unlicensed depending on the frequencies and power levels being utilized. For example, an 802.11 wireless network could be established using a directional antenna to connect two buildings over several miles using unlicensed frequencies and minimal power levels (under 200 mW) which are under the FCC limits. Alternatively, a microwave link can be established in the 4.91 GHz to 5.97 GHz unlicensed frequency range using a point-to-multipoint microwave antenna and transceiver system.

LC

Lucent connector, is a small form factor connector that combines the transmit and receive cables into a single square,

Question: Define MAN and elaborate on its characteristics. How does a MAN differ from LANs and WANs? Provide examples of situations where a MAN might be implemented and the technologies used to create MANs within metropolitan areas.

MAN (Metropolitan Area Network):Answer: MANs are the Majestic Arteries of Networking! Picture a MAN as the lifeblood of a city's communication. It's like a grand boulevard bustling with information flow. MANs bridge the gap between LANs and WANs, connecting multiple LANs within a city, much like the veins and arteries that keep a bustling metropolis alive and vibrant.

You are at the grocery store. At the checkout, you slide your credit card through the payment terminal and then sign your name to authorize the charge. Which of the following did you MOST likely use to make this purchase? Bluetooth reader Signature pad NFC device Touchpad

Many stores use a signature pad to digitally capture your handwritten signature when using a credit card to pay for your purchase. A signature capture pad is a device that electronically captures a person's handwritten signature on an LCD touchpad using a pen-type stylus. Once captured, digital signatures can be imported into and used with most ID software and security programs. Signatures can also be digitally stored for future use.

Metered Utilization:

Metered utilization involves measuring and billing users based on the resources they consume in the cloud. Cloud service providers often charge customers based on the amount of resources they use, such as storage, processing power, bandwidth, or active users. Metered billing provides a pay-as-you-go model, where users are billed according to their actual resource usage, allowing for cost optimization and flexibility.

How do you configure various connection methods, such as USB, USB-C, microUSB, miniUSB, Lightning, serial interfaces, NFC, Bluetooth, and hotspot, on mobile devices? Additionally, what accessories like touch pens, headsets, speakers, webcams, and docking stations enhance mobile device functionalities, and how are they integrated into devices?

Mnemonic: "Connecting World: USB - Connect Universally, USB-C - Connect Complete, microUSB - Miniature Connections, Lightning - Apple's Thunder, Serial Interfaces - Traditional Links, NFC - Near-field Friendly Connect, Bluetooth - Wirelessly Bonding, Hotspot - Mobile Hotspot Magic. Accessories like Touch Pens - Precision Artists, Headsets - Sound in Ears, Speakers - Audio Ambassadors, Webcams - Eyes Online, Docking Stations - Complete Connections."

What are the differences between LCD (Liquid Crystal Display), IPS (In-Plane Switching), TN (Twisted Nematic), VA (Vertical Alignment), and OLED (Organic Light-Emitting Diode) display technologies in mobile devices, and how do they impact visual quality and viewing angles?

Mnemonic: "Display Tech ABCs: LCD is the Basic Book, IPS offers Incredible Pictures Sideways, TN is for Tight Neighbors, VA views Vertically Awesomely, and OLED shines Organically. LCD's backlight guides, IPS has broad views, TN's neighbors affect colors, VA balances well, and OLED emits its light!"

What defines an embedded system, and what are some examples of its applications in everyday devices?

Mnemonic: "Embedded systems are the Hidden Heroes! They're like Silent Workers inside gadgets, making them smart and efficient. Think of them as Digital Muscles - they power devices without being noticed. From microwaves to cars, embedded systems are the Invisible Wizards of our tech world!" Specifications: Definition: Embedded systems are specialized computing systems integrated into larger products, performing specific tasks within those products. Applications: Examples include control systems in cars, microcontrollers in washing machines, and processors in smart thermostats, enhancing the functionalities of everyday devices.

Detail the specifications of a high-precision touch pen, emphasizing features such as pressure sensitivity levels, accuracy in micrometers, and compatible devices. How do these specifications cater to the needs of digital artists and professionals?

Mnemonic: "High-Precision Touch Pen Specs: The Artist's Magic Wand! A top-tier touch pen offers at least 2048 Pressure Sensitivity Levels, ensuring nuanced strokes. It boasts Accuracy up to 0.1 mm, allowing for pixel-perfect precision. Compatible with a wide range of devices, from tablets to graphic displays, these specifications transform digital art into a masterpiece."

Which of the following technologies would allow an organization to secure and manage their customer enterprise applications that are installed on a user's smartphone or tablet? GSM MAM CDMA MDM

Mobile application management (MAM) is software that secures and enables IT administrators to have control over enterprise applications on end users' corporate and personal smartphones and tablets. MAM software allows IT administrators to apply and enforce corporate policies on mobile apps and limit the sharing of corporate data among apps. Mobile device management (MDM) software suites are designed to manage the use of smartphones and tablets within an enterprise. MAMs focus on the application while MDMs focus on the device.

Enterprises use different deployment models to specify how they provision mobile devices and apps for employees. Which function of enterprise management allows the organization to perform remote wipes on devices? App store EMM MDM MAM

Mobile device management (MDM) sets device policies for authentication, feature use (camera and microphone), and connectivity. MDM can also allow device resets and remote wipes. An app store is a feature of mobile computing that provides a managed interface for installing third-party software apps. Enterprise mobility management (EMM) is a class of management software designed to apply security policies to the use of mobile devices and apps in the enterprise. Mobile application management (MAM) sets policies for apps that can process corporate data and prevents data transfer to personal apps.

A hardware technician is tearing apart a non-functioning computer to salvage parts and pulls out a memory stick that synchronizes its speed to the motherboard system clock and has a peak transfer rate of 1600MBps. What type of memory has the technician removed? SDRAM Dynamic RAM DDR SDRAM ECC RAM

Modern system RAM is double data rate synchronous dynamic random access memory (DDR SDRAM) and makes two data transfers per clock cycle and has a peak transfer rate of at least 1600MBps. Synchronous DRAM (SDRAM) is so-called because its speed is synchronized to the motherboard system clock. Dynamic RAM stores each data bit as an electrical charge within a single bit cell. A bit cell consists of a capacitor to hold a charge and a transistor to read the contents of the capacitor. Error correcting code (ECC) RAM runs in workstations and servers that require a high level of reliability.

A technician is building a new computer for Dion Training. The technician installs the motherboard, processor, memory, hard drives, and case fans, and then they attempt to connect the cables to the appropriate connections. When the technician attempts to power on the system, the fans do not spin, the hard drive doesn't spin, and the motherboard's LEDs lights remain unlit. Which of the following did the technician likely forget to connect? SATA 15-pin power cable CPU 8-pin power cable Case fan 4-pin power cable Motherboard 24-pin power cable

Motherboard 24-pin power cable

A technician is installing new RAM in a company's workstations. The IT supervisor insists on ECC RAM to ensure high levels of reliability. Which of the following statements regarding ECC RAM is true? (Select all that apply.) Most motherboards are designed to support both UDIMMs and RDIMMs simultaneously. For ECC RAM to function, only the CPU needs to be designed to support ECC operation. Motherboards that are designed to support UDIMMs will typically not support RDIMMs, and vice versa. Mixing non-ECC UDIMMs and ECC UDIMMs in the same system is generally not recommended.

Motherboards are generally designed for one type of DIMM (UDIMM or RDIMM) and do not support both. Mixing non-ECC UDIMMs and ECC UDIMMs in the same system can lead to compatibility issues and is not recommended. Most motherboards are designed to either support UDIMMs or RDIMMs, but typically not both. Both the motherboard and CPU must be designed to support ECC operation for ECC RAM to function.

A workstation is having intermittent issues and continues to receive system errors or freeze. You believe that the problem is being caused by the workstation's motherboard, not getting the proper amount of power to it, and you want to perform a test to confirm your theory. Which of the following tools should you use to determine if the proper amount of power is being supplied to the motherboard? Multimeter POST card Loopback plug Cable tester

Multimeter

Which of the following is used to connect Cat 5e or above networks in an MDF or IDF? 66 punch down block 110 punchdown block F type RJ-11

OBJ 3.1 - A 110 punchdown block is a type of punch block used to terminate runs of on-premises wiring in a structured cabling system. The designation 110 is also used to describe a type of insulation displacement contact (IDC) connector used to terminate twisted pair cables when using a punch-down tool similar to the older 66 punch down block. A 110 punchdown block provides more spacing between the terminals and is designed for Cat 5 networks to eliminate crosstalk between the cables. F type connectors are used for coaxial cables, not Cat 5e network cables. RJ-11 is used to terminate telephone lines, not Cat 5e network cables.

Which of the following types of connectors are used to terminate a coaxial cable for your cable modem? hint hooking up a super Nintendo F-type RJ-11 RJ-45 DB-9

OBJ 3.1 - F type is the connector used with coaxial cables. Both RG-6 and RG-59 are cable types used for coaxial cable connections. RG-6 cabling is recommended for your Cable TV, satellite, TV antennas, or broadband internet. RG-59 cabling is generally better for most CCTV systems and other analog video signals. A copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable is usually terminated with an RJ-45 connector. An RS-232 serial cable is normally terminated with a DB-9 connector. A fiber optic cable normally uses an ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector.

A network technician needs to connect two switches. The technician needs a link between them that is capable of handling 10 Gbps of throughput. Which of the following media would BEST meet this requirement? Cat 5e cable Coax cable Fiber optic cable Cat 3 cable

OBJ 3.1 - To achieve 10 Gbps, you should use Cat 6a, Cat 7, Cat 8, or a fiber optic cable. Since fiber optic was the only option listed here, it is the best answer. A Cat 5e can only operate up to 100 meters at 1 Gbps. A Cat 3 cable can only operate at 100 meters at 10 Mbps. A traditional ethernet coaxial cable network can only operate at 10 Mbps, but newer MoCA coaxial ethernet connections can reach speeds of up to 2.5 Gbps.

Which of the following modes of operation will allow a motherboard to create two independent 64-bit pathways to achieve 128-bits of data transfer per transaction from the memory to the CPU? Single-channel Dual-channel Triple-channel Quad-channel

OBJ 3.2 - Dual-channel memory is a memory controller with two primary pathways through the bus to the CPU to transfer 128-bits of data in each transaction. Single-channel memory is any memory using one 64-bit bus between the CPU and the RAM. Triple-channel memory is any memory using three 64-bit buses between the CPU and the RAM. Quad-channel memory is any memory using four 64-bit buses between the CPU and the RAM.

Jennifer just moved from France to the United States. She unpacks her computer and plugs it into the wall using a power adapter to ensure the plug connects properly. When she tries to power on the computer, the screen remains blank, she doesn't hear the fans spinning, and nothing appears to be happening. What is MOST likely the problem? The power supply's output is set to 115V The power supply's input is set to 220V The power supply's output is set to 220V The power supply's input is set to 115V

OBJ 3.5 - It is always important to ensure the correct power supply input setting is used for your computer based on the location in which you are using it. In Europe, the nominal voltage of a power outlet is 220V. Therefore, Jennifer's computer is probably still selected for a power supply input setting of 220V. In the United States, the nominal voltage is 115V. Therefore, Jennifer needs to flip the power configuration switch on the power supply's input selector from 220V to 115V to operate properly. If the computer was incorrectly set to 115V and plugged into a 220V outlet, the power supply could be destroyed or catch fire.

What printer concept is a page description language that produces faster outputs at the expense of quality? Internet Printing Protocol PostScript Line Printer Daemon Printer control language

OBJ 3.6 - Both the printer control language (PCL) and PostScript (PS) are page description languages, but PCL produces faster outputs that are of lower quality. The printer control language (PCL) is a page description language used to tell printers how to properly layout and print the contents of a document on a page. PCL is a common printing language that is supported by many different printer manufacturers. PostScript (PS) is a page description language used in the electronic publishing and desktop publishing business. PCL is faster to print than PS. PS is slower but produces higher quality outputs. The Internet Printing Protocol (IPP) is a specialized Internet protocol for communication between client devices and printers (or print servers) using the HTTP protocol for data transport. The Line Printer Daemon (LPD) protocol is a network printing protocol for submitting print jobs to a remote printer. LPD is an older protocol than IPP.

During a disaster recovery, which of the following statements is true? A virtual machine has less downtime than a physical server A virtual machine has more downtime than a physical server Both a virtual machine and a physical server has the same downtime A virtual machine cannot be used for redundancy or load balancing

OBJ 4.1 - A virtual machine can usually be restored much faster than a physical server. Physical servers must be modified to fit the right drivers for the disk drives, NIC, and other necessary components whenever they must be rebuilt after a crash. Often, a new physical server will also be required to replace a faulty one, and then the right drivers are needed to ensure a smooth transition. Conversely, a virtual machine can be recreated using another instance, clone, or restoration from a backup in much less time. Therefore, the downtime associated with virtual machines and their restoral is much lower.

What type of cloud service provides instant access to servers and switches, quickly provisioned, and available for management over the internet? PaaS IaaS SaaS DaaS

OBJ 4.1 - Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is an instant computing infrastructure, provisioned, and managed over the internet. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. IaaS quickly scales up and down with demand, letting you pay only for what you use. It helps you avoid the expense and complexity of buying and managing your physical servers and other data center infrastructure. Each resource is offered as a separate service component, and you only need to rent a particular one for as long as you need it. A cloud computing service provider manages the infrastructure while you purchase, install, configure, and manage your software. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes. Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.

You are installing Windows 2019 on a rack-mounted server and hosting multiple virtual machines within the physical server. You just finished the installation and now want to begin creating and provisioning the virtual machines. Which of the following should you utilize to allow you to create and provision virtual machines? Disk management Hypervisor Device manager Terminal services

OBJ 4.2 - A hypervisor, also known as a virtual machine monitor, is a process that creates and runs virtual machines (VMs). A hypervisor allows one host computer to support multiple guest VMs by virtually sharing its resources, like memory and processing. To create and provision virtual machines within the Windows 2019 operating system, you can use a Type II hypervisor like VMWare or VirtualBox. Disk Management is a system utility in Windows that enables you to perform advanced storage tasks. Device Manager is a component of the Microsoft Windows operating system that allows users to view and control the hardware attached to the computer. Remote Desktop Services, known as Terminal Services in Windows Server 2008 and earlier, is one of the components of Microsoft Windows that allow a user to take control of a remote computer or virtual machine over a network connection.

You have been asked by Dion Training to build a specialized computer that will be used exclusively for running numerous virtual machines simultaneously for their lab environment. Which of the following should you install to BEST meet the company's needs? (Select TWO) 64 GB of DDR4 Intel i3 with 2-cores 8 GB of DDR3 Intel i9 with 8-cores 1 TB SSD 1 TB HDD

OBJ 4.2 - According to CompTIA, the two main things you need to include for a dedicated virtualization workstation are (1) maximum RAM and (2) multiple CPU cores. Based on the options provided, you should pick the 64 GB of DDR4 (maximum RAM) and the Intel i9 with 8-cores (multiple processor cores) for this workstation's configuration. The CPU should support virtualization and be a multicore processor. The memory should be fast and contain at least 16 GB of RAM to host numerous VMs effectively.

Which of the following resources is used by virtual machines to communicate with other virtual machines on the same network but prevents them from communicating with resources on the internet? DNS Network address translation Virtual external network Virtual internal network

OBJ 4.2 - Most virtual machines running on a workstation will have their own virtual internal network to communicate within the virtual environment while preventing them from communicating with the outside world. You may also configure a shared network address for the virtual machine to have the same IP address as the physical host that it is running on. This usually relies on network address translation to communicate from the virtual environment (inside) to the physical world (outside/internet). If you are communicating internally in the virtual network, there is no need for DNS or an external network.

You are building a virtualization environment to practice your penetration testing skills. This will require that you install several vulnerable Linux distributions as VMs. The VMs need to have access to a virtualized network but should not communicate with the host operating system or the internet. Which of the following types of network connections should you configure for each VM? External Internal Private Localhost

OBJ 4.2 - The private network connection type will create a switch that is usable only by the VMs. The VMs cannot use the switch to communicate with the host. If you select internal, it can communicate between the host and the VMs. If you select external, the VMs would have internet access. If you select localhost, each VM could only communicate with itself.

Which of the following is a security concern when dealing with virtual machines? Rogue VM Resource pooling Symmetric multiprocessing Virtual NIC

OBJ 4.2 - The process of developing, testing, and deploying images brings about the first major security concern with the virtual platform itself. This is the problem of rogue VMs. A rogue VM is one that has been installed without authorization. The uncontrolled deployment of more and more VMs is referred to as VM sprawl. After all, it is a lot easier to add a guest image to a server than it is to plug a new hardware server into the network. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. Symmetric multiprocessing (SMP) is the processing of programs by multiple processors that share a common operating system and memory. A virtual network interface card (vNIC) represents the configuration of a VM connected to a network. A VM can be configured to have multiple vNICs.

