Dispensing Sample Questions, Dispensing (GREEN), Dispensing (BLUE)
A fever response to antibiotic therapy caused by the sudden release of endotoxins from various killed microorganisms is called: a. Herxheimer reaction c. skin reaction b. Lyell's syndrome d. anaphylactic reaction
A
A formulation of FeSO4 Suspension cannot use Acacia as a suspending agent, because the final product may exhibit: a. gelatinization c. cementation b. prescipitation d. oxidation
A
A metal catalyzed oxidation reaction pathway can be prevented by: a. chelating agents c. surface active agents b. antioxidant d. none of these answes
A
A physiological or a psychological state resulting from drug administration a. drug dependence c. drug addiction b. drug habituation d. drug tolerance
A
A prescription where the generic name is not written a. violative Rx c. impossible Rx b. erroneous Rx d. yellow DDB Rx
A
A primary disadvantage of ethylene glycol as a solvent in oral preparation is its: a. potential toxicity d. high cost b. lack of solvent action e. high viscosity c. very limited miscibility
A
A solution contains 3 gr of a drug per fluid ounce. What is the percentage w/v of the solution? a. 0.66% d. 1.0% b. 0.59% e. 6.5% c. 10.0%
A
A type of drug action which is vanishing and disappearing gradually. A. Evanescent C. Cumulative B. Steady D. All of the above
A
A type of incompatibility which occurs when norepinephrine is added to sodium carbonate. A. Physical incompatibility C. Therapeutic incompatibility B. Chemical incompatibility D. All of the choices given
A
Acacia will produce color with some compound because: A. It has an enzyme ( It contains peroxidase enzymes) B. It is acidic C. It deomposes with strong acids D. It decomposes with strong bases
A
Acid produces ulcer and patients with ulcers should not be given with _______ drug because it is acid producing A. Antihistamine C. Diuretic B. Antibacterial D. Antidepressant
A
Adverse effects associated with Disopyramide therapy include I. Urinary retention II. Constipation III. Blurred vision IV. Lupus syndrome A. I, II, III D. IV only B. I, III E. All of the choices given C. II, IV
A
Adverse effects associated with Guanethidine include I. Orthostatic hypotnesion II. Enhanced sensitivity to sympathomimetics III. Diarrhea IV. Sedation A. I, II, and III D. IV only B. I and III E. All of the choices given C. II and IV
A
Agent used to counter motion sickness which is more effective than Cyclizine and Meclizine I. Dimehydramine II. Promethazine III. Scopolamine IV. Betanechol A. I, II, III D. IV only B. I, III E. All of the choices given C. II and IV
A
All of the following untoward effects are commonly associated with cancer chemotherapy EXCEPT: a. exfoliative dermatitis b. teratogenesis c. nausea d. alocepia & leukemia
A
Allergic reactions that are due to a person's immune response: a. hypersensitivity c. adverse drug effects b. idiosyncrasy d. potentiation
A
Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase and thus increases the plasma levels of: a. mercaptopurine c. disulfiram b. chloral hydrate d. aspirin
A
Ampicillin will produce a false - positive reaction when testing for the presence of glucose in urine the folloing except: A. Clinistix® C. Benedict's solution B. Clinitest® D. Fehling's solution
A
An anti - viral agent A. Amantadine C. Cytarabine B. Vinblastine D. Dapsone
A
An auxiliary label except: a. do not repeat c. shake well before using b. for external use d. ophthalmic use
A
An error committed when a person begins to lose focus. A. Skill-based error C. Rule-based error B. Knowledge-based error D. Lapses
A
An example of a subscription: a. M. ft. sol. c. shake well before using b. 1 tab q 6 hrs d. 250 mg capsule
A
An incompatibility observed when Amiodarone HCl 12.5 mg /mL is mixed with Clavulanic acid 10 mg/mL. A. Immediate lactescence (milky appearance) B. Immediate yellow coloring C. Initial heavy orange turbidity becoming red-orange liquid with red precipitate D. Immediate Opalescence
A
Any drug reaction which does not necessarily have a casual relationahip with the treatment is called an: a. adverse drug reaction c. adverse drug event b. therapeutic incompatibility d. none of the above
A
Aspirin hydrolizes in water giving acetic acid and a. salicylic acid c. formic acid b. oxalic acid d. tricarboxylic acid
A
Aspirin with antacids will cause: a. alteration of pH c. alteration of GIT flora b. complexation and adsorption d. alteration of motility
A
Benzalkonium chloride is incompatible with: a. soap c. a & b b. cationic agent d. none of the above
A
Beta-lactam anitbiotics Penicillin and Ampicillin show accelerated hydrolysis when mixed with drugs like: A. Dopamine C. Streptomycin B. Erythromycin D. Carbenicillin
A
Biological half life of many drugs is often prolonged in newborn infants because of: a. incompletely developed enzyme system b. microsomal enzyme inhibition c. higher protein binding d. well developed renal function
A
Bisacodyl interacts with milk through what mechanisms? A. Alteration of pH D. Alteration of motility rate B. Complexation E. Alteration of metabolism C. Adsorption
A
Camphor, menthol, acetophenetidine, phenol will form: a. eutectic combination c. explosive combination b. liquefaction d. both A & B
A
Certified dyes may NOT be used in the area of: a. the eye d. the nose b. the scalp e. all of the above c. the lips
A
Characterizes the first exposure of the fraction of the drug metabolized in the liver: a. first pass effect c. biotransformation b. drug-receptorinteraction d. pharmacokinetics
A
Cholestasis is the principle derangement observed in hepatoxicity associated with A. Phenothiazines D. Carbon tetracholride B. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors E. All of the choices given C. Para - aminosalicylic acid
A
Combination of salt substitute and potassium sparing drugs will result to a. hyperkalemia c. alkalosis b. tachycardia d. calcemia
A
Complimentary list is a list of ________ drug used when there in no response to the core essential list a. alternative c. additional b. substitute d. supplementary
A
Decreased in body clearance of a usual dose benzodiazepine causes extension sedation. This ADR is classified as: A. Type A D. Type D B. Type B E. Type E C. Type C
A
Doxorubicin is asociated with: I. Cardiac disease II. Myelosuppression III. Gastrointestinal toxicity IV. Nephrotoxicity A. I, II, III D. IV only B. I, III E. All of the choices given C. II and IV
A
Drug that should not be given to patients who have undergone surgery including dental surgery a. aspirin c. ibuprofen b. acetaminophen d. all of these answers
A
