CST PRACTICE

Which of the following physiological changes must the CST remember when assisting with procedures involving geriatric patients? A. increased bone mass B. Decreased range of motion C. Decreased susceptibility to hypothermia D. Increased muscle tone

B. Decreased range of motion

When the CST is across the table from the surgeon, what technique should be used when passing instrumentation? A. Non - dominant hand to non - dominant hand B. Dominant hand to dominant hand C. Allow the surgeon to take instruments from the mayo stand D. No special technique is required

B. Dominant hand to dominant hand

Which of the following forms of anesthesia may utilize intrathecal ropivacaine? A. Minimal sedation B. Epidural anesthesia C. Deep sedation D. Dissociation

B. Epidural

During a total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon notices excessive bleeding. The ST should be prepped to hand the surgeon a towel to cover the wound and what other sterile item? A. webril B. Esmarch C. Pneumatic tourniquet D. Ace bandage

B. Esmarch

One of the most common complications found in diabetic patients is which of the following? A. Gangrene B. Infection C. Nerve damage D. Pneumothorax

B. Infection

Tonsillectomies and adenoidestomies are typically performed on children; upon extubation, what position should the patient be placed? A. Supine B. Lateral C. Prone D. Sitting

B. Lateral

Which of the following procedures carrries the risk of lipsilateral arm swelling? A. Vasectomy B. Mastectomy C. Lumpectomy D. Arthroplasty

B. Mastectomy

Which of the following forms of anesthesia may utilize injected mepivacaine? A. Local anesthesia B. Peripheral nerve block C. Spinal anesthesia D. Moderate sedation

B. Peripheral nerve block

A patient who is considered high risk for DVT (deep vein thrombosis) is sent for diagnostic testing. Which of the following tests is a good predictor of blood flow to lower extremities? A. Electroencephalography B. Plethysmography C. Echocardiography D. Electromyography

B. Plethysmography

Athroscopy of the knee is performed to do what? A. Stabilize the knee B. Remove or replace a torn meniscus C. Insert a new meniscus D. Assess the lateral collateral ligament

B. Remove or replace a torn meniscus

What are the first ligaments separated from the uterus during a hysterectomy? A. infundibulopelvic ligament B. Round ligament C. Cardinal ligament D. Broad ligament

B. Round ligament

A patient goes to the ER with a fracture to their elbow from a fall off a ladder. What nerve will most likely be damaged? A. Median B. Ulnar C. Radial D. Peroneal

B. Ulnar

Which type of dressing is typically placed over a full-thickness skin graft recipient site? A. Montgomery strap B. A clear adhesive dressing such as tegaderm C. A stent dressing or bolster dressing D. Dermabond

C. A stent dressing or bolster dressing

Placing a rolled sheet, pad or blanket to elevate a pregnant patients right hip is done to relieve pressure from? A. Sciatic nerve B. Kidney C. Abdominal aorta and vena cava D. Bladder

C. Abdominal aorta and vena cava

Which of the following is another name for succinylcholine? A. Xylocaine B. Halothane C. Anectine D. Marcaine

C. Anectine

What type of gas is used to inflate the abdomen to create a pneumoperitoneum during laparoscopic procedures? A. Nitrogen B. Helium C. Carbon Dioxide D. Oxygen

C. Carbon Dioxide

Which of the following procedures is indicated in patients with severe brain swelling following trauma? A. Esophagectomy B. Craniotomy C. Craniectomy D. Flexible sigmoidoscopy E. Hysterectomy

C. Craniectomy

Which of the following refers to placement of one or more clamps at a right angle to a tube or blood vessel during surgery in the GI tract? A. Double-clamp B. Clamp and divide C. Cross-clamp D. Division

C. Cross-clamp

Which of the following terms refers to separation of layers of tissue after closure of a wound? A. Herniation B. Evisceration C. Dehiscence D. Fistula

C. Dehiscence

At the conclusion of a breast reduction to assess the breasts for symmetry, the patient is placed in which of the following positions? A. Supine B. Prone C. Fowlers D. Trendelenburg

C. Fowlers

Which of the following is an acceptable substitute for a rubber latex-sensitive team member? A. Silicone B. Vinyl C. Neoprene D. Timprene

C. Neoprene

Your patient has just had a temporary vascular access catheter placed for dialysis. What complication is going to be ruled out with a chest x-ray prior to the patient leaving the operating room? A. Infection B. Pneumothorax C. Pneumonia D. Stroke

C. Pneumonia

Which of the following is a negative aspect of using braided sutures? A. Braided sutures can harbor more bacteria and create more inflammation than monofilament sutures B. Braided sutures are weaker than monofilament sutures C. Braided sutures require more ties to keep the knots intact than monofilament sutures D. Braided sutures are thinner than monofilament sutures

