cpt
What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly? Select one: a. Step-ups b. Single-leg squat c. Barbell clean d. Depth jump
a. Step-ups
Which of the following has been used specifically as part of a protocol to improve balance? Select one: a. Weight training b. Aqua therapy c. Stable floor environment d. Biomechanical ankle platform system
d. Biomechanical ankle platform system
What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for intermediate clients? Select one: a. 0 to 60 seconds b. 120 to 180 seconds c. 60 to 90 seconds d. 90 to 120 seconds
a. 0 to 60 seconds
Approximately what percentage of the human body (in male and female adults) is comprised of water? Select one: a. 0.6 b. 0.5 c. 0.8 d. 0.4
a. 0.6
You have a client seeking weight loss. What range of sets is most appropriate for SAQ drills? Select one: a. 3 or 4 sets b. 7 to 8 sets c. 1 or 2 sets d. 5 or 6 sets
a. 3 or 4 sets
Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed? Select one: a. 40-yard dash b. Pro shuttle c. Overhead squat d. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
a. 40-yard dash
A person walks differently when they move from a sidewalk onto the sand. This is regulated by what function? Select one: a. Muscle function b. Neuroplasticity c. Motor function d. Wolff's law
c. Motor function
Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises? Select one: a. Power step-up b. Tuck jump c. Multiplanar jump with stabilization d. Butt kick
c. Multiplanar jump with stabilization
What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization? Select one: a. Squat jump with stabilization b. Box jump-up with stabilization c. Multiplanar jump with stabilization d. Tuck jump with stabilization
c. Multiplanar jump with stabilization
Which of the following is considered one of the Four Horsemen of Fitness? Select one: a. Sandbag b. ViPR c. Medicine ball d. Kettlebell
c. Medicine ball
What is an appropriate tempo for Phase 1 of the OPT model?
4-2-1-1
Which of the following is a component of agility training? Select one: a. Stride rate b. Deceleration c. Reaction d. Assessment of visual stimuli
b. Deceleration
Which type of nerve receptor senses pain? Select one: a. Neurotransmitter b. Nociceptor c. Mechanoreceptor d. Action potential
b. Nociceptor
What is the fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone? Select one: a. Collagen b. Elastin c. Tendon d. Ligament
d. Ligament
When a Certified Personal Trainer wants to enhance a client's self-efficacy by breaking down exercises or goals into easier-to-achieve tasks, what behavior change technique are they using? Select one: a. Provide instructions b. Verbal persuasion c. Experience mastery d. Set specific tasks
d. Set specific tasks
What advice would enable a client to breathe properly? Select one: a. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your mouth while allowing your chest to expand. b. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand. c. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while minimizing abdominal movement. d. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.
d. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.
Posture uses which anatomical landmark in comparison to other positions of the body? Select one: a. Ankles b. Knees c. Shoulders d. Spine
d. Spine
W
d. Stabilization Endurance
Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important?
Frontside Mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help the body propel forward
Why can personal trainers be considered among the most important employees within a health club? Select one: a. Personal trainers study exercise science and have the knowledge to help members get results. b. Personal trainers are often in great physical shape, which demonstrates that belonging to a health club can produce results members want. c. Personal trainers are very outgoing and can help create a fun atmosphere in a fitness facility. d. Personal trainers come in direct contact with members and can have the greatest influence on whether members achieve results.
Personal trainers come in direct contact with members and can have the greatest influence on whether members achieve results.
Intentions are a good predictor of behavior, but what has been shown to help translate intentions into behavior?
Planning
The major curvature of the spine
Posterior Lumbar Curve
What RPE range (on a scale of 1 to 10) aligns with training in zone 2?
RPE of 5-6
Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance?
Semi-Dynamic Balance
Asking a client to balance on an unstable surface while barefoot would challenge which system?
Somatosensory system
What organization must approve a supplement prior to it being sold?
Supplements do not require approval for sale
What does the ETC do?
The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP
What blood pressure is reflective of Stage 1 Hypertension?
a reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg Diastolic
Which of the following would be the recommended source of hydration after 40 to 45 minutes of exercise with minimal perspiration? Select one: a. Water b. An isotonic sports drink c. Fruit juice d. A hypertonic sports drink
a. Water
Unrealistic goals can become a barrier when which of the following happens? Select one: a. When goals are not adjusted b. When only one goal is set c. When outcome goals are objective d. When process goals are too specific
a. When goals are not adjusted
What is sarcopenia?
age related loss of muscle tissue
What is end-systolic volume? Select one: a. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction b. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction c. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction d. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
b. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
Which vitamin has an increased risk of causing toxicity? Select one: a. Vitamin C b. Vitamin A c. Vitamin B6 d. Vitamin B12
b. Vitamin A
Through an integrated and systematic approach, which order of phases of training is correct? Select one: a. Stabilization Endurance, Muscular Development, Power, Maximal Strength, and Strength Endurance b. Strength Endurance, Stabilization Endurance, Maximal Strength, Muscular Development, and Power c. Stabilization Endurance, Strength Endurance, Muscular Development, Maximal Strength, and Power d. Muscular Development, Power, Strength Endurance, Stabilization Endurance, and Maximal Strength
c. Stabilization Endurance, Strength Endurance, Muscular Development, Maximal Strength, and Power
What are the two primary actions of the muscle spindle? Select one: a. Sense the amount of eccentric force and the joint range of motion b. Sense the amount of eccentric force and the speed of shortening c. Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse d. Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change
d. Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change
What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength? Select one: a. Stabilization Endurance b. Power c. Maximal Strength d. Strength Endurance
d. Strength Endurance
Which of the following modalities is the least likely to increase joint instability? Select one: a. Resistance bands b. Suspended bodyweight training c. Terra-Core d. Strength machines
d. Strength machines
Davis's law describes what type of changes within the cumulative injury cycle? Select one: a. Adhesions can occur after strenuous exercise that breaks down muscle fibers and joint cartilage. b. Tight muscles may cause synergistic dominance from pattern overload. c. Adhesions may begin due to lack of physical activity and poor flexibility. d. Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.
flexibility. d. Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.
What is defined as the state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream? Select one: a. Hypoglycemia b. Hypertension c. Hypotension d. Hyperglycemia
a. Hypoglycemia
Pronation of the foot describes what multiplanar movements? Select one: a. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction b. Eversion, plantar flexion, and ankle abduction c. Inversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adductionOsteoporosis Information | Mount Sinai - New York https://www.mountsinai.org › health-library › condition d. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction
Pronation of the foot describes what multiplanar movements? Select one: a. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction b. Eversion, plantar flexion, and ankle abduction c. Inversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction d. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction
Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core? Select one: a. Multifidus b. Transverse abdominis c. Erector spinae d. Pelvic floor muscles
c. Erector spinae
You are working with an advanced client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best number of SAQ drills per workout? Select one: a. 6 to 10 drills b. 3 to 5 drills c. 10 to 15 drills d. 1 to 3 drills
a. 6 to 10 drills
What step cadence is used during the YMCA 3-minute step test? Select one: a. A cadence of 96 steps per minute b. A cadence of 36 steps per minute c. A cadence of 60 steps per minute d. A cadence of 112 steps per minute
a. A cadence of 96 steps per minute
What is acidosis in muscle? Select one: a. A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue b. A decrease in pH, which can improve muscle strength c. An increase in pH, which can improve muscle strength d. An increase in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue
a. A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue
What is the peripheral heart action system? Select one: a. A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit b. A system that incorporates a slight pause between repetitions within a series of sets c. A system that involves performing a series of exercises, one after the other, with minimal rest d. A system that involves breaking up the body into parts to be trained on separate days
a. A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit
What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise? Select one: a. Ice skaters b. Proprioceptive plyometrics c. Depth jumps d. Squat jump
a. Ice skaters
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Abdominals b. Lower trapezius c. Adductor complex d. Hip flexors
a. Abdominals
Davis's law describes what type of changes within the cumulative injury cycle? Select one: a. Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue. b. Tight muscles may cause synergistic dominance from pattern overload. c. Adhesions may begin due to lack of physical activity and poor flexibility. d. Adhesions can occur after strenuous exercise that breaks down muscle fibers and joint cartilage
a. Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue
What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training? Select one: a. Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power b. Fitness enthusiasts with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and power c. Advanced clients with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and speed d. Fitness enthusiasts with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and speed
a. Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
Which term best describes when someone has mixed feelings about exercise and can see both the pros and cons of participating? Select one: a. Ambivalence b. Unequivocal c. Ambiguity d. Confusion
a. Ambivalence
When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used? Select one: a. Ankle plantar flexion b. Knee flexion c. Ankle dorsiflexion d. Hip abduction
a. Ankle plantar flexion
Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%? Select one: a. Ankle sprains b. Medial collateral ligament injuries c. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries d. Concussions
a. Ankle sprains
What is the process in which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles? Select one: a. Autogenic inhibition b. Isometric contraction c. Stretch reflex d. Reciprocal inhibition
a. Autogenic inhibition
When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called? Select one: a. Autogenic inhibition b. Stretch reflex c. Isometric contraction d. Reciprocal inhibition
a. Autogenic inhibition
What is the best definition of complex carbohydrates? Select one: a. Carbohydrates that are comprised of polysaccharides and that contain both fiber and starch b. Carbohydrates that are difficult to digest c. Carbohydrates from beans and legumes d. Carbohydrates used for high-intensity exercise
a. Carbohydrates that are comprised of polysaccharides and that contain both fiber and starch
Which component of an OPT workout is intended to help preserve client autonomy? Select one: a. Client's choice b. Cool-down c. Activation d. Resistance
a. Client's choice
A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps. What type of resistance training system is being used? Select one: a. Complex training b. Giant set c. Drop set d. Pyramid system
a. Complex training
What is the anatomical term that describes something positioned on the opposite side of the body? Select one: a. Contralateral b. Ipsilateral c. Lateral d. Posterior
a. Contralateral
Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress? Select one: a. Davis's law b. Archimedes' principle c. Wolff's law d. Overload principle
a. Davis's law
From the list of items provided, which of the following are not considered benefits of cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. Decreased tolerance for stress and reduced mental alertness b. Reduced blood pressure and cholesterol levels c. Improved respiratory efficiency and metabolism d. Increased cardiac output and oxygen transport
a. Decreased tolerance for stress and reduced mental alertness
What three joint actions comprise triple flexion? Select one: a. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion b. Dorsiflexion, plantar flexion, and shoulder flexion c. Spinal flexion, knee flexion, and elbow flexion d. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension
a. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion
What does EMG stand for? Select one: a. Electromyography b. Electromagnetic spectrum c. Elektrokardiogramm d. Electrocardiogram
a. Electromyography
What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Latissimus dorsi c. Rectus abdominis d. Gluteus medius
a. Erector spinae
Stage 3 balance exercise should include what types of motion? Select one: a. Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing b. No motion c. Little motion d. Moving only the balance leg through a full range of motion
a. Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing
What is the term for the higher-than-normal energy expenditure during the recovery period after exercise? Select one: a. Excess postexercise oxygen consumption b. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis c. Exercise activity thermogenesis d. Thermic effect of food
a. Excess postexercise oxygen consumption
How is Fartlek training best described? Select one: a. Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout. b. Fartlek training is an exercise method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity broken up by relatively short rest periods. c. Fartlek training is aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption. d. In Fartlek training, the total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.
a. Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.
What surrounds the skeletal muscles and connects them to other surrounding muscles? Select one: a. Fascia b. Muscle spindles c. Connective tissues d. Tendons
a. Fascia
Which of the following core exercises best suits stabilization training? Select one: a. Floor bridge b. Barbell chest press c. Deadlifts d. Repeat step-ups
a. Floor bridge
What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core? Select one: a. Force production during dynamic whole-body movements b. Limiting strain on the vertebral discs c. Stabilize individual vertebral segments d. Limit excessive compression between vertebral segments
a. Force production during dynamic whole-body movements
How many skinfold sites are measured when determining body composition using the Durnin-Womersley protocol? Select one: a. Four b. Six c. Three d. Seven
a. Four
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus b. Latissimus dorsi c. Lumbar extensors d. Hip flexor complex
a. Gluteus maximus
Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane? Select one: a. Gluteus medius b. Gluteus maximus c. Hip flexor d. Erector spinae
a. Gluteus medius
If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30 and 90 seconds, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity? Select one: a. Glycolysis b. The ATP-PC system c. The electron transport chain d. Oxidative phosphorylation
a. Glycolysis
The impact that family members, peers, or coworkers have over someone's decision to exercise describes which of the following terms? Select one: a. Group influence b. Health influence c. Peer pressure d. Societal influence
a. Group influence
Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat? Select one: a. Having more mitochondria in their muscle b. Having more fat stored on their body c. Having more glycogen stored in their muscle d. Having less oxygen delivery to the muscle
a. Having more mitochondria in their muscle
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Hip flexor complex b. Gluteus maximus c. Hamstrings complex d. Gluteus medius
a. Hip flexor complex
What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise? Select one: a. Ice skaters b. Proprioceptive plyometrics c. Squat jump d. Depth jumps
a. Ice skaters
What behavior change technique is a specific plan that drives behavior by identifying cues toward action? Select one: a. Implementation intention b. Coping plan c. Guided practice d. Self-monitoring
a. Implementation intention
Which core exercise is most appropriate for an obese client to maximize comfort and to avoid potential hypotensive or hypertensive reactions to the exercise? Select one: a. Incline plank b. Supine reverse crunches c. Stability ball Russian twist d. Supine floor crunches
a. Incline plank
A client who has been training consistently for over a year has indicated that he wants to find more efficient ways to exercise at home. Which type of social support does he need? Select one: a. Informational support b. Instrumental support c. Emotional support d. Companionship support
a. Informational support
A new client has indicated that they are exercising due to advice from their physician, but they are generally amotivated. What would be the best choice for the personal trainer in their initial meeting? Select one: a. Inquire further about what their motives are for participating. b. Start establishing an emotional support system. c. Create a plan for overcoming barriers. d. Establish short- and long-term goals.
a. Inquire further about what their motives are for participating.
Which type of support describes the actions that a person takes to help another person engage in exercise? Select one: a. Instrumental support b. Companionship support c. Emotional support d. Informational support
a. Instrumental support
Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function? Select one: a. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency b. Lumbopelvic stability, intervertebral stability, movement efficiency c. Movement efficiency, intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability d. Lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency, intervertebral stability
a. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency
Which of the following describes a benefit of high-intensity interval training (HIIT)? Select one: a. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work. b. It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time, but with a smaller volume of work. c. It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time, but with a larger volume of work. d. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time with a similar volume of work
a. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.
Having poor body image is most likely to be associated with which of the following? Select one: a. Low self-esteem b. Low levels of social support c. Low levels of motivation d. Low body mass index
a. Low self-esteem
Which muscle functions in a feed-forward mechanism in anticipation of limb movements? Select one: a. Multifidus b. Erector spinae c. Gluteus maximus d. Rectus abdominis
a. Multifidus
Why is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) important? Select one: a. NEAT can be protective against obesity. b. NEAT can increase cardiorespiratory fitness. c. NEAT can decrease the resting metabolic rate. d. NEAT can increase muscle mass.
a. NEAT can be protective against obesity.
The cardiovascular and respiratory systems work together to provide the body with what gas? Select one: a. Oxygen b. Platelets c. Water d. Carbon dioxide
a. Oxygen
Why is it important for fitness professionals to pay attention to their personal grooming when working in a fitness facility? Select one: a. Personal trainers are professionals. Having a professional appearance can help ensure that clients treat personal trainers as the professionals they are. b. Personal grooming is critical for creating engaging social media posts. c. Personal grooming can help personal trainers appear more in shape, which is important for attracting clients. d. Paying attention to personal grooming will make it easier to make new friends while working.
a. Personal trainers are professionals. Having a professional appearance can help ensure that clients treat personal trainers as the professionals they are.
What three joint actions comprise triple extension? Select one: a. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension b. Knee extension, shoulder extension, and elbow extension c. Spinal extension, hip extension, and plantar flexion d. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion
a. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension
What is the best choice of attire to an interview at a health club? Select one: a. Professional business attire b. Jeans and a polo shirt c. Business casual d. Brand-new workout clothes
a. Professional business attire
Which of the following statements is true about proprietary blends? Select one: a. Proprietary blends should typically be avoided, as the precise amount of each ingredient is not disclosed. b. Proprietary blends never contain efficacious doses of ingredients. c. Proprietary blends are featured on all supplements. d. Proprietary blends are used by companies so they can add illegal ingredients.
a. Proprietary blends should typically be avoided, as the precise amount of each ingredient is not disclosed.
Which of the macronutrients has the highest thermic effect of food (TEF)? Select one: a. Protein b. Lipids c. Glucose d. Carbohydrates
a. Protein
Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement? Select one: a. Pushing b. Pulling c. Squatting d. Hip Hinge
a. Pushing
What resistance training system involves a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases or decreases weight with each set? Select one: a. Pyramid system b. Complex training c. Superset system d. Multiple-set system
a. Pyramid system
Which of the following should be emphasized the most in a core training program? Select one: a. Quality of movement b. Speed of exercise completion c. Amount of external resistance d. Number of sets/reps
a. Quality of movement
What is a joint disease in which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissue, causing an inflammatory response? Select one: a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Osteoporosis c. Osteoarthritis d. Osteopenia
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise? Select one: a. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press b. Shoulder horizontal adduction and internal rotation c. Hip extension, knee extension, and plantar flexion d. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
a. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press
Which statement accurately describes the physical benefits of SAQ training? Select one: a. SAQ training decreases the risk of osteopenia. b. SAQ training decreases the risk of cancer. c. SAQ training increases LDL cholesterol. d. There is no evidence to support this adaptation.
a. SAQ training decreases the risk of osteopenia.