Drug-drug interactions that occur when one drug alters the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of the other drug. a. pharmacokinetic interactions b. pharmacologic interactions c. pharmacodynamic interaction d. all of the above
A
Duty of Pharmacy assistants in dispensing process, except: A. Record and file the prescription B.Get the payment for the product C. Deliver the drug product D. Give the price of the product
A
For the guidance of the patient, the prescription needs: a. signa c. superscription b. subscription d. inscription
A
Forms of liquefaction where ther is lowering of metling point of the substances lower than their individual melting point. A. Eutexia C. Deliquescence B. Hygoscopy D. All of the above
A
Glass is a traditional packaging material which has been widely used for both liquid and solid dose forms. All of the following are types of glass containers, except: a. closures c. ear and nasal dropper bottles b. bottles d. containers for semi-solid preparation
A
Group of drugs commonly abused by athletes: a. anabolic steroids c. antibiotics b. dexamethasone d. vitamins
A
HLB is a system used to distinguish between: a. surfactants d. excipients b. glidants e. disintegrators c. suspending agents
A
High Alert Medications (HAM ) include: I. Digoxin II. Lidocaine III. Neuromuscular blocking agents A. I, II, III D. I, III B. I, II E. III only C. II, III
A
How many grains of a drug is needed to make 4 fluid ounces of a 5% w/v solution? a. 91 grains d. 100 grains b. 96 grains e. 24 grains c. 48 grains
A
Identify the odd-man-out: a. complete formation c. liquefaction of solid ingredients b. insolubility d. polymorphism
A
Immediate remedy for anaphylaxis: a. epinephrine injection c. antihistamine b. aspirin d. antibiotic
A
In a drug interaction, the drug whose action is effected by the combination with other drugs, food, or chemicals is called: A. Object drug C. Interactant drug B. Precipitant drug D. Action drug
A
In acidic urine, acidic drugs are more un-ionized, hence a. reabsorbed, increase in half life b. not reabsorbed, increase in half life c. reabsorbed, decrease in half life d. not reabsorbed, decrease in half life
A
In acidic urine, basic drugs are a. more ionized, hence not reabsorbed, decrease in half life b. un-ionized, hence not reabsorbed, decrease in half life c. more ionized hence not reabsorbed, increase half life
A
In an extemporaneous prescription, the chief or active constituent is referred to as the: A. Basis C. Vehicle B. Corrective D. Adjuvant
A
In dispensing Accutane for acne, which is the most appropriate instruction that should be given to the patient? A. Avoid multivitamins that contain Vitamin A B. Keep area covered at all times with cream and sterile dressing C. Avoid prolong use D. Discontinue and seek medical aid if irritation occurs
A
In dispensing antifungal medication for skin, the patient should be instructed to: A. Exposure to air whenever possible B. Use caution with Povidone-iodine in anyone with allergies C. Keep area covered at all times with cream and sterile dressing D. Avoid combination of cholinergic medications
A
In metabolizing a standard dose of INH, Filipinos are considered: a. fast acetylators c. neither slow nor fast b. slow acetylators d. same as the Caucasians
A
In order for the Pharmacist to adhere to the standard dispensing procedures, he/she must not: A. Verify doubtful prescriptions from the paitent B. Checked dose limits C. Checked the potential interaction between any medicine currenlty taken and the drug on the prescription D. Advise the patient on the proper use of the medications.
A
Incompatibilities means _________ in prescription: I. Conflict II. Disagreement III. Differences A. I,II, III C. II, III B. I, III D. I only
A
Incompatibilities of acacia include: ` I. Precipitated by alcohol II. Can liberate carbon dioxide from bicarbonates II. Swell in water A. I only D. III only B. II, III E. I, II, III C. I, II
A
Increases serum levels and prolongs agent the activity of penicillin derivatives by blocking the latter's tubular excretion: a. probeneid c. propranolol b. indomethacin d. methyldopa
A
Instruction for patient in taking the medication a. transcription c. superscription b. inscription d. subscription
A
Involves the degradation of the drug or excipients through reaction with the solvents present in the formulations: a. solvolysis c. photolysis b. oxidation d. polymerization
A
It is a part of patient profile which is necessary to assess the appropriateness of the dose: A. Birth date and weight B. Clinical condition C. Direction for use D. Medication strength
A
It is classified as one of the human errors in dispensing, which are always physical in nature and are defined as unintended actions rather than as error in judgment. A. Slips C. Mistakes B. Lapses D. None of the above
A
It is the most complex error type which is made within the realm of problem solving and judgment. A. Knowledged-based error C.Rule-based error B.Medication-based error D. Skill based error
A
Large intake of this vitamin can cause CNS malformations, cleft palate and other severe fetal defects. Which of the following vitamins should not be taken by pregnant women due to its severe fetal defects? A. Vitamin A C. Vitamin E B. Vitamin B D. Vitamin D
A
Lidocaine HCL is NOT administered orally because it is: a. ineffective by this route d. a cause of arrhytmias b. too acidic e. unstable c. too toxic by this route
A
Low potassium level in blood produced by diuretics: a. hypokalemia c. hypocalcemia b. hyponatria d. hyperuricemia
A
Many diuretics tend to cause depletion of: a. potassium b. sodium c. carbonate ion d. urea
A
Occurs when one drug increases the action of another drug: a. potentiation c. summation b. antagonism d. cummation/potentiation
A
Official name of drug products containing 2 or more active ingredients with single INN a. INN of the combination products b. generic names of 2 or more active ingredients c. based on the nomenclature used by the PNDF d. products with standards formulations included in the current PNDF
A
One advice the pharmacist may explain upon dispensing Ferrous Sulfate supplement is that it may discolor the stool A. Black C. Red B. Orange D. Cream
A
Patients who are going to take antihistamines must be advised by the Pharmacist to avoid its use for a longer period of time because: A. It can increase bronchial or nasal congestion and dry cough. B. It can cause nervousness, tremors, dizziness and conclusion C. It can increase blood pressure D. It can increase blood sugar
A
Patients who are using Naproxen sodium should be advised by the Pharmacist to: A. Take the medicine with food and stay erect during 15 to 30 minutes. B. Take the medicine on an empty stomach and stay erect during 15 to 30 minutes C. Take 20 minutes before meals D. Avoid acid foods.
