Dentistry

What is the proper dilution of chlorhexidine solution for use in the mouth? 1. 20% 2. 2.0% 3. 0.2% 4. 10%

0.2%

When comparing the size of the upper canine tooth, how much of the tooth is exposed verses that below the gumline? 1. 1/3 of the tooth is exposed 2. 1/2 of the tooth is exposed 3. 2/3 of the tooth is exposed 4. 3/4 of the tooth is exposed

1/3 of the tooth is exposed

How many incisors are present in the adult equine patient? 1. 6 2. 12 3. 24 4. 36

12

Which of the following correctly describes the lagomorph dental formula? 1. 2 x {I 2/1:C 0/0:P 3/2:M 3/3} 2. 2 x {I 3/3:C 1/1:P 4/4:M 2/3} 3. 2 x {I 3/3:C 1/1:P 3/2:M 1/1} 4. 2 x {I 3/3:C 1/1:P 3/3}

2 x {I 2/1:C 0/0:P 3/2:M 3/3}

Which of the following correctly describes the adult feline dental formula? 1. 2 x {I 2/1:C 0/0:P 3/2:M 3/3} 2. 2 x {I 3/3:C 1/1:P 4/4:M 2/3} 3. 2 x {I 3/3:C 1/1:P 3/2:M 1/1} 4. 2 x {I 3/3:C 1/1:P 3/3}

2 x {I 3/3:C 1/1:P 3/2:M 1/1}

Which of the following correctly describes the puppy dental formula? 1. 2 x {I 2/1:C 0/0:P 3/2:M 3/3} 2. 2 x {I 3/3:C 1/1:P 4/4:M 2/3} 3. 2 x {I 3/3:C 1/1:P 3/2:M 1/1} 4. 2 x {I 3/3:C 1/1:P 3/3}

2 x {I 3/3:C 1/1:P 3/3}

The correct dental formula for an adult dog is: 1. 2(l 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/4 M 3/3) = 42 2. 2(l 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 3/2) = 42 3. 2(l 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 2/3) = 42 4. 2(l 4/4 C 1/1 P 3/4 M 3/3) = 46

2(l 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 2/3) = 42

How many deciduous teeth do horses have? 1. 20 2. 24 3. 36 4. 44

24

How many maxillary and mandibular premolars does the cat have in one half of the mouth? 1. 3 in the maxilla and 2 in the mandible 2. 3 in the maxilla and 3 in the mandible 3. 2 in the maxilla and 3 in the mandible 4. 2 in the maxilla and 2 in the mandible

3 in the maxilla and 2 in the mandible

When taking radiographs of the canine tooth in a large breed dog, what size of dental film should be used to ensure that the whole tooth is included? 1. 0 2. 2 3. 4 4. 8 " x 10" screen film

4

Ideally, the cutting edge of the scaler should be held at what angle to the tooth surface? 1. 5-10 degrees 2. 35-45 degrees 3. 15-30 degrees 4. 45-90 degrees

45-90 degrees

The carnassial teeth in dogs are: 1. 4P4 and 1M1 2. 4P4 and 4P4 3. 1M1 and 1M1 4. 1C1 and 1C1

4P4 and 1M1

At what age do premolars erupt in foals? 1. Foals are born with teeth 2. 5-7 days after birth 3. 3-4 weeks after birth 4. 3-4 months after birth

5-7 days after birth

What is the minimum age for a cat to have all of its permanent teeth? 1. 6 months 2. 8 months 3. 10 months 4. 1 year

6 months

Which of the following patients would benefit from prophylactic antibiotics? 1. A 1-year-old Yorkshire Terrier with stage 2 periodontal disease 2. A 10-year-old King Charles Spaniel with cardiomyopathy 3. A 5-year-old gelding 4. All of the listed patients would benefit from prophylactic antibiotics

A 10-year-old King Charles Spaniel with cardiomyopathy 3.

For what is crown reduction and restoration used? 1. Care for the tooth affected by near pulpal exposure 2. Care for the tooth affected by pulpal exposure 3. Tooth affected by Stage 3 periodontal disease 4. A palatal trauma caused by a lingually displaced mandibular canine

A palatal trauma caused by a lingually displaced mandibular canine

When conducting a tooth-by tooth evaluation with dental radiographs, when is the client given the total estimate for care? 1. On the telephone when the appointment is made 2. In the examination room 3. When the animal is picked up after treatment 4. After the evaluation is completed while the patient is still anesthetized

After the evaluation is completed while the patient is still anesthetized

Nerves and blood vessels enter the tooth through the: 1. Apical delta 2. Crown 3. Pulp 4. Sulcus