Which of the following modalities will provide the most benefits to Phases 1, 4 and 5 of the OPT model? Select one: a. Sandbags b. TRX Rip Trainer c. Battle ropes d. Strength machines
a. Sandbags
The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula? Select one: a. Serratus anterior b. Rhomboids c. Rotator cuff muscles d. Deltoid
a. Serratus anterior
What is a characteristic of a type II muscle fiber? Select one: a. Short-term contractions b. Slow to fatigue c. Increased oxygen delivery d. Smaller in size
a. Short-term contractions
Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface. Select one: a. Somatosensation b. Vision c. Sensorimotor function d. Vestibular
a. Somatosensation
What type of resistance training exercise best describes a kettlebell bottoms-up movement? Select one: a. Stabilization-focused exercise b. Strength-focused exercise c. Plyometric exercise d. Balance exercise
a. Stabilization-focused exercise
Which phase of training would be most appropriate for a beginner who has had previous experience within the last few months? Select one: a. Strength Endurance Training b. Power Training c. Stabilization Endurance Training d. Maximal Strength Training
a. Strength Endurance Training
The difference between the end-diastolic and end-systolic volumes is referred to as what? Select one: a. Stroke volume b. Venous return c. Resting heart rate d. Cardiac output
a. Stroke volume
What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) internal rotation exercise primarily target? Select one: a. Subscapularis b. Anterior tibialis c. Scalenes d. Infraspinatus
a. Subscapularis
When a client makes a statement that supports their current behavior, what is this called? Select one: a. Sustain talk b. A collecting summary c. Change talk d. An affirmation
a. Sustain talk
Which concept should be used to describe the functioning of the serratus anterior as it assists the anterior deltoid during shoulder flexion? Select one: a. Synergist b. Antagonist c. Stabilizer d. Agonist
a. Synergist
What is end-diastolic volume? Select one: a. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction b. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction c. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction d. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
a. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
What is a kilocalorie (kcal)? Select one: a. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie. b. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 pound of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie. c. Unlike 1 food calorie, this is the amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. d. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is equal to 1,000 food calories.
a. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.
An important aspect of an established exercise group includes which of the following? Select one: a. The group feels distinct from other people. b. Once the group is formed, no other participants are allowed in. c. Groups rely only on the leader for support. d. Groups function only when all members are present.
a. The group feels distinct from other people.
What is atherosclerosis? Select one: a. The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow b. The state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream. c. A normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable d. The state of elevated glucose in the bloodstream
a. The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow
What is bioenergetics? Select one: a. The study of the ways in which food is turned into energy b. The study of weight loss c. The study of metabolism during exercise d. The study of aerobic metabolism
a. The study of the ways in which food is turned into energy
Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurate? Select one: a. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max. b. The work-to-recovery intervals are 3:1 (30 sec work + 10 sec recovery) for a total of 12 intervals. c. The work-to-recovery intervals are 1:2 (20 sec work + 40 sec recovery) for a total of 10 intervals. d. The total duration of the workout is 20 minutes long and performed at near maximal effort.
a. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.
How should the amortization phase of the stretch-shortening cycle be described? Select one: a. The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading b. The transition between the concentric and isometric phases c. The transition between the isometric and eccentric phases d. The transition from concentric loading to eccentric unloading
a. The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading
Which of the following best describes the role of micronutrients in the body? Select one: a. They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism. b. They are the primary source of energy for all physiologic processes. c. They are the primary energy source during short, high-intensity training. d. They provide some calories, and they are required for the regulation of muscle protein synthesis and glucose metabolism.
a. They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.
Which muscle acts to increase intra-abdominal pressure? Select one: a. Transverse abdominis b. Quadratus lumborum c. Pelvic floor musculature d. Diaphragm
a. Transverse abdominis
Which of the following is the most highly progressed plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Transverse plane box jump-down b. Sagittal plane box jump-down c. Frontal plane box jump-up d. Sagittal plane box jump-up
a. Transverse plane box jump-down
Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power? Select one: a. Triceps brachii b. Biceps brachii c. Latissimus dorsi d. Quadriceps
a. Triceps brachii
Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement? Select one: a. Two-arm push press b. Medicine ball chest pass c. Soccer throw d. Front medicine ball oblique throw
a. Two-arm push press
What type of diabetes occurs when cells are resistant to insulin, meaning that the insulin present cannot transfer adequate amounts of blood sugar into the cell? Select one: a. Type 2 b. Type 1 c. Prediabetes d. Gestational
a. Type 2
Local muscles typically consist of which type of muscle fibers? Select one: a. Type I b. Type IIa c. Type IIb d. Type IIc
a. Type I
What type of periodization uses changes in volume and intensity on a daily or weekly basis? Select one: a. Undulating b. Linear c. Macrocycle d. Mesocycle
a. Undulating
Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system? Select one: a. Visual system b. Auditory system c. Somatosensory system d. Vestibular system
a. Visual system
Which sense provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space? Select one: a. Visual system b. Hearing system c. Somatosensory system d. Vestibular system
a. Visual system
Which substrate provides nearly all the energy for activity at and above VT2? Select one: a. Fat b. Glucose c. Ketone bodies d. Protein
b. Glucose
When performing high-velocity movements with medicine balls, the ball weight should be no more than what percentage of the user's body weight, according to current recommendations? Select one: a. 0.2 b. 0.1 c. 0.4 d. 0.3
b. 0.1
What is the Tanaka formula, which is used to estimate an individual's maximal heart rate? Select one: a. HRmax x % intensity desired b. 208 - (0.7 x age) c. VO2max x % intensity desired d. [(HRmax - HRrest) x % intensity desired] + HRrest
b. 208 - (0.7 x age)
From the choices provided, what would be most recommended for SAQ drills per session with beginner clients? Select one: a. 1 or 2 drills b. 4 to 6 drills c. 9 or 10 drills d. 7 to 9 drills
b. 4 to 6 drills
How many B vitamins are there? Select one: a. 21 b. 8 c. 3 d. 12
b. 8
What is it called when a ligament is overstretched or torn? Select one: a. A twist b. A sprain c. A strain d. A pull
b. A sprain
Which of the following conditions would produce nutritional ketosis in the body? Select one: a. A low-protein diet b. A very low-carbohydrate diet c. High-intensity exercise d. A caloric surplus
b. A very low-carbohydrate diet
What mechanism is responsible for increasing the rate of heart conduction? Select one: a. Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system b. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system c. Activation of the intercalated discs d. Activation of sarcomeres
b. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system
The posterior oblique system includes which of the following muscle groups? Select one: a. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus b. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators c. Hamstrings and erector spinae d. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum
b. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators
What are nonessential amino acids? Select one: a. Amino acids that are not required in the body b. Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body if overall nutrition intake is adequate c. Amino acids that must be consumed in dietary protein and cannot be created by the body d. The by-product of the breakdown of animal proteins
b. Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body if overall nutrition intake is adequate
During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production? Select one: a. Stabilization b. Amortization c. Eccentric d. Concentric
b. Amortization
The PAR-Q+ and preparticipation process reflects what three health indicators? Select one: a. An individual's current level of physical activity, age, and weight b. An individual's current level of physical activity, the presence of signs and symptoms of disease, and the individual's desired exercise intensity c. An individual's habits related to exercise, diet, and sleep d. An individual's desired exercise intensity, body composition, and gender
b. An individual's current level of physical activity, the presence of signs and symptoms of disease, and the individual's desired exercise intensity
Marked out of 1.00 Question text Which of the following statements most accurately reflects ventilatory threshold one (VT1)? Select one: a. An intensity where continuous talking becomes almost impossible b. An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging c. An intensity where continuous talking is comfortable d. An intensity where continuous talking becomes difficult
b. An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging
Which of the following is a component of quickness training? Select one: a. Acceleration b. Assessment of visual stimuli c. Stride rate d. Speed
b. Assessment of visual stimuli
For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal? Select one: a. Decreased volume and intensity b. Body fat loss c. Muscle mass atrophy d. Muscle mass increase with no body fat loss
b. Body fat loss
What artery is used to measure blood pressure? Select one: a. Radial artery b. Brachial artery c. Carotid artery d. Femoral artery
b. Brachial artery
Most bodyweight training exercises are considered which type of movements? Select one: a. Suspended bodyweight movements b. Closed-chain movements c. Open-chain movements d. Loaded movements
b. Closed-chain movements
What type of muscle action would expend the highest amount of energy at a fixed resistance level over a comparable duration? Select one: a. Eccentric b. Concentric c. Isotonic d. Isometric
b. Concentric
Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Single-leg hops b. Depth jumps c. Box jumps d. Ice skaters
b. Depth jumps
What term is defined as the generic modifiable factors that impact behavior? Select one: a. Attitudes b. Determinants c. Self-efficacy d. Behavior change techniques
b. Determinants
Maintaining one's balance while running on an uneven surface can best be described as what type of balance? Select one: a. Stationary balance b. Dynamic balance c. Semi-dynamic balance d. Static balance
b. Dynamic balance
Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most freedom of movement in the transverse plane? Select one: a. Suspended chest press b. Elastic band woodchop c. Seated abdominal crunch machine d. Dumbbell lat row
b. Elastic band woodchop
Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in the United Kingdom? Select one: a. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) b. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA) c. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA) d. Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA)
b. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)
Which of the following is an example of a client's intrinsic motivation for exercise? Select one: a. Exercising because a doctor tells them to b. Exercising because it is fun c. Exercising because they value the health benefits d. Exercising because they feel guilty
b. Exercising because it is fun
What is the concept used to describe the action of muscles that have the ability to contract automatically in anticipation of movement? Select one: a. Antagonist function b. Feed-forward c. Synergist function d. Feedback
b. Feed-forward
a. More serious exercisers seeking to expand the capacity for both aerobic and anaerobic work b. Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss c. New exercisers seeking to improve health markers like reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease and diabetes d. Athletes or competitors who desire to improve speed or power during short but very-high-intensity bouts of wo
b. Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss
How is upper crossed syndrome characterized? Select one: a. Flat feet, knee valgus, and internally rotated and adducted hips b. Forward head and protracted shoulders c. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine d. Excessive forward lean and arms fall forward
b. Forward head and protracted shoulders
Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed? Select one: a. Lack of fatty acids b. Free hydrogen ions c. Depletion of phosphocreatine d. Lack of pyruvate
b. Free hydrogen ions
During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back? Select one: a. Hip flexion b. Hip extension c. Hip internal rotation d. Hip adduction
b. Hip extension
Which of these joint movements is part of backside mechanics? Select one: a. Knee flexion b. Hip extension c. Hip flexion d. Ankle dorsiflexion
b. Hip extension
What is defined as the state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream? Select one: a. Hyperglycemia b. Hypoglycemia c. Hypotension d. Hypertension
b. Hypoglycemia
Which of the following is a characteristic of linear periodization? Select one: a. Changes acute variables on a weekly basis b. Increases intensity while decreasing volume c. Involves training multiple styles each week d. Helps prevent workouts from becoming boring
b. Increases intensity while decreasing volume
What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) external rotation exercise primarily target? Select one: a. Quadratus lumborum and erector spinae b. Infraspinatus and teres minor c. Levator scapulae and sternocleidomastoid d. Rectus femoris and biceps femoris
b. Infraspinatus and teres minor
Which type of exercise accommodates effort whereby the harder the individual pushes or pulls, the more resistance they feel, despite the movement speed remaining constant? Select one: a. Isometric b. Isokinetic c. Eccentric d. Concentric
b. Isokinetic
What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing and jumping during plyometric training? Select one: a. Concentric b. Isometric c. Isokinetic d. Eccentric
b. Isometric
When discussing suspended bodyweight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement? Select one: a. It increases muscular hypertrophy. b. It increases flexibility and joint mobility. c. It decreases challenges to balance and stability. d. It decreases core muscle activation.