A
Patron saints of medicine and pharmacy a. Cosmas and Damian c. George Ebers b. St. Peter d. Don Leon Ma. Guerrero
A
Petition for favor of healing and warning from great care and precaution. a. Rx c. Magistral Pharmacy b. Signa d. Mark thou
A
Pharmacist should counsel pregnant women not to take NSAID's drugs during the entire period of pregnancy because: A. With regular use closure of fetal ductus arteriosus in utero may occur. B. Risk of neural tube defects may be increased. C. Placental perfusion may be reduced. D. Genital malformations and cardiac defects may be developed.
A
Phenobarbital and griseofulvin are __________of coumarins. a. enzyme inducers c. antagonists b. enzyme inhibitors d. agonists
A
Potential side effects associated with amiodarone therapy include I. Pneumonitis II. Pseudocyanosis III. Photosensitivity IV. Parotiditis A. I, II, III D. IV only B. I, III E. All of the choices given C. II, IV
A
Principal site of drug metabolism a. liver c. stomach b. kidney d. small intestine
A
Prohibited drugs includes all of the following, except: A. Methotrexate C. Demerol B. Morphine sulfate D. Innovar
A
Regulated drug, except a. LSD c. Methaqualone b. Amphetamine d. Phenobarbital
A
Route of administration where drugs are applied to the skin surface to be absorbed slowly into the systemic circulation a. transdermal route c. buccal route b. inhalation route d. rectal route
A
Salt of zinc that is valuable as an eyewash for the treatment of conjunctivitis a. zinc sulfate c. zinc oxide b. zinc chloride d. all of these answers
A
Saw palmetto is indicated for the treatment of: A. Micturation difficulty D. Convalescence B. Cirrhosis E. Insomia C. Fatigue
A
Side effects of medication are often responsible for a patient not complying with the prescribed drug regimen. An agent which has somnolence as a primary side effect is A. Methyldopa C. Guanethedine B. Hydralazine D. Captopril
A
Simethicone is most likely to be included in what type of OTC product. a. antacids c. decongestant b. cough products d. laxative
A
Smoking increases the activity of drug metabolizing enzymes resulting to: I. Rapid metabolism of drugs II. Decrease effects of drugs III. Increase effects of drugs A. I, II D. III only B. I, III E. I, II, III C. I only
A
Syrup NF is: a. self-preserving d. highly unstable b. a supersaturated solution e. flavored and preserved c. a dilute solution
A
Term for migration of the drug into the container: a. sorption c. permeation b. leaching d. vaporization
A
The chemical substance used commonly in running a GI series is: a. barium sulfate d. sodium bicarbonate b. fluorescein dye e. sodium carbonate c. radioactive iodine
A
The chief active constituent a. base c. corrective b. vehicle d. adjuvant
A
The degradation reaction for aspirin involves: a. hydrolysis c. oxidation b. racemization d. photolysis
A
The following are aminoglycosides, except: a. quinidine c. streptomycin b. kanamycin d. neomycin
A
The following are guidelines for reducing drug interactions, except: a. employ combination therapy c. educate the patient b. identify patient risk factors d. know properties of drugs
A
The following are importance of recognizing potential incompatibilities, except: a. rewarding for the pharmacist c. safety o the patient b. savings in money, time effort d. quality medicines dispensed
A
The following are manifestations of chemical incompatibilities except: a. immiscibility c. gel formation b. photolysis d. evolution of gas
A
The following are manifestations of chemical incompatibility except: A. Immiscibility C. Evolution of gas B. Photolysis D. Color formation
A
The following are remedies for oxidation except: a. acid pH c. addition of antioxidant b. change dosage form d. protection from light
A
The following are the benefits of electronic dispensing, except: A. Boost fraud risks present in the paper-based process. B. Improved confidentiality and security of helath information C. Better clarity and communication of prescription information D. More time for consumers with health professionals due to less paperwork.
A
The following is/are true regarding absorption of salicylic acid: a. non-ionized form is more lipid-soluble & absorbable b. ionized form is more lipid-soluble & absorbable c. polar form is more readily absorbed d. absorption is increased when taken with an antacid
A
The following precautions must be instructed to the patients with the use antacids, except: A. Blurred vision C. Electrolyte imbalance C. Constipation D. Osteoporosis
A
The functions of suspending agents include the ff. except: a. prevent oxidation-reduce reaction b. increase the viscosity of the vehicle c. slow down the rate of settling down d. cause the preparation to remain in suspension
A
The major side effect of Doxorubicin is I.Cardiac failure II. Liver failure III. Renal failure A. I only C. II and III only B. I and II only D. All of the choice given
A
The major use of titanium dioxide in pharmacy is in: a. sunscreens d. effervescent salts b. antacid tablets e. emulsions c. capsule as a diluent
A
The manifestation in no. 32 is a result of a: a. therapeutic incompatibility c. physical incompatibility b. chemical incompatibility d. adverse drug reaction
A
The medication dispensing area should be designed to prevent errors by: A. Providing staffing and other resources appropriate to the workloads B. Taking action when adverse reactions occur C. Storing requirements of the medication D. Providing accurate and usable drug information.