Apical delta

Perioceutics refer to which of the following? 1. Procedure to restore the periodontal ligament 2. Application of time-released antibiotics directly within the oral cavity 3. Use of antibiotics before dental procedure 4. Procedure to cap the pulp cavity of the toot

Application of time-released antibiotics directly within the oral cavity

Where do tooth resorption lesions first appear clinically in the cat? 1. On the cementum 2. On the alveolar mucosa 3. At the cementoenamel junction 4. At the tip of the crown

At the cementoenamel junction

What is the best time to use the extraction forceps? 1. At the end of the procedure when the tooth is very mobile 2. In the middle of the procedure to help with the elevation process 3. At the beginning of the procedure to chip off calculus 4. An extraction forceps should not be used

At the end of the procedure when the tooth is very mobile

Luxation of a tooth cannot be termed as: 1. Attrition 2. Intrusion 3. Extrusion 4. Avulsion

Attrition

What term identifies the wearing away of enamel by tooth-against-tooth contact during mastication? 1. Plaque 2. Attrition 3. Calculus 4. Abrasion

Attrition

Chlorhexidine contributes to dental prophylaxis by: 1. Preventing plaque from mineralizing into calculus 2. Bonding to the cell membrane and inhibiting bacterial growth 3. Bleaching stained teeth 4. Decreasing tooth sensitivity

Bonding to the cell membrane and inhibiting bacterial growth

The term that best describes a dog with an abnormally short mandible is: 1. Prognathism 2. Brachygnathism 3. Mesaticephalic 4. Dolichocephalic

Brachygnathism

Which of the following is the correct dental term/definition for describing a tooth surface? 1. Palatal 2. Labial 3. Buccal 4. Rostral

Buccal

Normal scissor occlusion occurs when the maxillary fourth premolars occlude: 1. Level with the mandibular fourth premolar 2. Buccally to the mandibular first molar 3. Buccally to the mandibular fourth premolar 4. Lingually to the mandibular first molar

Buccally to the mandibular first molar

A curette: 1. Is used strictly as a supragingival instrument 2. Can be used either supragingivally or subgingivally 3. Is used to remove microetchants on the tooth surface after power scaling 4. Is used to irrigate the teeth with air or water

Can be used either supragingivally or subgingivally

What mineralized tissue covers the root of the tooth? 1. Calculus 2. Enamel 3. Cementum 4. Dentin

Cementum

Which of the following antiseptics are considered choice oral rinses for horses? 1. Chlorhexidine gluconate 2. Chlorhexidine acetate 3. Dilute betadine 4. Gluteraldahyde

Chlorhexidine gluconate

Which of the following statements about canine toy breeds is true? 1. Chronic impaction of incisor teeth with hair and debris often results in a chronic osteomyelitis 2. Malocclusions are rare in toy breeds in comparison with giant-breed dogs 3. Enamel hypoplasia is a common finding in toy breeds 4. Prognathism is considered a genetic defect in brachycephalic breeds

Chronic impaction of incisor teeth with hair and debris often results in a chronic osteomyelitis

Malocclusion in which the mandible is caudal to the maxilla is termed: 1. Class 3 mandibular mesioclusions 2. Class 2 mandibular distoclusions 3. Class 1 neutroclusions 4. Dental malocclusion

Class 2 mandibular distoclusions

When referring to dental-related conditions, staging is a way to: 1. Classify tumors 2. Plan periodontal care 3. Plan surgical care for cancerous tumors 4. Determine how large a tumor is

Classify tumors

Oligodontia is defined as: 1. Congenital absence of many, but not all, teeth 2. Total absence of teeth 3. Absence of only a few teeth 4. Difficult eating

Congenital absence of many, but not all, teeth

What inheritable oral condition, causing a noneoplastic bone formation, is primarily seen in West Highland white terriers? 1. Mandibular periostitis ossificans 2. Cranial mandibular osteodystrophy 3. Odontoma 4. Osteomyelitis

Cranial mandibular osteodystrophy

What instrument is used for root planing? 1. Periodontal probe 2. Explorer 3. Scaler 4. Curette

Curette

Periodontal disease is the result of the inflammatory process to: 1. Dental plaque 2. Systemic bacteria 3. Systemic lupus 4. Chronic stomatitis

Dental plaque

As part of normal tooth development, what part of the tooth widens? 1. Enamel 2. Pulp 3. Dentin 4. Gingiva

Dentin

Which of the following is the correct dental term/definition describing a tooth surface? 1. Mesial-farthest from the midline 2. Mesial-nearest the front 3. Distal-nearest the midline 4. Distal-farthest from the midline

