Digestion NCLEX Questions
When assisting with preparing a client scheduled for a barium swallow, which of the following would be appropriate to include? a) Take three cleansing enemas before the procedure. b) Take vitamin K before the procedure. c) Avoid the intake of red meat before the procedure. d) Avoid smoking for at least a day before the procedure.
Avoid smoking for at least a day before the procedure. Explanation: The nurse should instruct the client to avoid smoking for at least a day before the procedure of barium swallow because smoking stimulates gastric motility. The client is advised to take vitamin K before a liver biopsy and instructed to take three cleansing enemas before a barium enema. Instruction to avoid red meat would be appropriate for a client who is having a Hemoccult test.
A client with extreme weakness, pallor, weak peripheral pulses, and disorientation is admitted to the emergency department. His wife reports that he has been "spitting up blood." A Mallory-Weiss tear is suspected, and the nurse begins taking a client history from the client's wife. The question by the nurse that demonstrates her understanding of Mallory-Weiss tearing is: a) "Is your partner being treated for tuberculosis?" b) "Has your partner recently fallen or injured his chest?" c) "Has your partner had recent forceful vomiting?" d) "What spices and condiments does your spouse use on food?"
"Has your partner had recent forceful vomiting?" Explanation: A Mallory-Weiss tear is associated with massive bleeding after a tear occurs in the mucous membrane at the junction of the esophagus and stomach. There is a strong relationship between forceful vomiting, and a Mallory-Weiss tear. The bleeding is coming from the stomach, not from the lungs as would be true in some cases of tuberculosis. A Mallory-Weiss tear doesn't occur from chest injuries or falls and isn't associated with eating spicy foods.
The nurse is caring for a man who has experienced a spinal cord injury. Throughout his recovery, the client expects to gain control of his bowels. The nurse's best response to this client would be which of the following? a) "Over time, the nerve fibers will regrow new tracts, and you can have bowel movements again." b) "It is not going to happen. Your nerve cells are too damaged." c) "Wearing an undergarment will become more comfortable over time." d) "Having a bowel movement is a spinal reflex requiring intact nerve fibers. Yours are not intact."
"Having a bowel movement is a spinal reflex requiring intact nerve fibers. Yours are not intact." Explanation: The act of defecation is a spinal reflex involving the parasympathetic nerve fibers. Normally, the external anal sphincter is maintained in a state of tonic contraction. With a spinal cord injury, the client no longer has this nervous system control and is often incontinent.
A home care nurse is caring for a client with complaints of epigastric discomfort who is scheduled for a barium swallow. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the test? a) "I'll avoid eating or drinking anything 6 to 8 hours before the test." b) "I'll drink full liquids the day before the test." c) "I'll take a laxative to clear my bowels before the test." d) "There is no need for special preparation before the test."
"I'll avoid eating or drinking anything 6 to 8 hours before the test." Explanation: The client demonstrates understanding of a barium swallow when he states that he must refrain from eating or drinking for 6 to 8 hours before the test. No other preparation is needed. Before a lower GI series, the client should eat a low-residue or clear liquid diet for 2 days and take a potent laxative and an oral liquid preparation.
A home care nurse is caring for a client with complaints of epigastric discomfort who is scheduled for a barium swallow. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the test? a) "I'll take a laxative to clear my bowels before the test." b) "I'll drink full liquids the day before the test." c) "I'll avoid eating or drinking anything 6 to 8 hours before the test." d) "There is no need for special preparation before the test."
"I'll avoid eating or drinking anything 6 to 8 hours before the test." Explanation: The client demonstrates understanding of a barium swallow when he states that he must refrain from eating or drinking for 6 to 8 hours before the test. No other preparation is needed. Before a lower GI series, the client should eat a low-residue or clear liquid diet for 2 days and take a potent laxative and an oral liquid preparation.