A
The most clinically significant adverse drug reaction affecting the upper gastrointestinal tract results from the use of: a. NSAIDS c. phenobarbital b. antabuse d. aspirin
A
The most serious drug-induced blood disorder: a. aplastic anemia c.agranulocytosis b. leukemia d. thrombocytopenia
A
The objective of the Generic Law is to a. provide the patient the choice of drugs at the lowest cost b. provide regulated drugs c. provide prohibited drugs d. use habit forming drugs
A
The part of the prescription which directs the patient what to do is: a. signa c. subscription b. inscription d. superscription
A
The pharamacist may provide information on the patient who orders Insulin Lispro that its onset of action is: A. 5-15 mins C. 8 - 16 hours B. 30 - 60 mins D. 1- 2 hours
A
The principal use of magnesium stearate in pharmaceutics an as a (an): a. lubricant d. disintegrator b. antacid e. binder c. source of magnesium ion
A
The purpose of sorbitol is formulation of soft gelatin capsules is as a/an: a. plasticizer d. thickener b. disintegrating agent e. emulsifier c. lubricant
A
The purpose of the prescription number is: a. to identify the prescription for future reference b. as a substitute for the name of the drug c. to guide the pharmacist in costing d. to provide professional fee to the medicine
A
The unusual result of triturating camphor and menthol is a. liquefaction c. solidification b. synergistic effect d. lowering of melting point
A
Theophylline is used for: a. asthmatic c. hypertensive patients b. diabetic d. all of these answers
A
This anti - TB drug will cause peripheral neuritis especially in patients that are slow acetylators A. Isoniazid C. Pyrazinamide B. Ethambutol D. Rifampin
A
This incompatibility involves the degradation of the drug or excipient through reaction with the solvents present in the formulaiton: A. Solvolysis C. Photolysis B. Oxidation D. Polymerization
A
This parchment scroll found in Egypt mentioned 700 drugs with formulas for more than 800 remedies a. Papyrus Ebers c. Remington b. De Materia Medica d. USP NF
A
This reaction isclassifiedunder Bizzare reactions (type B): a. anaphylactic shock c. adverse effect b. teratogenesis d. drug dependence
A
This type of ADR that is usually dose dependent and predictable: A. Type A C. Type C B. Typer B D. Type D
A
Transdermal scopolamine is a drug used to prevent: a. motion sickness d. coronary insufficiency b. hypertension e. rabies c. diabetes
A
True types of incompatibilities a. Unintentional or Unexpected Incompatibilities b. Intentional or Unexpected Incompatibilities c. Immediate Incompatibilities d. Delayed Incompatibilities
A
Type B ADRs includes all of the following except: A. Extension effects of drug's pharmacological action B. Idiosyncratic reactions C. Allergic reactions D. Steven Johnson syndrome
A
UV light-sensitive substances are best protected using: a. amber bottle c. flint glass b. plastic container d. carton box
A
Upon dispensing the pharmacist what is the vital information can the pharmacist give when a patient buys calcium supplement. A. Calcium's absorption is enhance with Vitamin D B. Calcium's absorption is enhance with Vitamin E C. Calcium's absorption is deterred with Vitamin D D. Calcium's absorption is deterred with Vitamin E
A
Violation on the part of the pharmacist in generic dispensing, except a. adequately inform the buyer about available products that meet the prescription b. failure to record and file the prescription filed c. imposing a particular brand or product to the buyer d. failure to report to the nearest office cases of incorrect prescriptions within 3 months after receipt of such prescriptions
A
Vitamins A is compatible with: A. Plastic container C. Both A and B B. Soda glass container D. Neither A nor B
A
Well known side effects of salicylate therapy: a. tinnitus c. headache b. vomiting d. nausea
A
What is the most appropriate patient education for those undergoing ulcer therapies? A. Avoid Cigarette smoking, this seems to decrease the effectiveness of medicine in the healing of duodenal ulcers B. Adequate fluid intake and bland diet. C. Aboid self medication for longer than 48 hours D. Regular exercise to develop muscle tone.
A
What is the most common cause of medication errors? A. Miscommunication between physicians, pharmacist and nurses B. Incomplete pateint medication information C. Misunderstood abbreviations D. Illegible doctor's writing on the prescriptions
A
When dispensing Ferrous sulfate vitamin to a patient, which precaution should Pharmacist give to the patient? A. Avoid tea or coffee because it reduces iron absorption by as much 50% B. Avoid vitamin A because it reduces iron absorption. C. Avoid Tetracycline because it activates iron. D. Avoid Aspirin because iron can cause elevated levels of aspirin in the blood.
A
When the generic name is preceded by the brand name, the prescription is: A. Erroneous prescription C. Impossible prescription B. Violative prescription D. Correct prescription
A
When the generic name is preceded by the brand name, the prescription is: a. erroneous prescription c. impossible prescription b. violative prescription d. none of the above
A
When two (2) interacting drugs results to alteration of ADME, it is classified as: A. Pharmacokinetic interaction C. Pharmaceutic interaction B. Pharmacodynamic interaction D. Therapeutic interaction
A
Which of the following advises can you give to the patients on Griseofulvin therapy? A. Take with foods rich in lipids B. Avoid food rich in proteins and cabbages C. Avoid foods rich in vitamin K D. Avoid acid foods
A
Which of the following agents used in the treatment of pulmonary tuberculosis has a toxicity of producing a lupus-like syndrome? A. Isoniazid D. Streptomycin B. Rifampin E. Para-aminosalicylic acid C. Ethambutol
A
Which of the following antibioitcs is most closely associated with the development of renal and ototoxicity? A.Kanamycin D. Isoniazid B. Penicillin G E. Ethambutol C. Tetracycline
A
Which of the following can lead to overdose? I. Excessive amounts taken at one time II. Doses repeated at too frequent intervals III. Dose dumping from modified release formulation A. I, III D. I only B. II, III E. I, II, III C. I, II
A
Which of the following conditions is/ are a consequence of wrongly dispensing Fentanyl with Sufentanil or vice versa? A. Episodes of respiratory arrest due to potency difference betwwen the two drugs B. Severe toxicity and death C. Decline in mental status D. Cardiovascular complications
A
Which of the following dose not cause a therapeutic incompatibility? a. errors in pricing c. loading dose b. dosage form errors d. errors of storage and supply
A
Which of the following drugs must be protected from light during administration to maintain their stability? A. Na nitroprusside and Amphotericin B B. Gentamicin and Heparin C. Penicillin and Chloramphenicol D. Erythromycin and Penicillin
A
Which of the following factors may contribute to the occurence of a drug interaction? I. Multiple pharmacological effects II. Drug abuse III. Multiple prescribers A. I, III D. I, II, III B. I, II E. I only C. II, III
A
Which of the following is NOT TRUE about anorexia nervosa? A. It is a genetic disease characterize by weight loss B. It is common adult females C. May because by excessive use of laxative. D. Fluoxetine is indicated for the treatment
A
Which of the following not a consulting service provided by the pharmacist in community setting? A. Screening for cholesterol C. Regulation and compliance B. Staff education and in services D. Patient profile monitoring
A
Which of the following properties would characterize a drug when it is bound to plasma albumin? a. it is biologically inactive b. it can pass through the glomerulus c. it is promptly metabolized d. a and b
A
Which of the following will not lead to therapeutic incompatibility? A. Errors in pricing C. Prescripiton B. Dosage forms errors D. Errors in storage
A
Which statement is not true regarding Lithium-NSAID combination? a. NSAID impaired renal synthesis of bronchodilator prostaglandin b. NSAID antagonize the renal excretion of lithium c. NSAID may cause sodium and water retention d. NSAID inhibit prostaglandin dependent renal excretion of lithium.
A
the most appropriate cautionary and advisory label for Diclofenac sodium. A. Taken with or after food B. Taken an hour before food or an empty stomach C. Dissolved under the tongue D. This medicine may color the urine.