Distal-farthest from the midline

The periodontium includes the periodontal ligament and all of the following except: 1. Gingiva 2. Cementum 3. Alveolar bone 4. Enamel

Enamel

All of the following are common non-neoplastic conditions seen in the oral cavity of horses, except: 1. Cementoma 2. Polyps 3. Papillomas 4. Epulis

Epulis

What instrument is used to detect subgingival calculus? 1. Periodontal probe 2. Explorer 3. Scaler 4. Curette

Explorer

The free or marginal gingiva: 1. Occupies the space between the teeth 2. Is the most apical portion of the gingiva 3. Forms the gingival sulcus around the tooth 4. Is tightly bound to the cementum

Forms the gingival sulcus around the tooth

The term for a tooth that has one root but two crowns is: 1. Gemini 2. Fusion 3. Polydontia 4. Oligodontia

Gemini

When inspecting the pathology of a patient during an oral assessment, one would look at: 1. Vesicle formation and ulceration 2. Gingival recession 3. Tonsillary crypts 4. Fauces

Gingival recession

Which material is used to fill the pulp chamber inside the tooth during root canal therapy? 1. Gutta percha 2. Dental cement 3. Calcium hydroxide 4. Acrylic resin

Gutta percha

What is the first sign that owners see that alerts them to the fact that their pet may have dental disease? 1. Periodontal disease 2. Gingivitis 3. Halitosis 4. Visualization of plaque

Halitosis

When grading tooth mobility, which of the following corresponds to Grade 1? 1. No mobility 2. Horizontal movement <1 mm 3. Horizontal movement >1 mm 4. Vertical and horizontal movement

Horizontal movement <1 mm

When grading tooth mobility, which of the following grades corresponds to a Grade 2? 1. No mobility 2. Horizontal movement of <1 mm 3. Horizontal movement >1 mm 4. Vertical and horizontal movement

Horizontal movement >1 mm

Local factors that could affect enamel development include all of the following except: 1. Trauma 2. Infection 3. Bite injury 4. Hypocalcemia

Hypocalcemia

The most common mistake made in treating periodontal disease is: 1. Inadequate removal of supragingival calculus 2. Inadequate root planing 3. Insufficient polishing 4. Iatrogenic trauma to subgingival tissues

Inadequate root planing

Which teeth are the most appropriate for determining the age of horses? 1. Incisors 2. Wolf teeth 3. Premolars 4. Molars

Incisors

What is the least effective method of local anesthesia in dental patients? 1. Rostral maxillary block 2. Rostral mandibular block 3. Infiltration or splash block 4. Caudal mandibular block

Infiltration or splash block

When polishing teeth using an air-driven unit, at what speed should the hand piece be set? 1. High speed 2. Low speed 3. Either high or low is acceptable 4. Finishing speed

Low speed

Canine teeth are always present in which of the following patients? 1. Donkeys 2. Female horses 3. Male horses 4. All of the above

Male horses

Which teeth on each side of the dog's mouth have three roots? 1. Maxillary: third and fourth premolars and first molar 2. Maxillary: fourth premolars and first and second molars 3. Mandibular: fourth premolars and first and second molars 4. Mandibular and maxillary: fourth premolars and first and second molars

Maxillary: fourth premolars and first and second molars

How long does it take plaque to accumulate on a clean tooth surface? 1. Minutes 2. Hours 3. Days 4. Weeks

Minutes

Which of the following statements regarding common oral conditions is false? 1. Osteomyelitis requires differentiation from neoplasia 2. The most common malignant oral tumors are malignant melanomas and squamous cell carcinomas 3. Most epulides are neoplastic 4. Odontogenic tumors are benign neoplasms arising from odontogenic tissues

Most epulides are neoplastic

Which of the following systemic factors may affect enamel development? 1. Nutritional deficiency 2. Febrile disorders 3. Hypocalcemia 4. All of the above

Nutritional deficiency

Which cells are responsible for destroying the hard surfaces of the root? 1. Macrocytes 2. Osteoclasts 3. Chondrocytes 4. Odontoclasts

Odontoclasts

Vital pulp therapy refers to: 1. Operating outright on the pulp on a live tooth 2. Root canal therapy 3. Procedure to turn a live tooth into a dead tooth 4. Generally used when the tooth has been dead for a long time

Operating outright on the pulp on a live tooth

Which disease causes a cat to start spontaneously and aggressively pawing at the face and mouth and to cry out in pain? 1. Tooth resorption 2. Chronic ulcerative gingivostomatitis 3. Squamous cell carcinoma 4. Orofacial pain syndrome