A client recently started a new medication to treat a suspected ulcer. She asks the nurse how this medicine is helping. Which of the following would be the best response by the nurse regarding anti-ulcerative medications? a) "This medication helps to digest food more slowly, allowing acid to attach to the food particles." b) "This medication reduces the acid secretion in your stomach." c) "The medication is allowing the acid to be eliminated more quickly in the stool." d) "This medication acts to reduce the volume of acid and foods that can enter the small intestine."
"This medication reduces the acid secretion in your stomach." Explanation: The stomach secretes a highly acidic fluid in response to food. The acid is derived from hydrochloric acid, which is secreted by the glands of the stomach. Ulcer medications inhibit acid secretion in the stomach or inhibit the action of histamine at the receptor sites.
The nurse is assessing a client following laparoscopy. The client states that his stomach looks bloated and asks if this is normal. How will the nurse respond? a) "I am not sure about this. Let me get another nurse." b) "Yes, your abdomen may appear larger as a result of the injection of carbon dioxide for visualization." c) "Do you need to use the restroom? You may have to have a bowel movement." d) "No, this should not occur. I will call the physician right away."
"Yes, your abdomen may appear larger as a result of the injection of carbon dioxide for visualization." Explanation: During a laparoscopic procedure, a pneumoperitoneum is used to inject carbon dioxide into the peritoneal cavity to separate the intestines from the pelvic organs. Gas (carbon dioxide) is insufflated into the peritoneal cavity to create a working space for visualization.
A client who had a colonoscopy with removal of a polyp is being prepared for discharge. Which of the following would the nurse include in the discharge instructions? a) "You might experience some nausea and vomiting for a day or so. This is normal." b) "Call your physician if there is even slight bleeding with your first bowel movement." c) "You might feel some cramping and gas but these usually go away in about a day." d) "Be sure to eat high fiber foods when you get home to help you move your bowels."
"You might feel some cramping and gas but these usually go away in about a day." Explanation: After a colonoscopy, a client may experience mild cramping and flatulence which usually resolve within n 24 hours. If the client has a small growth or polyp removed, there may be a slight amount of bleeding that resolves on its own. The client should notify his physician if he experiences nausea, vomiting, fever, or excessive bleeding. The client also should avoid high-fat and high-fiber foods for at least 24 hours after the procedure.
A 24-year-old athlete is admitted to the trauma unit following a motor-vehicle collision. The client is comatose and has developed ascites as a result of the accident. You are explaining the client's condition to his parents. In your education, what do you indicate is the primary function of the small intestine? a) Digest fats b) Digest proteins c) Absorb water d) Absorb nutrients
Absorb nutrients Explanation: The primary function of the small intestine is to absorb nutrients from the chyme.
Which of the following is the primary function of the small intestine? a) Secretion b) Peristalsis c) Absorption d) Digestion
Absorption Explanation: Absorption is the primary function of the small intestine. Digestion occurs in the stomach. Peristalsis occurs in the colon. The duodenum secretes enzymes.
Which of the following digestive enzymes aids in the digesting of starch? a) Bile b) Trypsin c) Amylase d) Lipase
Amylase Explanation: Digestive enzymes secreted by the pancreas include trypsin, which aids in digesting protein; amylase, which aids in digesting starch; and lipase, which aids in digesting fats. Bile is secreted by the liver and is not considered a digestive enzyme.
A nurse assesses the abdomen of a newly admitted client. Which finding would necessitate further investigation? a) Flat appearance below the umbilicus b) Rounded contour c) Asymmetrical upper quadrants d) Striae of lateral abdomen
Asymmetrical upper quadrants Explanation: The client lies supine with knees flexed for the abdominal assessment. Upon inspection the nurse notes any skin changes, nodules, lesions, inflammation, or striae. Lesions are of particular importance and require further investigation, as do irregular contours or asymmetry of the abdomen.
A nurse assesses the abdomen of a newly admitted client. Which finding would necessitate further investigation? a) Flat appearance below the umbilicus b) Asymmetrical upper quadrants c) Striae of lateral abdomen d) Rounded contour
Asymmetrical upper quadrants Explanation: The client lies supine with knees flexed for the abdominal assessment. Upon inspection the nurse notes any skin changes, nodules, lesions, inflammation, or striae. Lesions are of particular importance and require further investigation, as do irregular contours or asymmetry of the abdomen.