A
An ointment is prepared by incorporating 10 g of a drug into 100 g of White petrolatum. What is the percent w/w of active ingredient? a. 10.0% d. 0.95% b. 9.1% e. none of the above c. 0.91%
B
Anaphylaxis is a: a. Type A ADR c. Type E ADR b. Type B ADR d. Type F ADR
B
Based on 2005 survey, the most frequent error(s) in dispensing inappropriate dose is /are: A. No actual problem C. Poor communication B. Lack of knowledge of the drug D. All of the above
B
Based on USP guidelines the stability of extemporaneously compounded aqueous liquids (reconstituted formulation) is A. A beyond use date of not later than 25% of the time remaining until the product's expiration date or 6 months, whichever is earlier B. No t later than 14 days when stored at cold temperatures C. Not less than the intended duration of therapy or 30 days, whichever is earlier D. maximum beyond use date is 6 months or 25% of the remaining time between the compounding date and the shortest expiration date of the ingredients, whichever is earlier
B
Before dispensing ferrous sulfate vitamin to patients, the Pharmacist must counsel the patient with the following advises, except: A. Do not take together with milk B. Avoid foods rich in proteins C. Take with food it causes gastric disturbance D. Swllow the drug wothout chewing
B
Careful monitoring should be done when dispensing as it depresses the bone marrow protein synthesis: A. bacitracin C. Penicillin B. Chloramphenicol D. All of the choices given
B
Celeberex is contraindicated for those individuals allergic to which of the following drugs? A. Penicillin C. Sulfa Drugs B. Aspirin D. Quinolones
B
Cimetidine is used commonly as A. Anti - histaminic C. Antacid B. Histamine 2 antagonist D. Antihistamine
B
Computerized patient medication records allow Pharmacist to: A. Counsel the patient on the appropriate use of medicines B. Monitor patient compliance C. Provide health promotion information D. All of the above
B
Degradation of Gentamicin may occur when: A. There is a decrease in pH C. Diluted of surfactants B. Diluted of antioxidants D. Diluted of salts
B
Delay in gastric-emptying time for the drug to reach the duodenum will ______, thereby prolonging the onset of time for the drug. a. slow the rate and extent of drug distribution b. slow the rate and extent of drug absorption c. increase the rate and extent of drug absorption d. increase the rate and extent of drug metabolism
B
Dispensing directions to the pharmacist is a. inscription c. superscription b. subscription d. transcription
B
Drugs bound to plasma proteins are considered: a. pharmacologically active c. free drugs b. pharmacologically inactive d. bioavailable drugs
B
Drugs requiring strict precautions in their use, except a. Methotrexate c.Nitrofurantoin b. Codein d. Phenytoin
B
Drugs that can be dispensed only through a yellow prescription pad: a. essential drugs c. OTC products b. dangerous drugs d. prescription drugs
B
Drugs that should not be given to children with chicken pox of flu symptoms: a. acetaminophen c. ibuprofen b. aspirin d. all of these answers
B
Enzyme inhibition of coumarins can lead to: a. hypoglycemia c. blood clotting b. profuse bleeding d. convulsion
B
Exempt prohibited drugs, except a. Lomotil c. Robitussin AC syrup b. Benzodiazepines d. Phenergon Expectorant with Codeine
B
Factors associated with increased risk toxicity during Captopril therapy include: I. Bilateral renal artery stenosis II. Congestive Heart Failure III. Systemic Lupus erythematosus IV. Female A. I, II, and III D. IV only B. I and III E. All of the choices given C. II and IV
B
Failure to mix or dissolve when two or more ingredients are combined may be termed as: a. adverse reactions c. drug precipitation b. physical incompatability d. complexation
B
Ferritin is a (a) a. vitamin d. amino acid b. micelle e. protein c. emulsion
B
For dispensing thick viscous liquids, the container should be: a. standard prescription c. collapsible tubes b. wide-mouthed bottles d. dropper bottles
B
Freeze drying is based on: a. pressure filtration d. pasteurization b. sublimation e. densification c. polymerization
B
Generic equivalent drugs are finished pharmaceutical products having same ingredients, same dosage form, and the same strength. They differ only in a. generic name c. international non-proprietary b. brand name d. active constituents
B
Glibenclamide - Thiazide diuretics exhibits this type of interaction: A. Increase potassium level B. Decrease oral hypoglycemic effect C. Alteration in gastric emptying D. Sodium depletion
B
Glucose is NOT subject to hydrolysis because it is: a. a dissacharide d. insoluble b. a monosaccharide e. both B and C c. a polysaccharide
B
Grapefruit juice increases the blood levels of drugs concurrently taken with it by: A. Increasing the activity of drug metabolizing enzymes B. Inhibting the cytochrome P450 enzymes C. Increasing the absorption of drugs D. Blocking the urinary excretion of drugs
B
Hepatic toxicity is more common with: I. Iproniazid II. Phenelzine III. Tranylcypromine A. I only C. II and III only B. I and II only D. All of the choice given
B
How many mL will you dispense for a prescription calling for a 100 g of a liquid substance with a sp.gr. of 1.25? a. 75 mL c. 85 mL b. 80 mL d. 90 mL
B
Idiosyncratic reactions are considered: a. Type A ADR c. Type C ADR b. Type B ADR d. Type E ADR
B
If a patient asks for active ingredient if Actiq. The pharmacist should give A. Filgrastim C. Interferon - alfa B. Fentanyl D. Foscarnet
B
If a patient seek additional information of her state - Multiple sclerosis: a pharmacist may emphasized that the part that is damage in the brain is the ______. A. Nephron C. Parietal cells B. Myelin sheath D. Bowman's capsule
B
If a pharmacist compounds an emulsion following the 4:2:1 ratio, how many mL of water should be added if the oil amounts to 30 mL? A. 10 mL C. 5 mL B. 15 mL D. 7.5 mL
B
