COMPTIAA+ 220-902 - DOMAIN 1.0 - WINDOWS OPERATING SYSTEMS
1-84. Which of the following would not meet the minimum requirements for the 32-bit version of Windows 8.1? A. 15 GB of drive space B. 1 GHz processor C. 1 GB of RAM D. DirectX 9 graphics device
Answer: A. 15 GB of drive space The 32-bit version of Windows 8.1 requires a 1 GHz processor, 1 GB of memory, 16 GB of free storage space, and a DirectX 9 graphics device.
1-85. What is the maximum amount of RAM supported by the 32-bit version of Windows 7 Professional? A. 4 GB B. 8 GB C. 16 GB D. 192 GB
Answer: A. 4 GB The 32-bit version of Windows 7 Professional supports up to 4 GB of memory, and the 64-bit version supports up to 192 GB of RAM.
1-67. Your company's security team has announced the rollout of a new VPN for each laptop in the organization. What will this VPN provide? A. A secure network channel back to the corporate office when traveling outside the building B. Additional encryption mechanisms for data stored on the hard drive C. New security options for USB and other external storage devices D. An additional dongle that provides random numbers to use during the login process
Answer: A. A secure network channel back to the corporate office when traveling outside the building A Virtual Private Network provides an encrypted tunnel of information between two points. This allows you to send private information over public networks without the worry of someone examining the data.
1-70. Which of these Windows 7 functions contain a consolidated view of alerts, an overview of OS features, and a color coded status display? A. Action Center B. Event Viewer C. Security Center D. Device Manager
Answer: A. Action Center In Windows 7 and 8/8.1, all of the scattered alerts and information features have been consolidated into the Control Panel's Action Center.
1-87. Which of these can be used in a Windows Firewall rule? A. Application name B. NTFS permission C. Username D. UAC setting E. Workgroup name
Answer: A. Application name The Windows Firewall can define rules based on application, port number, and many other criteria.
1-45. Which of the following will launch the Windows command line? A. CMD B. PROMPT C. CMD64 D. COMMAND32
Answer: A. CMD The CMD command launches the Windows Command Prompt.
1-69. Which of these utilities would be the best choice for managing COM+ apps? A. Component Services B. Computer Management C. Command Prompt D. Computer Registry
Answer: A. Component Services The Windows Component Services utility is designed to help you support the distributed Component Object Model applications. In the Component Services utility, you'll find Component Service configurations, integrated Event Viewer, and access to Windows Services management.
1-43. Which of the following would be the best way to remove a feature of the Windows operating system? A. Control Panel / Programs and Features B. The Windows setup utility C. Windows Safe Mode D. Control Panel / System E. Control Panel / Administrator Tools / Uninstall
Answer: A. Control Panel / Programs and Features The Programs and Features applet in the Control Panel can be used to install or remove 3rd-party applications, and it can also be used to add or remove specific Windows features.
1-2. In Windows 7, where would you make a change to a user's certificate information? A. Control Panel / User Accounts B. Administrative Tools / Global Security Policy C. Administrative Tools / Device Manager D. Control Panel / Certificate Manager
Answer: A. Control Panel / User Accounts The User Accounts Control Panel applet allows you to configure user-specific information such as the account name, type, password, picture, and certificate.
1-92. Which of these are most associated with CHKDSK? Pick two. A. Corrects file system errors B. Provides S.M.A.R.T. error reports C. Rebuilds the boot sector D. Checks every disk sector for physical errors
Answer: A. Corrects file system errors and D. Checks every disk sector for physical errors The CHKDSK command can be configured to identify and repair any file system errors, and can optionally scan every sector on a drive for physical issues.
1-51. What is the fundamental purpose of a network proxy? A. Creates a functional separation between users and the Internet B. Increases bandwidth capacity of network communication C. Routes network traffic between subnets D. Encrypts traffic between users and a remote location
Answer: A. Creates a functional separation between users and the Internet A proxy is designed to limit direct access between users and Internet sites by terminating the user's network connections on the proxy. The proxy then completes the request and sends the results to the end user. Since the proxy is always in the middle of the connection, there's no possible way for users and Internet sites to directly communicate with each other.
1-32. Which of these can be used to launch the Windows Task Manager? Pick two. A. Ctrl-Shift-Esc B. Right-click the task bar and choose "Task Manager" C. Ctrl-Alt-Esc D. Start menu / Control Panel / Task Manager
Answer: A. Ctrl-Shift-Esc and B. Right-click the task bar and choose "Task Manager" The Task Manager is one of the most useful real-time utilities that you'll use. You can also type Ctrl-Alt-Del and select Task Manager to launch the utility.
1-37. You've recently purchased a used hard drive for your desktop computer. After installing the drive, you notice that the drive has not been erased and it already has an existing partition. Which of these Windows utilities can be used to examine the details of the disk and its partitions? A. Disk Management B. CHKDSK C. Device Manager D. Event Viewer
Answer: A. Disk Management There are a number of command line utilities that can help gather information about a hard drive, but the best option from these answers is the graphical Windows Disk Management utility. The incorrect answers: B) CHKDSK - The CHKDSK program is used to examine a drive for logical and physical errors. C) Device Manager - The device manager can confirm the installation of the hard drive and display some hardware information, but it doesn't show any detailed partition information. D) Event Viewer - The event viewer would have messages if the disk wasn't working properly, but it doesn't display the disk details.