b. It increases flexibility and joint mobility.
Which option is an inaccurate description of the Valsalva maneuver? Select one: a. It involves expiring against a closed glottis. b. It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension. c. It can raise an individual's heart rate and blood pressure. d. It increases intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability.
b. It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension.
Which of the following is not considered a closed-chain exercise? Select one: a. Squats b. Lat pulldowns c. Push-ups d. Pull-ups
b. Lat pulldowns
Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core? Select one: a. Global muscles b. Local muscles c. Back muscles only d. Local and global muscles
b. Local muscles
Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise? Select one: a. Loaded movement training b. Low-impact activity c. High-impact activity d. Proprioceptive training
b. Low-impact activity
Which postural distortion is characterized by anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis (extension) of the lumbar spine? Select one: a. Pes planus distortion syndrome b. Lower crossed syndrome c. Excessive pronation d. Upper crossed syndrome
b. Lower crossed syndrome
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility? Select one: a. 40-yard dash b. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT) c. Pro shuttle d. Vertical jump
b. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment? Select one: a. Cervical extensors b. Lower trapezius c. Upper trapezius d. Serratus anterior
b. Lower trapezius
Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect? Select one: a. Intervals are performed at higher intensities and use longer recovery periods. b. Measuring intensity by one's "effort" (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity. c. It can produce results in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work. d. Measuring intensity by performance (objective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.
b. Measuring intensity by one's "effort" (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.
What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling? Select one: a. Davis's law and Wolf's law b. Mechanical and neurophysiological response c. Pain response and muscle spasm d. Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) and increased strength
b. Mechanical and neurophysiological response
Which modality allows for movements to occur as explosively as possible without the need for eccentric deceleration? Select one: a. Suspended bodyweight training b. Medicine ball c. Resistance band d. Kettlebell
b. Medicine ball
Which of the following exercises may increase inaccurate readings while utilizing a wrist-worn heart rate monitor? Select one: a. Barbell squats b. Medicine ball catch and pass c. Suspended bodyweight crunch d. Stability ball plank
b. Medicine ball catch and pass
The intensity and direction of someone's effort describes which of the following? Select one: a. Initiative b. Motivation c. Ambition d. Aspiration
b. Motivation
Which of the following does plyometric training help increase? Select one: a. Overall base strength b. Motor unit recruitment c. Balance d. Core stability
b. Motor unit recruitment
Which structures of the body does osteoporosis commonly affect? Select one: a. Cranium and facial bones b. Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae c. Sternum and clavicle d. Scapula and humerus
b. Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae
Which of the following parts of the body is not subject to increases in density through resistance training? Select one: a. Soft tissue b. Nerves c. Bone d. Heart
b. Nerves
What principle describes the nervous system's ability to recruit the correct muscles to perform movement? Select one: a. All-or-nothing principle b. Neuromuscular efficiency c. Concentric control d. Eccentric control
b. Neuromuscular efficiency
Which joint has the simplest movement, moving either back and forth or side to side? Select one: a. Synovial b. Nonaxial c. Condyloid d. Nonsynovial
b. Nonaxial
Which of the following statements is the most accurate when discussing strength-training machines? Select one: a. Machines are superior to free weights for improving core stability because they increase core stability demands. b. Not all strength-training machines are designed to fit all body types and thus can limit the effectiveness of the intended exercise. c. Machines always work well for those who are obese or are smaller or taller than average. d. Machines work in multiple planes and allow for greater gains in strength development.
b. Not all strength-training machines are designed to fit all body types and thus can limit the effectiveness of the intended exercise.
How many pages are most appropriate for a resume? Select one: a. Two to three pages b. One to two pages c. Three to four pages d. One page only
b. One to two pages
What concern should you have when prescribing flexibility exercises to a client with osteoporosis? Select one: a. Osteoporosis is not a contraindication for any flexibility exercises. b. Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling. c. Osteoporosis is not considered a precaution for static stretching. d. Osteoporosis is considered more than a precaution for myofascial rolling.
b. Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling.
Extrinsic motivation is characterized by which of the following? Select one: a. A drive to be good at something b. Participating in an activity or behavior for some type of reward or recognition from others c. Being motivated by the process of changing behaviors d. Being motivated by a fear of failure
b. Participating in an activity or behavior for some type of reward or recognition from others
The TRX Rip Trainer should be most beneficial to which of the following phases of the OPT model? Select one: a. Phases 3, 4, and 5 b. Phases 1, 2, and 5 c. Phases 1 and 3 d. Phases 2, 3, and 4
b. Phases 1, 2, and 5
Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise? Select one: a. Power training b. Plyometric training c. SAQ training d. Stabilization training
b. Plyometric training
Which is a primary adaptation of the Stabilization Endurance phase? Select one: a. Rate of force production b. Postural alignment c. Core strength d. Maximal muscular strength
b. Postural alignment
In which phase of training would a person want to spend more time if they were looking to become better at beach volleyball and already has adequate leg strength? Select one: a. Strength Endurance Training b. Power Training c. Muscular Development Training d. Stabilization Endurance Training
b. Power Training
A Certified Personal Trainer wants to improve a client's outcome expectations for resistance training. What behavior change technique might they use? Select one: a. Improving their confidence for their technique b. Providing information on the health benefits c. Helping make the exercises fun d. Helping them make a plan
b. Providing information on the health benefits
Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training? Select one: a. Coordination b. Quickness c. Agility d. Balance
b. Quickness
Which of the following markers of exercise intensity is considered to be the most subjective? Select one: a. Percentage of VO2max b. Ratings of perceived exertion c. Metabolic equivalents d. Percentage of maximal heart rate
b. Ratings of perceived exertion
What term refers to the ability of a test to produce consistent and repeatable results? Select one: a. Appropriateness b. Reliability c. Relevance d. Validity
b. Reliability
Which essential component of an OPT workout is beneficial for developing stability, muscular endurance, hypertrophy, strength, power, and athleticism? Select one: a. Activation b. Resistance training c. Warm-up d. Skill development
b. Resistance training
Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core? Select one: a. Iliopsoas b. Rotatores c. Latissimus dorsi d. Rectus abdominis
b. Rotatores
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise? Select one: a. Wrist flexion, elbow flexion, and shoulder flexion b. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra c. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation d. Hip adduction, flexion, and internal rotation
b. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
Programming exercises that are too advanced or physically demanding can have a lasting effect on which of the client's emotional considerations? Select one: a. Self-image b. Self-efficacy c. Self-esteem d. Resilience
b. Self-efficacy
Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control within a stationary limit of stability but with a moving base of support? Select one: a. Dynamic balance b. Semi-dynamic balance c. Moderate-level balance d. Static balance
b. Semi-dynamic balance
What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ? Select one: a. Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse b. Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change c. Sense the amount of isometric tendon force and speed of shortening d. Sense the amount of eccentric tendon force and joint range of motion
b. Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core? Select one: a. Medicine ball soccer throw b. Side plank c. Floor crunch d. Cable rotation
b. Side plank
What is a regression for the box jump-up with stabilization? Select one: a. Depth jumps b. Squat jump with stabilization c. Multiplanar jump with stabilization d. Box jump-down with stabilization
b. Squat jump with stabilization
Which client position during exercise has been shown to lead to the highest core muscle activity during breathing exercises? Select one: a. Kneeling b. Standing c. Sitting d. Lying down on back
b. Standing
What plyometric term relates to a rapid eccentric motion followed by an explosive concentric motion? Select one: a. Explosive-shortening phase b. Stretch-shortening cycle c. Muscular-power phase d. Stretching phase
b. Stretch-shortening cycle
The standard Jackson and Pollock 3-Site protocol for women requires skinfold measurements at which of the following sites? Select one: a. Abdomen, thigh, and suprailiac b. Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps c. Chest, suprailiac, and abdomen d. Triceps, abdomen, and thigh
b. Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps
The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term? Select one: a. Altered reciprocal inhibition b. Synergistic dominance c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Altered length-tension relationship
b. Synergistic dominance
Which of the following examples describes a muscle that is functioning as an antagonist? Select one: a. The serratus anterior being active during shoulder flexion b. The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension c. The infraspinatus being active during shoulder external rotation d. The transversus abdominus being active during hip extension
b. The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension
Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic? Select one: a. The exercise targets large muscle groups. b. The exercise is intense. c. The exercise is continuous in nature. d. The exercise is rhythmic.