If the pharmacist doubts the correctness of the prescription, he should: a. consult the patient b. consult the prescriber of the patient c. consult other pharmacist d. base decision on ailment
B
Impaired vision is an adverse effect of: A. Carbenicillin D. Colistin B. Ethambutol E. Cycloserine C. Rifampin
B
Importance of a label: a. for sake of art c. to improve elegance b. to establish identity d. to give prominence
B
In a prescription, the dispensing directions to the pharmacist is the: a. superscription c. inscription b. subscription d. signa
B
In basic urine, acidic drugs are a. un-ionized, hence reabsorbed, decrease half life b. more ionized, not reabsorbed, decrease half life c. more un-ionized, not reabsorbed, increase half life d. un-ionized, not reabsorbed, increases elimination rate
B
In order to ensure proper medication use, storage and compliance with applicable statutes, what should be affixed on the label of the drug? A. expiration date of the mediation B. Auxillary and/or cautionary labels C. Quantity of medication dispensed D. Product strength
B
In the management of chronic conditions, Pharmacist can help by: A. Demonstrating the value of pharmacy B. Helping in developing local "shared care" protocols C. Training for other professionals and careers D. Developing drugs
B
Indicates the quantitative range or amounts of drug that maybe prescribed within the guidelines of usual medical practice. a. divided dose c. loading dose b. usual dosage range d. total dose
B
Instruction and special care to avoid undesired effects and to ensure the safe and effective use of the product a. warnings c. contraindications b. precautions d. indications
B
Interactions that arise with drug acting on the receptors, sites of action or physiological system a. pharmaceutical interactions b. pharmacodynamic interactions c. pharmacokinetic interactions d. change in body fluids and electrolyte balances
B
Isotonic solution of this substance will still cause hemolysis of RBC a. benzoic acid c. sodium bicarbonate b. boric acid d. sodium benzoate
B
It forms the beginning of a direct order from the prescriber to the compounder a. inscription c. subscription b. superscription d. errors in the written order
B
It is classified as one of the human ewrrors in dispensing, which largely refer to failures in memory A. Slips C. Mistakes B. Lapses D. Rule-based error
B
It is defined as any preventable event occuring in the medication-use process, including prescribibg, trnascribing, dipensing, using and monitoring, which results in inappropraite medication use or paitent harm. A. Prescribing error C. Dispensing error B. Medication error D. Knowledged-based error
B
It occurs when drugs are mixed inappropriately in syringes or infusion fluids prior to administration. a. pharmacodynamic interaction c. pharmacokinetic interaction b. pharmaceutical interaction d. all of the above
B
Kwell, used to treat lice infestations, is contraindicated in all of the following conditions, except: A. Infancy C. Pregnancy B. Obesity D. Older fault
B
Long term use of Phenytoin may lead to this ADR: A. Pigmentary retinopathy C. Steven Johnson's Syndrome B. Hirsutism D. All of the above
B
Methyl salicylate is used primarily as a (a): a. flavoring d. emulsifier b. counter-irritant e. binder c. suspending agent
B
Milk and other dairy products ________ the absorption of tetracycline and Fluoroquinolones. A. Increase C. Does not affect B. Decrease D. All of the above
B
Most adults who are at high risk of developing pulmonary tuberculosis should be treated with A. Isoniazid 100mg/day for 6 months B. Isoniazid 300mg/day for 12 month C. Ethambutol 400mg/day for 12 months D. Rifampin 600mg/day for 24 months E. no treatment is necessary
B
Most drugs are: a. strong electrolytes d. highly ionic b. weak electrolytes e. none of the above c. nonelectrolytes
B
Mr. Ligtas is asthmatic. Which of the following agents is contraindicated to him? I. Salbutamol II. Aspirin III. Penicillin A. I, II, III C. I, III B. II, III D. II only
B
Newborns that are exposed repeatedly to benzyl alcohol (an Injectable product preservative may lead to a potentially fatal condition known as: A. Cushing syndrome C Steven Johnson's Syndrome B. Gasping syndrome D. Reye's syndrome
B
One of the violations committed by dispensing pharmacist is: a. informing the patient of the current list of available drugs b. imposing a particular brand or product on the buyer c. recording of prescriptions filled d. dispensing of the product according to the prescription
B
Oxidizing agents are incompatible with reducing agents. This is a: a. physical incompatability b. chemical imcompatability c. therapeutic incompatibility d. both A &B
B
Part of a label that is most likely to be presented, shown or examined under customary conditions for display for retail sale. a. outer label c. inner label b. principal display panel d. label
B
Patient allergic to Cyclosporine need to avoid: I. Sandimmune II. Gengraf III. Remeron A. I only C. II and III only B. I and II only D. All of the choice given
B
Patient education for inhaled corticosteroid treatment would include all of the following except: A. Rinse equipment after use C. Expect dry mouth B. Use of bronchodilator D. Rinse mouth after
B
Patients on Aspirin anticoagulant therapy, prefer(s) _____ as an analgesic I. Mefenamic acid II. Acetaminophen III. Ibuprofen A. I, II, III D. I only B. II only E. III only C. II, III
B
Pharmacist may advise the patient during dispensing that Gingival hyperplasia is a common side effect of A. Procainamide D. Indomethacin B. Phenytoin E. Guanethidine C. Digitalis
B
Pharmacist should counsel pregnant women not to take Theophylline during the entire period of pregnancy because: A. Possibility of premature separation of placenta in first 18 weeks may occur. B. Neonatal irritability and apnea may develop C. Congenital anomalies may develop. D. Neonatal respiration may be depressed.