1-42. Which of these tasks would be the best choice for the Windows Disk Management utility? A. Extend the size of a partition B. Eject a removable storage device C. Defragment a hard drive D. Rebuild a disk's master boot record
Answer: A. Extend the size of a partition The Windows Disk Management utility can perform many administrative disk functions, such as mounting drives, changing drive letters, modifying partition sizes, and much more.
1-89. Which of these features would you find in Windows Firewall with Advanced Security? A. Inbound and outbound port-based filtering B. Malware filtering C. Web-site filtering by URL D. Virus filtering
Answer: A. Inbound and outbound port-based filtering The Windows firewall can filtering traffic by application, direction, port number, and many other criteria.
1-5. Which of the following features are included with all editions of Windows 8.1? A. Integrated anti-virus and anti-malware B. Support for BitLocker C. Group Policy support D. Support for joining Windows Domains E. Integrated EFS file encryption
Answer: A. Integrated anti-virus and anti-malware Windows Defender is Microsoft's integrated anti-virus and anti-malware application, and it's included free with all editions of Windows 8.1.
1-80. Which of these methods would be the best way to determine if you can upgrade from Windows Vista to Windows 7? A. Run the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor B. Refer to the computer manufacturer's web site C. Run Windows 7 Setup and follow the prompts D. Use MSCONFIG to inventory the computer
Answer: A. Run the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor The Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor will inventory the hardware and software running on your computer and will determine if any issues may occur if there's an upgrade to Windows 7.
1-46. Which Windows feature can create a backup that contains different versions of the same file? A. System Protection B. Task Manager C. Windows Defender D. System Restore E. User Account Control
Answer: A. System Protection Windows System Protection is the feature that not only can revert your system to a previous system configuration, but it can also maintain different versions of your files. You can enable System Protection in Control Panel / System / System Protection tab.
1-95. You have just installed a new application on your Windows 7 computer and you've rebooted to complete the setup process. Unfortunately, your system hangs immediately after login at a black screen. The only way to gain control of the system is to power cycle the computer. Which of these tools would provide the easiest way to return your computer to its previous configuration? A. System Restore B. Windows Backup C. Add/Remove Programs D. Windows Setup
Answer: A. System Restore System Restore can really get you out of a jam, especially when the unexpected happens. If an application has gone south, you can "rewind" your system to a previous configuration with System Restore. Your original system files will replace any that have changed, and configuration settings will be returned to their earlier state.
1-65. You've just updated a device driver, but you've run into a problem with the new version of the driver. Which Windows feature would be the best choice for reverting to the previous configuration? A. System Restore B. Volume Shadow Copy C. Windows Backup D. Compatibility Mode E. Windows Easy Transfer
Answer: A. System Restore The System Restore feature will create restore points when drivers are updated, applications are installed, or any other major system change occurs. System Restore will also make occasional restore points even if nothing major has occurred. If you need to quickly go back in time to a previous configuration, then System Restore is your best choice.
1-99. You're currently running Windows Vista Home Premium, and you'd like to run Windows 7 Ultimate. Assuming your hardware is sufficient to run Windows 7 Ultimate, what's the best way of moving from Vista Home Premium to Windows 7 Ultimate? A. Upgrade directly from Windows Vista Home Premium to Windows 7 Ultimate B. Backup all of your documents and load Windows 7 Ultimate as a clean install C. Install Windows 7 Ultimate onto a new partition and dual-boot D. Install Windows 7 Ultimate on a new computer and migrate your settings from the Windows Vista Home Premium computer
Answer: A. Upgrade directly from Windows Vista Home Premium to Windows 7 Ultimate Fortunately, Windows 7 allows you to leave the existing Windows Vista operating system in place and upgrade directly to most editions.
1-6. You need to upgrade a large number of computers on your corporate network to Windows 8.1. What Microsoft utility can assist you with a large-scale automated upgrade? A. User State Migration Tools B. Files and Settings Transfer Wizard C. Windows Easy Transfer D. Windows Backup and Restore
Answer: A. User State Migration Tools The User State Migration Tools of ScanState.exe and LoadState.exe can assist in the creation and migration of user files and settings when upgrading an operating system. These tools are designed to be used in automated environments where many systems must be upgraded automatically.
1-59. Which of these would be a valid upgrade path from Windows 7 Home Premium? Pick two. A. Windows 7 Professional B. Windows 7 Home Basic C. Windows 7 Starter D. Windows 7 Enterprise E. Windows 7 Ultimate
Answer: A. Windows 7 Professional and E. Windows 7 Ultimate You can upgrade Windows 7 to a higher-level edition, excluding Enterprise editions of Windows 7. If you are upgrading Windows 7 Home Premium, the only two valid higher-level editions would be Windows 7 Professional and Windows 7 Ultimate.
1-31. Which of these Windows Vista versions allow an incoming connection using Remote Desktop Connection? Pick two. A. Windows Vista Ultimate B. Windows Vista Home Premium C. Windows Vista Business D. Windows Vista Home Basic
Answer: A. Windows Vista Ultimate and C. Windows Vista Business There are many differences between Windows Vista versions, but only the higher-end Business and Ultimate versions include incoming connections through Remote Desktop Connection.