The nurse is to obtain a stool specimen from a client who reported that he is taking iron supplements. The nurse would expect the stool to be which color? a) Red b) Black c) Dark brown d) Green
Black Explanation: Ingestion of iron can cause the stool to turn black. Meat protein causes stool to appear dark brown. Ingestion of large amounts of spinach may turn stool green while ingestion of carrots and beets may cause stool to turn red.
The hydrogen breath test was developed to evaluate which type of absorption? a) Protein b) Vitamin B12 c) Carbohydrate d) Fat
Carbohydrate Explanation: The hydrogen breath test that is used to evaluate carbohydrate absorption is performed if carbohydrate malabsorption is suspected. The hydrogen test does not evaluate fat, protein, or vitamin B12 absorption.
A client is scheduled for several diagnostic tests to evaluate her gastrointestinal function. After teaching the client about these tests, the nurse determines that the client has understood the teaching when she identifies which test as not requiring the use of a contrast medium? a) Small bowel series b) Colonoscopy c) Upper GI series d) Computer tomography
Colonoscopy Explanation: A colonoscopy is a direct visual examination of the entire large intestine. It does not involve the use of a contrast agent. Contrast medium may be used with a small bowel series, computed tomography, and upper GI series.
Cystic fibrosis, a genetic disorder characterized by pulmonary and pancreatic dysfunction, usually appears in young children but can also affect adults. If the pancreas was functioning correctly, where would the bile and pancreatic enzymes enter the GI system? a) Cecum b) Jejunum c) Duodenum d) Ileum
Duodenum Explanation: The duodenum, which is approximately 10 inches long, is the first region of the small intestine and the site where bile and pancreatic enzymes enter.
Digestive enzymes contribute to the breakdown of foods for the body's use. Stomach contractions mix the food and gastric secretions and, eventually, the chyme moves to the small intestine. Which nutrient actually delays feeling hungry? a) Fats b) Minerals c) Carbohydrates d) Proteins
Fats Explanation: Fats delay stomach emptying.
Which of the following should be included as part of the preprocedure teaching for a patient scheduled for a proctosigmoidoscopy involving the lower GI structures? a) Consume at least three quarts of water 30 minutes before the test b) Follow the dietary and fluid restrictions and bowel preparation procedures c) Spray or gargle with a local anesthetic d) Do not void for at least 30 minutes before the test
Follow the dietary and fluid restrictions and bowel preparation procedures Explanation: For a patient due to undergo a proctosigmoidoscopy, it is essential that the patient follows the dietary and fluid restrictions and bowel preparation procedures if the examination involves the lower GI structures. For the patient undergoing an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD), it is necessary for the patient to spray or gargle with a local anesthetic. The patient is not advised to consume three quarts of water and is not advised to void before the test. These interventions may be essential for tests that involve ultrasonographic procedures.
A few hours after eating hot and spicy chicken wings, a client presents with lower chest pain. He wonders if he is having a heart attack. How should the nurse proceed first? a) Further investigate the initial complaint. b) Explain that fatty foods can mimic chest pain. c) Administer an over-the-counter antacid tablet. d) Call for an immediate electrocardiogram.
Further investigate the initial complaint. Explanation: While fatty foods can cause discomfort similar to chest pain, the nurse must fully assess all the client's symptoms. Investigation of chief complaint begins with a complete history. The underlying cause of pain influences the characteristics, duration, pattern, location, and distribution of pain.
One or two bowel sounds in 2 minutes would be documented as which of the following? a) Hypoactive b) Hyperactive c) Normal d) Absent
Hypoactive Explanation: Hypoactive bowel sound is the description given to auscultation of one to two bowel sounds in 2 minutes. Normal bowel sounds are heard every 5 to 20 seconds. Hyperactive bowel sounds occur when 5 or 6 sounds are heard in less than 30 seconds. The nurse records that bowel sounds are absent when no sound is heard in 3 to 5 minutes.