B
Phenobarbital-Antihistamine drug combinations will result to a. Phenobarbital metabolism is accelerated by antihistamine b. Antihistamine metabolism is accelerated by Phenobarbital c. Phenobarbital peak level increases d. Decreased Phenobarbital overall elimination rate
B
Phenytoin precipitates and falls to the bottom of the IV bag as an insoluble salt when it is added to the solution of A. D10W D. NSS B. D5W E. KCl C. D50W
B
Phocomelia is a teratogenic effect associated with the use of: A. Tretinoin C. Phenytoin B. Thalidomide D. Phenothiazines
B
Prescriber of a prescription: a. pharmacist c. nurse b. veterinarian d. medical technologist
B
Providing the correct medicine at the correct time, in the correct dose and the correct route of administration is called: a. primary care c. osteopathy b. rational drug therapy d. homeopathy
B
Providing the correct medicines at the right time at the right dose and using the right route of administration to the right patient is: a. primary care c. osteopathy b. rational drug therapy d. homeopathy
B
Reaction rate is increased most readily by: a humidity d. photolysis b. high temperature e. hydrolysis c. freezing
B
Reactions which are noxious, unintended and which occur at doses normally used in man for prophylaxis, diagnosis or therapy: a. drug interaction c. pharmacodynamic b. adverse drug reactions d. therapeutic incompatibilities
B
Refers to the schedule of dosing (e.g., QID, 10 days) a. divided doses c. single dose b. dosage regimen d. total dose
B
Severity of the condition is another basis for classifying ADR's. Which class requires active treatment of adverse reaction, or further testing or evaluation for assessment? A. Mild C. Severe B. Moderate D. Significant
B
Substances which absorb moisture from the air are called: a. effervescent powders c. anhydrous powders b. hygroscopic powders d. efflorescent powders
B
The Generic name of Antivert is: A. Scopolamine C. Promethazine B. Meclizine D. Hyoscyamine
B
The Generic name of Dalmane is: A. Alprazolam D. Oxazepam B. Flurazepam E. Triazolam C. Chlordiazepoxide
B
The conversion of an optically active form to an optically inactive form is called: a. polymorphism c. polymerization b. racemization d. enantiomorphism
B
The dose of a drug is 5 mg/kg of body weight. What dose should be a given to a 100-lb female patient? a. 2500 mg d. 44 mg b. 250mg e. 440 mg c. 25 mg
B
The following are drugs which should not be mixed with drug containing surfactants because it may produce precipitation and cloudiness, except: A. Benzyl alcohol C. Gentamicin B. Ciprofloxacin D. Penicillin
B
The following are patient-related predisposing factors to ADRs except: a. age c, genetic disposition b. formulation d. history of allergy
B
The following are true about biotransformation except: a. occurs after drug distribution b. converts polar to nonpolar drugs c. converts lipophilic to hydrophilic drugs d. can influence drug elimination rate
B
The following are true about dimercaprol except: a. British Anti-Lewisite c. indicated for as poisoning b. Indicated for Fe poisoning d. chemical antagonist
B
The following are true regarding incompatibilities except: A. Problems arising during compounding, dispensing and drug administration B. Easier to correct than prevent C. May be intentional D. Must be recognized by the pharmacist
B
The following are true regarding incompatibilities, except: a. problems arising during compounding, dispensing and dispensing and drug administration b. easier to correct than to prevent c. may be intentional or unintentional d. must be recognized by pharmacists
B
The following drugs should be taken on an empty and with a glass full of water, except: A. Tetracycline . C. Rifampicin B. Metronidazole D. Lincomycin
B
The following factors can affect the compatibility of an I.V. drug or solution, except: A. Light C. Contact time B. Pressure D. Temperature
B
The incompatibility which occurs between Chloramphenicol and Penicillin. A. Chloramphenicol potentiates the effect of Penicillin B. Chloramphenicol antagonizes the Penicillin's antibacterial action C. Penicillin inhibits Chloramphenicol antibacterial action D. Synergistic effect of Penicillin with Chloramphenicol
B
The incorrect prescription that can be filled is the: a. impossible prescription c. violative prescription b. erroneous prescription d. none of the above
B
The label text outside the principal display panel on the immediate container of pharmaceutical products as specified by RA 3720 contains the following information except: a. formulation c. batch and/or lot number b. contraindication d. mode of administration
B
The lowering of melting point is called: a. evolution c. hydrolysis b. eutexia d. none of these
B
The meaning of the abbreviation p.c. in the signa of a prescription a. as necessary c. at bedtime b. after meal d. sufficient quantity
B
The medication requires Sumatriptan which is mainly indicated for treatment of: A. Cancer therapy induced nausea and vomiting B. Migraine C. Depression D. Seizure
B
The most important protein to which drugs can bind in the plasma: a. lipoprotein c. glycoprotein b. albumin d. none of the above
B
The ophylline when taken with high fat breakfast will result to the ff: a. combination reduces the amount of theophylline b. action of theophylline is enhanced by the fat present c. combination increases the metabolism of theophylline d. both have synergistic effects
B
The patient is allergic to Amitriptyline. Which of the following seizure drug(s) should be avoided because of allergy problem? I. Carbamazepine II. Cyclobenzapine III. Valproic acid A. I only C. II and III only B I and II only D. All of the choice given
B
The precipitation of an organic substance from a saturated solution when a highly soluble salt is added is known as: A. Polymorphism C. Eutexia B. Salting out D, Salting in
B
The precipitation of an organic substance from a saturated solution when highly soluble salts are added is known as: a. polymorphism c. racemization b. salting-out d. eutexia
B
The prescription should be read and checked: a. infront of the patient/customer c. in the counter of the botica b. in the privacy of the pharmacy d. none of the above
B
The principle combining Sulfathiazole and Trimethoprim in a formulation is die to: A. Antagonism C. Aletration of active transport B. Synergism D. Inhibition of drug metabolism
B
The reaction between sodium bicarbonate and aspirin would result to: a. formation of precipitate c. hydrolytic changes b. evolution of gas d. invisible changes
B
The risk of aspirin in children with fever due to viral infection: a. Gray baby syndrome c. bone fraction b. Reye's syndrome d. all of the above
B
The term applied to reaction of organic compounds with water resulting in fragmentation into its component molecule is: A. Ionic hydrolysis C. Simple hydrolysis B. Molecular hydrolysis D. None of the above
B
The transport of a substance from one part of the body to another by means of blood: a. absorption c. metabolism b. distribution d. excretion
B
These are functions of a pharmacist except: a. rug information c. counseling on medications b. diagnosis d. monitor drug response
B
Trimethobenzamide should be avoided in patients who are suffering from: A. Ulcers C. HPN B. Reye's syndrome D. Depression
B
Type F ADRs can occur as a result of the following except: a. antimicrobial drug resistance c. counterfeit drugs b. patient compliance d. drug instability
B
Type of drug strongly bound to albumin: a. basic drug c. alkaline drugs b. acidic drugs d. all of the above