1-26. Which of these operating systems can be upgraded in-place to Windows Vista Business? A. Windows XP Home B. Windows XP Professional x64 C. Windows 2000 D. Windows XP Media Center
Answer: A. Windows XP Home Windows XP Home and the 32-bit version of Windows XP Professional can both be upgraded to Windows Vista Business.
1-39. You'd like to check your hard drive for problems. Which chkdsk option will examine every sector of the disk and attempt to correct any bad sectors? A. chkdsk /r B. chkdsk /e C. chkdsk /f D. chkdsk /s
Answer: A. chkdsk /r The /r option on the chkdsk command will both identify and repair logical errors and scan the drive in an attempt to recover data from bad sectors.
1-64. Which of these would be an example of an APIPA address? A. 192.168.10.10 B. 169.254.192.168 C. 172.20.169.254 D. 10.77.2.22 E. 127.0.0.1
Answer: B. 169.254.192.168 An APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) address is assigned by the operating system when a static IP address isn't assigned and a DHCP server does not respond.
1-22. What is the minimum memory requirement for the 64-bit version of Windows 8.1 Pro? A. 1 GB B. 2 GB C. 4 GB D. 8 GB E. 16 GB
Answer: B. 2 GB All 64-bit editions of Windows 8/8.1 require a minimum of 2 GB of RAM.
1-10. You are planning on installing multiple bootable operating systems on a single storage drive. What is the maximum number of primary partitions on an MBR-partitioned drive? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16
Answer: B. 4 A drive with an MBR partition style can have a maximum of 4 primary partitions.
1-62. Which of these is necessary to create a Windows Homegroup? A. All devices must have DVD-ROM drives B. All devices must have the network set to "Home" C. The network router must support Windows Homework settings D. All devices must disable the Windows Firewall
Answer: B. All devices must have the network set to "Home" The Windows Homegroup will only work when Windows is set to the "Home" network.
1-60. Which of the following would best describe PowerShell? A. Manage the power usage of the computer and monitor B. Automate system administration function C. Monitor the power consumption of your computer D. View your home or business power usage E. Display memory and CPU utilization on the Windows desktop
Answer: B. Automate system administration function PowerShell is an advanced version of the Windows command line that can automate and control almost anything in the operating system. PowerShell is included with Windows 8.1 and can be downloaded and installed into previous Windows operating system versions.
1-52. You're planning an in-place upgrade from your existing Windows Vista Business system to Windows 7 Ultimate. Which one of these methods can be used to perform this upgrade? A. Boot from the Windows 7 Ultimate installation media and choose "Install" B. Boot Windows Vista Business and start the Windows 7 upgrade from the Windows 7 installation media C. Backup the hard drive, boot from the Windows 7 installation media, install Windows 7, and restore your files D. You cannot perform an in-place upgrade from Windows Vista Business to Windows 7 Ultimate
Answer: B. Boot Windows Vista Business and start the Windows 7 upgrade from the Windows 7 installation media One of the simplest ways to begin the upgrade from Windows Vista Business to Windows 7 Ultimate is to boot your Windows Vista Business computer normally, log in, and start the Windows 7 Ultimate upgrade from the Windows 7 installation media. Windows 7 will see that Windows Vista is currently running and prompt you for upgrade options.
1-3. Which of these would be a common function from the Computer Management console? A. Restore the master boot record B. Change a local user's password C. Modify the BIOS device boot sequence D. Add a Windows Firewall rule E. Update the Windows operating system file
Answer: B. Change a local user's password The Computer Management console includes many administrative tools, such as Task Scheduler, Event Viewer, Device Manager, and Local Users and Groups.
1-93. Which of these Windows utilities would be the best choice to check for physical disk problems? A. Disk Information B. Check Disk C. Disk Defragmenter D. Disk Tools E. Disk Test
Answer: B. Check Disk Check Disk, or chkdsk, can be used to identify both logical file system problems and physical disk issues.
1-16. Which of these utilities consolidate the Task Scheduler, Event Viewer, Performance, Device Manager, and other administrative tools into a single "pane of glass?" A. System Configuration B. Computer Management C. Local Security Policy D. Windows Services
Answer: B. Computer Management Computer Management is a predefined set of administrative utilities that have been consolidated into the Microsoft Management Console framework.
1-14. Which of the following commands could be used to improve the read and write performance of a hard drive volume? A. DISKCACHE B. DEFRAG C. SSD D. DISKSPEED E. WINDISK
Answer: B. DEFRAG The DEFRAG command is used to move fragments of files around until they are contiguous. Once these files are more arranged on the drive, the read and write process can be more efficient.
1-9. Your computer has just restarted after a Windows Stop Error, but you didn't see the details of the error. What Windows utility can provide you with the details of this most recent crash? A. Task Manager B. Event Viewer C. Services D. Performance Monitor
Answer: B. Event Viewer The Event Viewer keeps detailed information on system and application problems, and the specifics of the BSOD will be within the most recent events.
1-29. Which of the following features is unique to NTFS when compared to FAT or FAT32? A. Native support in Windows 2000 and newer B. File system level encryption C. 2 terabyte volume sizes D. Maximum file size of 4 gigabytes
Answer: B. File system level encryption Although many of these options are available in NTFS, the only one of these that's unavailable in FAT or FAT32 is the file-system level encryption.