You have been dispatched to a customer's office to help them fix their printer. You have asked the customer what the issue is, and the customer states, "The printer will not work." You ask a few follow-up questions to understand the situation better and ask if any error messages were displayed. Which of the following steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology best describes the actions you are currently taking? Test the theory to determine the cause Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures Identify the problem

OBJ 5.1 - Based on the description in the question, it appears you are trying to gather more information about the problem and its symptoms for you to identify the problem. For the exam, you must be able to list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

What is the fifth step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology? Test the theory to determine the cause Document findings, actions, and outcomes Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures

OBJ 5.1 - For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

Users are complaining that they are unable to connect to the wireless network when seated in the breakroom. You are troubleshooting the issue and have questioned the employees in the area about the issue. You have determined that it was working properly yesterday, but this morning it stopped working. You also determined that there was a power outage earlier this morning for about 10 minutes. After gathering this information and identifying the symptoms of the problem, what should you do NEXT according to the network troubleshooting methodology? Document findings and actions Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem Establish a theory of probable cause Implement preventive measures

OBJ 5.1 - The troubleshooting steps are to (1) Identify the problem, (2) Establish a theory of probable cause, (3) Test the theory to determine the cause, (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects, (5) Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures, and (6) Document findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned. Based on the scenario presented, you have already gathered information, questioned users, identified symptoms, and determined if anything changed, so you have completed the first step: identify the problem. Now, you should begin to establish a theory of probable cause by questioning the obvious and using a top-to-bottom, bottom-to-top, or divide and conquer approach to troubleshooting.

A client claims that their computer keeps rebooting itself without warning. Which of the following is the BEST action you should take to investigate and troubleshoot this issue? Replace the cooling fan Reinstall the operating system Replace the power supply Test the power supply

OBJ 5.2 - A computer that keeps rebooting itself is a symptom of a faulty power supply or a computer that is overheating. If the power supply is faulty, the computer will reboot itself. If the issue is caused by an overheating issue (such as a cooling fan failure), the computer will usually reboot itself after running for 15-20 minutes (once enough heat is built-up). Therefore, you should test the power supply first to determine if that is the root cause of the issue, and then replace the power supply, if required.

A technician at Dion Training is troubleshooting an issue with a workstation. The technician believes that the motherboard needs to be replaced based on the symptoms they observed. Which of the following symptoms did the technician likely observe to lead them to this conclusion? Incorrect date/time on the workstation Continuous reboot Burning smell Distended capacitors

OBJ 5.2 - A foul odor is indicative of a distended capacitor. The incorrect date/time on the workstation is indicative of a dead CMOS battery. A burning smell is indicative of a bad power supply. Hardware failure or system instability can cause the computer to reboot continuously. The problem could be the RAM, hard drive, power supply, graphics card, or external devices. Based on the symptoms of a continuous reboot, the supervisor likely suspected the RAM as the cause of the issue.

You just replaced a failed motherboard in a corporate workstation and returned it to service. About an hour later, the customer complained that the workstation is randomly shutting down and rebooting itself. You suspect the memory module may be corrupt, and you perform a memory test, but the memory passes all of your tests. Which of the following should you attempt NEXT in troubleshooting this problem? Reset the BIOS Replace the RAM with ECC modules Remove and reseat the RAM Verify the case fans are clean and properly connected

OBJ 5.2 - If a workstation overheats, it will shut down or reboot itself to protect the processor. This can occur if the case fans are clogged with dust or become unplugged. By checking and reconnecting the case fans, the technician can rule out an overheating issue causing this problem. Since the memory was already tested successfully, it does not need to be removed and reseated, or replaced with ECC modules. The BIOS is not the issue since the computer booted up into Windows successfully before rebooting.

Jonni's laptop works perfectly when sitting at his desk. Whenever Jonni moves his laptop from his desk to the conference room, though, the laptop unexpectedly powers off. A technician examines the laptop and does not smell any unusual odors coming from it. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the laptop to lose power when moved? The laptop has inadequate airflow and is overheating The laptop's motherboard has a swollen capacitor The laptop's battery connection is loose The laptop's CMOS battery has failed

OBJ 5.2 - If the laptop loses power when moved, this is most likely a loose battery connection. Since the laptop operates without any issues when on the user's desk, it indicates that the connection comes loose during movement. If the laptop had inadequate airflow, it intermittently shuts down at random times and not only when moved. If the laptop had a swollen capacitor, the technician would smell a foul odor coming from the motherboard. If the CMOS battery has failed, then it would cause the laptop to lose its date/time settings but the laptop would not shut down intermittently.

A customer is complaining that their workstation is beginning to run slowly when many applications are opened simultaneously. Which of the following upgrades would you recommend to solve this problem? Perform a chkdsk on their SSD Replace their 802.11g card with an 802.11ac card Upgrade the system from 4 GB to 16 GB of RAM Replace their 256 GB SSD with a 1 TB HDD

OBJ 5.2 - In this scenario, we want to add more RAM. RAM is the temporary storage used for running applications. By adding more RAM, you can speed up the system when running applications simultaneously and prevent reading to the slower disk drives (SSD or HDD). Replacing an SSD with an HDD would slow down the system. Replacing the 802.11g card with an 802.11ac card would help if the customer complained of slow network connectivity, but that is not the case in this scenario. There is no need to perform a chkdsk on their SSD unless there is an error stating that there are errors in the file system.

Susan is troubleshooting a workstation that has multiple S.M.A.R.T. errors. When the system is booted up, she hears a loud clicking noise and the operating system fails to load. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem with this workstation? The case fans are faulty and the system is overheating The read/write heads of the hard disk drive have failed The installed memory modules are mismatched The CPU's cooling fan needs to be lubricated

OBJ 5.2 - Loud clicking noises are usually indicative of a hard drive failing or a dirty cooling fan. Since the S.M.A.R.T. errors were also present, this indicates a hard drive failure. Additionally, the operating system failing to load is another indication that there is a hard drive issue. If the case fans or CPU fan were failing or causing an issue, the system would overheat and intermittently reboot. If the installed memory modules were mismatched, a BIOS error or POST error would be generated.

You are troubleshooting a video editing workstation for Dion Training that will not boot. After running diagnostic tests on the system, you determine that one of the four hard disks in the workstation's RAID 0 array has failed. To prevent this from occurring in the future, which type of RAID should you configure that would provide the best performance and redundancy for this video editing workstation? RAID 1 utilizes two hard drives RAID 10 utilizes four hard drives RAID 5 utilizes four hard drives RAID 0 utilizes four hard drives

OBJ 5.3 - A RAID 10 creates a mirrored array of striped arrays. This will provide the fastest performance and the best redundancy of any option listed in this question. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks.

A repeat customer is back with their laptop again. This is the third time they have dropped their laptop and caused their hard disk's internal platter to fail. Which of the following devices should you replace their internal hard drive with to prevent this issue from occurring again? 5400 RPM HDD NVMe Hybrid HDD/SSD 7200 RPM HDD

OBJ 5.3 - Since this customer is accident-prone, you should recommend they install an NVMe or SSD device. These solid-state devices are more resistant to drops since they have no moving parts or platters in them. A hybrid or HDD solution would not be effective as they both have moving platters in them that can be destroyed by a drop. Continue Retake test

You have been assigned a trouble ticket for a workstation that is unable to boot. When you arrive at the workstation, you recognize an error message on the screen that reads, "Error loading operating system, BOOTMGR is missing, Press Ctrl+Alt+Del to restart." Which of the following actions should you take first? Reboot the computer and allow it to load back into Windows Reboot the computer into the BIOS to see if the boot order is set to HDD Reboot the computer into the Windows 10 repair console and enter "Bootrec /fixmbr" at the command prompt Reboot the computer into recovery mode and initiate the disk restoral process

OBJ 5.3 - To troubleshoot the failed boot, you must reboot the computer and enter into recovery mode. In Windows 10, you will need to boot from the installation disc, select "Repair your computer", and then enter the command-line interface (CLI). From the CLI, enter the command "bootrec /fixmbr" to repair the master boot record. Once completed, reboot the computer and allow it to load into Windows.

A customer is upset that their laptop is too slow during the bootup process and when loading programs. The laptop is configured with an Intel i7 processor, 16 GB of RAM, a 500 GB HDD operating at 5400 RPM, and a dedicated GPU with 8 GB of RAM. Which of the following upgrades should you install to best increase the system's performance?

OBJ-1.1: Based on the system specifications, the system's slowest part appears to be the 5400 RPM hard disk drive (HDD).

Jason wants to order a new gaming laptop for his son for his birthday. The laptop display must support a high refresh rate of 120 Hz or 144 Hz. Which of the following types of laptop displays should Jason purchase to meet this requirement? IPS TN Plasma VA

OBJ-1.2: A twisted nematic (TN) LCD panel uses technology where the panel is black when no electric current is running through the liquid crystal cells because the cells align themselves in a twisted state. When an electric current is applied, the liquid crystal cells untwist, allowing light to pass through, resulting in a white display screen. TN displays can be made with high refresh rates of 120 Hz or 144 Hz which makes them popular with gamers. An in-plane switching (IPS) LCD panel uses technology designed to resolve the quality issues inherent in TN panel technology, including strong viewing angle dependence and low-quality color reproduction.

What describes how many times the image on the monitor changes per second? Refresh rate Frame rate Resolution Aspect ratio

OBJ-1.2: Refresh rate is defined by the vertical scan frequency of a monitor and how many times in one second an image can be redrawn on the screen. LCD monitors have a fixed refresh rate based on the specifications of their panel. Generally, a monitor is rated with a refresh rate of 60 Hz, 72 Hz, or 120 Hz, with the higher refresh rate being considered better quality and easier on the user's eyes. For high-performance gaming systems, a 120 Hz monitor is desired for smoother motion and graphics. The aspect ratio is defined as the ratio of width to height in a display. The frame rate is defined as the number of times the image in a video stream changes per second as expressed in Hertz (Hz) or Frames per Second (fps). The yaw rate is a made-up term for the exam and is used as a distractor in this question. The resolution is the measure of the number of picture elements (pixels) that an imaging device can use to sample or display the image as measured in pixels per inch (PPI).

A customer recently purchased a touchscreen laptop to use for her schoolwork. You attempt to operate the laptop using the touchscreen, but it appears non-responsive to your touch. You can, however, click on the icons using the laptop's touchpad without any issues. Which of the following components MOST likely needs to be replaced?

OBJ-1.2: The digitizer is a touch-sensitive glass panel covering the LCD in a touchscreen assembly. The digitizer is used to convert touch events to digital signals that can be interpreted as different types of input. The digitizer can be touched and inspected without taking apart the device. A liquid crystal display (LCD) panel is a type of display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges.

Your son has a gaming laptop in his bedroom. He loves his laptop since it allows him to take it over to his friend's houses when desired, but his laptop only has 1 USB port. When he gets home, though, he prefers to use a USB mouse, keyboard, and webcam when playing games on his laptop. He only has $20 saved up but wants to buy a device that would allow him to connect all 3 of these peripherals with one USB connector. Thunderbolt USB 4-port hub Port replicator Docking Station

OBJ-1.3: Since your son has a limited budget of just $20, the best option to meet his needs would be a USB 4-port hub. This would allow him to connect his USB mouse, keyboard, and a webcam to the USB 4-port hub and then connect the USB 4-port hub using a single USB connector to the laptop. A USB hub is a device that connects to a USB port to allow additional USB devices to be connected to the PC, essentially increasing the number of USB ports available. Thunderbolt is a connector type that can be used either as a display interface (like DisplayPort) or as a general peripheral interface (like USB 3). Thunderbolt 3 uses USB-C connectors.

Which cellular technology is comprised of HSPA+ and EV-DO to provide higher data speeds than previous cellular data protocols? 4G 3G 5G LTE

OBJ-1.4: 3G cellular technology is made up of two different technologies: HSPA+ and EV-DO. HSPA+ (Evolved High-Speed Packet Access) is a 3G standard used for GSM cellular networks and can support up to a theoretical download speed of 168 Mbps and a theoretical upload speed of 34 Mbps. In the real world, though, HSPA+ normally reaches speeds around 20 Mbps. EV-DO (Evolution-Data Optimized) is a 3G standard used for CDMA cellular networks and can support up to 3.1 Mbps downloads. 4G cellular technology is made up of LTE and LTA-A. Long Term Evolution (LTE) is a packet data communications specification providing an upgrade path for both GSM and CDMA2000 cellular networks. LTE has a theoretical speed of 150 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 20 Mbps. LTE Advanced (LTE-A) has a theoretical speed of 300 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 40 Mbps. 5G cellular technology is made up of three different types: low-band, mid-band, and high-band mmWave technology. Low-band 5G reaches an avera

Which of the following technologies would allow an organization to secure and manage their customer enterprise applications that are installed on a user's smartphone or tablet? MAM GSM MDM CDMA

OBJ-1.4: Mobile application management (MAM) is software that secures and enables IT administrators to have control over enterprise applications on end users' corporate and personal smartphones and tablets.

Which of the following technologies would allow an organization to secure and manage their customer enterprise applications that are installed on a user's smartphone or tablet? MAM GSM MDM CDMA

OBJ-1.4: Mobile application management (MAM) is software that secures and enables IT administrators to have control over enterprise applications on end users' corporate and personal smartphones and tablets. MAM software allows IT administrators to apply and enforce corporate policies on mobile apps and limit the sharing of corporate data among apps. Mobile device management (MDM) software suites are designed to manage the use of smartphones and tablets within an enterprise.

Natalie just bought a new mobile Android phone, but her current phone is an iPhone. She needs to move all of her phone's existing contacts and appointments from her calendar from her current phone to her new phone. Natalie's iPhone was configured to use her Dion Training corporate account to save all her contacts and appointments to their cloud-based service, as well. Which of the following is the BEST way for Natalie to migrate her data from her old iPhone to her new Android device?

OBJ-1.4: Since Natalie has a corporate account used to synchronize data from her device to the cloud, the easier and quickest method would be to fully synchronize her contacts and appointments to her corporate cloud-based account from her old device first. Then, she can configure her new Android device to access her corporate account. It will automatically download and synchronize the data from the cloud-based servers onto her new Android device.

You have been asked to set up the corporate email on several mobile devices for Dion Training's employees. The employees will use their mobile devices to send their emails when out of the office. Which of the following mail protocols should you configure to allow the employees to send their mail? SMTP POP3 HTTPS IMAP

OBJ-1.4: You should configure SMTP since it is the only protocol used to send emails. POP3 and IMAP are used to receive emails. HTTPS is used for web browsing, not for receiving emails.

Which of the following ports should you unblock at the firewall if your workstation cannot access http://www.diontraining.com but can access https://www.diontraining.com? 80 445 53 443

OBJ-2.1: HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is the basis for the World Wide Web. HTTP enables clients (typically web browsers) to request resources from an HTTP server. A client connects to the HTTP server using its TCP port (the default is port 80) and submits a resource request using a Uniform Resource Locator (URL). HTTPS (HTTP Secure) uses port 443. In this question, it states that the user can access HTTPS but not HTTP, indicating that port 80 is blocked.

You just heard of a new ransomware attack that has been rapidly spreading across the internet that takes advantage of a vulnerability in the Windows SMB protocol. To protect your network until Microsoft releases a security update, you want to block the port for SMB at your firewall to prevent becoming a victim of this attack. Which of the following ports should you add to your blocklist?

OBJ-2.1: Server Message Block (SMB) uses ports 139 and 445, and is a network file sharing protocol that runs on top of the NetBIOS architecture in Windows environments.

Which of the following ports is used by the Service Location Protocol when organizing and locating printers, databases, and other resources in a network?

OBJ-2.1: The Service Location Protocol (SLP) is a protocol or method of organizing and locating the resources (such as printers, disk drives, databases, e-mail directories, and schedulers) in a network. This is an alternative protocol to LDAP in newer networks. SLP uses port 427. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443. The lightweight directory access protocol (LDAP) is a protocol used to access and update information in an X.500-style network resource directory. LDAP uses port 389. The server message block (SMB)/common internet file system (CIFS) is a protocol used for requesting files from Windows servers and delivering them to clients. SMB allows machines to share files and printers, thereby making them available for other machines to use. Samba software allows UNIX and Linux servers or NAS appliances to run SMB services for Windows clients. SMB operates on port 445.

Which of the following ports is used by LDAP by default? 427 389 53 3389

OBJ-2.1: The lightweight directory access protocol (LDAP) is a protocol used to access and update information in an X.500-style network resource directory. LDAP uses port 389. The service location protocol (SLP) is a protocol or method of organizing and locating the resources (such as printers, disk drives, databases, e-mail directories, and schedulers) in a network. This is an alternative protocol to LDAP in newer networks. SLP uses port 427. The remote desktop protocol (RDP) is a protocol used for the remote administration of a host using a graphical user interface. RDP operates over TCP port 3389. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53.

Which of the following protocols operates over port 137 by default?