b. The exercise is intense.
Which physiological systems comprise the human movement system (HMS)? Select one: a. The vision, vestibular, and somatosensory systems b. The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems c. These are not the physiological systems that comprise the HMS. d. The sight, hearing, and taste systems
b. The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems
What is the function of the neuromuscular junction? Select one: a. Exposing actin-binding sites b. The site where the nervous system and muscle fibers communicate c. The sliding filament theory d. The site of muscular contractions
b. The site where the nervous system and muscle fibers communicate
Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in Australia? Select one: a. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) b. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA) c. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) d. Health Canada
b. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)
During normal walking, the pelvis rotates in what plane to facilitate the necessary momentum for the swing phase? Select one: a. Sagittal b. Transverse c. Frontal d. Axial
b. Transverse
When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia? Select one: a. Rectus abdominis b. Transverse abdominis c. Diaphragm d. Sternocleidomastoid
b. Transverse abdominis
Question 45 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Question text Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment? Select one: a. Infraspinatus b. Upper trapezius c. Lower trapezius d. Latissimus dorsi
b. Upper trapezius
Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding proprioceptive modalities? Select one: a. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities has been shown to be safe and effective. b. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous. c. Proprioceptive modalities have not been shown to help improve balance. d. Proprioceptive modalities should be used only with the most advanced clients.
b. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous.
Which of the following is a question that may promote change? Select one: a. Why can't you make this change to your schedule? b. What might you want to change? c. What makes you think that you're not at risk? d. Why don't you just do this?
b. What might you want to change?
When is a muscle considered overactive? Select one: a. When a muscle is experiencing neural inhibition and limited neuromuscular recruitment b. When it is in a state of elevated neural activity (compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be held in a chronic state of contraction c. When it is in a state of elevated neural activity (compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be held in a chronic state of relaxation d. When a muscle is elongated and in a state of reduced neural activity
b. When it is in a state of elevated neural activity (compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be held in a chronic state of contraction
Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels? Select one: a. Rockport 1-mile walk test b. YMCA 3-minute step test c. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test d. Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) test
b. YMCA 3-minute step test
What are the recommended training variables for active stretching? Select one: a. 4 to 6 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 3 repetitions b. 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, and repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions c. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions d. 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions
c. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions
You have a youth client. What training frequency is most recommended for a young athlete performing SAQ? Select one: a. 4 or 5 times per week b. 5 to 7 times per week c. 1 to 3 times per week d. 0 times per week
c. 1 to 3 times per week
What is the minimum weekly goal of energy expenditure from combined physical activity and exercise for obese clients? Select one: a. 5,000 kcal b. 12,000 kcal c. 1,200 kcal d. 500 kcal
c. 1,200 kcal
What weekly progression rate in exercise volume is the maximum recommended for cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. 20% per week b. 25% per week c. 10% per week d. <15% per week
c. 10% per week
Identify the correct number of continuing education units (CEUs) that an NASM Certified Personal Trainer needs to complete in a 2-year cycle to renew the certification. Select one: a. 4.5 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1.5
c. 2
Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular endurance adaptations? Select one: a. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM b. 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM c. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM d. 3 sets, 10 repetitions, 77% 1RM
c. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM
What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest? Select one: a. 2.5 mL/kg/min b. 5.0 mL/kg/min c. 3.5 mL/kg/min d. 7.0 mL/kg/min
c. 3.5 mL/kg/min
According to the NASM Code of Professional Conduct, for how long must a fitness professional maintain accurate financial, contract, appointment, and tax records? Select one: a. Indefinitely b. 1 year c. 4 years d. 6 months
c. 4 years
Which of the following would be the recommended stability ball size for someone under 5 feet tall? Select one: a. 75 cm b. 65 cm c. 45 cm d. 55 cm
c. 45 cm
What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking? Select one: a. 4 times a week b. 6 times a week c. 5 times a week d. 3 times a week
c. 5 times a week
How is an isokinetic muscle contraction best described? Select one: a. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is created without a change in length and no visible movement of the joint b. A contraction that occurs when a muscle is exerting force greater than the resistive force, resulting in a shortening of the muscle c. A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted d. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is developed and movement occurs through a given range of motion at a speed that may vary
c. A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted
What is it called when a ligament is overstretched or torn? Select one: a. A twist b. A strain c. A sprain d. A pull
c. A sprain
Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location? Select one: a. A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button) b. A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line) c. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button) d. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line
c. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
What is the high-energy compound used by the body to do work? Select one: a. Fat b. ADP c. ATP d. Glucose
c. ATP
What are the end products of the electron transport chain? Select one: a. ADP and hydrogen ions b. ADP and water c. ATP and water d. ATP and oxygen
c. ATP and water
Before carbohydrates, fat, or protein can enter the citric acid cycle (CAC), they need to be converted to what common molecule? Select one: a. ATP b. Amino acids c. Acetyl CoA d. Pyruvate
c. Acetyl CoA
Which of the following would occur during intermittent exercise? Select one: a. A steady-state intensity would be used. b. Carbohydrates would not be a major energy source. c. All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity. d. Fat would be the main energy source.
c. All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity.
What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex? Select one: a. Altered length-tension relationship b. Reciprocal inhibition c. Altered reciprocal inhibition d. Synergistic dominance
c. Altered reciprocal inhibition
Which of the following statements most accurately reflects ventilatory threshold one (VT1)? Select one: a. An intensity where continuous talking becomes almost impossible b. An intensity where continuous talking becomes difficult c. An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging d. An intensity where continuous talking is comfortable
c. An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging
What best describes triple flexion when referring to frontside mechanics? Select one: a. Ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension of the rear leg b. Ankle dorsiflexion, hip flexion of the lead leg, and elbow flexion c. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg d. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the rear leg
c. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg
How is lower crossed syndrome characterized? Select one: a. Posterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine b. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive kyphosis of the lumbar spine c. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine d. Flat feet, knee valgus, and internally rotated and adducted hips
c. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine
Which of the following vitamins or groups of vitamins plays a key role in energy metabolism? Select one: a. Vitamin C b. Fat-soluble vitamins c. B vitamins d. Water-soluble vitamins
c. B vitamins
Agility plus which of the following concepts are separate but related concepts that both fit underneath the umbrella of agility training? Select one: a. Speed b. Strength c. Change of direction d. Power
c. Change of direction
Which term best describes a class of chronic respiratory dysfunctions that are characterized by increased breathlessness, airflow limitation, and accelerated decline of lung function? Select one: a. Asthma b. Hypertension c. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) d. Lung cancer
c. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
What is a metabolic disorder in which the body does not produce enough insulin or cannot respond normally to the insulin that is made? Select one: a. Hypertension b. Intermittent claudication c. Diabetes d. Dyspnea
c. Diabetes
Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain the center of mass over an ever-changing limit of stability? Select one: a. Semi-dynamic balance b. High-level balance c. Dynamic balance d. Static balance
c. Dynamic balance
What is the correct order of fascia, starting with the most superficial? Select one: a. Epimysium, endomysium, perimysium b. Endomysium, perimysium, epimysium c. Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium d. Perimysium, endomysium, epimysium
c. Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium
In a group exercise setting within a fitness facility, which person should greet all members, make everyone feel welcome, and ensure that participants have the right equipment and attire to participate safely? Select one: a. Fitness manager b. Certified Personal Trainer c. Exercise leader d. General manager
c. Exercise leader
What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints? Select one: a. Feet, ankles, knees, torso, and neck b. Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck c. Feet and ankles, LPHC, shoulders, head, and neck d. Feet, ankles, knees, abdomen, and chest
c. Feet and ankles, LPHC, shoulders, head, and neck
What depth is suggested for the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Knees to 45 degrees b. Butt to heels c. Femur parallel to ground d. Full-depth squat
c. Femur parallel to ground
What are ground reaction forces? Select one: a. Deceleration forces in the muscles b. Forces used by the muscles during a jump c. Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping d. The force of gravity
c. Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping
What term is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers? Select one: a. Venous pooling b. Peripheral resistance c. Frank Starling Law of the Heart d. Valsalva maneuver
c. Frank Starling Law of the Heart
Question 80 When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2? Select one: a. Above VT2 b. Below VT1 c. From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 d. From the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 up to VT2
c. From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2
When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2? Select one: a. Above VT2 b. Below VT1 c. From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 d. From the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 up to VT2
c. From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2
Strength-training machines provide training primarily in which planes of motion? Select one: a. Sagittal and transverse b. Transverse and frontal c. Frontal and sagittal d. All planes of motion
c. Frontal and sagittal
Scoliosis refers to deviations of the spine in which plane of motion? Select one: a. Transverse plane b. Sagittal plane c. Frontal plane d. Horizontal plane
c. Frontal plane
Which muscles are typically overactive when the feet turn out? Select one: a. Adductor complex b. Upper trapezius c. Gastrocnemius and soleus d. Hip flexors
c. Gastrocnemius and soleus
A client plans to go for a 10-mile run, but they become fatigued after 7 miles, so they stop. What is the most likely cause of this fatigue? Select one: a. Phosphocreatine was depleted. b. ADP was depleted. c. Glycogen stores were exhausted. d. Fatty acid stores were exhausted. Feedback
c. Glycogen stores were exhausted.