1-76. In which of these situations would you make use of UAC? A. Prevent write access to a network share B. Limit applications from making changes to network settings C. Force periodic updates to a Windows Domain password D. Convert IP addressing from a public address to private addresses
Answer: B. Limit applications from making changes to network settings User Account Control was designed to limit the access that software would have to your computer features and configurations. With UAC, software applications would need additional authentication or access to make significant changes to your PC.
1-36. What Windows technology is the primary focus of the Windows Data Sources utility? A. Active Directory B. ODBC C. COM+ D. DLL
Answer: B. ODBC Windows Open Database Connectivity is a common framework for interfacing applications with data in databases. The Windows Data Sources utility provides a central facility for managing database drivers and connectivity.
1-98. In which of these scenarios would you most likely use DSCP? A. Automatically assign IP addresses B. Prioritize network traffic C. Resolve an IP address from a fully qualified domain name D. Prevent loops on a switched network E. Dynamically route around network problems
Answer: B. Prioritize network traffic DSCP (Differentiated Services Code Points) are used to assign quality of service (QoS) values to application traffic. In Windows, these are defined in Group Policy or in Local Computer Policy. Once the values are defined, it's up to the network infrastructure to enforce the QoS settings.
1-75. Which of these commands would you use to delete a folder from your hard drive? A. CD B. RD C. MD D. FD
Answer: B. RD The RD command stands for Remove Directory, and it can be used to quickly delete a subdirectory from the command line.
1-18. Which of these commands would remove a directory called \FILES ? A. ED \FILES B. RD \FILES C. FORMAT \FILES D. MD \FILES E. ?\FILES
Answer: B. RD \FILES The Remove Directory (RD) command is used to erase an empty directory from the directory structure.
1-38. Which of the following would be the best way to keep your operating system up to date? A. Image the operating system on a set schedule B. Run Windows Update in automatic mode C. Perform nightly automated backups D. Install the periodic Windows Service Packs E. Update anti-virus signatures each day
Answer: B. Run Windows Update in automatic mode The Windows Update process can be configured to automatically update the operating system, download and wait for your manual update process, or it can be disabled completely as needed.
1-17. Which of the following would be the best way to control applications that run exclusively in the background? A. REGEDIT B. SERVICES.MSC C. MSTSC D. DXDIAG E. MSINFO32
Answer: B. SERVICES.MSC The Windows Services utility can be launched with the SERVICES.MSC command. From the Windows Services utility, you can control all of the Windows background services.
1-15. What are the minimum IP configuration settings required to communicate on a local network? Pick two. A. DNS server B. Subnet mask C. DHCP server D. IP address E. Default gateway
Answer: B. Subnet mask and D. IP address For local IP communication, the only two required parameters are the IP address and the subnet mask. If you need to communicate outside of your subnet, you'll also need a default gateway. If you're using the fullyqualified domain name and not an IP address, then you'll also need to configure the IP addresses for your DNS servers.
1-12. You've recently installed a new large LCD monitor on your computer, but you've found that Windows won't increase the display resolution. When you look at Device Manager, you see that the display is listed as "Generic VGA." What of these is the most likely cause of this issue? A. The monitor is not identifying itself properly to the Windows OS B. The LCD monitor driver is not loaded C. The computer's video adapter is not compatible with the LCD display D. The LCD display only supports generic VGA resolutions
Answer: B. The LCD monitor driver is not loaded When new devices are added to the Windows operating system, the OS automatically installs the necessary drivers. In some cases, however, the driver must be manually installed. The operating system won't know the hardware details about the monitor until the driver is loaded, so to give you a little bit of functionality a generic driver is installed.
1-24. You are trying to ping a Windows 7 system on your local subnet. Although the destination device can browse web sites, it won't respond to any of your ping requests. Which of these could most likely cause this lack of response? A. Windows 7 does not support ping B. The Windows Firewall is enabled C. Your network manager has disabled ping on your switches D. The ping protocol does not work to devices on the same subnet
Answer: B. The Windows Firewall is enabled The Windows Firewall limits inbound access to the operating system, including pings.
1-49. What is a side-by-side migration? A. The migration occurs on the same computer, with each system using half of the display B. The migration is done in real-time with computers that are sitting next to each other C. Data is exported, the system is rebuilt with the new system, and the original data is imported D. The application data is exported to one system, and the user data is exported to a different system
Answer: B. The migration is done in real-time with computers that are sitting next to each other A side-by-side migration is often performed when you're moving from one physical computer to the other and you have access to both systems at the same time.
1-56. You need to migrate from one computer running Windows Vista to another computer running Windows 8. Which of these would be the easiest way to complete this migration? A. Use Windows XP mode on your Windows 7 computer B. Use Windows Easy Transfer to perform a side-by-side migration C. Run your application in Windows 7 using Windows Vista compatibility mode D. Configure Windows 7 with ReadyBoost
Answer: B. Use Windows Easy Transfer to perform a side-by-side migration Windows Easy Transfer will move your profile and person settings from one operating system version to another. The utility supports both side-by-side migrations and wipe-and-load migrations. Although user files and settings are migrated, you'll still have to reinstall your applications on the new operating system.