Orofacial pain syndrome

All of the following are common soft-tissue neoplasms seen in horses, except: 1. Squamous cell carcinoma 2. Sarcoid 3. Ossifying fibroma 4. Osteoma

Osteoma

The dental formula for the permanent teeth in the dog is 2 (I 3/3 and C 1/1), in addition to: 1. P 3/4 and M 3/2 = 40 2. P 3/4 and M 3/3 = 42 3. P 4/4 and M 2/3 = 42 4. P 4/4 and M 3/2 = 42

P 4/4 and M 2/3 = 42

Which of the following teeth are not normally present in the adult cat? 1. P1 and P1 and P2 2. P1 and P1 and P2 3. I2 and I1 4. PM3 and PM4

P1 and P1 and P2

Which discipline deals with dental conditions specific to puppies and kittens? 1. Exodontics 2. Orthodontics 3. Pedodontics 4. Prosthodontics

Pedodontics

Horizontal bone loss occurs in cases of: 1. Periodontal disease 2. Fractured teeth 3. Tooth resorption 4. Orthodontic disease

Periodontal disease

A malocclusion, in which the upper fourth premolar lies palatal to the first molars, is known as: 1. Posterior crossbite 2. Base-narrow mandibular canines 3. Wry mouth 4. Rostral crossbite

Posterior crossbite

Malocclusions can lead to dental disease for all of the following reasons except: 1. Soft-tissue trauma from teeth that are abnormally positioned 2. Accelerated development of periodontal disease resulting from the lack of normal wear and the normal flushing of teeth with saliva 3. Abnormal wear of teeth resulting from malposition leading to fracture and pulp exposure 4. Presence of resorptive lesions leading to the destruction of teeth

Presence of resorptive lesions leading to the destruction of teeth

The primary difference between primary and permanent teeth is: 1. There is no difference in size between primary and permanent teeth 2. Primary teeth are smaller than permanent teeth, with short, stubby roots 3. Primary teeth are larger than permanent teeth, with long slender roots 4. Primary teeth are smaller than permanent teeth, with long, slender roots

Primary teeth are smaller than permanent teeth, with long, slender roots

What is the purpose of a dentifrice when used in the dog and cat? 1. Removes subgingival calculus 2. Removes microetchants caused by scaling the teeth 3. Removes supragingival calculus 4. Provides a pleasant taste and improves the effectiveness of brushing

Provides a pleasant taste and improves the effectiveness of brushing

Internal resorption primarily affects the: 1. Enamel 2. Crown 3. Pulp 4. Dentin

Pulp

All of the following factors must be considered when aging a horse, except: 1. Breed 2. Quantity of food 3. Environmental conditions 4. Injury

Quantity of food

In dental radiographs, periapical disease appears as a: 1. Radiopaque area around the apex of the tooth 2. Radiolucent area around the apex of the tooth 3. Radiopaque area inside the tooth pulp 4. Radiolucent area inside the tooth pulp

Radiolucent area around the apex of the tooth

Gingivoplasty is the: 1. Addition of more gingiva to the site 2. Binding of the loose teeth together to stabilize them during a healing process 3. Removal of hyperplastic gingival tissue 4. Removal of a portion of the tooth structure

Removal of hyperplastic gingival tissue

What is the most common cause for dental malocclusions? 1. Retained deciduous teeth 2. Overbite 3. Skeletal defects 4. Bad breeding

Retained deciduous teeth

What tissue is not part of the periodontium? 1. Periodontal ligament 2. Alveolar bone 3. Root 4. Gingiva

Root

A malocclusion, in which one or more of the upper incisor teeth are caudal to the lower incisors, is known as: 1. Posterior crossbite 2. Base-narrow mandibular canines 3. Wry mouth 4. Rostral crossbite

Rostral crossbite

When one or more of the upper incisors rest caudally on the lower incisors, and the rest of the occlusion is normal, the condition is known as: 1. Level bite 2. Wry mouth 3. Rostral crossbite 4. Anodontia

Rostral crossbite

Which dental radiographic projection images 301-304 and 401-404? 1. Rostral maxillary 2. Parallel mandibular view 3. Rostral mandibular view 4. Lateral oblique view

Rostral mandibular view

To prep a patient for surgical tooth extraction, which of the following should occur? 1. No prep is needed. It is best to extract, and then to clean the remaining teeth (this is a more efficient process, yielding a shorter anesthesia time) 2. Rinse the mouth with chlorhexidine, then extract 3. Scale, polish, then extract 4. Scale, polish, rinse with chlorhexidine, then extract