One or two bowel sounds in 2 minutes would be documented as which of the following? a) Hyperactive b) Absent c) Normal d) Hypoactive
Hypoactive Explanation: Hypoactive bowel sounds is the description given to auscultation of 1 to 2 bowel sounds in 2 minutes. Normal bowel sounds are heard every 5 to 20 seconds. Hyperactive bowel sounds occur when 5 or 6 sounds are heard in less than 30 seconds. The nurse records that bowel sounds are absent when no sound is heard in 3 to 5 minutes.
Gastrin has which of the following effects on gastrointestinal (GI) motility? a) Relaxation of the colon b) Contraction of the ileocecal sphincter c) Increased motility of the stomach d) Relaxation of gastroesophageal sphincter
Increased motility of the stomach Explanation: Gastrin has the following effects on GI motility: increased motility of the stomach, excitation of the colon, relaxation of ileocecal sphincter, and contraction of the gastroesophageal sphincter.
A nursing instructor tells the class that review of oral hygiene is an important component during assessment of the gastrointestinal system. One of the students questions this statement. Which of the following explanations from the nurse educator is most appropriate? a) "Bad breath will encourage ingestion of fatty foods to mask odor." b) "Injury to oral mucosa or tooth decay can lead to difficulty in chewing food." c) "Decaying teeth secrete toxins that decrease the absorption of nutrients." d) "Mouth sores are caused by bacteria that can thin the villi of the small intestine."
Injury to oral mucosa or tooth decay can lead to difficulty in chewing food." Explanation: Poor oral hygiene can result in injury to the oral mucosa, lip, or palate; tooth decay; or loss of teeth. Such problems may lead to disruption in the digestive system. The ability to chew food or even swallow may be hindered.
The nurse assesses a client who is reporting mild abdominal cramping. How will the nurse proceed with assessment of this client? a) Auscultation, inspection, percussion, palpation b) Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation c) Palpation, inspection, percussion, auscultation d) Inspection, percussion, auscultation, palpation
Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation Explanation: Accurate assessment skills are necessary to ensure client safety. Auscultation always precedes percussion and palpation, which may alter sounds. Inspection remains the first physical assessment skill the nurse should perform.
Which of the following sequence should be used to assess the abdomen? a) Palpation, inspection, percussion, auscultation b) Auscultation, inspection, percussion, palpation c) Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation d) Percussion, auscultation, palpation, inspection
Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation Explanation: Assessment begins with an overall visual inspection of the abdomen followed by auscultation, which always precedes percussion and palpation since manipulation of the abdomen may alter the frequency and intensity of bowel sounds. Inspection allows the nurse to visualize the skin, umbilicus, contour, and symmetry of abdomen and any movement or pulsations.
A client is diagnosed with megaloblastic anemia caused by vitamin B12 deficiency. The physician begins the client on cyanocobalamin (Betalin-12), 100 mcg I.M. daily. Which substance influences vitamin B12 absorption? a) Intrinsic factor b) Histamine c) Liver enzyme d) Hydrochloric acid
Intrinsic factor Explanation: Vitamin B12 absorption depends on intrinsic factor, which is secreted by parietal cells in the stomach. The vitamin binds with intrinsic factor and is absorbed in the ileum. Hydrochloric acid, histamine, and liver enzymes don't influence vitamin B12 absorption.
If a client has abdominal surgery and a portion of the small intestine is removed, the client is at risk for which of the following? a) Cirrhosis b) Gastric ulcers c) Constipation d) Malabsorption syndrome
Malabsorption syndrome Explanation: Absorption is the primary function of the small intestine. Vitamins and minerals are absorbed essentially unchanged. Nutrients are absorbed at specific locations in the small intestine.