1-86. Which of these would be the easiest way to see all of the printers in your office that are not ready to print? A. Query the Active Directory database B. Use a custom filter in Print Management C. Access the management tools from the printer manufacturer D. Query all printers using SNMP
Answer: B. Use a custom filter in Print Management The Print Management utility can use custom filters to view all printers, printers not ready, printers with jobs, and much more. Active Directory may contain a list of all of the printers, but it does not generally maintain the printer status in the database. You probably own many different printer brands, so using the manufacturer's utilities would be cumbersome. Although a third-party SNMP query tool might help, it's unlikely that all printers support SNMP or support the required SNMP MIB (management information base) variables that would allow you to display print status.
1-54. Which of these network types would be the best choice for mobile Internet connectivity? A. WiFi B. WWAN C. VPN D. Ethernet E. Dialup
Answer: B. WWAN A Wireless Wide Area Network, or WWAN, provides Internet connectivity using mobile network providers. Since our mobile phone networks can be used across large geographies, they provide Internet connectivity from nearly anywhere a mobile phone would operate.
1-63. Which of these Windows 7 editions provide support for Active Directory domains? Pick two. A. Windows 7 Home Premium B. Windows 7 Professional C. Windows 7 AD D. Windows 7 Ultimate E. Windows 7 Starter
Answer: B. Windows 7 Professional and D. Windows 7 Ultimate You can add your computer to an Active Directory domain in Windows 7 Professional, Ultimate, and Enterprise.
1-11. Which of these operating systems can be upgraded directly to Windows 7 Professional with an in-place upgrade? A. Windows XP Professional B. Windows Vista Business C. Windows Vista Enterprise D. Windows XP Professional (x64)
Answer: B. Windows Vista Business Windows Vista Business is the only OS edition in this list that can be upgraded to Windows 7 with an in-place upgrade, leaving all of the configurations and applications intact after the install is complete. No Windows XP versions can be directly upgraded to Windows 7.
1-50. Which of these would you be most likely to edit with NOTEPAD? A. Windows 7 Boot Configuration Data B. Windows log file C. Partition configuration file D. Master boot record E. Ethernet MAC address configuration
Answer: B. Windows log file Log files are commonly stored in text format and can be edited with any text editor like NOTEPAD.
1-79. You suspect your Windows XP hard drive is having problems, so you'd like to check the drive for bad sectors. How can you start this test from the command line? A. chkdsk /f B. chkdsk /r C. chkdsk /d D. chkdsk /z
Answer: B. chkdsk /r The Check Disk command can check for bad sectors, but you have to use the /r option to include the sectorlevel test. The /f option will check for logical file errors, and /f is also included when you run chkdsk with the /r option.
1-57. Which of these commands will copy your file and verify that the copied file matches the original? A. copy /a original.txt copy.txt B. copy /v original.txt copy.txt C. copy /y original.txt copy.txt D. copy /d original.txt copy.txt
Answer: B. copy /v original.txt copy.txt The /v command line option on the copy command will verify that any new files are written properly to the destination.
1-100. You need to copy a file from the Windows installation media, but the contents of the install DVD contain Microsoft's compressed files. What command line utility allows you to decompress the files that are stored on the installation media? A. uncompress.exe B. expand.exe C. unzip.exe D. extract.exe
Answer: B. expand.exe Microsoft's expand utility can be used to uncompress individual files or entire cabinet (.CAB) files.
1-58. Which of the following file systems would be commonly seen in the Linux operating system? A. NTFS B. ext4 C. FAT32 D. CDFS E. exFAT
Answer: B. ext4 Linux operating systems commonly use file systems such as ext3 or ext4.
1-30. Which of these programs would be the best choice for mirroring all of the files in a directory tree? A. copy B. robocopy C. sfc D. xcopy
Answer: B. robocopy Robocopy (robust copy) is a very functional file copy utility for Windows.
1-73. You need to copy a large library of digital photos from one computer to another. Which of the following command line tools would be the best choice to simultaneously copy both files and directories? A. copy B. robocopy C. fcopy D. ncopy
Answer: B. robocopy The robocopy (robust copy) command is quite versatile, and can be used to bulk copy and verify data after the copy is complete.
1-7. What is the minimum amount of memory required to install the 32-bit version of Windows 7? A. 512 MB B. 768 MB C. 1 GB D. 2 GB
Answer: C. 1 GB To install the 32-bit version of Windows 7, you'll need a 1 GHz processor, 1 GB of RAM, and at least 16 GB of free disk space.
1-68. You need to install the 64-bit version of Windows 7 onto a video editing workstation. What is the minimum memory required to install Windows 7 x64? A. 512 MB B. 1 GB C. 2 GB D. 4 GB
Answer: C. 2 GB Windows 7 x64 requires a minimum of 2 GB of RAM for installation, but you'll probably need more than that for a video editing workstation!
1-25. Which of these applications would be the best choice to provide device COM+ management, access to the Event Viewer, and management of Windows Services? A. Computer Management B. Data Sources C. Component Services D. System Configuration
Answer: C. Component Services The Component Services utility is designed to manage Microsoft Component Object Model (COM+) distributed applications. In a single utility, you have access to COM+ management, the Event Viewer, and the Services utility.