Scale, polish, rinse with chlorhexidine, then extract

What instrument is used for removal of supragingival calculus? 1. Periodontal probe 2. Explorer 3. Scaler 4. Curette

Scaler

What breed would be associated with a dolichocephalic head shape? 1. German shepherd 2. Seal point Siamese 3. Persian 4. Corgi

Seal point Siamese

Which of the following instruments should be used to reduce the crown of sharp canine teeth? 1. Nippers 2. Cutters 3. Small files 4. Elevators

Small files

All of the following are complications that may result from extraction, except: 1. Hemorrhage 2. Jaw fracture 3. Stomatitis 4. Oronasal fistula

Stomatitis

All of the following dental conditions could be avoided with preventive care, except: 1. Periodontal disease 2. Stomatitis 3. Excessive wear 4. Tooth fracture

Stomatitis

Why would thermal bone injury be a complication of tooth extraction? 1. The bur will overheat and damage the soft tissue and bone 2. Thermal injury is not a concern, as you are removing the tooth anyway 3. Tooth elevators cause excessive heat, which could injure the soft tissue around the tooth that is being extracted 4. Tooth extractors cause excessive heat, which could injure the remaining teeth

The bur will overheat and damage the soft tissue and bone

The bisecting angle technique is a method for radiographing the oral cavity. The description that adequately describes this technique is 1. The central radiation beam is directed perpendicular to the line that bisects the angle formed by the film and the long axis of the tooth. 2. The central radiation beam is directed parallel to the line that bisects the angle formed by the film and the perpendicular axis of the tooth. 3. The central radiation beam is directed perpendicular to the tooth root. 4. The central radiation beam is directed perpendicular to the film or sensor

The central radiation beam is directed perpendicular to the line that bisects the angle formed by the film and the long axis of the tooth.

In horses, the term coronal refers to which portion of the tooth? 1. The area of the tooth farthest away from the occlusal surface 2. The area closet to the tongue 3. The crown 4. The tooth closest to the incisors

The crown

If the lower incisors seem excessively loose in a brachycephalic or miniature-breed dog, 1. The teeth should be extracted 2. The depth of the gingival sulcus should be tested 3. The dog is calcium deficient 4. The dog has advanced periodontal disease

The depth of the gingival sulcus should be tested

Dental dysplasia is the abnormal development of teeth that involve which of the following? 1. Crown 2. Roots 3. The entire tooth 4. Pulp

The entire tooth

Which statement concerning the polishing aspect of dental prophylaxis is the least accurate? 1. A slow speed should be used 2. Adequate prophy paste is needed for lubrication and polishing 3. The polisher should remain on the tooth for as long as is needed to polish the tooth 4. If teeth are not polished, the rough enamel will promote bacterial plaque formation

The polisher should remain on the tooth for as long as is needed to polish the tooth

When grading furcation involvement, which of the following descriptions is termed Grade 3? 1. No furcation involvement 2. The furcation can be felt with the probe/explorer, but horizontal tissue destruction is <⅓ of the horizontal width 3. The furcation can be explored, but the probe cannot pass through it 4. The probe can be passed through the furcation from buccal to palatal/lingual

The probe can be passed through the furcation from buccal to palatal/lingual

What is the general appearance of a Class 5 feline resorptive lesion? 1. Tooth will appear fractured with a red dot in the middle 2. The tooth looks normal but the gums are inflamed 3. The tooth is not visible, only gum tissue 4. Only a little of the enamel is missing, exposing the dentin

The tooth is not visible, only gum tissue

Which of the following is a complication that might develop if a curette is used improperly? 1. Etched tooth enamel 2. Torn epithelial attachment 3. Overheated tooth 4. Bitten technician

Torn epithelial attachment

You have an instrument in your hand that has two sharp sides: a rounded back, and a rounded point. Which instrument are you holding? 1. Sickle scaler 2. Morse scaler 3. Universal curette 4. Sickle curette

Universal curette

Dental film should be placed in the mouth with the dimple facing: 1. Up and pointing rostrally 2. Up and pointing caudally 3. Down and pointing rostrally 4. Down and pointing caudally

Up and pointing rostrally

The maxillary carnassial tooth in the cat is also known as the: 1. Upper first premolar 2. Upper first molar 3. Upper last premolar 4. Upper canine

Upper last premolar

When inspecting the mucous membranes during an oral assessment, one would look at: 1. Vesicle formation and ulceration 2. Gingival recession 3. Tonsillary crypts 4. Fauces

Vesicle formation and ulceration