A client presents to the emergency department, reporting that he has been vomiting every 30 to 40 minutes for the past 8 hours. Frequent vomiting puts this client at risk for which imbalances? a) Metabolic alkalosis and hyperkalemia b) Metabolic acidosis and hypokalemia c) Metabolic alkalosis and hypokalemia d) Metabolic acidosis and hyperkalemia
Metabolic alkalosis and hypokalemia Explanation: Gastric acid contains large amounts of potassium, chloride, and hydrogen ions. Excessive vomiting causes loss of these substances, which can lead to metabolic alkalosis and hypokalemia. Excessive vomiting doesn't cause metabolic acidosis or hyperkalemia.
Which of the following would be most important to ensure that a client does not retain any barium after a barium swallow? a) Observing the color of urine. b) Placing any stool passed in a specific preservative. c) Monitoring the stool passage and its color. d) Monitoring the volume of urine.
Monitoring the stool passage and its color. Explanation: Monitoring stool passage and its color will ensure that the client remains barium free following a barium swallow test. The white or clay color of the stool would indicate barium retention. The stool should be placed in a special preservative if the client undergoes a stool analysis. Observing the color and volume of urine will not ensure that the client is barium free because barium is not eliminated through urine but through stool.
Which of the following is an enzyme secreted by the gastric mucosa? a) Pepsin b) Trypsin c) Bile d) Ptyalin
Pepsin Explanation: Pepsin is secreted by the gastric mucosa. Trypsin is secreted by the pancreas. The salivary glands secrete ptyalin. The liver and gallbladder secrete bile.
A client undergoing a diagnostic examination for gastrointestinal disorder was given polyethylene glycol/electrolyte solution as a part of the test preparation. Which of the following measures should the nurse take once the solution is administered? a) Allow the client to ingest fat-free meal. b) Instruct the client to have low-residue meals. c) Provide saline gargles to the client. d) Permit the client to drink only clear liquids.
Permit the client to drink only clear liquids. Explanation: After polyethylene glycol/electrolyte solution is administered, the client should have clear liquids as this ensures watery stools, which are necessary for procedures like a barium enema. Allowing the client to ingest a fat-free meal is used in preparation for oral cholecystography. Instructing the client to have low-residue meals is a pretest procedure for barium enema. A client is offered saline gargles after esophagogastroduodenoscopy.
A client is scheduled for bowel resection with anastomosis involving the large intestine. Because of the surgical site, the nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement, the nurse should add which "related-to" phrase? a) Related to the presence of bacteria at the surgical site b) Related to malnutrition secondary to bowel resection with anastomosis c) Related to major surgery required by bowel resection d) Related to the presence of a nasogastric (NG) tube postoperatively
Related to the presence of bacteria at the surgical site Explanation: The nurse should add "Related to the presence of bacteria at the surgical site" to the diagnosis of Risk for infection. The large intestine normally contains bacteria because its alkaline environment permits growth of organisms that putrefy and break down remaining proteins and indigestible residue. These organisms include Escherichia coli, Aerobacter aerogenes, Clostridium perfringens, and Lactobacillus. Although bowel resection with anastomosis is considered major surgery, it poses no greater risk of infection than any other type of major surgery. Malnutrition seldom follows bowel resection with anastomosis because nutritional absorption (except for some water, sodium, and chloride) is completed in the small intestine. An NG tube is placed through a natural opening, not a wound, and therefore doesn't increase the client's risk of infection.
A client has recently obtained a set of dentures. Which of the following will the nurse do during a complete physical examination? a) Remove the plates and rinse under hot water to remove bacteria. b) Brush the dentures before examining the oral cavity. c) Remove the plates to visualize the oral cavity. d) Have the client rinse with warm salt water before assessing the oral cavity.
Remove the plates to visualize the oral cavity. Explanation: A complete physical examination includes an assessment of the mouth. It is necessary to remove the dentures to allow good visualization of the entire oral cavity.
A nurse is providing postprocedure instructions for a client who had an esophagogastroduodenoscopy. The nurse should perform which action? a) Tell the client there aren't specific instructions for after the procedure. b) Tell the client to call back in the morning so she can give him instructions over the phone. c) Give instructions to the client immediately before discharge. d) Review the instructions with the person accompanying the client home.