OBJ-2.1: The network basic input/output system (NetBIOS)/NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NetBT) is a session management protocol used to provide name registration and resolution services on legacy Microsoft networks and those using WINS. NetBIOS/NetBT operates on TCP/UDP ports 137 and 139.

Which of the following ports is used by SNMP by default? 53 161 139 25

OBJ-2.1: The simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a protocol for monitoring and managing network devices over UDP ports 161 and 162. A management system collates data sent by agents running on each device. The agents maintain a Management Information Base of configuration and usage data. An agent can also generate a trap, alerting the management system of some notable event. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53. The network basic input/output system (NetBIOS)/NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NetBT) is a session management protocol used to provide name registration and resolution services on legacy Microsoft networks and those using WINS. NetBIOS/NetBT operates on TCP/UDP ports 137 and 139.

OBJ-3.2: Error checking and correcting or error correcting code (ECC) is a type of system memory that has built-in error correction security. ECC is more expensive than normal memory and requires support from the motherboard. ECC is commonly used in production servers and not in standard desktops or laptops.

OBJ-2.3: Long-range fixed wireless can be licensed or unlicensed depending on the frequencies and power levels being utilized. For example, an 802.11 wireless network could be established using a directional antenna to connect two buildings over several miles using unlicensed frequencies and minimal power levels (under 200 mW) which are under the FCC limits. Alternatively, a microwave link can be established in the 4.91 GHz to 5.97 GHz unlicensed frequency range using a point-to-multipoint microwave antenna and transceiver system.

Which of the following Wi-Fi channels in the 2.4 GHz frequency band are only supported in Europe and Japan due to government regulations? 1 6 11 13

OBJ-2.3: The Wi-Fi frequency band for 2.4 GHz is split into 14 channels of 5 MHz each. In the United States and Canada, only channels 1 through 11 may be used. In Europe, channels 1 through 13 may be used. In Japan, channels 1 through 14 may be used. Since each Wi-Fi communication requires approximately 20 MHz to operate effectively, users should set their wireless access points to channels 1, 6, and 11 to minimize interference and avoid overlapping channels.

Which of the following is an open-source wireless communication protocol operating in the 2.4 GHz frequency band and is primarily used for home automation?

OBJ-2.4: Zigbee is an open-source wireless communication protocol used for home automation. Zigbee is open-source, unlike Z-Wave, which is proprietary. Zigbee uses the 2.4 GHz frequency band. This higher frequency allows more data bandwidth at the expense of range than Z-Wave and the greater risk of interference from other 2.4 GHz radio communications. Zigbee supports more overall devices within a single network (65,000 compared to 232 for Z-wave), and there is no hop limit for communication between devices. Z-wave is a low-power wireless communications protocol used primarily for home automation.

You have been asked to configure your neighbor's SOHO network. Your neighbor wants to build a Minecraft server so that all their friends can play together over the internet. When configuring their firewall, where should you place the server? Perimeter network LAN MAN WAN

OBJ-2.5: A perimeter network (formerly called a Demilitarized Zone or DMZ) is a portion of a private network connected to the Internet and protected against intrusion. Certain services may need to be made publicly accessible from the Internet (such as a web, email, or Minecraft server) and they should be installed in the perimeter network instead of in your intranet. If communication is required between hosts on either side of a perimeter network, then a host within the perimeter network will act as a proxy to take the request.

Which of the following is an example of a valid IPv4 address? ::1 00:AB:FA:B1:07:34 192:168:1:55 192.168.1.254

OBJ-2.5: An IPv4 address consists of 32 bits. IPv4 addresses are written in dotted octet notation, such as 192.168.1.254. MAC addresses are written as a series of 12 hexadecimal digits, such as 00:AB:FA:B1:07:34. IPv6 addresses are written as a series of up to 32 hexadecimal digits but can be summarized using a :: symbol. The ::1 is the IPv6 address for the localhost. The other option, 192:168:1:55 is not a valid address since it uses : instead of a . in between the octets.

Question 44: Incorrect Which of the following is a public IP address? 68.24.91.15 192.168.1.45 172.18.2.68 10.0.1.45

OBJ-2.5: IP addresses are either public, private, localhost, or APIPA addresses. Any address from 169.254.1.0 to 169.254.254.255 is considered an APIPA address. A private IP address is in the range of 10.x.x.x, 172.16-31.x.x, or 192.168.x.x. A localhost IP is 127.0.0.1. All others are considered public IP addresses.

What type of connector provides power to an internal hard drive from the computer's power supply using a 4-pin connector?

OBJ-3.1: A Molex connector provides DC power to the various drives inside a computer case. Molex and Mini-Molex are both 4-pins connectors, with Mini-Molex only being used to support floppy disk drives. The large-sized one is used for hard disk drives, CD-ROM drives, and DVD drives. SATA connectors have 15 pin and 7 pin varieties. Thunderbolt has 20 and 24 pin varieties. SCSI has 50 and 36 pin varieties.

Which of the following devices would allow you to control and provide input commands to multiple servers within the same server rack using a single set of input devices? KVM Mouse Touchpad Keyboard

OBJ-3.1: A keyboard video mouse (KVM) switch is used to support a single set of input and output devices controlling several PCs. A KVM is typically used with servers but 2- port versions allow a single keyboard, mouse, and display to be used with two PCs.

Which of the following types of connectors are used to terminate a coaxial cable for your cable modem?

OBJ-3.1: F type is the connector used with coaxial cables. Both RG-6 and RG-59 are cable types used for coaxial cable connections. RG-6 cabling is recommended for your Cable TV, satellite, TV antennas, or broadband internet. RG-59 cabling is generally better for most CCTV systems and other analog video signals. A copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable is usually terminated with an RJ-45 connector. An RS-232 serial cable is normally terminated with a DB-9 connector. A fiber optic cable normally uses an ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector.

Which of the following statements about an eSATA connection is correct? eSATA is slower than USB 3.0 eSATA is used to add additional external storage devices eSATA is used to add additional internal storage devices eSATA uses unshielded cables

OBJ-3.1: The External Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (or eSATA) is used for connecting external drives to provide additional storage. When connecting a cable to an eSATA port, you must use a shielded cable. SATA is an internal connector for adding storage, while eSATA is reserved for external use. USB 3.0 can operate at speeds up to 5 Gbps, while eSATA can operate at speeds of up to 6 Gbps.

Which of the following types of USB connections can support data rates of up to 12 Mbps?

OBJ-3.1: USB 1.1 can support data rates up to 12 Mbps. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at a slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.

Which of the following types of USB connections can support data rates of up to 480 Mbps? USB 1.0 USB 3.0 USB 2.0 USB 1.1

OBJ-3.1: USB 2.0 can support data rates up to 480 Mbps. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at a slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.

Which of the following types of USB connections can support up to 4.5 watts of power per connected device?

OBJ-3.1: USB 3.0 can support providing up to 4.5 watts of power per connected device. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at the slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.

A technician needs to upgrade the RAM in a database server. The server's memory must support maintaining the highest levels of integrity. Which of the following type of RAM should the technician install?

OBJ-3.2: Error checking and correcting or error correcting code (ECC) is a type of system memory that has built-in error correction security. ECC is more expensive than normal memory and requires support from the motherboard. ECC is commonly used in production servers and not in standard desktops or laptops.

Your desktop computer is currently running out of internal storage space. You want to upgrade the workstation with more internal storage to store additional videos, photos, and backups. Which of the following is the BEST storage solution to avoid having to expand again next year while still meeting your need to store more data? 3 TB HDD 1 TB SSD 50 TB SAN 5 TB NAS

OBJ-3.3: Since you need an internal storage solution, you cannot use a NAS or SAN (since these are both network storage solutions). Instead, you have to select from the SSD or the HDD. In this question, we are primarily worried about the size of the storage being installed and not the storage speed. Therefore, we should choose the 3 TB HDD (hard disk drive) over the 1 TB SSD (solid-state drive) due to its larger size.

You have been asked by Dion Training to build a specialized computer that will be used exclusively as a gaming machine for beta testing some new video games they are developing. Which of the following should you install to BEST meet the company's needs? (Select FOUR) 1 TB HDD CPU with integrated GPU Dedicated video card with GPU 512 GB SSD 7.1 Dolby Sound audio card Liquid cooling

OBJ-3.4: According to CompTIA, the four main things you need to include for a gaming PC are (1) an SSD, (2) a high-end video/specialized GPU, (3) a high-definition sound card, and (4) high-end cooling. Based on the options provided, you should pick the 512 GB SSD (instead of the 1 TB HDD), the dedicated video card with GPU (instead of the CPU with integrated GPU), the 7.1 Dolby Sound audio card (instead of integrated sound from the motherboard), and the high-end cooling (liquid cooling over fans) for this workstation's configuration.

A computer technician is building a server that will run multiple virtual machines simultaneously. Which CPU technology should be selected so that the processor can utilize two logical cores?

OBJ-3.4: HyperThreading (HT) is an Intel CPU architecture implemented to expose two or more logical processors to the OS to deliver performance benefits. This allows the system to run multiple cores for each operating system in a virtualized environment. Since the question asked about logical cores and not physical cores, the answer is hyperthreading and not a multi-core processor. A 32-bit CPU is a hardware item and used by low-end notebooks or thin clients. A dedicated GPU is a graphics card and would not help with running multiple virtual machines.

Which of the following DC voltages are not found within a printer when the laser printer converts AC power into DC power for use?

OBJ-3.7: The DCPS (DC Power Supply/Source) of a laser printer is used to convert high voltage AC into lower voltage DC for the printer. The DCPS converts 115VAC or 220VAC power into +5 VDC and -5 VDC for use by the printer's logic board, and +24 VDC to power the motors that feed the paper through the printing path in the last printer.

Which cloud computing concept is BEST described as focusing on the replacement of applications and programs on a customer's workstation with cloud-based resources? PaaS IaaS SaaS DaaS Explanation

OBJ-4.1: Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.

You have been asked by Dion Training to build a specialized computer that will be used exclusively for running numerous virtual machines simultaneously for their lab environment. Which of the following should you install to BEST meet the company's needs? (Select TWO)

OBJ-4.2: According to CompTIA, the two main things you need to include for a dedicated virtualization workstation are (1) maximum RAM and (2) multiple CPU cores. Based on the options provided, you should pick the 64 GB of DDR4 (maximum RAM) and the Intel i9 with 8-cores (multiple processor cores) for this workstation's configuration. The CPU should support virtualization and be a multicore processor. The memory should be fast and contain at least 16 GB of RAM to host numerous VMs effectively.

You are building a virtualization environment to host public-facing servers that must connect to the internet. This will require that you install several secured Linux distributions as VMs. The VMs need to have access to a virtualized network and communicate with the host operating system and the internet. Which of the following types of network connections should you configure for each VM?

OBJ-4.2: If you select external, the VMs would have internet access. If you select internal, each VM can communicate between the host and the other VMs. The private network connection type will create a switch that is usable only by the VMs. The VMs cannot use the switch to communicate with the host. If you select localhost, each VM could only communicate with itself.

CompTIA troubleshooting methodology

OBJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

What is the third step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology? Document findings, actions, and outcomes Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures Test the theory to determine the cause Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution

OBJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

A technician at Dion Training is troubleshooting an issue with a workstation. The technician believes that the power supply needs to be replaced based on the symptoms they observed. Which of the following symptoms did the technician likely observe to lead them to this conclusion? Incorrect date/time on the workstation Continuous reboot Distended capacitors Burning smell

OBJ-5.2: A burning smell is indicative of a bad power supply. A foul odor is indicative of a distended capacitor. The incorrect date/time on the workstation is indicative of a dead CMOS battery. Hardware failure or system instability can cause the computer to reboot continuously. The problem could be the RAM, hard drive, power supply, graphics card, or external devices. Based on the symptoms of a continuous reboot, the supervisor likely suspected the RAM as the cause of the issue.

You are troubleshooting a computer issue. When attempting to power on the computer, it turns on, and the fan spins normally. After removing the processor and memory, you try powering on the computer again. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue? A) Power supply's voltage switch set to 240V, but power outlet provides 110V B) CMOS battery needs replacement C) Motherboard has failed and needs replacement D) Power supply wattage is too low for the components in the computer

OBJ-5.2: If your computer won't boot, but fans spin continuously, it indicates a problem with the power supply, the motherboard, or overheating could be occurring. When the power supply to your computer fails, it won't start or power up, but the fans spin (as described in this question). One of the reasons your computer won't boot but the fans spin could be a bad processor or memory chip. To isolate this as a reason, you should remove the processor and memory and then attempt to boot up the computer and listen for a POST beep code. In this case, we could eliminate the motherboard, processor, and memory as the issue's source since no POST beep codes were heard. Based on the symptoms and actions performed, it appears that the power supply is not providing enough wattage to all the components of the computer, which is why the fans are spinning (they use low wattage) while the rest of the system fails to boot.

You are troubleshooting a storage issue on a customer's computer. During the computer's operation, you hear a loud, rhythmic sound. Which of the following storage components is likely failing?

OBJ-5.3: A hard disk drive (HDD) is a mechanical storage device that relies on a storage platter and a read arm. When a hard drive begins to fail, the drive will begin to make a loud clicking noise. This noise is usually rhythmic since the failed spot makes the noise every time the drive rotates during the read/write process. The other options (M.2 PCIe, SSD, and RAM) have no moving parts; therefore, no rhythmic noise would be created during their failure.

A client has a workstation with a RAID 5 configuration and reports that slower than normal performance occurs when reading/writing files to the RAID. You run a diagnostic program against the RAID, and the system passes all of the diagnostic tests without any issues. While you are running the tests, though, you heard clicking noises coming from the RAID. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the slow performance being experienced by the client?

OBJ-5.3: Based on the symptoms described, the RAID itself is fully functional, so the RAID controller is not causing any problems. This could be caused by a failing hard drive or the system overheating due to the slow performance. Since there is a clicking noise, this is most likely a hard drive failure since a cooling fan makes a whirring or grinding noise instead. Therefore, we can assume the RAID is made up of magnetic hard drives, and one of those hard disks is starting to fail. To replace the hard drive, you need to find a comparable drive that will work in the array, reboot the computer, and enter the RAID setup program to rebuild the array after replacing that hard drive. If you use a RAID 1, RAID 5, or RAID 10, the system will continue to operate normally, but with slower performance, until you replace the hard drive and rebuild the RAID.

An employee is complaining that their workstation is not booting into Windows when they reboot their machine. You noticed that during the reboot, the system is loading into a PXE-based OS. What should you do next? Boot into recovery mode to fix the boot order Reboot PC to determine if it will boot from the HDD Boot to BIOS and select the HDD from the boot order Press F12 to boot into boot mode and select the correct device

OBJ-5.3: PXE (Preboot Execution Environment) is a network boot execution process allowing you to retrieve an image from a PXE server. It is often used for reimaging computers in corporate deployments. To boot from the hard drive instead, the BIOS's boot order should be changed from PXE to HDD. Rebooting the workstation will just reload the PXE-based OS again. Since the system is booting to the PXE environment, it is bypassing the internal hard drive's OS making recovery mode an invalid choice.

You are troubleshooting a workstation for a customer. The workstation will not boot. When it is powered on, an error message of "OS not found" is displayed on the screen. What is the MOST likely solution to fix this error? Repair the GPT Repartition the drive Replace the HDD with an SSD Perform a chkdsk

OBJ-5.3: The "OS not found" error at boot time is an indication that the MBR (Master Boot Record) or GPT (Globally Unique ID Partition Table) is corrupted or faulty. If this occurs, you should reboot into the Windows recovery mode and use the 'bootrec /fixboot' command to fix the GPT.

After installing a second OS and verifying boot.ini configuration, you see "Operating System Not Found" error upon reboot. What is MOST likely causing this issue? Windows Startup services are not properly running An unsupported version of Linux is installed An incompatible partition is marked as active The MBR bootloader was installed accidentally

OBJ-5.3: This issue may occur if one or more of the following conditions are true: (1) the basic input/output system (BIOS) does not detect the hard disk, (2) the hard disk is damaged, (3) sector 0 of the physical hard disk drive has an incorrect or malformed master boot record (MBR), (4) an incompatible partition is marked as Active, or (5) a partition that contains the MBR is no longer active. The only option provided in this list is that an incompatible partition is marked as active.

You have been asked to troubleshoot a digital projector in the home theater in your neighbor's basement. Your neighbor attempted to replace the projector's bulb, but after running for a few minutes, a message appears on the screen, and the projector turns itself off again. Based on these symptoms, what are the MOST likely causes of the projector continually turning off after just a few minutes of usage with a new bulb? (Select TWO)

OBJ-5.4: Most projectors keep track of the life of a bulb/lamp using a life counter. If you forget to reset the life counter after replacing the bulb/lamp, the projector can often turn itself off since it believes the bulb/lamp still needs to be replaced. Another cause of a project turning itself off is when it overheats. This can be caused by an overly dirty cooling fan or a failed cooling fan. To solve this issue, simply clean or replace the cooling fan to prevent the projector from overheating.