1-48. In which of these would you find the Windows Memory Diagnostics Tool in Windows 7? A. Control Panel / Services B. Maintenance C. Control Panel / Administrative Tools D. All Programs / Accessories E. Control Panel / System
Answer: C. Control Panel / Administrative Tools You can start the Windows Memory Diagnostics from the Control Panel under Administrative Tools, or from the Advanced Boot Options during startup.
1-33. What kind of Windows environment is best suited for large enterprises and organizations that need centralized management of their Windows environment? A. Workgroup B. Cluster C. Domain D. Virtual Server
Answer: C. Domain A Windows Domain provides centralized management of a Windows environment, including the management of end users devices, centralized authentication, and centralized rights and permissions to resources.
1-41. What kind of Windows disk would allow you to create a single large volume by combining separate physical drives? A. Basic Disk B. Advanced Disk C. Dynamic Disk D. Enhanced Disk
Answer: C. Dynamic Disk A Windows Dynamic Disks supports spanning multiple drives to create a large volume, disk striping, redundant mirroring, and other enhanced features.
1-74. Which of these Windows accounts should normally be disabled? A. Administrator B. Power User C. Guest D. Domain Administrator E. IEUser
Answer: C. Guest The Guest account can be useful for general purpose or kiosk computers, but most systems should be configured with a disabled Guest account.
1-35. Which of these would require a stand-alone Windows user to select a different password each time it is changed? A. Windows Scheduler B. Windows Firewall C. Local Security Policy D. Task Manager E. Windows System Configuration
Answer: C. Local Security Policy The Windows Local Security Policy utility is used to manage settings and configurations of Windows devices. Local Security Policy includes policies for passwords, user rights assignments, security options, and more.
1-72. Which of the following would you not expect to find in the Windows 8.1 Charm bar? A. Search B. Share C. Logout D. Devices E. Settings F. Start
Answer: C. Logout The logout option is not included in the Windows 8.1 Charm bar.
1-34. In which of these situations would you be most likely to use DISKPART? A. Check for logical and physical errors on a storage device B. Recover a deleted file from flash drive C. Manage the partitions of a storage device D. Perform a secure wipe of all drive contents
Answer: C. Manage the partitions of a storage device The DISKPART is the command line tool that has replaced the FDISK command found in previous Windows versions.
1-81. Which Windows file system provides capabilities such as quotas, file compression, encryption, and large file support? A. FAT B. FAT32 C. NTFS D. HPFS
Answer: C. NTFS The NT File System has extensive improvements over the older file systems listed above. There have actually been many different versions of NTFS, with constant improvements going into each version.
1-27. Which of these technologies allows an application to use a database without any specific knowledge of the database engine? A. COM+ B. Access C. ODBC D. SQL E. dBASE
Answer: C. ODBC ODBC (Open Database Connectivity) allows application developers to create and access information in a database without requiring any specific knowledge of the database service in use.
1-40. Which of these would be a common use of Wake on LAN? A. Clear the screen saver so the desktop is accessible B. Prevent the hard drive from spinning down C. Patch the operating system during non-work hours D. Move the computer to a high-speed VLAN
Answer: C. Patch the operating system during non-work hours Wake on LAN is used to "wake" a system out of a suspended session to provide remote administration. With WoL, network administrators can push out updates and patches while the rest of the organization is out of the office. When an update is not required, the computer systems remain in a suspended mode, saving power and ongoing wear to the computer.
1-91. In which of these cases would you be most likely to use DISKPART? A. Copy file contents from one disk to another B. Check a drive for logical errors C. Prepare a storage device for formatting D. Prepare a storage device for removal
Answer: C. Prepare a storage device for formatting The DISKPART command replaces the FDISK command from previous versions of Windows, and it's used for many disk configuration functions. You will commonly use DISKPART to partition a drive.
1-94. What USMT application gathers user data and settings to use for a migration? A. LoadState.exe B. Windows Easy Transfer C. ScanState.exe D. Files and Settings Transfer Wizard
Answer: C. ScanState.exe The User State Migration Tool (USMT) is a set of command line utilities that facilitate large-scale migration of user profiles between operating systems. ScanState.exe is used to gather the user profile information, and LoadState.exe is used to load the user profile onto the new system.
1-44. You are converting some video from one format to another, and you want to participate in a videoconference at the same time. Unfortunately, the video conversion is causing the videoconference feed to stutter. What Windows utility can you use to lower the priority of the conversion process? A. Device Manager B. Event Viewer C. Task Manager D. Services
Answer: C. Task Manager Task Manager provides many useful performance metrics, and it can also be an invaluable tool for managing the priorities of your applications and services.
1-88. One of the selections on the shutdown selection on a Windows 8.1 laptop is "hibernate." Which of the following best describes the hibernate option? A. CPU execution is halted but power continues to be provided to both CPU and memory B. All active processes are stopped and only RAM is powered C. The contents of memory are saved to disk and all power is halted D. The operating system shuts down, clears itself from memory, and the laptop powers off E. The system shuts down normally, and when it restarts it loads the applications that were previously running
Answer: C. The contents of memory are saved to disk and all power is halted The hibernate process is a standard within the Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI), where all of the contents of memory are written to disk and all power on the system is disabled. This is both an efficient power-saving feature and useful for quickly resuming from where you left off.