What is the number one cause of death in the United States? Select one: a. Smoking b. Obesity c. Heart disease d. Cancer
c. Heart disease
What is defined as the state of elevated glucose in the bloodstream? Select one: a. Hypoglycemia b. Hypotension c. Hyperglycemia d. Hypertension
c. Hyperglycemia
What population is the VT2 talk test appropriate for? Select one: a. Elderly individuals b. Individuals recovering from an injury c. Individuals with performance goals d. Deconditioned individuals
c. Individuals with performance goals
mproving this using balance training would most likely decrease the risk of injury. Select one: a. Performance b. Rehabilitation c. Injury resistance d. Posture
c. Injury resistance
Which type of training can be used to improve activation of core muscles compared to traditional core training? Select one: a. Planking on a stable surface b. Prone dead bugs on floor c. Instability training using a stability ball d. Marching on a stable surface
c. Instability training using a stability ball
Implementing exercise concepts like core, balance, and agility training with resistance training methods indicates what style of training? Select one: a. Isolated training b. Circuit training c. Integrated training d. Hypertrophy training
c. Integrated training
Long-term exercise adherence is associated with which type of motivation? Select one: a. Extrinsic motivation b. Incentive motivation c. Intrinsic motivation d. Amotivation
c. Intrinsic motivation
Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will help them improve which of the following? Select one: a. Force production b. Core stability c. Landing mechanics d. Power development
c. Landing mechanics
What is the primary limiting factor for exercise in the client with PAD? Select one: a. Neck pain b. Low-back pain c. Leg pain d. Shoulder pain
c. Leg pain
The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of? Select one: a. Posture specificity b. Metabolic specificity c. Mechanical specificity d. Neuromuscular specificity
c. Mechanical specificity
What is defined as the ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time? Select one: a. Muscular hypertrophy b. Rate of force production c. Muscular endurance d. Stabilization
c. Muscular endurance
What causes initial improvements in strength when youths engage in a resistance training program? Select one: a. Sarcopenia b. Muscle hypertrophy c. Neural adaptations d. Muscle atrophy
c. Neural adaptations
Which term specifically describes motor function of muscles in the lower extremity? Select one: a. Afferent nerve function b. Vestibular function c. Neuromuscular function d. Sensory function
c. Neuromuscular function
Which type of joint includes the sutures of the skull? Select one: a. Condyloid b. Ball-and-socket c. Nonsynovial d. Pivot
c. Nonsynovial
Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs? Select one: a. Kinesiology b. Arthrokinematics c. Osteokinematics d. Biomechanics
c. Osteokinematics
If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity? Select one: a. Beta-oxidation b. Glycolysis c. Oxidative phosphorylation d. The ATP-PC system
c. Oxidative phosphorylation
Omega-3 fatty acids do not include which of the following fatty acids? Select one: a. Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) b. Alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) c. Palmitic acid d. Docosahexaenoic acid (DHA)
c. Palmitic acid
What tests should be performed last in the overall assessment flow? Select one: a. Body composition b. Movement assessments c. Performance assessments d. Biometric data
c. Performance assessments
What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body? Select one: a. Blood pressure b. Thermoregulation c. Peripheral vasodilation d. Heart rate
c. Peripheral vasodilation
A Certified Personal Trainer may seek further proprioceptive development in which of the following phases? Select one: a. Phase 3 b. Phase 4 c. Phase 1 d. Phase 2
c. Phase 1
In which phase of the OPT model would suspended bodyweight training be the most desirable for optimal outcomes? Select one: a. Phase 3 b. Phase 5 c. Phase 2 d. Phase 4
c. Phase 2
What types of foods contain carbohydrates? Select one: a. All foods b. Animal and plant foods c. Plant foods and dairy d. Proteins
c. Plant foods and dairy
Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness? Select one: a. Flexibility b. Aerobic fitness c. Power d. Muscular strength
c. Power
What is a key mechanism involved in internal feedback? Select one: a. Motivation b. Knowledge of performance c. Proprioception d. Knowledge of results
c. Proprioception
When performing a dumbbell biceps curl, the biceps brachii is considered the agonist (prime mover), and the triceps become the inhibited antagonist. What is this phenomenon called? Select one: a. Isometric contraction b. Stretch reflex c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Autogenic inhibition
c. Reciprocal inhibition
Which component of blood is primarily responsible for transporting oxygenated blood throughout the body? Select one: a. Plasma b. Platelets c. Red blood cells d. White blood cells
c. Red blood cells
What is the process by which bone is constantly renewed? Select one: a. Osteoporosis b. Neuroplasticity c. Remodeling d. Wolff's law
c. Remodeling
Which of the following is a component of total daily energy expenditure (TDEE)? Select one: a. Thermic effect of fasting (TEF) b. Nonexercise anabolic thermogenesis (NEAT) c. Resting metabolic rate (RMR) d. Elapsed activity thermogenesis (EAT)
c. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
Where in the heart is the sinoatrial node located? Select one: a. Left ventricle b. Right ventricle c. Right atrium d. Left atrium
c. Right atrium
Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood and pumps it to the lungs? Select one: a. Left atrium b. Right atrium c. Right ventricle d. Left ventricle
c. Right ventricle
When developing a safe and effective warm-up for Phase 1, what is an important consideration for flexibility? Select one: a. Active stretches b. Sports drills c. Self-myofascial techniques d. Dynamic stretches
c. Self-myofascial techniques
When a client's heart rate is raised during cardio activities, this is being caused by which system? Select one: a. Central nervous system b. Parasympathetic nervous system c. Sympathetic nervous system d. Somatic nervous system
c. Sympathetic nervous system
Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to cancer? Select one: a. Resistance training is contraindicated for clients with diagnosed cancer. b. Balance training poses serious risks to the hips and pelvis. c. Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments. d. Core training poses serious risks to the vertebral column.
c. Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments.