Jason's laptop display appears to be extremely dim. He set the brightness to the highest level and attempted to adjust the control, but the image still appears extremely dim. Jason notices that if he points his smartphone's flashlight at the screen, then he can see the image better. Which of the following components on the laptop should he replace to fix this issue?

OBJ-5.4: The inverter (also known as inverter board, screen inverter, or LCD inverter) is a part of the laptop's display assembly. The inverter is a small green board attached to the base of the LCD panel. In a laptop computer, the LCD screen relies on a backlight source to uniformly light up the screen, and the inverter acts as the power supply for this lighting source.

A customer contacts the service desk because their laptop will not power on when plugged in, and the battery is dead. The service desk replaces its battery, connects it to a different power adapter, and the laptop works all day until the battery runs out. Now, the laptop won't turn on, and the battery won't charge. Which of the following do you recommend to solve this issue? Replace the DC jack Replace the battery Connect the laptop to a 220v outlet Replace the power adapter

OBJ-5.5: This scenario indicates that the DC jack is faulty. Since the battery was replaced and the laptop continues to work, this indicates it isn't a battery issue but is, instead, most likely a DC jack issue. The DC jack often gets broken on a laptop, and if the jack is broken, the device cannot charge or receive power from the power adapter or wall outlet.

what happens when there is issue with your drum unit

OBJ-5.6: Double images or ghost printing occurs when an image or text is repeated more than once on a printed page. This often occurs due to an issue with the drum unit. If the drum unit is not being properly charged by the corona wire, ghost prints can become a problem with the unit.

Dion Training installed drivers, connected new wireless printer to guest network, but test page won't print. What's the MOST likely cause? You didn't enable DHCP on your workstation You connected the printer to the guest wireless network instead of the corporate wireless network You forgot to configure your workstation as a print server You didn't configure the printer to use the Internet Printing Protocol (IPP)

OBJ-5.6: Most corporate wireless networks are configured as two separate networks: one for the corporate wireless network traffic and another for any guests that might connect to the wireless network while visiting your offices. These two wireless networks are isolated from each other, so if you connect the printer to the guest wireless network then the workstations will be unable to reach the printer and print out any documents or test pages.

Johnny is trying to download a file from a remote FTP server but keeps receiving an error that a connection cannot be opened. Which of the following should you do FIRST to resolve the problem? Flush the DNS cache on the local workstation Ensure that port 161 is open Ensure that port 20 is open Validate the security certificate from the host

OBJ-5.7: Executing an FTP connection from a client is a two-stage process requiring the use of two different ports. Once the user enters the name of the server and the login credentials in the FTP client's authorization fields, the FTP connection is attempted over port 21. Once the connection is established, FTP sends the data over port 20 back to the client from the server. For FTP to function properly, you should have both ports 20 and 21 open.

Tamera was responding to a complaint that one of the employees is having problems with the wired network connection on their laptop. She investigated the issue to see why it will not connect to the network. Tamera looked at the indicator lights, but she doesn't see the blinking she expected to view. Instead, the light is steady. What is MOST likely the issue?

OBJ-5.7: If the lights are steady on a network interface card (NIC), it indicates that there is no network activity. If it is blinking, this indicates that data is passing over the NIC to the network. Even if there were an incorrect TCP/IP configuration or intermittent connectivity, there would be blinking lights to indicate transmission attempts. Since this is a wired network connection, it cannot be a low RF signal as that is a wireless network problem.

Tom is running some new Cat 5e cabling in an office building to connect a few offices. The ceiling is constructed as a drop ceiling with fluorescent lights and does not have any cable trays. Due to the proximity of the fluorescent lights to the cable being run, what type of CAT 5e cable should be run?

OBJ-5.7: STP (Shielded Twisted Pair) is a type of cabling that can help prevent electrical interferences or cross-talk. A cross-talk is when electrical interference data passing through can cause CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check) errors. A CRC is used to calculate the before and after checksum is made when transferring data. If electrical interference gets in the way, such as proximity to fluorescent light bulbs, it can cause data to be corrupted and produce an error. UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) is cheaper and easier to work with but is subject to interference. Coaxial and fiber are not types of CAT 5e cabling. Coaxial and fiber are not Cat 5E cable types and cannot be used for this network.

A technician has installed an 802.11n network, and most users can see speeds of up to 300Mbps. A few of the users have an 802.11n network card but cannot get speeds higher than 108Mbps. What should the technician do to fix the issue?

OBJ-5.7: Wireless N networks can support up to 600Mbps with the network cards' proper software drivers. Without them, they can only achieve 108Mbps since they cannot communicate with the increased data compression rates. Wireless network interface card drivers are software programs installed on your hard disk that allow your operating system to communicate with your wireless and network adapters. Wireless and network driver problems usually occur due to missing, outdated, or corrupt drivers.

Dion Training wants to replace any remaining old CRT displays used in the company with a type of screen that produces less voltage and is more energy-efficient. Additionally, the new screen type selected should not contain a backlight. What type of display technology should they select? LED LCD OLED Plasma See all questionsBackNext question

OLED

A user utilizing an external mouse complains that when typing on a laptop keyboard, the cursor slowly moves across the screen. What actions can the help desk perform to prevent this behavior from happening? (Select all that apply.) Adjust the sensitivity setting. Disable the touchpad. Update the driver. Replace the keyboard.

On a laptop, if touchpad sensitivity is too high, typing can cause vibrations that move the cursor. A sensitivity setting can adjust mouse behavior. On a laptop, the user's hand placement may hover extremely close to the touchpad, thus causing the mouse to move while typing. Although not ideal, the help desk can disable the touchpad either through software or a function key on the laptop. It is possible that a driver update is required for the mouse to behave normally. Software drivers often fix glitches and provide updates to functionality. A keyboard replacement is not likely an action the help desk would take. Although typing on the keyboard is causing the issue, the problem is more likely to be with the touchpad.

power-on self-test (POST) state what no beeps, continuous, or 1 beep means.

One Big Cat Left Town No Beeps (O - One): Scenario: No beeps. Description: If you hear no beeps, it might indicate a faulty speaker or a lack of power to the motherboard. Mnemonic: Think of "One" beep for a normal situation where there's silence. One Short Beep (B - Big): Scenario: One short beep. Description: A single short beep during POST indicates a normal and healthy boot process. Mnemonic: "Big" beep signifies everything is fine. Continuous Beeps (C - Cat): Scenario: Continuous long beeps or a combination of long and short beeps. Description: Continuous beeps often indicate a serious hardware problem, potentially related to the motherboard or critical components. Mnemonic: Think of a "Cat" howling continuously, signifying trouble. Intervals of Beeps (L - Left): Scenario: Beeps with intervals between them. Description: Intervals between beeps can indicate specific error codes or issues. Different patterns represent different problems. Mnemonic: "Left" signifies patterns, indicating you need to observe the left pattern to understand the issue. Specific Beep Patterns (T - Town): Scenario: Specific beep sequences like 0-1-2-3-4-5-0 (as in "****"). Description: Certain beep sequences are used by technicians to diagnose specific hardware problems. Each number corresponds to a particular issue. Mnemonic: "Town" signifies a specific town with unique codes; each building (number) represents a specific problem. Remembering "One Big Cat Left Town" can help you recall the intervals and patterns of beeps related to different scenarios during the POST process.

A technician is troubleshooting a projector that keeps randomly shutting down. What is the most likely cause? Burned-out bulb Overheating Loose cable between the monitor and display Incorrect data source

Overheating typically causes intermittent projector shutdown. Check that the projector's fan is working, that the vents are free from dust and obstructions, and that the ambient temperature is not too high. A completely failed bulb is known as a burned-out bulb. A technician might hear the bulb "pop" and observe scorch marks on the inside or a broken filament. If the display is on but there is no display, the technician should check the cable and connectors between the video card and monitor. If the projector is on but no image displays, the technician may need to adjust the image or select the appropriate data source or input channel.

CompTIA troubleshooting methodology "PPTPPTP"

P - Problem Recognition: Identify and recognize the problem reported by the user. P - Problem Research: Gather information about the problem. Ask questions to understand the issue better. T - Troubleshoot: Formulate and execute a plan to troubleshoot the problem, testing possible solutions. P - Problem Resolution: Implement the solution or escalate the issue if necessary. P - Proactive Steps: Take proactive measures to prevent similar issues in the future. T - Verify Solution: Confirm that the problem has been resolved. Test the system to ensure everything is functioning correctly. P - Preventive Measures: Advise the user on preventive measures to avoid similar problems in the future.

Question: What is a PAN, and what devices are commonly used in PANs? Explain the technology behind PANs, including communication protocols and typical usage scenarios. How do PANs contribute to the concept of IoT (Internet of Things)?

PAN (Personal Area Network):Answer: PANs are the Pocket-sized Alliances of Networking! Think of PANs as tiny, personal constellations of devices surrounding you. It's your smartphone syncing with your smartwatch, tablet, and laptop - a harmonious cosmic dance within arm's reach. PANs are the backstage passes to your digital world, connecting your gadgets seamlessly.

0.0% complete Question A support technician needs to install a legacy peripheral component interconnect (PCI) sound card. Which of the following statements about PCI is NOT true? PCI Express supersedes PCI. PCI uses parallel communications. The PCI card can fit into the PCIe slot. PCI is software compatible with PCIe.

PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) motherboards can include PCI ports to support legacy adapter cards, but PCI cards cannot fit into PCIe slots. PCI Express supersedes Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI), which is a legacy bus type, but computers can support more than one expansion bus. PCI uses parallel communications to increase bandwidth. Most types of PCI are 32-bit and work at 33.3 MHz, achieving a transfer rate of up to 133 MBps. PCI is software compatible with PCIe, meaning that PCIe motherboards can include PCI ports to support legacy adapter cards.

POP3 and IMAP are used to _________ emails

POP3 and IMAP are used to receive emails

Two Beeps:

POST failure due to RAM issues or incompatible hardware.

Three Beeps:

POST failure due to critical hardware errors, possibly related to the motherboard or CPU.

What is GPT (GUID Partition Table) in the context of computer storage? Explain it using a relatable example. Additionally, why is GPT important for organizing data on modern computer drives?"

PT (GUID Partition Table) is like a smart filing system for a giant library of books. Each bookshelf (hard drive) has a label and a map that shows where each book (data) is stored. It's similar to how a librarian keeps track of books in a library. GPT is important because it organizes data on modern computer drives efficiently. It allows computers to handle large drives and store data in a way that's easy to find and manage.

Which of the following is NOT categorized as wearable technology? Smartwatches Fitness monitors Phablets VR headsets See all questionsBackNext question

Phablets A **phablet** is a term used to describe a mobile device that combines the features of a smartphone and a tablet. The word "phablet" is a portmanteau of "phone" and "tablet." Phablets are larger than typical smartphones but smaller than traditional tablets, usually featuring screen sizes between 5.5 and 7 inches diagonally. Phablets offer a compromise between the portability and functionality of smartphones and the larger screen size of tablets. They provide users with a larger display, making activities such as web browsing, reading, watching videos, and gaming more enjoyable. Additionally, phablets often come with powerful hardware and advanced features, similar to high-end smartphones. The term "phablet" has become popular as mobile devices have evolved, blurring the lines between phones and tablets. Many people find phablets convenient because they eliminate the need to carry both a smartphone and a tablet, offering a single device that can serve multiple purposes.

A support technician is connecting a current standard extended integrated drive electronics (EIDE) cable to a PC's motherboard and knows that pin 1 on the cable must match up with pin 1 on the port. How can the tech know where pin 1 is on the cable?

Pin 1 has a red stripe.

A user notices that a smartphone is not functioning properly as internal diagnostics show a majority of the RAM being used continuously with certain applications. What symptoms should a technician look for? Power drain Resource usage Data usage Malware activity

Poorly coded apps and malware can cause high resource usage which potentially leads to overheating problems for a device. Rogue or poorly developed apps can become unresponsive and might not shut down properly when closed. This can often cause a power drain on a device. Data usage means that the device has reached a data transmission limit or over-limit unexpectedly. Most devices have an option to monitor data usage. Malware can be a problem on mobile devices. Malware activity is a cause for problems but is not the symptom of problems.

You are troubleshooting a Dell laptop for a customer, and you see a blank screen during boot up. You decide to plug in an external monitor to the laptop and reboot it again, but the blank screen persists. What should you attempt next? Reboot laptop Reboot into BIOS and ensure the display is enabled Press Fn + F8 Press CTRL + ALT + ESC

Press Fn + F8 OBJ 5.2 - Many laptops have a series of keystrokes such as FN + F8 to switch from the internal display to an externally connected screen. Since the internal display is not working, rebooting again or trying to navigate the BIOS without seeing the screen would be ineffective. Instead, trying the function key toggle that switches to an external monitor may resolve the issue temporarily while you begin to look for a long-term solution. Different manufacturers use different keystrokes, but FN + F8 is an example of the keystroke used in Dell laptops.

PROXY VS VPN

Proxy Server: Function: Acts as an intermediary between your device and the internet, rerouting your traffic through its server. Anonymity: Provides basic anonymity by masking your IP address. Encryption: Usually does not encrypt your data traffic, making it less secure than a VPN. Speed: Generally faster than VPNs as it doesn't involve complex encryption processes. Use Cases: Often used for content filtering, bypassing geo-restrictions, and improving website access speed. Specifications: Can be configured on specific applications or devices. Various types include HTTP proxies, SOCKS proxies, and transparent proxies. VPN (Virtual Private Network): Function: Creates a secure, encrypted connection between your device and the VPN server, masking your IP address and encrypting your data traffic. Anonymity: Provides high-level anonymity, hiding your IP address and encrypting all data transmitted between your device and the internet. Encryption: Encrypts all your internet traffic, ensuring a high level of security and privacy. Speed: May be slower than proxies due to encryption processes, but modern VPNs often offer optimized servers for faster speeds. Use Cases: Primarily used for online privacy, data security, bypassing censorship, accessing geo-restricted content, and secure remote access to corporate networks. Specifications: Available as standalone applications for various devices and platforms, offering a wide range of servers in different countries. Different VPN protocols such as OpenVPN, L2TP/IPsec, and IKEv2/IPsec provide varying levels of security and speed. Mnemonic: "Imagine the internet as a secret party; proxies and VPNs are your disguise options! A Proxy is like a Mask: it covers your face but leaves your identity (IP address) exposed, offering some anonymity but limited security. On the other hand, a VPN is like an Invisibility Cloak: it not only masks your face but also makes you completely invisible, encrypting your data for maximum security and privacy. So, if you want to be truly incognito, choose the Invisibility Cloak - that's the VPN!"

Your office has a legacy wide-format printer that must be connected to your network. The connection on the printer is an older DB-9 serial connection. What is the BEST option for connecting this legacy device to your corporate network? Configure a reverse proxy on the printer as a DNS workaround Purchase an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter so that you can connect it to the network Purchase a wireless print server and connect it to the printer via USB Purchase an inexpensive RS-232 to USB adapter to connect it the network

Purchase an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter so that you can connect it to the network

Explain the concept of RAID 0, where data is striped across multiple drives. Include a mnemonic or analogy to illustrate the idea. Additionally, specify the key feature of RAID 0 and its potential drawback.

RAID 0, known as striping, is like organizing a music festival where each instrument (data block) plays simultaneously across different stages (drives), creating a symphony of speed. The key feature is parallel data access, significantly enhancing performance. However, the drawback is the lack of redundancy; if one musician (drive) goes silent, the entire concert (data) is lost.

"Describe RAID 1, the mirroring technique used for data redundancy. Provide an analogy or mnemonic to emphasize the concept. Also, outline the main characteristic of RAID 1 and its trade-off in terms of storage space.

RAID 1, resembling having a twin backup for your favorite singer, duplicates data across two drives. If one forgets the lyrics (loses data), the other fills in. The key feature is fault tolerance, ensuring data safety. However, it uses 50% of the total storage due to mirroring, akin to double the costumes (storage) for the twins.

Which type of RAID should be used for a virtualization server that must have the fastest speed and highest redundancy level? RAID 0 RAID 1 RAID 5 RAID 10

RAID 10

Elaborate on RAID 10, which combines mirroring and striping techniques. Utilize a creative scenario to illustrate this combination. Specify the central characteristic of RAID 10 and its storage efficiency compared to other RAID configurations.

RAID 10, resembling a relay race with twins, combines fast running (striping) and seamless handoffs (mirroring). If one twin (drive) gets tired (fails), the other continues the race, ensuring victory (data integrity). The central characteristic is the combination of high performance and fault tolerance. It uses half of the available storage due to mirroring, ensuring reliable data protection.

Explain RAID 5, incorporating both striping and distributed parity. Use an analogy or mnemonic to clarify the inclusion of parity data. Specify the main feature of RAID 5 and its advantage in data reconstruction.