Review the instructions with the person accompanying the client home. Explanation: A client who undergoes esophagogastroduodenoscopy receives sedation during the procedure, and his memory becomes impaired. Clients tend not to remember instructions provided after the procedure. The nurse's best course of action is to give the instructions to the person who is accompanying the client home. It isn't appropriate for the nurse to tell the client to call back in the morning for instructions. The client needs to be aware at discharge of potential complications and signs and symptoms to report to the physician.
The nurse is preparing to examine the abdomen of a client complaining of a change in his bowel pattern. The nurse would place the client in which position? a) Lithotomy b) Knee-chest c) Supine with knees flexed d) Left Sim's lateral
Supine with knees flexed Explanation: When examining the abdomen, the client lies supine with his knees flexed. This position assists in relaxing the abdominal muscles. The lithotomy position commonly is used for a female pelvic examination and to examine the rectum. The knee-chest position can be used for a variety of examinations, most commonly the anus and rectum. The left Sim's lateral position may be used to assess the rectum or vagina and to administer an enema.
Which of the following should the nurse advise a client due to undergo a diagnostic test for a disorder of the GI system, to ensure that the client experiences none or minimal discomfort? a) The client should not expel gas and test fluids from the bowel when he or she experiences the urge during the procedure b) The client should take a sedative before the procedure to avoid the possibility of experiencing any discomfort c) The client should lie down in a supine position for at least three hours before the test to reduce any discomfort during the test d) The client should inform the test personnel if he or she experiences pressure or cramping during the instillation of test fluids
The client should inform the test personnel if he or she experiences pressure or cramping during the instillation of test fluids Explanation: To ensure that a client who is to undergo a diagnostic test for a disorder of the gastrointestinal system experiences none or minimal discomfort during the test, the client should be instructed to inform the test personnel if the client experiences pressure or cramping during the instillation of test fluids. The test personnel can slow the instillation or take other measures to relieve discomfort.
A client with diabetes begins to have digestive problems and is told by the physician that they are a complication of the diabetes. Which of the following explanations from the nurse is most accurate? a) The pancreas secretes digestive enzymes. b) Elevated glucose levels cause bacteria overgrowth in the large intestine. c) The nerve fibers of the intestinal lining are experiencing neuropathy. d) Insulin has an adverse effect of constipation.
The pancreas secretes digestive enzymes. Explanation: While the pancreas has the well-known function of secreting insulin, it also secretes digestive enzymes. These enzymes include trypsin, amylase, and lipase. If the secretion of these enzymes are affected by a diseased pancreas as foundi with diabetes, the digestive functioning may be impaired.
Which patient teaching component is important for the nurse to communicate regarding pain management prior to or during diagnostic testing for a disorder of the GI system? a) The patient should inform the test personnel if he or she experiences pressure or cramping during the instillation of test fluids. b) The patient should not expel gas and test fluids from the bowel when he or she experiences the urge during the procedure. c) The patient should take a sedative before the procedure to avoid the possibility of experiencing any discomfort. d) The patient should lie down in a supine position for at least 3 hours before the test to reduce any discomfort during the test.
The patient should inform the test personnel if he or she experiences pressure or cramping during the instillation of test fluids. Explanation: To ensure that a patient who is to undergo a diagnostic test for a disorder of the gastrointestinal system experiences no or minimal discomfort during the test, the patient should be instructed to inform the test personnel if he or she experiences pressure or cramping during the instillation of test fluids. The test personnel can slow the instillation or take other measures to relieve discomfort. The patient should also be advised to expel gas and test fluids from the bowel when he or she experiences the urge. Ignoring the urge to expel the bowel contents increases pain and discomfort. The patient should be advised not to take any sedative or analgesic before the test, unless prescribed. Lying down in a supine position is not known to have any consequence on the level of discomfort experienced by a patient during a diagnostic test for a GI disorder.