Maintaining one's balance while on a skateboard that is moving while the feet remain in a fixed position can be described as what type of balance? Select one: a. Stationary balance b. Static balance c. Semi-dynamic balance d. Dynamic balance
c. Semi-dynamic balance
What anatomical heart structure is referred to as "the pacemaker of the heart"? Select one: a. Intercalated discs b. Atrioventricular node c. Sinoatrial node d. Right bundle branch
c. Sinoatrial node
Where in the digestive system are most fluids absorbed? Select one: a. Stomach b. Esophagus c. Small intestine d. Large intestine
c. Small intestine
Which two electrolytes are most commonly supplemented by athletes to replace those lost in sweat? Select one: a. Magnesium and sodium b. Sodium and calcium c. Sodium and potassium d. Potassium and manganese
c. Sodium and potassium
Which of the following terms can be used in place of repetition tempo? Select one: a. Rest interval b. Intensity c. Speed d. Training duration
c. Speed
Which balance task would require significant use of the vestibular system? Select one: a. Naming the months of the year while standing on one limb b. Standing on two limbs with eyes open c. Squatting on one limb with eyes closed d. Standing on two limbs catching a ball
c. Squatting on one limb with eyes closed
When progressing a client to more-dynamic plyometric exercises, what is the first element that should be increased? Select one: a. Explosiveness b. Speed c. Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing d. Rate of force production
c. Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing
What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when a synergist muscle takes over for a weak or inhibited muscle? Select one: a. Altered reciprocal inhibition b. Reciprocal inhibition c. Synergistic dominance d. Altered length-tension relationship
c. Synergistic dominance
Which joints are most associated with human movement? Select one: a. Nonaxial b. Nonsynovial c. Synovial d. Saddle
c. Synovial
Which of the following blood pressure values would be classified as normal according to the American Heart Association? Select one: a. Systolic 120 to 129 and diastolic <80 b. Systolic 130 to 139 or diastolic 80 to 89 c. Systolic <120 and diastolic <80 d. Systolic >180 and/or diastolic >120
c. Systolic <120 and diastolic <80
If someone engages in a short, intense burst of activity lasting less than 30 seconds, which energy system will contribute the most to ATP production? Select one: a. The citric acid cycle b. Glycolysis c. The ATP-PC system d. Oxidative phosphorylation
c. The ATP-PC system
What are the two components of the central nervous system? Select one: a. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems b. The somatic and autonomic nervous systems c. The brain and spinal cord d. The nerves and sensory receptors
c. The brain and spinal cord
What is reached when a talk test during exercise reveals a client to be working at ventilatory threshold 2? Select one: a. The ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels b. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for only few seconds c. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes d. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
c. The level at which the body can work at its highest sustainable steady-state intensity for more than a few minutes
A hypertensive client is taking a beta-blocker medication. What is the most appropriate method to monitor exercise intensity? Select one: a. The Tanaka formula b. Metabolic Equivalent (MET) c. The talk test d. Haskell's 220-minus-age formula
c. The talk test
What is the purpose of a professional personal training certification? Select one: a. To ensure gyms and health clubs follow rules established by OSHA b. To demonstrate that an individual is committed to the field of personal training c. To ensure that individual job candidates can demonstrate the ability to perform the tasks required for this job category d. To abide by federal guidelines that require certification for fitness professionals
c. To ensure that individual job candidates can demonstrate the ability to perform the tasks required for this job category
Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Latissimus dorsi c. Transverse abdominis d. Rectus abdominis
c. Transverse abdominis
Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure? Select one: a. Reliability b. Relevance c. Validity d. Appropriateness
c. Validity
What is the most valid measurement of aerobic fitness? Select one: a. Rockport walk test b. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test c. V̇O2max d. YMCA 3-minute step test
c. V̇O2maxc. V̇O2max
Which of the following waist-to-hip ratios (WHRs) places Amy (a female) in the high-risk category for cardiovascular disease? Select one: a. WHR of 0.78 b. WHR of 0.83 c. WHR of 0.88 d. WHR of 0.72
c. WHR of 0.88
In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases? Select one: a. Zone 1 b. Zone 4 c. Zone 3 d. Zone 2
c. Zone 3
What is the general recommended rest for advanced clients between SAQ reps? Select one: a. 90 to 120 seconds b. 180 to 240 seconds c. 120 to 180 seconds d. 0 to 90 seconds
d. 0 to 90 seconds
According to the text, what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese? Select one: a. 0.62 b. 0.92 c. 0.22 d. 0.72
d. 0.72
What is the corresponding heart rate for an intensity scored as 14 on the original Borg 6 to 20 scale of exertion? Select one: a. Unable to estimate because the Borg 6 to 20 scale applies only to vigorous exercise b. Unable to estimate because RPE does not correlate with heart rate c. 120 beats per minute d. 140 beats per minute
d. 140 beats per minute
What is a normal respiratory rate for an adult during rest? Select one: a. 19 breaths per minute b. 25 breaths per minute c. 7 breaths per minute d. 15 breaths per minute
d. 15 breaths per minute
How much rest should be given between each repetition of an SAQ exercise for young athletes? Select one: a. Less than 15 seconds b. 60 to 90 seconds c. 90 to 120 seconds d. 15 to 60 seconds
d. 15 to 60 seconds
e training a youth client. What is the best choice for number of SAQ drills per workout for this athlete? Select one: a. 9 or 10 drills per workout b. 2 or 3 drills per workout c. 1 or 2 drills per workout d. 4 to 8 drills per workout
d. 4 to 8 drills per workout
What is the recommended recovery time between bouts of plyometric training for novice clients? Select one: a. 1 week b. 24 hours c. 12 hours d. 48 to 72 hours
d. 48 to 72 hours
What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking? Select one: a. 3 times a week b. 4 times a week c. 6 times a week d. 5 times a week
d. 5 times a week
What is the sufficient recovery time that is generally needed between plyometric exercises during a workout? Select one: a. 5 minutes b. 0 seconds c. 30 seconds d. 60 to 120 seconds
d. 60 to 120 seconds
What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)? Select one: a. 120 minutes per week b. 90 minutes per week c. 60 minutes per week d. 75 minutes per week
d. 75 minutes per week
Which regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curves? Select one: a. Thoracic and lumbar b. Cervical and sacral c. Cervical and thoracic d. Cervical and lumbar
d. Cervical and lumbar
What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)? Select one: a. A questionnaire with lists of questions that pertain to health history and habits, such as exercise history, eating behaviors, and general lifestyle b. A screening tool used to evaluate the benefits and the risks associated with starting any type of exercise that is strenuous in nature c. A screening where the results indicate a need for medical clearance, when one is not, in fact, needed d. A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual's physical readiness to engage in structured exercise
d. A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual's physical readiness to engage in structured exercise
Circuit training is best described as what? Select one: a. Taking two modalities and combining them into one exercise movement, such as placing the hands on a balance tool while performing a suspended crunch b. A system of handing straps that allows the user to use their own body weight to load exercise movements c. Exercises that are performed back-to-back with no rest between each movement d. A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements
d. A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements
What is the principle of specificity? Select one: a. The body's ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts b. The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium c. The phenomenon by which acute muscle force generation is increased as a result of the inner contraction of the muscle d. A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it
d. A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it
What are the fat-soluble vitamins? Select one: a. A, B12, C, and D b. B12, B6, and C c. C, D, and K d. A, D, E, and K
d. A, D, E, and K
Core and balance exercises are a component of which part of an OPT workout? Select one: a. Resistance training b. Client's choice c. Skill development d. Activation
d. Activation
Which form of SAQ training is characterized by the ability to start, stop, and change direction in response to a signal or stimulus quickly while maintaining postural control? Select one: a. Quickness b. Speed c. Stride rate d. Agility
d. Agility
Your client Ethan presents with an overactive/shortened quadriceps group, which is causing the hamstrings to be underactive/lengthened. What is this phenomenon called? Select one: a. Eccentric overload b. Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) c. Overtraining syndrome d. Altered reciprocal inhibition
d. Altered reciprocal inhibition
The process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gases in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures? Select one: a. Bronchioles b. Trachea c. Pulmonary arteries d. Alveolar sacs
d. Alveolar sacs
What are essential amino acids? Select one: a. Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body b. The only type of amino acid found in protein sources c. Amino acids responsible for protein synthesis d. Amino acids that must be consumed because they cannot be created by the body
d. Amino acids that must be consumed because they cannot be created by the body
What principle is hydrostatic underwater weighing based upon? Select one: a. Davis's principle b. All-or-nothing principle c. Principle of specificity d. Archimedes' principle
d. Archimedes' principle
Which term best describes motion at the joint surface? Select one: a. Biomechanics b. Osteokinematics c. Kinesiology d. Arthrokinematics
d. Arthrokinematics
Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during a concentric contraction? Select one: a. As velocity decreases, the force remains constant. b. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action increases, its ability to produce force increases. c. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action decreases, its ability to produce force decreases. d. As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases.
d. As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases.
What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle? Select one: a. Acidosis b. Ketosis c. Glycolysis d. Beta-oxidation Feedback
d. Beta-oxidation Feedback
Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a biceps curl exercise with the thumb up? Select one: a. Biceps brachii b. Triceps brachii c. Brachialis d. Brachioradialis
d. Brachioradialis
Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to arthritis? Select one: a. Physical activity tends to aggravate arthritic symptoms. b. Plyometric training alleviates arthritic symptoms. c. High-intensity resistance training is appropriate to improve joint integrity. d. Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax).
d. Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax).
Which statement about a Certified Personal Trainer's scope of practice is accurate? Select one: a. Certified Personal Trainers have specific governmental regulations that define their scope of practice. b. The scope of practice for Certified Personal Trainers is consistent globally. c. Once certified, a personal trainer is bound by law in the United States to a specific scope of practice. d. Certified Personal Trainers do not diagnose or treat areas of pain or disease.
d. Certified Personal Trainers do not diagnose or treat areas of pain or disease.