RAID 5, akin to a jigsaw puzzle party, stripes data across drives and creates a group puzzle key (parity) together. If someone loses a piece (drive fails), the combined key helps reconstruct the missing part, completing the masterpiece. The key feature is fault tolerance achieved through distributed parity.

network technician needs to replace a broken Ethernet cable. What connector will the technician use to terminate the new cable that is also known as 8P8C? F-type RJ-45 SC LC

RJ-45

A cloud administrator configures a cloud instance to increase its resources during times of high utilization and decrease its resources when peak utilization times end. What cloud characteristic does this represent? HA Scalability Metered utilization Rapid elasticity

Rapid elasticity refers to the system's ability to handle changes to demand in real time. A system with high elasticity will not experience loss of service or performance if demand suddenly increases. High availability (HA) means that the service experiences very little downtime. Downtime can occur as a result of scheduled maintenance and unexpected outages. Scalability means that the costs involved in supplying the service to more users are linear. Technicians can achieve scalability by adding nodes or by adding resources to each node. The per-use billing for resources consumed by the cloud is metered utilization. The metering measurement is based on the type of resources such as storage, processing, bandwidth, or active users.

A client is attempting to power on their computer, but it keeps booting to the incorrect hard drive. Which of the following actions should you perform to attempt to fix this problem? Unplug any external hard disks Reconfigure the boot order within Windows Reconfigure the boot order within the BIOS/UEFI Press F8 repeatedly during the boot process to enter the boot menu

Reconfigure the boot order within the BIOS/UEFI

A user is complaining that they are hearing a grinding noise coming from their workstation. You begin to troubleshoot the issue and determine that it is not an issue with the hard drive but is instead caused by the power supply's fan. Which of the following actions would BEST solve this issue? Spray a little bit of WD-40 into the fan to lubricate it Spray the fan with compressed air to remove any dirt, debris, or dust Replace the power supply Replace the power supply's fan

Replace the power supply

Explain the concept of SDRAM, emphasizing its synchronization mechanism. Provide a metaphor or analogy to illustrate the synchronization aspect. Additionally, specify the key feature of SDRAM and its significance in computer memory systems.

SDRAM functions like a synchronized orchestra, where musicians (memory components) play in perfect harmony to the conductor's baton (system clock). This synchronization ensures data is accessed and processed at the exact rhythm required by the computer, enhancing efficiency. The key feature is synchronized access, vital for rapid data retrieval. The advantage lies in its speed and efficiency, making it ideal for high-performance systems. SDRAM typically has a transfer speed ranging from 66 MHz to 200 MHz, ensuring quick data access. The advantage lies in its speed and efficiency, making it ideal for high-performance systems. Pros: High Speed: SDRAM operates at high clock speeds, ensuring rapid data access. Efficient Synchronization: Its synchronized nature optimizes data flow, enhancing overall system performance. Widespread Compatibility: It's widely compatible with various computer systems and platforms. Cons: Non-Volatile Nature: Unlike some other types of RAM, SDRAM doesn't retain data when the power is off. Limited Bandwidth: While fast, its bandwidth can be limiting for extremely high-demand applications.

You are trying to send an email to your boss, but it refuses to leave your outbox. You see an error message displayed on the screen that tells you to verify your outbound server settings. Which of the following servers should you configure your email client to use to ensure your emails are being sent? SSH server SMTP server POP3 server DNS server

SMTP is the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol. An SMTP server uses the SMTP protocol to send emails from one server to another. If your mail client cannot send an email properly, it is likely an issue with your SMTP server. A mail server is a server that sends or received emails on behalf of its users. POP3 and IMAP servers are used to receive email and SMTP is used to send an email.

Scalability

Scalability refers to the system's ability to handle growth by adding resources, such as servers or processing power, without compromising performance. It allows the system to expand to accommodate an increasing number of users or a higher workload. Scalability can be achieved by adding more nodes to a system or by enhancing the resources (such as CPU, memory, or storage) of existing nodes.

10.0% complete Question A technician is troubleshooting a computer that will not turn on. The technician has verified that the wall socket and devices leading to the computer are working correctly. What could remain as an issue? (Select all that apply). A.On-premises distribution circuit B.Motherboard C.Power supply unit D.Power grid

Since the technician verified power was working in the wall socket and verified all other power components between the wall socket and the computer, the motherboard is most likely an issue. Since the technician verified power was working in the wall socket and verified all other power components between the wall socket and the computer, a faulty power supply unit is most likely an issue. An On-premises distribution circuit would stop power from reaching the wall socket. Since the technician verified power was working in the wall socket, this could not be the issue. The power grid would not be the issue as the technician verified that power was being delivered from the wall socket to the computer.

Your laptop currently has a 128 GB SSD installed and currently running out of internal storage space. You want to upgrade the workstation with more internal storage to store additional videos, photos, and backups. Still, you don't want to sacrifice data access speed for increased storage. Which of the following is the BEST storage solution to store more data while maintaining fast data access speeds?

Since you need an internal storage solution, you cannot use a NAS or SAN (since these are both network storage solutions). Instead, you have to select from the SSD or the HDD. In this question, we are primarily worried about the storage's speed being installed and not the storage size. Therefore, we should choose the 1 TB SSD (solid-state drive) over the 3 TB HDD (hard disk drive) due to its faster speeds.

13.3% complete Question A security technician is installing a doorbell/video entry system for a customer so that the customer can see and communicate with people who come to their home when they aren't there. What kind of device is the doorbell/video entry system? A.Zigbee B.Hub and control system C.OT D.Smart device

Smart device

A network technician trains a new employee on the company devices they received during orientation. Which devices will have both a front and rear camera? (Select all that apply.) Digital camera Smartphone Tablet Webcam

Smartphones have both front-facing and rear-facing camera lenses, both of which can function either as a still camera or as a webcam for video recording and streaming. Tablets have both front-facing and rear-facing camera lenses, both of which can function either as a still camera or as a webcam for video recording and streaming. A digital camera allows for video recording or web conferencing and users can also take still pictures with them. A webcam is a type of digital camera used to stream and record video. The front and rear cameras on smartphones and tablets can function as webcams.

As part of tech security, a technician loans a laptop to employees when they conduct business travel, and upon return of the device, the technician reformats the drive and reloads the operating system and all relevant software. After several years of following this process, have become sluggish or freeze up. What component is likely causing this type of computer behavior? Motherboard SSD RAM CDs

Solid-state drives (SSDs) use flash chips that are susceptible to a type of degradation over the course of many write operations which would cause the laptop to be sluggish and freeze. The motherboard houses sockets for the devices that implement the core system functions of a personal computer: compute, storage, and networking. Random-access memory (RAM) storage technology is nonpersistent. Nonpersistent means that the RAM devices can only hold data when the PC is on. Compact Discs (CDs) are a mainstream storage format for music and video. All types of optical media use a laser to read the data encoded on the disc surface.

A traveling user looks to purchase a smartphone that has a high tolerance for differing environments. This includes indoor and outdoor use. What ingress protection (IP) rating does the user look for when wanting to protect the device from solids as best as possible? IP67 IP57 IP58 IPX8

Some mobile-device cases provide a degree of waterproofing. Waterproofing is rated on the ingress protection (IP) scale. The first (6) is a rating for repelling solids. In this case, dustproof. With an ingress protection (IP) scale, the first number located after "IP" is used for solids rating. A 5 is a dust-protected rating which is not as protective as a 6. When using an ingress protection (IP) scale, two numbers are designated after "IP." The first digit is for solids rating and the second is for liquids. In an ingress protection (IP) scale, the second value (8) is for liquids, 8 being protected from immersion beyond 1 m. The X means there is no rating.

3-D Printers:

Technology: Additive manufacturing, building objects layer by layer from digital designs. Use Case: Used for rapid prototyping, custom manufacturing, and creating 3-D models. Maintenance: Requires regular filament (for Fused Deposition Modeling) or resin (for Stereolithography) replacement, print head cleaning, and bed leveling. Materials: Can use various materials, including plastics, resins, metal powders, and ceramics.

Laser Printers:

Technology: Forms electrostatic images on a photosensitive drum using a laser beam, attracting toner particles transferred onto paper and fused with heat and pressure. Use Case: Ideal for high-volume, fast, and efficient document printing, commonly used in office environments. Maintenance: Requires regular toner cartridge replacement, cleaning, calibration, and replacement of consumables like imaging drums and fuser assemblies. Printing Speed: Known for high printing speeds, suitable for large-scale print jobs.

Inkjet Printers:

Technology: Sprays liquid ink droplets onto paper through microscopic nozzles. Use Case: Suitable for high-quality photo printing and general-purpose document printing. Maintenance: Requires regular print head cleaning, cartridge replacement, and alignment for optimal results. Ink Types: Uses dye-based inks for vibrant colors and pigment-based inks for durability.

Which of the following statements about the 5.0 GHz wireless frequency used by Wi-Fi is correct? The 5.0 GHz frequency has fewer channels available than 2.4 GHz The 5.0 GHz frequency is less effective at penetrating solid surfaces than 2.4 GHz The 5.0 GHz frequency has a shorter wavelength that allows the signal to travel further than 2.4 GHz using the same power levels The 5.0 GHz frequency supports lower data rates than 2.4 GHz

The 5.0 GHz frequency is less effective at penetrating solid surfaces than 2.4 GHz

35.0% complete Question A network technician is trying to locate the Cat 6A cable in a closet full of unmarked boxes with different types of cabling in them. How will the technician be able to tell which cable is Cat 6A? (Select all that apply.) The words "twisted pair cable" is on the cable jacket. The TIA/EIA standard is on the cable jacket. The Cat specification is on the cable jacket. The cable type is on the cable jacket.

The Cat specification is on the cable jacket. The cable type is on the cable jacket.

What is the purpose of the POST (Power-On Self-Test) process in a computer? Provide a simple analogy to explain the concept. Additionally, specify that the POST process typically lasts for a few seconds, ensuring a quick check of the computer's essential components. Why is this speed important in ensuring the computer's functionality?

The POST (Power-On Self-Test) is like your computer's health checkup. When you turn on your computer, it quickly examines all its parts to ensure everything is working correctly before you can use it. It's similar to when you wake up and stretch to make sure your arms and legs are okay for the day. The POST process typically lasts for about 2 to 3 seconds, ensuring a rapid check of the computer's essential components. This speed is crucial because it allows the computer to identify any immediate issues swiftly. A quick check ensures that the computer can start functioning without delay, making it ready for use in no time.

As traffic is overloading an organization's website, the network administrator sets up another web server. What will the administrator configure to distribute traffic between the two servers? NAT Proxy server UTM Load balancer

The administrator will configure D. Load balancer to distribute traffic between the two servers. A load balancer evenly distributes incoming network traffic across multiple servers, ensuring that no single server becomes overwhelmed with too much traffic. This helps in optimizing resource utilization, enhancing performance, and ensuring high availability of the website.

95.0% complete Question A company hired an administrator to manage their computers that host the employees' shared resources and applications. What kind of computers will the administrator manage? Client SAN Server Datacenter

The administrator will manage the company's server computers. A company dedicates a server computer to running network applications and hosting shared resources. A client computer allows end users to access the applications and resources to do work. Desktop administrators usually manage a company's client computers. A storage area network (SAN) provisions access to a configurable pool of storage devices that is isolated from the main network and that only application servers can use. A datacenter has dedicated networking, power, climate control, and physical access control features all designed to provide a highly available environment for running critical applications.

An energy company is upgrading its systems across multiple sites. The company would like to control the systems with software that communicates with the current programmable logic controllers (PLCs) and new RTUs. What kind of system is the company upgrading to? OT SCADA Embedded system ICS

The company is upgrading to a supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) system which takes the place of a control server in large-scale, multiple-site ICSs. Explain simply: Imagine you have a big toy factory with lots of machines making toys. You want to make sure all the machines work together efficiently. A SCADA system is like a super smart robot that watches over all the machines. It checks if they are working properly, and if something goes wrong, it tells the factory workers what's happening. It's like having a superhero helper for your toy factory! An embedded system network is known as an operational technology (OT) network to distinguish it from an IT network. An embedded system is an electronic device that performs a specific, dedicated function. Embedded systems might typically have operated within a closed network. An industrial control system (ICS) provides mechanisms for workflow and process automation. An ICS controls machinery used in critical infrastructures,

A technician is able to use the standard adapter built into a computer's motherboard to connect to the company's network using a patch cable. What kind of network is the company using? Bluetooth Gigabit Ethernet Fiber optic Wi-Fi

The company is using Gigabit Ethernet as many PC motherboards have a built-in 1000BASE-T Gigabit Ethernet compatible adapter. Bluetooth is used to connect peripheral devices to PCs and mobile devices and to share data between two systems. Bluetooth is a wireless technology, so no need for any patch cables to be used. If the company was using a fiber-optic network, the technician would have to use a network interface card (NIC) adapter that supports fiber optic as this is not a standard type of adapter on motherboards. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 802.11 series of standards defines Wi-Fi which uses radios and antennas for data transmission and reception.

20.0% complete Question A small company hired a network technician to upgrade its network. Surprisingly the company was still using a legacy hardware device that configures a network into a star topology. What device was this? Managed switch PoE-enabled switch Hub Patch pane

The company was using a hub, which is a legacy network hardware device that configured networks in what is referred to as a "star topology" because each end system is cabled to a concentrator (the hub). Switches designed for larger LANs are managed switches. An administrator can connect to one of these switches over a management port and choose options for the switch's more advanced functionality. A PoE-enabled switch is referred to as endspan power sourcing equipment (PSE). When supported, this device determines the device's power consumption and sets the appropriate supply voltage level. This is not a legacy device. In most types of office cabling, a technician connects a computer to a wall port and the cabling running through the walls connects to a patch panel.

Jason is teaching a CompTIA course at a large company, but they do not allow non-employees to connect to their network. Since Jason needs the Internet for an in-class demonstration, he connects his laptop to his iPhone using a USB cable. He essentially connects to the Internet using the smartphone as a modem. Which of the following terms best describes this configuration?

The configuration described, where Jason connects his laptop to the Internet using his iPhone as a modem via a USB cable, is commonly known as USB tethering. USB tethering allows a smartphone to share its cellular data connection with another device, such as a laptop, by using the phone as a modem. In this scenario, the phone establishes an internet connection, and the laptop accesses the internet through the phone's cellular data connection.

A company uses a database that a developer wrote in-house. Since the database is not supported and the developer has left the organization, what is the database considered to be? A.BYOD B.Legacy system C.Embedded system D.UTM

The correct answer is B. Legacy system. A legacy system refers to outdated or obsolete software or technology that is still in use within an organization. These systems are often no longer supported by the original developers or vendors. In the given scenario, the database that the developer wrote in-house and is not supported anymore qualifies as a legacy system since it's no longer actively maintained or updated.

60.0% complete Question A network technician gathers requirements to implement virtualization of multiple guest VMs that will need to communicate. Which of the following resource requirements will the technician need to employ? (Select all that apply.) A.Virtualization support enabled on the CPU B.Memory above what the OS requires C.Low storage requirements D.A virtual network environment

The correct answers are: A. **Virtualization support enabled on the CPU** B. **Memory above what the OS requires** D. **A virtual network environment** Explanation: A. **Virtualization support enabled on the CPU**: CPUs with virtualization support (such as Intel VT-x or AMD-V) are crucial for efficient virtualization. This feature allows the virtualization software to run virtual machines more effectively. B. **Memory above what the OS requires**: Virtual machines require memory (RAM) to operate. Allocating sufficient memory to virtual machines ensures they can run their respective operating systems and applications smoothly. D. **A virtual network environment**: Virtual machines need to communicate with each other and the external network. A virtual network environment provides the necessary networking infrastructure within the virtualized environment, allowing VMs to connect to each other and to external networks. This can be achieved through virtual switches, routers,

93.3% complete Question A web designer plans out a new website, including the uniform resource locators (URLs) for each page. What are parts of the URL that the web designer will need to consider? (Select all that apply.) File server FQDN Protocol File path

The designer will need to consider the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) which is not case sensitive. The host location can also be an IP address; an IPv6 address must be in square brackets. The designer will need to consider the protocol which describes the access method and will likely be HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) or HyperText Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS). The designer will need to consider the file path which specifies the directory and file name location of the resource (if required). The file path may or may not be case sensitive. In file server-based networks, a central machine provides dedicated file and print services to workstations. Benefits of server-based networks include ease of administration through centralization.

55.0% complete Question A software developer is creating an application that will run multiple parallel threads through the central processing unit (CPU) at the same time to reduce the amount of "idle time" the CPU spends waiting for new instructions to process. What type of process is the developer taking advantage of? Multi-socket Multithreading Multicore Processor extensions

The developer is taking advantage of multithreading which is when software runs multiple parallel threads through the CPU at the same time to reduce "idle time." Server motherboards are often multi-socket which means they use two or more physical CPUs, referred to as symmetric multiprocessing (SMP), to deliver performance benefits. Multicore refers to a CPU design that puts two chips onto the same package. Most CPUs are multicore (more than two cores). Multicore and multithreading features are designated by nC/nT notation. Processor extensions support virtualization, also referred to as hardware-assisted virtualization, and make the VMs run much more quickly.