1-90. In which of these cases would you be most likely to use the Windows Computer Management console? A. Determine the upgradability of devices on your corporate network B. Upgrade the BIOS of a computer C. Troubleshoot a computer using the Device Manager and Event Viewer D. Replace a faulty video adapter E. Configure DHCP and DNS settings
Answer: C. Troubleshoot a computer using the Device Manager and Event Viewer The Windows Computer Management console provides easy access to many utilities, including Task Scheduler, Event Viewer, Shared Folders, Local Users and Groups, Performance, Device Manager, and others.
1-61. You'd like to upgrade your computer from Windows 7 to Windows 8.1. Which of the following utilitiescan test your computer for its upgrade compatibility to this new operating system version? A. Windows Upgrade Wizard B. Upgrade Evaluation Tool C. Upgrade Assistant D. System Upgrade Recommendation E. Windows Upgrader
Answer: C. Upgrade Assistant The Windows Upgrade Assistant utility can be used to check for upgrade compatibility when moving to Windows 8 or 8.1. In Windows 7, this utility was called the Upgrade Advisor.
1-13. Your organization uses an important application that written in-house. Unfortunately, this application conflicts with portions of the UAC process. Which of the following is the easiest way to disable portions of the UAC but still keep other aspects of UAC operating normally? A. Make a change to the system registry B. Modify the access permission of each user C. Use the Local Security Policy console to change the UAC configuration D. Modify the application to work better with Windows UAC
Answer: C. Use the Local Security Policy console to change the UAC configuration The Local Security Policy console allows you to make very granular changes to the UAC configuration, allowing almost any conflicting application to work with the maximum amount of UAC control still in place.
1-82. Your organization has decided to upgrade fifty of their workstations from Windows XP to Windows 7, and you'd like to find an automated way to seamlessly move all user files and settings from one operating system to another. Which of these methods would meet this requirement? A. Files and Settings Transfer Wizard B. Windows Easy Transfer C. User State Migration Tool D. Upgrade Advisor
Answer: C. User State Migration Tool The User State Migration Tool allows you to automate the migration of user files and settings between systems with a series of command-line parameters. Although the Windows XP Files and Settings Transfer Wizard and the Windows Vista Windows Easy Transfer can also accomplish these migration tasks, their graphical front-end doesn't scale when a large number of computers are involved.
1-83. Which Windows 8.1 version is a valid upgrade path from the Enterprise edition of Windows 8? A. Windows 8 Core B. Windows 8 Pro C. Windows 8 Enterprise D. All of these E. None of these
Answer: C. Windows 8 Enterprise The only upgrade path for Windows 8 Enterprise is to Windows 8.1 Enterprise. You cannot upgrade from Windows 8 Enterprise to the core edition of Windows 8.1 or Windows 8.1 Pro.
1-47. Which of these would be the best way to upgrade a 32-bit Windows 7 Professional system to a 64-bit version of Windows 7 Professional? A. Windows Anytime Upgrade B. In-place upgrade using the x64 installation media C. Windows Easy Transfer D. Windows Upgrade Advisor from the x64 installation media E. In-place upgrade using the x86 installation media
Answer: C. Windows Easy Transfer You cannot perform an in-place upgrade when moving from an x86 version of Windows 7 to an x64 version. If you want to keep your documents and some settings, you'll need to perform a migration. You can alternatively perform a clean install and move any personal documents to the new system.
1-4. When working with Windows Disk Management, you see that one of your disks is identified as "resynching." What is the most likely reason for this status type? A. A drive in a RAID 1 array has failed B. A replacement drive was added to a RAID 5 array C. A drive in a RAID 5 array has failed D. A replacement drive was added to a RAID 1 array
Answer: D. A replacement drive was added to a RAID 1 array The Windows resynching process occurs when a bad drive is replaced in a RAID 1 array. As the information from the array is copied to the new drive, the status will show as "resynching."
1-77. What character is used to separate folder names at the command prompt? A. Forward slash (/) B. Colon (:) C. Semi-colon (;) D. Backslash (\) E. Tilde (~)
Answer: D. Backslash (\) The backslash character is used to separate the names of folders and files at the command line.
1-19. Which of these features are NOT exclusive to dynamic disk storage? A. Spanning of multiple disks to create a single large volume B. Splitting of files across multiple physical disks (striping) C. Duplicating of files across multiple physical disks (mirroring) D. Creation of both primary and extended partitions
Answer: D. Creation of both primary and extended partitions The creation of primary and extended partitions can be accomplished on both basic disks and dynamic disks. The incorrect answers: A) Spanning of multiple disks to create a single large volume - In basic disk configurations, each separate physical hard drive would be referenced as a separate volume. With dynamic disks, multiple physical disks can be configured to appear as a single large volume. B) Splitting of files across multiple physical disks (striping) - The only way to enable RAID striping across disks is to configure the disks as dynamic disk storage subsystems. C) Duplicating of files across multiple physical disks (mirroring) - Another RAID technique is to duplicate data across multiple physical disks for redundancy and fault-tolerance. This type of storage is only available on dynamic disks.