A

The ST is scrubbed in on a small bowel resection. The ST notices the blood in the operative field is dark, and the patient feels rigid and warm. What type of reaction might the patient be experiencing? A. An idiosyncratic reaction to the inhalation gases in conjunction with the anective administered to relax the muscle B. An idiosyncratic reaction to the local anesthetic C. An adverse reaction to the sedative D. An adverse reaction to the antibiotic irrigation

A. An idiosyncratic reaction to the inhalation gases in conjuction with the anective administered to relax muscle tissue

There are many classifications of medications that are administered to a patient before, during and after surgery. Which classification can prevent nausea and vomiting after recovery in the PACU? A. Anti-emetic B. Anti-histamine C. Anti-arrhythmic D. Anti-cholinergic

A. Anti-emetic

Patients undergoing minimally invasive surgery (MIS) tend to have: A. Better outcomes B. Increased recovery time C. Lengthy hospital recovery time D. Shorter hospital recovery time

A. Better outcomes

A patient who has suffered a fractured bone is requiring closed manipulation, with subsequent fixation. What is this type of procedure referred to as? A. CREF B. OREF C. CRIF D. ORIF

A. CREF

Which of the following surgical wound classifications describes a wound following thyroid surgery? A. Clean B. Clean-contaminated C. Contaminated D. Dirty

A. Clean

Which of the following precautions should the surgical team take during a procedure performed under fluoroscopy? A. Don full body and neck lead B. Stand far away from the patient C. Don skirt apron only D. Stand behind lead screen

A. Don full body and neck lead

Which medication would be used along with general anesthesia to relieve pain? A. Fentanyl B. Naloxone C. Mannitol D. Oxytocin

A. Fentanyl

Which of the following would be the ideal vessel used when performing a triple or quadruple CABG? A. Greater saphenous vein B. Mammary artery C. Radial artery D. Mesenteric artery

A. Greater saphenous vein

Which of the following forms of anesthesia may utilize subcutaneous lidocaine? A. Local anesthesia B. Peripheral nerve block C. Spinal anesthesia D. Moderate sedation

A. Local anesthesia

Which of the following is an inhaled anesthetic? A. Nitrous oxide B. Atropine C. Ketamine D. Midazolam

A. Nitrous Oxide

Which phase of anesthesia is associated with a higher risk of negative patient outcome? A. Recovery B. Emergence C. Induction D. Maintenance

A. Recovery

During intubation, what is the piece of equipment used to modify the curve of an endotracheal tube? A. Stylet B. Currette C. Catheter D. Groove director

A. Styklet

While counting instruments, how is a broken instrument handled? A. Tag it and keep it on the field B. Send it to the central service for repair C. Place it in a basin until the case is over D. Give it to the circulator

A. Tag it and keep it on the field

After developing seizures, your child is referred to a neurologist. They have diagnosed them with hydrocephalus, or water on the brain. What is the recommended permanent treatment to correct this pathology? A. V-P Shunt B. Craniotomy C. Decompressive craniectomy D. Burr hole replacement

A. V-P shunt

Which of the following suture tips are used for skin closure? A. Cutting B. Taper C. Spatula D. Blunt

A. cutting

What is the acceptable range for relative humidity in the OR? A. 20% to 60% B. 20% to 50% C. 30% to 60% D. 35% to 60%

A.20% to 60%

At what point should the light source be activated during a laparoscopic procedure? A. After securing the cord to the sterile drape B. After the light source is attached to the scope C. After the scope is inserted into the incision

B. After the light source is attached to the scope

Absorbable sutures have varying lengths of absorption time, which affects healing time and strength of the closure. Surgical gut is the only natural absorbable suture, what is the length of time for approximation of sufficient tensile strength? A. 5 days B. 2-3 weeks C. 3 months D. variable rate

B

Septoplasty is a procedure done to repair a deviated septum. Immediately prior to the repair what instruments should the ST have ready? A. Kerrison ronguer B. #15 blade on a #7 knife handle C. Hurd retractor D. #11 blade

B. #15 blade on a#7 knife handle

During a total hip arthroplasty, what components are replaced? A. Acetabulum, femoral head and pelvic pocket only B. Acetabulum, femoral neck and femoral head only C. Femoral head and femoral neck only D. Femoral head and acetabulum

B. Acetabulum, femoral neck and femoral head only

Which of the following immobilization devices will be necessary to immobilize a fractured ulna that has been reduced through an open reduction internal fixation procedure? A. Ace wrap B. Cast C. Splint D. Traction

B. Cast

The proper way for the ST to dispose of their surgical gloves after first removing their sterile gown is which of the following? A. Keep your surgical gloves on so you can use them to clean the room furniture B. Rolling them off at the same time the gown is removed C. Removing the gown first then removing the first pair of gloves one at a time by grasping glove to glove then skin to skin to roll-off D. Removing the gown first then removing the gloves by grasping the cuffs simultaneously to pull and shoot across the room into the garbage

C. Removing the gown first then removing the first pair of gloves one at a time by grasping glove to glove then skin to skin to roll-off