Which of the following devices is installed in a communication closet to connect network wall jacks to a network switch using pre-wired RJ-45 ports? Router Hub Patch panel Access point See all questionsBackSkip question

The device installed in a communication closet to connect network wall jacks to a network switch using pre-wired RJ-45 ports is called a **patch panel.** A patch panel is a mounted hardware assembly that contains ports to connect and manage incoming and outgoing LAN cables. It acts as a central termination point for network cables, allowing them to be connected to network switches or other networking equipment. Patch panels are commonly used in communication closets or data centers to organize and streamline network connections, making it easier to manage and troubleshoot network infrastructure.

An employee is leaving the company and must return any removable storage devices they may have. What devices will the employee most likely return? (Select all that apply.) Wireless card USB flash drive SD card RAM

The employee will most likely return universal serial bus (USB) drives which are a type of flash drive and are simply a flash memory board with a USB connector and protective cover. The employee will most likely return secure digital (SD) cards. SD cards are a proprietary type of memory card that can have different sizes and performance ratings. Computers can have an installed wireless card that allows internet connectivity without the requirement for a hard connection. This is connected directly to the motherboard and is not a removable storage device. Random-access memory (RAM) is not removable storage. RAM is nonpersistent. Nonpersistent means that the RAM devices can only hold data when the PC is on.

20.0% complete Question A system engineer is configuring fault tolerance with a configuration that uses a logical striped volume with two mirrored arrays. What redundant array of independent disks is the engineer using? A.RAID 0 B.RAID 1 C.RAID 5 D.RAID 10

The engineer is configuring RAID 10 which is a nested RAID configuration that combines a logical striped volume (RAID 0) configured with two mirrored arrays (RAID 1). RAID 0 requires at least two disks and provides no redundancy at all. If any physical disk in the array fails, the whole logical volume will fail. RAID 1 is a mirrored drive configuration using two disks. Each write operation duplicates on the second disk in the set, introducing a small performance overhead. RAID 5 uses striping (like RAID 0) but with distributed parity. Distributed parity means that error correction information spreads across all the disks in the array.

A network technician is setting static IPv4 addresses on servers. Which settings would be considered optional for ensuring proper communications within a local area network? (Select all that apply.) The gateway The alternate DNS IP address Subnet mask

The gateway parameter is the IPv4 address of a router and is the IP address to which packets destined for a remote network should go by default. This will be changed for groups of locally connected devices. The gateway,The alternate DNS The Domain Name System (DNS) and alternate DNS servers provide resolution of host and domain names to their IP addresses. While the primary DNS may be essential for locating resources on the internet, an alternate is optional. Each host must be configured with an IP address and subnet mask at a minimum to communicate on an IPv4 network. The subnet mask is entered in dotted decimal notation, such as 255.255.255.0. When used with the IP address 192.168.0.100 , this mask identifies 192.168.0.0 as the network ID and means that the last octet ( .100 ) is the host ID.

A hardware technician installed a new power supply unit (PSU) in a workstation and removed any unnecessary power connector cables. What type of PSU did the technician install? Modular Redundant ATX ATX12V

The hardware technician is installing a modular PSU which has detachable power connector cables that allow the technician to reduce the number of cables to the minimum required.

A computer is having issues reading and writing data. It takes an extraordinarily long time to do basic tasks because of it. What component of the computer is the cause of this issue?

The main component of a computer used to store data is the hard drive. Hard drives come in multiple forms, such as a magnetic spinning drive or solid-state drive. Keyboards are one of the main input devices used to enter characters on a computer. They are typically mechanical in nature and tend to be subject to failure due to dust, dirt, and liquids. Laptop computers use removable, rechargeable Lithium-ion (Li-ion) battery packs. Li-ion batteries are typically available in 6-, 9-, or 12-cell versions. The processor or central processing unit executes instructions from the various programs on a computer. The faster the processor, the more the computer can accomplish.

A support technician at a corporate office needs to recommend a new multifunction printer for the administrative office. Since the office commonly prints and scans photos and high graphic items, the technician needs to select a multifunction printer that will meet this need. What characteristics should the technician review to choose the correct multifunction printer? (Select all that apply.) Output tray capacity Pages per minute (PPM) Dots per inch (DPI) Pixels per inch (PPI)

The maximum supported resolution, measured in dots per inch (DPI), determines output quality. This is not to be confused with pixels per inch (PPI), since multiple dots can make up one pixel. Pixel dimensions will appear separately from dots per inch (DPI) to avoid confusion. Resolution varies by printer. Vertical and horizontal resolution may also be different. The output tray is where printed materials go. This is important when in an environment with a higher level of printing, as the printer will automatically stop when the output tray is full. The basic speed of a printer is measured in pages per minute (PPM). Different printers may also have varying PPM based on what is printing.

Which of the following modes of operation will allow a motherboard to create two independent 64-bit pathways to achieve 128-bits of data transfer per transaction from the memory to the CPU? Single-channel Dual-channel Triple-channel Quad-channel See all questionsBackNext question

The mode of operation you're referring to, which allows a motherboard to create two independent 64-bit pathways to achieve 128-bits of data transfer per transaction from the memory to the CPU, is called **Dual Channel Memory Mode**. In Dual Channel mode, the memory controller on the motherboard accesses two memory modules simultaneously, effectively doubling the data transfer rate between the memory and the CPU. This results in improved overall system performance, especially in memory-intensive tasks such as gaming, video editing, and 3D rendering, where higher memory bandwidth can significantly enhance system responsiveness.

A hardware technician is building a server that will process financial data in real-time and wants to use error correcting code (ECC) RAM that will detect and correct errors, if possible. What other considerations will the technician need to include to support the ECC RAM? (Select all that apply.) ECC - Capable Motherboard 72-bit data bus Single-Channel memory Two 64-bit data buses

The motherboard must have a memory controller that is capable of supporting ECC RAM. The technician will need to include a 72-bit data bus rather than the regular 64 bits to support the functions of the ECC RAM in the server. Single-channel memory means that there is one 64-bit bus between the CPU and RAM, but this memory capability is not relevant to supporting ECC RAM in a server. A dual-channel memory controller has two 64-bit pathways through the bus to the central processing unit (CPU), meaning that each transfer can send 128 bits of data.

46.7% complete Question A network administrator configures an authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) server. Which component in the AAA server setup does not store authentication credentials, but acts as a transit to forward data between devices? Supplicant NAP RADIUS AAA

The network access point (NAP) or network access server (NAS) are appliances, such as switches, access points, and VPN gateways. These do not store authentication credentials but simply act as a transit to forward this data between the AAA server and the supplicant. The supplicant is a component of the authentication, authorization, and accounting server and is the device requesting access, such as a user's PC or laptop. Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service (RADIUS) is a protocol that manages remote and wireless authentication infrastructures and implements AAA. In an authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) configuration, the AAA server is the authentication server positioned within the local network.

Which of the following network standards allows a networking device to provide up to 15.4W of power to a connected device? 802.3af 802.11ac 802.3at 802.11s See all questionsBackSkip question

The network standard that allows a networking device to provide up to 15.4W of power to a connected device is **IEEE 802.3af (PoE or Power over Ethernet)**. IEEE 802.3af is a standard for power delivery over Ethernet cables. It allows compatible devices, such as IP cameras, VoIP phones, and wireless access points, to receive power and data over the same Ethernet cable. The standard provides up to 15.4W of power per port to the connected device, simplifying installations and reducing the need for additional power sources.

73.3% complete Question A network technician uses a switch configuration interface and sees that a port is continually transitioning between up and down states. What does the network technician witness? A.Port flapping B.Slow network speeds C.RSSI D.QoS

The network technician witnesses A. Port flapping. Port flapping occurs when a network port on a switch or router continuously alternates between the up and down states. This can be caused by various issues such as a faulty cable, network misconfigurations, or problems with the connected device, leading to unstable network connectivity.

Which of the following network types would be used to create a dedicated, independent high-speed network to interconnect and share pools of storage devices to multiple servers? WAN MAN SAN WLAN See all questionsBackNext question

The network type used to create a dedicated, independent high-speed network to interconnect and share pools of storage devices to multiple servers is **Storage Area Network (SAN)**. A Storage Area Network (SAN) is a specialized high-speed network that connects storage devices, such as disk arrays, tape libraries, and other storage appliances, to servers. SANs are designed to provide fast, reliable, and scalable access to storage resources. They use various protocols, including Fibre Channel and iSCSI, to establish connections between storage devices and servers. SANs allow multiple servers to access shared storage resources, making them ideal for applications that require large amounts of data storage and fast data access, such as databases, virtualization, and backup solutions.

A hardware technician is inspecting the notches on a dual inline memory module (DIMM) edge. What will the notches on the edge connector help the hardware technician determine? (Select all that apply.) The DDR generation If it is compatible with the slot How to insert it properly If it has a heat sink

The notches on a DIMM's edge connector help the hardware technician identify the double data rate (DDR) generation (DDR3/DDR4/DDR5). The notches on a DIMM's edge connector help prevent the hardware technician from inserting the DIMM into an incompatible slot. The notches on a DIMM's edge connector help prevent the hardware technician from inserting the DIMM into a slot the wrong way around. DDR memory modules, or DIMMs, typically feature heat sinks, due to the use of high clock speeds but that is not relevant to the notches on the DIMM's edge connector.

What is the pinwheel (or Spinning Wheel of Death) on a computer screen? Compare it to a familiar scenario, and explain why it appears on the screen. Additionally, how does it affect the computer's performance?

The pinwheel (or Spinning Wheel of Death) is like a computer's thinking pose. Imagine you're playing a game, and your character needs a moment to plan the next move; the game pauses briefly. Similarly, when the pinwheel appears, it means the computer is busy processing something, like opening a large file or running many programs at once. It affects the computer's performance by slowing down other tasks. While the pinwheel is spinning, the computer might not respond as quickly until it finishes what it's doing.

PSTN

The public switched telephone network (PSTN) is the national and global telecommunications network that has fiber optic cabling at its core.

A hardware technician is purchasing mass storage devices and tells the salesperson that they must use flash memory technology. What type of devices will the salesperson show the technician? HDD SSD RAM CDs

The salesperson will show the technician solid-state drives (SSDs) which use flash memory technology to implement persistent mass storage. Hard disk drives (HDDs) store data on metal or glass platters that have a magnetic coating on them. The drive accesses the top and bottom of each platter by its own read/write head. Random-access memory (RAM) storage technology is nonpersistent. Nonpersistent means that the RAM devices can only hold data when the PC is on. Compact Discs (CDs) are a mainstream storage format for music and video. All types of optical media use a laser to read the data encoded on the disc surface.

86.7% complete Question Company employees access the same resources on the internet many times a day. As such, a network administrator configures a solution that forwards traffic to and from the internet and also caches content to improve performance and reduce bandwidth consumption. What solution is the administrator implementing? A.NAT B.Proxy server C.UTM D.Load balancer

The solution the network administrator is implementing is B. Proxy server. A proxy server acts as an intermediary between the users and the internet. It caches frequently accessed content, which helps improve performance by serving cached content instead of fetching it from the internet every time. Additionally, a proxy server can be configured to filter content, control access, and enhance security for the users accessing the internet.

A student is learning about computer hardware and the instructor selects them to identify the component that executes program instruction code. How should the student respond? CPU RAM Cache HDD

The student should respond with CPU, or central processing unit. The CPU in a computing device executes the program instruction code. Random access memory (RAM) is a space where the computing device loads applications and files so that users can perform operations on that data. Cache is a small block of memory that works at the speed of the CPU or close to it, depending on the cache level. A hard disk drive (HDD) stores data on metal or glass platters coated with a magnetic substance. The top and bottom of each platter has its own read/write head, moved by an actuator mechanism.

A support technician is installing a PCIe card that will use a combination of system memory and dedicated memory. What type of card is the tech installing?

The support technician is installing a graphics adapter, also called a video card. Graphics adapters can have up to 12 GB of dedicated memory and may use a mix of dedicated and shared, or system, memory. Sound cards provide audio playback through speakers or headphones which plug into the card via an audio jack and sound cards also record input from a microphone. Network interface cards (NICs) usually come already installed as part of the motherboard chipset, but a technician may need to upgrade it to use a different type of network or cabling or connector. Technicians can add a Wi-Fi adapter to connect to a wireless network. Manufacturers develop Wi-Fi adapters to different 802.11 standards.

An energy company is strengthening its defenses and wants to look for methods that successfully protect trade secrets by ensuring none of its company computing assets are hijacked by malware. To assist in safeguarding the sensitive information, what can the technician enable to ensure this will not happen? TPM HSM Encryption Secure boot

The technician can configure secure boot which is a unified extensible firmware interface (UEFI) feature designed to prevent malware from hijacking a computer. A trusted platform module (TPM) is a specification for hardware-based storage of digital certificates, cryptographic keys, and hashed passwords. A hardware security module (HSM) is a secure USB key or thumb drive used to store cryptographic material where a user must authenticate before they can access the keys stored on the module. Encryption products make data secure by scrambling it in such a way that only a user with the correct decryption key can subsequently read it.

A technician started a PC and, when the vendor's logo came up, pressed the F10 key. What is the technician doing? Restarting the PC Accessing the system setup program Setting a boot password Enabling secure boot

The technician is accessing the system setup program via a keystroke during the power-on (boot) process when the PC vendor's logo displays. A technician can restart a computer to access the unified extensible firmware interface (UEFI) boot options by shift-clicking the restart button from the Windows logon screen. A boot password requires the user to authenticate before the operating system loads. However, everyone who uses the PC must know the password, which weakens the security considerably. Secure boot is a UEFI feature designed to protect a computer from malware. Under secure boot, the computer firmware has cryptographic keys that can identify trusted code.

0.0% complete Question A technician is implementing a feature that will compare hashes of key system state data during the boot process to ensure that nobody has tampered with the system firmware, boot loader, and OS kernel. What feature is this? HSM TPM Encryption Boot password

The technician is implementing the trusted platform module (TPM) which, during the boot process, compares hashes of key system state data to ensure they have not been tampered with. A hardware security module (HSM) is a secure USB key or thumb drive used to store cryptographic material where a user must authenticate before they can access the keys stored on the module. Encryption products make data secure by scrambling it in such a way that only a user with the correct decryption key can subsequently read it. A boot password requires the user to authenticate before the operating system is loaded. There are usually at least two passwords, though some systems may allow for more.

A network technician is installing a device with an inductor that will copy all the traffic coming through the cable to a monitor port. What type of device is the technician installing? SMF MMF Active TAP Passive TAP

The technician is installing a passive test access point (TAP) which is a box with ports for incoming and outgoing network cabling that physically copies the signal from the cabling to a monitor port. Single-mode fiber (SMF) has a small core (8-10 microns) and carries a long wavelength (1,310 or 1,550 nm) infrared signal, generated by a high-power, highly coherent laser diode. Multi-mode fiber (MMF) has a larger core (62.5 or 50 microns) and carries a shorter wavelength infrared light (850 nm or 1,300 nm). An active TAP is a powered device that performs signal regeneration, which may be necessary for some circumstances.

75.0% complete Question A hardware technician is ordering power supply units (PSUs) for the organization's desktop computers. Most PSUs designed for use with desktop PCs are based on the which form factor? ATX SFF PCIe Mini-ITX

The technician is looking for the PSUs that have the Advanced Technology Extended (ATX) specification as most PSUs designed for use with desktop PCs are based on the ATX form factor. Small form factor (SFF) personal computers are popular as home machines and for use as mini servers and often use Via's Mini-ITX form factor. The peripheral component interconnect express (PCIe) bus uses point-to-point serial communications and is the mainstream interface for modern adapter cards. The Mini-ITX (Information Technology Extended) form factor is appropriate for small form factor (SFF) personal computers which are popular as home machines and for use as mini servers.

45.0% complete Question A hardware technician is upgrading a device with multiple, identical central processing unit (CPU) packages. What class of computer is the technician most likely upgrading? Workstation Mobile Desktop Server

The technician is upgrading a server-class computer. Server motherboards are often multi-socket, meaning that the technician can install multiple, identical CPU packages. Regarding workstation-class PCs, most vendors use the term workstation to mean a high-performance PC, such as one used for software development or graphics/video editing. Many mobiles, such as smartphones, tablets, and laptops, use advanced RISC machine (ARM)-based CPUs and need to prioritize power and thermal efficiency plus weight over pure performance. The desktop segment covers a wide range of performance levels, from budget to gaming PC. These performance levels show up in the CPU manufacturer's ranges.