A client is to have an upper GI procedure with barium ingestion and abdominal ultrasonography. While scheduling these diagnostic tests, the nurse must consider which factor? a) The ultrasonography should be scheduled before the GI procedure. b) The upper GI should be scheduled before the ultrasonography. c) The client may eat a light meal before either test. d) Both tests need to be done before breakfast.
The ultrasonography should be scheduled before the GI procedure. Explanation: Both an upper GI procedure with barium ingestion and an ultrasonography may be completed on the same day. The ultrasonography test should be completed first, because the barium solution could interfere with the transmission of the sound waves. The ultrasonography test uses sound waves that are passed into internal body structures, and the echoes are recorded as they strike tissues. Fluid in the abdomen prevents transmission of ultrasound.
Upon review of a client's chart, the nurse notes the client has been receiving antiemetics every 6 to 8 hours. What in this client's history may necessitate such frequency? a) Pituitary tumor b) Adrenal gland removal 3 days ago c) Treatment for cancer d) Multiple leg fractures
Treatment for cancer Explanation: Antiemetics are used to treat nausea and vomiting. Common causes of nausea and vomiting include visceral afferent stimulation, peritoneal irritation, infections, radiation or chemotherapy therapy, increased intracranial pressure, and vestibular disorders. Irritation of the chemoreceptor trigger zone from cancer treatment can induce nausea and lead to vomiting.
When describing the role of the pancreas to a client with a pancreatic dysfunction, the nurse would identify which substance as being acted on by pancreatic lipase? a) Protein b) Glucose c) Triglycerides d) Starch
Triglycerides Explanation: Pancreatic lipase acts on lipids, especially triglycerides. Salivary amylase and pancreatic amylase act on starch. Pepsin and hydrochloric acid in the stomach and trypsin from the pancreas act on proteins. Insulin acts on glucose.
The nurse asks a client to point to where she feels pain. The client asks why this is important. The nurse's best response would be which of the following? a) "This determines the pain medication to be ordered." b) "The area may determine the severity of the pain." c) "If the doctor massages over the exact painful area, the pain will disappear." d) "Often the area of pain is referred from another area."
You selected: "Often the area of pain is referred from another area." Explanation: Pain can be a major symptom of disease. The location and distribution of pain can be referred from a different area. If a client points to an area of pain and has other symptoms associated with a certain disease, this is valuable information for treatment.
A nurse is teaching a client with malabsorption syndrome about the disorder and its treatment. The client asks which part of the GI tract absorbs food. The nurse tells the client that products of digestion are absorbed mainly in the: a) large intestine. b) small intestine. c) rectum. d) stomach.
small intestine. Explanation: The small intestine absorbs products of digestion, completes food digestion, and secretes hormones that help control the secretion of bile, pancreatic juice, and intestinal secretions. The stomach stores, mixes, and liquefies the food bolus into chyme and controls food passage into the duodenum; it doesn't absorb products of digestion. Although the large intestine completes the absorption of water, chloride, and sodium, it plays no part in absorbing food. The rectum is the portion of the large intestine that forms and expels feces from the body; its functions don't include absorption.
Choice Multiple question - Select all answer choices that apply. An examiner is performing the physical assessment of the rectum, perianal region, and anus. While this examination can be uncomfortable for many clients, health care providers must approach it in a prepared, confident manner. Which of the following considerations will help this examination flow smoothly and efficiently for both provider and client? Select all that apply. a) Position the client on the right side with the knees up to the chest. b) Dim the lights to decrease the client's embarrassment. c) Cleanse gloved fingers with water to allow for easy insertion. d) Ask the client to produce a bowel movement after the procedure. e) Ask the client to bear down for visual inspection.
• Position the client on the right side with the knees up to the chest. • Ask the client to bear down for visual inspection. Explanation: While examination of the rectum, perineum, and anus may be uncomfortable for the client, it is necessary for a thorough examination. The examiner will position the client on the right side with the knees up. He or she will use a gloved finger lubricated with a water-soluble lubricant for ease of insertion. The health care provider will encourage deep breathing during the procedure and ask the client to bear down while inspecting the anal area. The examination requires appropriate lighting for thorough inspection.