The ability of an individual to maintain proper spinal and hip posture while the extremities are moving most accurately describes which term? Select one: a. Core strength b. Core endurance c. Core power d. Core stability
d. Core stability
Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement? Select one: a. Core endurance b. Core power c. Core stability d. Core strength
d. Core strength
What is the superior boundary of the core? Select one: a. Pelvic floor and hip musculature b. Abdominal muscles c. Lumbar spine and gluteal muscles d. Diaphragm
d. Diaphragm
What is the blood pressure measurement that occurs when the heart is at rest or between beats? Select one: a. Pulse b. Systolic blood pressure c. Hypertension d. Diastolic blood pressure
d. Diastolic blood pressure
How is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) best defined? Select one: a. The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest b. The rate at which the body expends energy (calories) when fasted and at complete rest, such as asleep or lying quietly c. Energy expenditure through structured exercise alone, such as strength training and cardiorespiratory exercise d. Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs
d. Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs
Which of the following is not a component that needs to be considered when planning a VT1 test? Select one: a. Talk test b. Duration of each stage c. Exercise modality d. Environmental temperature
d. Environmental temperature
Which muscle functions as part of the global muscular system? Select one: a. Internal oblique b. Transversus abdominis c. Multifidus d. Erector spinae
d. Erector spinae
Which source of social support has been shown to be particularly important for older adults? Select one: a. Exercise leader b. The community c. Exercise group d. Family
d. Family
If the client cannot reach their foot during a single-leg squat touchdown, which is the first modification that can be employed? Select one: a. Reach to their shin b. Reach to their toes c. Reach to their waist d. Reach to their knee
d. Reach to their knee
Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through? Select one: a. Glycolysis b. Oxidation c. Oxidative phosphorylation d. Gluconeogenesis
d. Gluconeogenesis
Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat? Select one: a. Lower trapezius b. Adductor complex c. Tensor fascia latae d. Gluteus maximus and medius
d. Gluteus maximus and medius
The impact that family members, peers, or coworkers have over someone's decision to exercise describes which of the following terms? Select one: a. Societal influence b. Health influence c. Peer pressure d. Group influence
d. Group influence
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Gluteus medius b. Hamstrings complex c. Gluteus maximus d. Hip flexor complex
d. Hip flexor complex
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus b. Hamstrings complex c. Gluteus medius d. Hip flexors
d. Hip flexors
What behavior change technique is a specific plan that drives behavior by identifying cues toward action? Select one: a. Guided practice b. Self-monitoring c. Coping plan d. Implementation intention
d. Implementation intention
The center of gravity moves in which direction when the knees and hips are equally flexed bilaterally? Select one: a. Superiorly b. Laterally c. Medially d. Inferiorly
d. Inferiorly
Why is it important for clients to learn how to accelerate, decelerate, and stabilize in all planes of motion? Select one: a. Most injuries occur in the sagittal plane. b. Athletic performance is a universal goal. c. Multiplanar training eliminates the risk for injury. d. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.
d. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.
Which term best describes core training's effect on decreasing the incidence of new injuries? Select one: a. Improved posture b. Rehabilitation c. Performance d. Injury resistance
d. Injury resistance
Which of the following phases does not reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. Cool-down phase b. Warm-up phase c. Conditioning phase d. Interval phase
d. Interval phase
Which type of exercise accommodates effort whereby the harder the individual pushes or pulls, the more resistance they feel, despite the movement speed remaining constant? Select one: a. Concentric b. Isometric c. Eccentric d. Isokinetic
d. Isokinetic
What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques? Select one: a. Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis b. Cancer and bleeding disorders c. Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension d. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
d. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
Which individual is suffering from an acute disease? Select one: a. Perry, who suffers from a congenital heart condition b. Roger, who has type 2 diabetes c. Tricia, who has type 1 diabetes d. Jorge, who is sick with the flu
d. Jorge, who is sick with the flu
Which of the following exercises provides the most challenge for the antirotational stabilizing muscles? Select one: a. Stability ball abdominal crunches b. Sandbag rotational lunge c. Cable machine single-arm row d. Kettlebell RDL
d. Kettlebell RDL
Extension of the shoulder is common in many pulling movements. Which of the following muscles is involved? Select one: a. Anterior deltoid b. Gluteus maximus c. Pectoralis major d. Latissimus dorsi
d. Latissimus dorsi
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with upper crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Hip flexors b. Upper trapezius c. Abdominals d. Lower trapezius
d. Lower trapezius
What area of the chest contains the heart? Select one: a. Atrium b. Myofibril c. Ventricle d. Mediastinum
d. Mediastinum
Which muscle is classified as a local muscle involved in stabilizing the spine? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Erector spinae c. Iliopsoas d. Multifidus
d. Multifidus
What is the name of the specialized cell that is the functional unit of the nervous system? Select one: a. Nucleus b. Spindles c. Axon d. Neuron
d. Neuron
Flexibility is defined as the following: Select one: a. A muscle's capability to be elongated or stretched b. Optimal flexibility, joint range of motion, and the ability to move freely c. The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move, often measured in degrees d. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion
d. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion
Which type of lipids are considered to be heart-healthy and associated with reduced inflammation? Select one: a. Omega-6 fatty acids b. Monounsaturated fats c. Polyunsaturated fats d. Omega-3 fatty acids
d. Omega-3 fatty acids
SAQ training among seniors may help prevent which of the following conditions? Select one: a. Arthritis b. There is no evidence to show that SAQ programs for seniors may prevent this condition. c. Lung cancer d. Osteopenia
d. Osteopenia
A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive? Select one: a. Overactive core stabilizers and underactive hip flexors b. Overactive hip adductors and underactive gluteus medius c. Overactive upper trapezius and underactive lower trapezius d. Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals
d. Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals
Which type of training would most likely lead to increased levels of testosterone, insulin-like growth factors, and growth hormone? Select one: a. Overload training that is of low intensity with prolonged rest periods b. Overload training that is of a low intensity with limited rest periods c. Overload training that is of a high intensity with prolonged rest periods d. Overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest periods
d. Overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest periods
Which component of blood is primarily responsible for clotting mechanisms? Select one: a. Red blood cells b. Plasma c. White blood cells d. Platelets
d. Platelets
What area of the body is most targeted during the single-leg squat to row exercise? Select one: a. Intrinsic core musculature b. Anterior chain c. Deep cervical flexors d. Posterior chain
d. Posterior chain
Individuals in this stage of change may sporadically engage in physical activity but without any form, structure, or consistency. Select one: a. Contemplation b. Maintenance c. Precontemplation d. Preparation
d. Preparation
The body can adapt to new demands while becoming stronger and more resilient through which exercise programming approach? Select one: a. SAID principle b. All-or-nothing principle c. Systematic approach d. Progressive overload
d. Progressive overload
Which of the following is not considered an open-chain exercise? Select one: a. Machine leg extension b. Bench press c. Lat pulldown d. Push-up
d. Push-up
Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action? Select one: a. Synergistic dominance b. Lengthening reaction c. Length-tension relationships d. Reciprocal inhibition
d. Reciprocal inhibition
What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system's role in the contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists? Select one: a. Length-tension relationship b. Stretch-shortening cycle c. Muscle imbalance d. Reciprocal inhibition
d. Reciprocal inhibition
What is the practice of identifying a negative inner narrative and replacing it with positive statements? Select one: a. Imagery b. Cognitive fusion c. Stopping d. Reverse listing
d. Reverse listing
Where in the heart is the sinoatrial node located? Select one: a. Left atrium b. Right ventricle c. Left ventricle d. Right atrium
d. Right atrium
What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as? Select one: a. Unloading phase b. Loading phase c. Amortization phase d. Stretch-shortening cycle
d. Stretch-shortening cycle
What scientific term is used to describe the concept whereby a loaded eccentric contraction prepares the muscles for a rapid concentric contraction? Select one: a. Altered reciprocal inhibition b. Series elastic component c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Stretch-shortening cycle
d. Stretch-shortening cycle
Along with muscle protein synthesis, which of the following is an important function of protein? Select one: a. Regulation of body temperature b. Insulation of internal organs c. Padding of vital internal organs d. Synthesis of hormones
d. Synthesis of hormones
What is the most accurate description of motor control? Select one: a. The cumulative changes in motor behavior over time, throughout the life span b. The integration of motor control processes through practice c. The motor response to internal and external environmental stimuli d. The ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements
d. The ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements
What is the ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2)? Select one: a. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise b. The point at which it is still possible to talk during exercise c. The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise d. The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel
d. The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel
Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves? Select one: a. Cervical and sacral b. Thoracic and lumbar c. Cervical and thoracic d. Thoracic and sacral
d. Thoracic and sacral
Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where? Select one: a. Lumbar spine b. Sagittal plane c. Frontal plane d. Thoracic spine
d. Thoracic spine
If a client performs a stabilization workout on Monday, a power workout on Wednesday, and an SAQ sports workout on Saturday, what kind of periodization is being used for their mesocycle? Select one: a. Linear b. Mesocycle c. Macrocycle d. Undulating
d. Undulating
Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality? Select one: a. Strength machines b. Suspended bodyweight training c. Dumbbells d. ViPR
d. ViPR
Which vitamin is the most transient? Select one: a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin D c. Vitamin E d. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin C
The water-soluble vitamins include which vitamins? Select one: a. Vitamin C, B complex, and D b. Vitamin C, B complex, and K c. Vitamin C, D, and K d. Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins
d. Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins
What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. Velocity and pattern b. Variables and pattern c. Variables and progression d. Volume and progression
d. Volume and progression