A technician is upgrading the system firmware on a PC. Which of the following is the technician upgrading? (Select all that apply.) System settings BIOS Secure boot UEFI

The technician is upgrading the basic input/output system (BIOS) which is the system firmware for a PC that only supports 32-bit operation and limited functionality. The technician is upgrading the unified extensible firmware interface (UEFI) which provides support for 64-bit CPU operation at boot and many other functions. Technicians configure system settings via the system firmware setup program. A keystroke accesses the system setup program during the power-on (boot) process. Secure boot is a UEFI feature designed to protect a computer from malware. Under secure boot, the computer firmware has cryptographic keys that can identify trusted code.

A network technician is upgrading the wireless network so that it can take advantage of "multiple input multiple output" (MIMO) to increase reliability and bandwidth. What standard is the technician upgrading the wireless network to? 802.11n 802.11g 802.11b 802.11a

The technician is upgrading the wireless network to 802.11n which uses MIMO to increase reliability and bandwidth by multiplexing signal streams from 2-3 separate antennas. The IEEE 802.11g uses the same encoding mechanism and 54 Mbps rate as 802.11a but in the 2.4 GHz band used by 802.11b and with the same channel layout. The IEEE 802.11b standard uses the 2.4 GHz frequency band, however, the signal encoding methods used by 802.11b are inferior to 802.11a and support a nominal data rate of just 11 Mbps. The IEEE 802.11a standard uses the 5 GHz frequency band only. The data encoding method allows a maximum data rate of 54 Mbps.

A technician is building a new computer for Dion Training. The technician installs the motherboard, processor, memory, hard drives, and case fans, then they attempt to connect the cables to the appropriate connections. Unfortunately, the computer does not successfully complete the POST and the monitor remains blank. what's going on? SATA 15-pin power cable Case fan 4-pin power cable CPU 8-pin power cable Motherboard 24-pin power cable

The technician omitted connecting a crucial component: the CPU power connector. This oversight prevents the computer from completing POST and results in a blank monitor. Establishing the CPU power connection will resolve the issue.

30.0% complete Question A network technician is upgrading a legacy network for a small business and is replacing their legacy hub with a device that learns MAC addresses and uses them to forward frames to only the destination port, rather than sending them out to every port. What kind of device is the technician replacing the hub with? NIC Patch panel PoE Switch

The technician replaces the hub with a switch that tracks MAC addresses for each of its ports and uses learned MAC addresses to forward frames to the destination port only. Each Ethernet network interface card (NIC) port has a unique hardware/physical address, called the "media access control" (MAC) address and Ethernet data identifies the source and destination MAC addresses in a header. In most types of office cabling, a technician connects a computer to a wall port and the cabling running through the walls connects to a patch panel. Power over Ethernet (PoE) is a means of supplying electrical power from a switch port over ordinary data cabling to a powered device (PD).

45.0% complete Question A desktop technician has responded to a user whose computer is running slow. The user claims that nothing was done that would cause the computer to run slow. What should the technician do to try to determine the probable cause of the problem? (Select all that apply.) A.Repair the problem. B.Document the findings. C.Conduct research. D.Question the obvious.

The technician should conduct research to identify or clarify symptoms and possible causes. One of the most useful troubleshooting skills is being able to perform research to find information quickly. The technician should question the obvious as sometimes the simplest things cause seemingly intractable problems. Diagnosis requires both attention to detail and a willingness to be systematic. The technician would not be able to determine if repair is the best option for the issue until after they established a theory and tested it. The technician would document the findings after the issue was corrected. Documenting the findings would give the technician the opportunity to add a complete description of the problem and its solution.

An inkjet printer is printing images and text at an angle, and sometimes they don't print at all. Which of the following would a technician perform to align a printer?

The technician should first calibrate the printer and perform a print test. Usually, it aligns the print heads during calibration and prints out a test page with a code for the user to enter and print another test page to ensure it is properly aligned. A printer that has alignment problems will not print documents accurately. Images and text can print at an angle, or they may not print at all. Your printer can become misaligned if there is any paper stuck in the machine, print cartridges are clogged or dirty, improper installation of cartridges, and using low-quality cartridges.

A support technician needs to install an optical disk drive in a new tower. Which panel should be removed so that the technician can gain access to the optical drive and connect the cables? Through the top panel Through the side panel Through the rear panel Through the bottom of the rear panel

The technician will be able to hook up the optical media drive through the side panel. A tower case has a side cover that a technician can remove by sliding the panel from its housing. Although some tower computers have top panels, they are primarily used for various controls such as power. Top panels are not used for the installation of optical disks. The rear panel provides access to the power supply unit (PSU) sockets. The PSU has an integral fan exhaust. At the bottom of the rear panel there are cutout slots aligned with the position of adapter card slots to allow cables to connect to any input/output (I/O) ports on the cards.

A user started a brand-new Windows computer and received a "boot device not found" error. When the technician inspects it, what will they suspect the problem is? POST BSOD GPT Pinwheel

The technician will suspect the problem is with the GPT as this is a modern boot scheme where the boot information is not on a single sector but still identifies partitions and OS boot loaders. POST, a power-on self-test, is a diagnostic program implemented in the system firmware that checks the hardware to ensure the components required to boot are present and functioning correctly. This is a diagnostic method, not a potential cause for boot errors. A Windows system will display a blue screen of death (BSOD) to indicate that there is a system memory fault, a hardware device/driver fault, or corruption of operating system files. A macOS system that suffers catastrophic process failure shows a spinning pinwheel (of death), also called a spinning wait cursor.

A support technician needs to connect the USB port on a portable monitor to an HDMI port on a laptop to extend the laptop's display. What kind of cable will the technician use to accomplish this?

The technician will use an adapter cable to connect the HDMI port on the laptop with a USB port on the monitor. An adapter cable has connectors for two different cable types at each end. A small computer system interface (SCSI) can connect both internal devices and external peripherals, such as scanners and printers, but must enable termination on the first and last devices in the chain. An extended integrated drive electronics (EIDE) cable typically has three color-coded connectors and was the principal mass storage interface for desktop PCs for many years. A digital visual interface (DVI) supports both analog and digital outputs. DVI is likely to be encountered on older display devices and video cards.

A network technician needs to deploy a computer on an Ethernet network and notices that the computer will sit on a shelf directly under a fluorescent light. What type of cable will the technician use? STP UTP Coax Fiber optic

The technician will use shielded twisted pair (STP) which provides extra protection against interferences in environments with high levels of external interference, such as fluorescent lighting. Unshielded twisted pair (UTP) contains four copper conductor wire pairs each twisted at a different rate from the other pairs which reduces interference. Coaxial (coax) cable is a different type of copper cabling that also carries electrical signals. Technicians mostly use it for CCTV installations, Cable Access TV (CATV), and broadband cable modems. Fiber optic cable is considered one of the fasted means of data communication as it consists of an ultra-fine core of glass that conveys light pulses.

A desktop technician was troubleshooting a computer that would not connect to the network and suspected that the network interface card (NIC) was not working. However, when the technician tested the NIC, it was working. What will the technician do next? Establish a new theory. Implement a plan of action. Test the theory. Implement preventive measures.

The technician would establish a new theory as the tests they made or research they conducted proved that their original theory was incorrect. Once the technician had a reliable theory of probable cause, then they would need to implement a plan of action by repairing or replacing the equipment or implementing a workaround. The technician cannot test the theory until after they have established a new theory about why the computer cannot connect to the network. The technician would implement preventive measures after they corrected the issue. This means eliminating any factors that could cause the problem to reoccur.

What does the term 'BSOD' (Blue Screen of Death) refer to in the context of computer errors? Provide a simple analogy to explain the concept. Additionally, specify that a typical BSOD error can display hexadecimal codes such as '0x000000F4.' Why are these codes significant in diagnosing the computer problem?

The term 'BSOD' (Blue Screen of Death) refers to a serious error screen displayed on a computer when it encounters a critical problem. It's like when you're reading a book, and suddenly all the pages turn blue, indicating something went wrong with the story. A typical BSOD error can display hexadecimal codes such as '0x000000F4.' These codes are significant because they provide specific information about the nature of the problem. Just like a secret code, computer experts can interpret these hexadecimal numbers to diagnose the exact issue, allowing them to find a solution more effectively.

Which of the following components of a color laser printer is used to combine the 4 colors before printing them to the paper in one pass? Pickup roller Transfer belt Duplexing assembly Transfer roller

The transfer belt is the component in a color laser printer that combines the 4 colors before printing it to the paper in one pass. The transfer roller is the component in a laser printer that applies an electric charge to the paper to attract toner from the photoconductor during the imaging process. The pickup roller is the component in a laser printer that turns above a stack of paper to feed a sheet into the feed roller. The duplexing assembly is a component that enables a printer or scanner to use both sides of a page automatically.

0.0% complete Question A network technician troubleshoots an issue where the video conferencing system keeps freezing up and dropping out. The technician determines that signal is not being processed fast enough to meet the streaming requirement. What is this type of issue known as? A.Latency B.VoIP C.QoS D.Jitter

The type of issue described, where the video conferencing system freezes up and drops out due to signals not being processed fast enough, is known as **A. Latency**. Latency refers to the delay between the sender and receiver during data communication. In the context of video conferencing or streaming, high latency can cause disruptions and affect the quality of the communication.

Question A hardware technician is purchasing more servers for an organization and needs to ensure the power supply units in the data center have the correct output to support them. What is a power supply unit's output capability measured as? Power Voltage Energy star Wattage rating

The wattage rating is the measurement of the power supply unit's output capability. Servers have units rated over 300 W to meet the demands of multiple CPUs, additional memory modules, etc. Power is the rate at which things generate or use energy and scientists measure it in watts (W) and calculate it for electrical components as voltage multiplied by current (V*I). Voltage is the difference in potential between two points in an electric field and voltage multiplied by current (V*I) calculates power. Energy Star is a model for determining efficiencies and electric consumption but is not associated with determining the output capability of a PSU.

Which of the following statements regarding modern connectors and ports is untrue? They use edge contacts. They use internal connection points. They sometimes use keying. They can be reversible.

They use internal connection points. An input/output (I/O) port is the external connection point for a particular type of bus interface and the connector is the part of a peripheral cable that inserts into a port with the same shape. Most connectors and input/output ports now use edge contacts that connect the cable wires to the circuit boards. A lot of available connectors and ports have an asymmetric design called keying to prevent users from inserting them the wrong way around. A reversible connector is a connector that can be inserted into a socket in either orientation. The most typical variations of reversible connectors are Apple's Lighting connector and USB Type C.

What is OFDMA, and how does it help Wi-Fi work better?

Think of OFDMA as a way for Wi-Fi to talk to lots of devices all at the same time, like having a big group chat. It divides the conversation into smaller pieces, so everyone can talk and listen without interrupting each other. This helps your Wi-Fi handle many devices, like your smart TV, phone, and smart home gadgets, without getting confused or slow.

A hardware technician is working on a new desktop with memory that can send 128 bits of data per transfer rather than 64 bits. What is this referred to as? Single channel Dual channel Triple channel Quadruple channel

This is a dual channel memory controller as there are effectively two 64-bit pathways through the bus to the central processing unit (CPU) meaning that each transfer can send 128 bits of data. Single-channel memory means that there is one 64-bit data bus between the CPU, memory controller, and random access memory (RAM) devices. In triple channel memory controllers, if the system does not have the full complement of modules, it will revert to the number of populated channels. Some CPUs and supporting chipsets have quadruple channel memory controllers. In this architecture, the system will only use the populated channels.

Dion Training has just installed a brand new email server. Which of the following DNS records would need to be created to allow the new server to receive email on behalf of diontraining.com? CNAME MX PTR A See all questionsBackSkip question

To allow the new email server to receive emails on behalf of the domain "diontraining.com," the following DNS records need to be created: 1. **MX (Mail Exchange) Record:** An MX record specifies the mail server responsible for receiving email messages on behalf of the domain. In this case, an MX record for "diontraining.com" needs to be created, pointing to the hostname of the new email server. The MX record also includes a priority value, indicating the order in which email servers should be used if multiple MX records exist for the domain. Example MX Record: ``` diontraining.com. IN MX 10 mail.diontraining.com. ``` In this example, "mail.diontraining.com" is the hostname of the new email server, and the priority is set to 10. Lower numbers have higher priority, so if there are multiple MX records, email servers will attempt to deliver emails to the server with the lowest priority first. 2. **A (Address) Record (Optional):** It's also common to create an A record for the mail server's hostname to map it to its IP address. This provides the IP address associated with the mail server's hostname specified in the MX record. Example A Record (if required): ``` mail.diontraining.com. IN A 203.0.113.1 ``` In this example, "203.0.113.1" represents the IP address of the mail server. These DNS records, specifically the MX record, ensure that emails sent to addresses ending with "@diontraining.com" are directed to the correct mail server, allowing the server to receive emails on behalf of the domain.

An employee at Dion Consulting is configuring their Android smartphone to synchronize their email with their corporate Office 365 account. What type of credentials will the employee need? Domain Name Mail Protocols Email and Password Authentication code

To configure the email client on an Android device with an Office 365 account, the employee will need their email and password. Since Office 365 is a mainstream service, it is well supported on both Android and iPhone smartphones. If your company is running its own email servers, though, then you would be required to enter the domain name, appropriate mail protocols, and authentication codes.

Your office has a legacy wide-format printer that must be connected to your network. The connection on the printer is an older DB-9 serial connection. What is the BEST option for connecting this legacy device to your corporate network? Configure a reverse proxy on the printer as a DNS workaround Purchase an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter so that you can connect it to the network Purchase a wireless print server and connect it to the printer via USB Purchase an inexpensive RS-232 to USB adapter to connect it the network See all questionsBackNext question

To connect a legacy wide-format printer with a DB-9 serial connection to a modern corporate network, the best option is to use a **serial-to-Ethernet converter**. These devices, also known as serial device servers, convert serial signals to Ethernet signals, allowing the printer to communicate over the network. Here's how it works: 1. **Serial-to-Ethernet Converter:** - **Explanation:** The serial-to-Ethernet converter is a small device that connects to the printer's DB-9 serial port on one end and to the network via an Ethernet cable on the other end. - **Functionality:** The converter converts the printer's serial signals into data packets that can be transmitted over Ethernet. - **Network Integration:** Once connected, the wide-format printer can communicate with the network just like any other networked device. It will have its own IP address and can be accessed and managed over the network. Using a serial-to-Ethernet converter is the most efficient and practical way to integrate legacy devices with serial connections into modern Ethernet-based corporate networks.

Dion Training has a single switch that services every room within its offices. The switch contains 48 ports, but Jason wants to divide the ports based on functional areas, such as web development, instruction support, and administration. Which technology should Jason utilize to divide the physical switch into three logically divided areas? DSL VLAN NAT VPN See all questionsBackNext question

To divide the physical switch into three logically separated areas for web development, instruction support, and administration, **Virtual LANs (VLANs)** should be utilized. VLANs allow a network administrator to create multiple virtual networks within a single physical switch. Each VLAN operates as if it is its own independent network, even though devices on different VLANs might be physically connected to the same switch. By configuring VLANs, Jason can logically segregate the network traffic of different functional areas, ensuring that devices in one VLAN cannot directly communicate with devices in another VLAN, thus improving security and network management.

Tim, a help desk technician, receives a call from a frantic executive who states that their company-issued smartphone was stolen during their lunch meeting with a rival company's executive. Tim quickly checks the MDM administration tool and identifies that the user's smartphone is still communicating with the MDM, and displays its location on a map. What should Tim do next to ensure the stolen device's data remains confidential and inaccessible to the thief? Reset the device's password Perform a remote wipe of the device Remotely encrypt the device Identify the IP address of the smartphone

To ensure the data remains confidential and is not accessed by the thief, Tim should perform a remote wipe of the device from the MDM. This will ensure any corporate data is erased before anyone accesses it. Additionally, Tim could reset the device's password, but if the thief can guess or crack the password, they would have access to the data.

Mnemonic for CompTIA A+ Troubleshooting Model:

To help remember the steps, you can use the mnemonic: "I Eat Tacos Every Tuesday Very Delicious." Identify the Problem Establish a Theory of Probable Cause Test the Theory to Determine Cause Establish a Plan of Action to Resolve the Problem Implement the Solution or Escalate as Necessary Test the Full System Functionality and Implement Preventive Measures Document Findings, Actions, and Outcomes

Your office is located in a small office park, and you are installing a new wireless network access point for your employees. The companies in the adjacent offices are using Wireless B/G/N routers in the 2.4 GHz spectrum. Your security system uses the 5 GHz spectrum, so you have purchased a 2.4 GHz wireless access point to ensure you don't cause interference with the security system. To maximize the distance between channels, which set of channels should you configure for use on your access points? 1, 7, 13 3, 6, 9 2, 6, 10 1, 6, 11 See all questionsBackSkip question

To maximize the distance between channels and reduce interference in a 2.4 GHz spectrum, you should configure your wireless access points to use non-overlapping channels. In the 2.4 GHz spectrum, channels 1, 6, and 11 are the only non-overlapping channels. By using channels 1, 6, and 11, you can minimize interference with adjacent networks while maximizing the available channels for your own network. Here's how you can configure the channels for your wireless access points: 1. **Access Point 1:** Configure it to use **Channel 1**. 2. **Access Point 2:** Configure it to use **Channel 6**. 3. **Access Point 3:** Configure it to use **Channel 11**. By using non-overlapping channels, you ensure that the frequencies used by your access points do not interfere with each other or with neighboring networks, allowing for optimal performance and reduced interference.