During a dilation and curettage, the surgeon needs to grasp the cervix. What instrument will the surgical technologist pass? A. Sims B. Auvard C. Schroeder D. Deaver

C. Schroeder

Which of the following is worn to prevent an embolism resulting from limited blood flow to the lower extremities? A. Pacemaker B. Insulin pump C. Sequential compression device D. Colostomy bag

C. Sequential compression device

Which of the following forms of anesthesia may utilize subdural bupivacaine? A. Local anesthesia B. Peripheral nerve block C. Spinal anesthesia D. Moderate sedation

C. Spinal anesthesia

An example of a multifilament nonabsorbable suture is? A. Polyglycolic acid/dexon B. Plain gut C. Surgical silk D. Polyglicaprone 25/Monocryl

C. Surgical silk

The surgeon has just finished a skin graft, which dressing should the surgical tech have available? A. Wet to dry B. Dermabond C. Tegaderm D. Xeroform

C. Tegaderm

The ST did not verify the saline solution when the circulator poured it onto the sterile field. What is the correct action to take? A. Break scrub and retrieve new saline solution B. Label the saline immediately C. Throw out the saline solution and ask for a replacement D. Proceed with labeling the saline-based on the circulators confirmation

C. Throw out the saline solution and ask or a replacemen

The post operative phase of surgery begins at what point? A. when the last closing stitch or staple is in B. When the patient leaves the operating room C. With dressing application D. With the final closing count

C. With dressing application

When will wound dressing be applied? A. Before the final count is done B. After wound closure C. After the final count is done D. When the surgeon requests dressings

C. after the final count is done

Patients who have suffered second and third degree burns often receive autologous skin grafts. Upon completion of these procedures which would be the ideal dressing to be used? A. Occlusive dressing B. Plaster dressing C. Stent dressing D. Bulk dressing

C. stent dressing

The prep for a laparoscopic-assisted vaginal hysterectomy includes which of the following structures? A. The abdomen, from the xiphoid process to the pubis B. The abdominal area and the vagina vault C. The abdominal area, tops of thighs, and separate vaginal prep is included D. The abdominal area, the vagina, the pelvis, labia, perineum, anus, and are the thighs circumferentially are also prepped

D

Which of the following is true regarding routine decontamination of the surgical suite after each procedure? A. it occurs once a week B. it occurs before instruments are removed from the room C. high level disinfectants are used in the terminal decontamination D. A 3-4 foot area around the sterile field, the operating room table, all flat surfaces are considered adequate for routine decontamination between cases

D

Which of the following procedures will require two prep sets? A. Lateral B. Posterior C. Perineal D. Abdominoperineal

D. Abdominoperineal

A hypotensive crisis during a surgical procedure is best managed with administration of: A. Lasix B. Keflex C. Diprivan D. Adrenalin

D. Adrenalin

Anesthesia is considered to be part of the non sterile surgical team. How are the prevented from contaminating the sterile field? A. The two IV pole's designate the boundary B. The arm boards delineate the boundary C. There is a table extension D. An anesthesia screen is created with a sterile drape

D. An anesthesia screen is created with a sterile drape

Medications that cause physical dependence and/or abuse are referred to as A. chemical substance B. prescription medications C. Guarded medications D. Controlled substance

D. Controlled substance

Often referred to as a sweetheart retractor used in abdominal cases, what is its proper name? A. Deaver B. Balfour C. Malleable D. Harrington

D. Harrington

Which of the following is preferred for closing the abdominal fascia? A. continuous monofilament suture B. continuous multifilament suture C. interrupted monofilament sutures D. Interrupted multifilament sutures

D. Interrupted multifilament sutures

The patient return electrode must be placed over: A. Implants B. Small muscle mass C. Bony protuberances D. Large muscle mass

D. Large muscle mass

When positioning a patient for a laparoscopic vaginal hysterectomy, it is imperative that the patient be placed in? A. High lithotomy B. Prone C. Supine D. Low lithotomy

D. Low lithotomy

This terminology refers to the process of breaking down tissue into smaller pieces. A. Coupling B. Ablation C. Insufflation D. Morcellation

D. Morcellation

Which of the following forms of anesthesia may utilize injectable bupivacaine? A. Minimal sedation B. Epidural anesthesia C. Deep sedation D. Regional anesthesia

D. Regional anesthesia

Which of the following pressure ulcer stages represents an ulcer that demonstrates a full-thickness skin defect with exposure of the underlying musculoskeletal structures? A. Stage I B. Stage II C. Stage III D. Stage IV E. Unstageable

D. Stage IV

Deep vein thrombus is treated with what procedure? A. Pacemaker B. Bypass graft C. Aspirin D. Vena cava filter

D. Vena cava filter

Which of the following surgeries is indicated in patients with adenocarcinoma of the pancreatic head? A. Laparoscopic appendectomy B. Proctocolectomy C. Partial thyroidectomy D. Whipple procedure

D. Whipple procedure