1-21. You've just installed a new audio card into your Windows computer, but it doesn't seem to provide any output. Which Windows utility can give you information on the status of your new audio card? A. Performance Monitor B. Task Manager C. Event Manager D. Device Manager
Answer: D. Device Manager The Windows Device Manager provides an at-a-glance view of hardware status, and bad hardware will be visually flagged with an icon that designates a problem.
1-53. Which technology would be applicable if you were monitoring S.M.A.R.T. statistics? A. Printer B. Network interface C. CPU D. Hard drive
Answer: D. Hard drive Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology (S.M.A.R.T.) is an embedded set of metrics that can provide health and availability statistics from hard drives and other storage devices.
1-71. Which of these would best describe a network location set to Public? A. You can see all of the devices on the network B. Your computer is managed by the Active Directory domain C. All of the devices on the network can see you D. Network discovery is turned off E. You can join an available HomeGroup
Answer: D. Network discovery is turned off When Windows 7 is set to a Public network location, discovery is disabled and other devices are not able to see you on the network.
1-55. Which of these utilities will allow you to manage all of the printers on your network from one central console? A. Print Spooler B. Event Viewer C. Device Manager D. Print Management
Answer: D. Print Management The Windows Print Management utility can manage all of your printers and add and manage printer drivers for your entire network from one single console.
1-66. Which of the following would be the best choice for making changes to the Windows Registry? A. EDITREG B. NOTEPAD C. HIVEDIT D. REGEDIT E. CMD
Answer: D. REGEDIT The REGEDIT command launches the Windows Registry Editor.
1-1. Which of these tasks would be the best fit for Performance Monitor? A. Determine which applications launch during the Windows startup process B. Run a comprehensive memory diagnostic C. View the details of a BSOD that occurred yesterday afternoon D. Run a report on memory utilization
Answer: D. Run a report on memory utilization Performance Monitor includes many resource monitors, including some comprehensive built-in reporting.
1-96. You are troubleshooting a printing issue on a client's Windows XP computer, and have found that the Windows Spooler is stopping unexpectedly. Which of these would be the best choice for restarting the Windows Spooler? A. Print Manager B. Task Manager C. Computer Management D. Services
Answer: D. Services The Windows Services utility allows you to manage the details of every Windows service, including the spooler. You can also configure the spooler to restart automatically after a crash, or to stop completely after a failure.
1-20. Which of these would be best associated with Windows Defender? A. Control access to a TCP port number on your computer B. Automatically install operating system patches C. Encrypt a volume or entire hard drive D. Stop malware from executing on your system E. Restrict access to the system BIOS
Answer: D. Stop malware from executing on your system Windows Defender is designed to stop malware from running in your operating system, and it's included with Windows Vista, Windows 7, and Windows 8.
1-97. You've been asked to backup a large video file that is just over 5 gigabytes of disk space. You have a new empty 500 gigabyte external USB hard drive to store the backup file. However, when you try to copy the file to the empty USB drive, you get an error message that there's not enough disk space to complete the file transfer. What's the most likely cause of this error? A. USB connections can't support large file transfers B. The new USB drive is faulty C. The video file is corrupted D. The USB drive is formatted with a FAT32 file system
Answer: D. The USB drive is formatted with a FAT32 file system The maximum individual file size supported on a FAT32 file system is 4 gigabytes, so copying a file larger than 4 GB will result in an error. The incorrect answers: A) USB connections can't support large file transfers The USB interface does not have any type of limitations over the size or amount of files that can be transferred over it. B) The new USB drive is faulty A bad hard drive will usually give an error very different than an out of disk space message. C) The video file is corrupted The contents of the video file won't prevent it from being transferred to an external USB disk drive.
1-28. You would like to allow your organization to use USB flash drives, but you are concerned that the private information on the drives might be easily lost or misplaced. Which of these would ensure that the USB drives would always be secure? A. Use EFS to encrypt the drives B. Only allow USB drive access from secure computers C. Format the drives with the NTFS file system D. Use BitLocker to encrypt the drives
Answer: D. Use BitLocker to encrypt the drives BitLocker is a Windows technology that is designed for the security of entire drives, regardless of the contents. Unlike EFS which only encrypts certain files, BitLocker can be configured to automatically encrypt the entire drive.
1-8. On your Windows Vista computer, you notice that your hard drive access light is constantly blinking, even when your computer is idle. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this constant drive access? A. The hard drive is constantly retrying a bad sector on the hard drive B. The computer is configured to constantly check the hard drive performance C. The hard drive throughput can't keep up with the data requests D. Windows Vista is indexing the files on your hard drive
Answer: D. Windows Vista is indexing the files on your hard drive The Windows indexing process can speed searches, but it often requires the scanning of files in user folders and other parts of the hard drive. While this indexing is occurring, the increased access to the hard drive can be quite noticeable.
1-78. Which of these utilities would be the best choice for configuring Windows boot options? A. Boot Manager B. Device Manager C. Services D. Local Security Policy E. System Configuration
Answer: E. System Configuration The System Configuration utility has a dedicated Boot tab to configure Safe Boot options, logging, video configurations, timeout delays, and much more.
1-23. Which of these would be the best choice for running a daily backup program? A. SFC B. Component Services C. Task Manager D. Device Manager E. Task Scheduler
Answer: E. Task Scheduler The Windows Task Scheduler can be used to schedule the execution of any program or process.