What is the purpose of the BIOS/UEFI in the POST process?

To provide instructions for hardware initialization

Dion Training is installing a new CAT 6 network for their office building. The technician ran out of connectors for the cables and sent their assistant to the store to buy more. Which of the following types of connectors should they purchase to terminate the CAT 6 cables? F type RJ-11 RJ-45 SC See all questionsBackNext question

To terminate CAT 6 cables, the appropriate connectors are **RJ45 connectors** specifically designed for CAT 6 cabling. When purchasing connectors for terminating CAT 6 cables, it's essential to ensure they are compatible with the CAT 6 standard to maintain the cable's performance and data integrity. Using connectors that are not designed for CAT 6 cables may result in reduced network performance.

13.3% complete Question A video production company uses removable media to transport multimedia files to partner and customer sites. Often, the media has to be prepared with only very short notice. In the past, the time taken to transfer files from the development workstations has resulted in delays and missed appointments. To mitigate this issue, the company has procured USB 3.2 Gen 2x2 storage devices and Windows PC workstation expansion cards. The devices and expansion cards support multiple USB hardware port types. Which of the following adapter cables will enable the devices to take full advantage of the highest transfer rate? Type A to Type A with USB 3 compatibility (denoted by a blue tab) Type B Micro to Type A with USB 3 compatibility (denoted by a blue tab) Lightning to Type A Type C to Type C

Type C to Type C

1 Beep:

Typically indicates a successful POST, signaling that the computer is ready to "Get It Done."

What are UEFI and GPT, and how do they differ in the context of modern computers? Provide a simplified explanation of each term. Additionally, why are UEFI and GPT significant improvements over their predecessors, BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) and MBR (Master Boot Record) respectively? How do they enhance the performance and functionality of modern computer systems?

UEFI, or Unified Extensible Firmware Interface, is like a computer's modern brain. It's a smarter and more flexible system that helps your computer start up. Think of it as a super-organized checklist that ensures all computer parts are ready before you use it. On the other hand, GPT, or GUID Partition Table, is like a digital map inside your computer. It organizes all your files, making it easier for the computer to find and use them. It's similar to how a librarian keeps track of books in a library, making sure each book is in the right place. UEFI is a significant improvement over BIOS because it's faster, more secure, and can handle larger hard drives. It's like upgrading from an old bicycle to a sleek, high-speed sports car. Similarly, GPT is an upgrade from MBR. GPT can manage bigger hard drives and supports more partitions. It's like having a much bigger and well-organized bookshelf where you can store more books without getting cluttered. Together, UEFI and GPT enhance the performance and functionality of modern computers. UEFI ensures a quicker and more secure startup process, while GPT enables efficient data organization, allowing for larger and more complex storage systems. Their improvements make modern computers faster, more reliable, and capable of handling larger amounts of data, ultimately providing a better user experience.

Describe the differences in data transfer rates between USB, USB-C, and Bluetooth connections. How does each technology contribute to efficient data transfer on mobile devices?

USB 3.0, USB-C, and Bluetooth 5.0 Speed Specs: USB 3.0 boasts a maximum transfer rate of 5 Gbps, ensuring swift data transfers. USB-C, the versatile warrior, offers up to 10 Gbps. Bluetooth 5.0, the wireless sprinter, achieves data rates of 2 Mbps, focusing on efficiency and low energy usage. Each specification caters to specific needs; USB for rapid transfers, USB-C for versatility, and Bluetooth for energy efficiency.

Compare the power efficiency of VA displays with OLED displays. How does each technology manage power consumption, especially in mobile devices with limited battery life?

VA and OLED Power Specs: Varying Approaches! VA displays typically consume around 30-40 watts per square meter, balancing power efficiency with performance. OLEDs, with their self-emissive pixels, consume minimal power, often around 100 milliwatts per square meter. OLEDs are the Energy-efficient Champions, ensuring long battery life for your mobile devices.

Question: How does a WAN differ from a LAN in terms of coverage area and scale? Describe the technologies commonly used in WANs to connect geographically distant networks, and provide examples of WAN applications in real-world scenarios.

WAN (Wide Area Network):Answer: WANs are the Wild, Expansive Oceans of Networking! Imagine WANs as vast, roaring seas connecting continents. It's like the world's most extensive highway system, linking cities, countries, and even continents. WANs use technologies like undersea cables and satellites, enabling global connections that span the Earth's surface.

Question: What is a WLAN, and how does it differ from traditional wired LANs? Explain the key components of WLANs, including access points and wireless clients. What are the security challenges specific to WLANs, and how are they addressed?

WLAN (Wireless Local Area Network):Answer: WLANs are the Whimsical, Liberated Auras of Networking! Envision WLANs as magical, invisible threads weaving through the air. It's like a symphony of signals, connecting devices wirelessly. Think of WLANs as digital fairies, granting the freedom to roam while staying connected - a whimsical dance of data without the constraints of wires.

What describes an IPv6 address of ::1?

What describes an IPv6 address of ::1?

A technician started up a computer and the power-on self-test (POST) issued a short beep. What does this indicate? Motherboard problem Faulty speaker Normal POST POST error

When POST runs and issues one short beep, this indicates a normal POST, and the system is OK. However, manufacturers configure most modern PCs to boot silently. POST will indicate a motherboard problem with either no beep, repeating short beeps, or one long beep followed by a short beep. When there is a faulty speaker, the power-on self-test will indicate this with no beeps because the speaker is not working. If the power-on self-test runs but detects a problem, it generates two short beeps and shows an error message on the screen.

When an employee prints to a newly installed printer, the printed pages only have a few characters on each page. What type of error is this? Print quality issue Garbled print issue Printer connectivity issue Print spooler issue

When a printer prints multiple blank pages or pages with only a few characters on them, this is garbled printing. This commonly occurs because of a missing or incorrect print driver. A print quality issue occurs when a job prints but the output is smudged, faded, or arrives with unusual marks. A printer connectivity issue might arise either because the device cannot be located when trying to install it or because the OS reports an installed device is offline or unavailable. If the printer is online, but multiple jobs are queued and a job cannot be deleted, this is a symptom of a print spooler issue. A restart of the print spooler service may be required.

You are configuring a print server on the network. Which type of IP address should you configure it with? Dynamic APIPA Link-local Static See all questionsBackSkip question

When configuring a print server on a network, it's typically advisable to assign it a **static IP address** rather than using DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol). A static IP address is manually configured for the print server, ensuring that it always has the same IP address every time it connects to the network. Assigning a static IP address to the print server offers several benefits: 1. **Stability:** A static IP address ensures the print server always has a consistent and stable network address, allowing other devices to reliably connect to it. 2. **Simplifies Configuration:** Devices on the network, such as computers and printers, can easily find and connect to the print server using a fixed IP address, simplifying the configuration process. 3. **Avoids IP Address Conflicts:** With a static IP address, there is no risk of IP address conflicts, where two devices on the network have the same IP address, potentially causing connectivity issues. 4. **Easier Troubleshooting:** Having a known, fixed IP address makes troubleshooting network-related issues with the print server more straightforward. When assigning a static IP address, ensure that it falls within the appropriate IP address range of your network and does not conflict with any other devices or servers on the network.

An organization that does not support the autodiscovery feature for email servers is deploying new phones to its team. A user is configuring their email server on their new device. What options could the user enter in the incoming mail server field to implement a proper configuration? (Select all that apply.) FQDN IP address SMTP server address Ports

When configuring corporate email, the user will enter the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) or IP address of the Internet Mail Access Protocol (IMAP) or Post Office Protocol (POP3) server. When configuring corporate email, the user will enter the IP address or the FQDN of the Internet Mail Access Protocol (IMAP) or Post Office Protocol (POP3) server. When configuring corporate email, the user will enter the address of the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) server in the outgoing mail server field. When configuring corporate email, the secure (TLS enabled) or unsecured ports used for IMAP, POP3, and SMTP would normally be set to default.

A computer technician is replacing a failed power supply in a customer's gaming workstation that contains multiple hard drives and a dedicated graphics card. Which of the following are the two most important things for the technician to consider when selecting a power supply replacement for this system? (Select TWO)

When selecting a power supply for a gaming workstation with multiple hard drives and a dedicated graphics card, the two most important factors to consider are: Wattage (Power Output): The power supply must have a sufficient wattage rating to support all the components in the system, including the dedicated graphics card, CPU, RAM, hard drives, and any additional peripherals. It's crucial to calculate the total power requirements of the components and choose a power supply with a wattage rating that meets or exceeds these requirements. Having an adequate power supply ensures stable power delivery and prevents issues like system crashes or component failures. Amperage on the +12V Rail(s): Modern graphics cards, especially high-performance ones used in gaming workstations, require a significant amount of power through the +12V rail(s) of the power supply. It's important to check the amperage rating on the +12V rail(s) and ensure it meets the requirements of the graphics card.

You just configured your iPhone to connect to your car's stereo over Bluetooth to play your favorite podcasts while driving to work. What type of network did you create between your iPhone and your car? PAN LAN SAN WAN See all questionsBackNext question

When you configured your iPhone to connect to your car's stereo over Bluetooth, you established a **personal area network (PAN)** between your iPhone and your car. A PAN is a small network for personal devices within a range of an individual person, typically within a range of a few meters. Bluetooth technology is commonly used to create PANs because it allows devices like smartphones to connect wirelessly to other devices, such as car stereos, headphones, or speakers, forming a local network for personal use. In this case, the PAN enables your iPhone to stream podcasts to your car's stereo system without the need for physical cables.

40.0% complete Question A company hired a network technician to manage the part of their network that is based on the 802.11 standard. What type of network will the technician be managing? LAN Wi-Fi MAN WAN

Wi-Fi

What's special about Wi-Fi 5, and how is it different from older Wi-Fi?

Wi-Fi 5 is like a really fast and efficient highway for your internet data. It can carry more cars (data) at once and lets them drive faster. So, when you're streaming videos on your laptop or playing games on your console, Wi-Fi 5 helps make sure everything runs smoothly without any buffering or lagging.

What's cool about Wi-Fi 6, and how is it better than Wi-Fi 5?

Wi-Fi 6 is like a super smart Wi-Fi that can juggle lots of tasks at once. It's faster and can handle more devices than Wi-Fi 5. It's like having a bigger, faster highway for your internet traffic. So, when you're playing games on your console, your sister is video calling, and your parents are streaming movies, Wi-Fi 6 makes sure everyone's internet works really, really well, even if everyone is doing something different!

John connected his MacBook to the corporate network and is trying to print to the office's large network printer. John notices that the print job is failing to print. The other employees in the office are having no issues printing from their Windows workstations. Which of the following should be done to resolve John's issue?

You should install the print drivers for OS X (macOS) on the print server to ensure compatibility with MacBooks and iMac devices. Since the Windows users can print to the network printer without any issues, the printer and the network are working properly. Instead, the most likely explanation is that the print server does not have the print drivers for OS X (macOS) installed on it.

Setting a Boot Password:

[first]to access the BIOS/UEFI setup program, restart your PC. During the boot process, you need to press a specific key. Common keys include 'F2', 'F10', 'F12', or the 'Delete' key. The correct key to access BIOS/UEFI is usually displayed on the screen briefly during startup. Once you press the correct key, you'll enter the BIOS/UEFI setup menu. [step 2] Action: To set a boot password, first, access the BIOS/UEFI setup program using the steps mentioned above. Inside the setup menu, look for security or boot options. The exact location of this setting can vary between different BIOS/UEFI versions. Once you find the appropriate menu, you can set a boot password. Follow the on-screen prompts to create a password. This password will be required every time the computer starts up.

Enabling Secure Boot:

[first]to access the BIOS/UEFI setup program, restart your PC. During the boot process, you need to press a specific key. Common keys include 'F2', 'F10', 'F12', or the 'Delete' key. The correct key to access BIOS/UEFI is usually displayed on the screen briefly during startup. Once you press the correct key, you'll enter the BIOS/UEFI setup menu. [step 2] Action: To set a boot password, first, access the BIOS/UEFI setup program using the steps mentioned above. Inside the setup menu, look for security or boot options. The exact location of this setting can vary between different BIOS/UEFI versions. Once you find the appropriate menu, you can set a boot password. Follow the on-screen prompts to create a password. This password will be required every time the computer starts up. [step 3]Action: Secure Boot is a feature in the BIOS/UEFI firmware that ensures only digitally signed operating system loaders and drivers are allowed to load during the boot process. To enable Secure Boot, access the BIOS/UEFI setup program using the steps mentioned earlier. Look for the Secure Boot option, usually located in the Boot or Security section of the menu. Select the option and enable Secure Boot. Save your changes and exit the BIOS/UEFI setup program. Please note that Secure Boot requires UEFI firmware and a compatible operating system.

You are troubleshooting an older wireless network that is running Wireless G (802.11g). This network appears to have a lot of collisions and interference. You look up the configuration on two of the three access points in the areas and see they are using Channel 11 and Channel 6. To prevent interference and ensure non-overlapping of the channels, what channel should the third access point utilize? Channel 1 Channel 2 Channel 3 Channel 4

channel one

0.0% complete Question A cloud service provider is taking advantage of software-defined networking (SDN) to allow customers to provision and deprovision cloud resources on-demand. Which layer of SDN does the SDN controller operate on? API Infrastructure Application Control In software defined

control In software-defined networking (SDN), the SDN controller operates at the Control layer. The SDN controller is responsible for managing the flow control to the networking devices (such as switches and routers) and communicates with the SDN application layer and the underlying network infrastructure. It enables the centralized control of the network, allowing for efficient provisioning and management of resources based on the needs of applications and users. In this situation, the SDN controller is like a smart manager who can change how devices in the web connect with each other. It's like having a remote control for your Wi-Fi that lets you decide which devices can talk to each other and how they communicate. So, the SDN controller operates at the 'Control layer,' making it possible for you to manage your network better.

Routers, and not switches

forward packets over the WAN (Internet) interface if they do not have a local destination IP address.

A hardware technician is scanning a computer's non-volatile storage devices for errors and infections. Which of the following will the technician include in the scanning? (Select all that apply.) Hard disk drives Solid-state drives Random access memory Mass storage devices

he technician will include hard disk drives in their scanning. Hard disk drives are non-volatile storage that store data on metal or glass platters coated with a magnetic substance. The technician will include solid-state drives in their scanning. Solid-state drives are non-volatile storage that use flash memory technology to implement persistent mass storage. Non-volatile storage devices, or mass storage devices, hold data when the system is off. Mass storage devices use magnetic, optical, or solid-state technology to store data. Random-access memory (RAM) storage technology is nonpersistent. Nonpersistent means that the RAM devices can only hold data when the PC is on.

Which of the following is a connection-oriented protocol that utilizes TCP?

https

You are working as part of a PC refresh team installing 150 desktop computers in Dion Training's new offices. When you boot up the 72nd desktop you installed, you smell a foul-smelling chemical odor. You sniff the air again and confirm the smell isn't a burning smell. Upon opening the case, which component should you inspect for damage and expect to replace? System fan Motherboard Power supply GPU

motherboard

A cybersecurity analyst wants to install a network appliance to conduct packet capturing of the network traffic between the router and the firewall on the network. The device should not be installed in line with the network, so it must receive a copy of all traffic flowing to or from the firewall. Which of the following tools is required to meet these requirements?

network tap

Which of the following wireless networking technologies is commonly used to conduct contactless payment using a smartphone or smartwatch? Wi-Fi Bluetooth Microwave NFC

nfc,Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another.

Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area? USB connector Audio connector PATA connector Front panel connector See all questionsBackSkip question

pata connector

www.example.com could be 203.0.113.45. this is an example of a ____ Address

public address

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP

the SMTP server of the sender discovers the IP address of the recipient SMTP server by using the domain name part of the recipient's email address.

A modem, versus a switch, connects

to the service provider cabling and transfers frames over the link. The modem type must be matched to the network type (ADSL, VDSL, or cable).

When using a laser printer, what is used to transfer the image to a piece of paper? Ink Ribbon Toner Filament

toner

Which of the following refers to using virtual machines as a method of provisioning workstations for corporate users?

vdi OBJ-4.1: Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) refers to using a VM as a means of provisioning corporate desktops. In a typical VDI, desktop computers are replaced by low-spec, low-power thin client computers. When the thin client starts, it boots a minimal OS, allowing the user to log on to a VM stored on the company server or cloud infrastructure. The user connects to the VM using some remote desktop protocol (Microsoft Remote Desktop or Citrix ICA, for instance).