B
Urinary alkalinizer administered with sulfonamides treatment to prevent crystalluria a. Na2CO3 c. NaOH or KOH b. NaHCO3 d. Na2CO3 10H2O
B
Used in the treatment of alcoholism by inhibiting activity of aldehyde dehydrogenase: a. probenecid c. Phenobarbital b. antabuse d. aspirin
B
When suppositories containing phenol causes the vehicle to soften the melting point may be raised by adding: a. lanolin c. fixed oil b. petrolatum d. vehicle
B
When the word otic appears on the label of the drug, the patient should be informed that the drug is applied on th a. mouth c. eyes b. ear d. nose
B
When tretinoin is prescribed, it is co - administered with a contraceptive agent because the former is/can: A. Increase the risk of pregnancy B. A known teratogen C. Cause bleeding in women D. Increase susceptibility to vaginal Candidiasis
B
Whent the pharmacist is faced with a prescription they are not familiar with, they may read it as something they are familiar with and this called A. Drug confusion C. Lapses B. Confirmation bias D. Wrong dispensing
B
Which among the following brand names refers to Amoxicillin trihydrate? A. Penbritin (Is a Ampicillin) C. Himox B. Amoxil D. Penbiosyn
B
Which is not a manifestation of chemical incompatibility? A. Evolution of gas C. Precipitation B. Immiscibility D. Color formation
B
Which is not an example of slips of human error? A. Fatigue C. Boredom B. Forgetfulness D. Frustration
B
Which magnesium salt is used in the preparation of magnesium citrate solution? A. Magnesium chloride C. Magnesium sulfate B, Magnesium carbonate D. Magnesium hydroxide
B
Which of the following anti HPN helps in the treatment of diabetes? A. Verapramil C. HCTZ B. Enalapril D. Amiloride
B
Which of the following conditions is/are a consequence of wrongly dispensing Cisplatin with Carboplatin or vice versa? A. Episodes of respiratory arrest due to potency difference between the two drugs B. Severe toxicity and death C. Decline in mental status D. Cardiovascular complications
B
Which of the following drug(s) is/are classified a List B? I. Tiopental II, Chlorambucil III. Phenytoin A. I, II, III C. I, III B. II, III D. III only
B
Which of the following drugs is (are) known to include hyperuricemia and occasionally to bring about an acute gouty attack? A. Salicylates (6g/day) D. Thiazide diuretics B. Chlorthiazide E. All of the above C. Phenytoin
B
Which of the following drugs should be avoided by patient with liver disease as this may increase risk of bone marrow suppression? A. Apomorphine C. Antacids B. Chloramphenicol D. Carbamazepine
B
Which of the following drugs should not be used for more than 10 days for allergic conjunctivitis? A. Ketorolac C. Azelastine B. Loteprednol D. Tetrahydrazoline
B
Which of the following drugs undergoes marked hydrolysis in the GI Tract? a. Aspirin d. Hydrocortisone b. Penicillin G e. Chlortetracycline c. Acetaminophen
B
Which of the following is an idiosyncratic reaction? A. Anaphylaxis from peniciliin B. Malignant hyperthermia from antipsychotic drugs C. Flushing and hypotension from vancomycin D. Hypoglycemia from oral sulfonylureas
B
Which of the following is most closely related to cefazolin? a. Erythromycin d. Carbencillin b. Moxalactam e. Gentamycin c. ampicillin
B
Which of the following may be used as plasma expanders? a. sodium salts d. calcium salts b. dextrans e. prostaglandins c. starches
B
Which of the following salts of soium is not soluble in water? I. NaCl II. NaHCO3 III. NaNO3 A. I only D. I, II, III B. II only E. II, III C. III only
B
Which of the following statements is not true regarding bupivacaine, a local anesthetic with a molecular structure that includes an amide linkage? A. Undergoes hepatic metabolism B. Rapidly hydrolized by plasma esterase enzymes C. Contraindicated in a patient with a history of allergy to lidocaine D. Higher dose necessary to induce epidural anesthesia than spinal anesthesia E. Higher risk of systemic side effects when used for epidural anethesia compared to spinal anesthesia
B
pH is: a. not termperature d. high for acids b. a measure of acidity e. none of the above c. the same as pOH
B
. Reconstituted Acyclovir sodium has a pH of 11, this can destabilize drugs such as ______ which oxidize rapidly at high pH. Which among the drugs can be destabilized when mixed with Acyclovir? A. Epinephrine and Norepinephrine B. Epinephrine and Dopamine C. Acetycholine and Norepinephrine D. Acetycholine and Dopamine
B
A drug whose action is affected in a drug interaction: a. precipitant c. interactant b. object drug d. none of the above
B
A drug-induced hypersensitivity reaction caused by sulfonamides: a. Parkinson's disease c. hypertension b. Steven's Johnson syndrome d. contact dermatitis
B
A filled prescription for ethical drugs must be: a. returned to the patient c. discarded after recording b. filed for future reference d. forwarded to BFAD
B
A mathematical model for synergism: a. 1 + 1 = 2 c. 0 + 1 = 2 b. 1 + 1 = 8 d. 1 + 1 = 0
B
A patient asks what constitutes Combivent. Combivent is a combination of I. Ipratropium Br II. Albuterol SO4 III. Metaproterenol A. I only C. II and III only B. I and II only D. All of the above
B
A patient with antabuse for his treatment of alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following product(s) should not be taken with antabuse? I. Theophylline Na glycinate Elixir II. Theophylline elixir III. Theophylline tablet A. I only C. II and III only B. I and II only D. All of the choices given
B
A patients asks on what vitamins is needed for Night blindness. A. Vitamin C C. Vitamin D B. Vitamin A D. Vitamin E
B
A physical incompatibility wherin 2 or more liquids fail to dissolve or mix with one another. A. Insolubility C. Precipitation B. Immiscibility D. Liquefaction
B
A reaction that is noxious and unintended, which occurs in doses used in man for prophylaxis, diagnosis and therapy: a. drug interaction c. adverse drug effects b. adverse drug reaction d. pharmacodynamic effects
B
A recognized side effect of treatment with Lithium carbonate is A. Hypermagnesemia D. Hypochloremia B. polyuria and polydipsia E. Proximal tubular degenration C. Transient fall in BUN and serum creatinine
B
A suspension with the f. ingredients (FeCl3, Fe(OH)3, acacia, FD&C #5 (orange color) and methyl paraben will reveal this manifestation: a. polymerization c. cementation b. gelatinization d. precipitation
B
A type of synergism in which the combined effect is equal to the additive effect of the combined drugs is termed: a. potentiation c. metabolism b. summation d. hyperactivity
B
A written order signed by a licensed medical practitioner for medicine to be compounded by a pharmacist to meet the needs of a certain person at a particular time a. letter c. recommendation b. prescription d. receipt
B
Acacia will form colored product with A. Bezoic acid C. Alcohol B. Resorcinol D. Water
B
Administration of which of the following drugs requires caution when using Fenofibrate? A. Erythromycin C. Risperidone B. Warfarin D. Levofloxacin
B
Adverse effects associated with Hydralazine include: I. Reflex tachycardia II. HypertichosisPhilippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy III. Lupus syndrome IV. Orthostatic hypotension A. I, II, and III D. IV only B. I and III E. All of the choices given C. II and IV
B
Alcohol is a specific potentiating agent when used with: a. penicilline c. aspirin b. antihistamine d. sulfonamide
B
Alcohol is a specific potentiating agent when used with: a. sulfonamides c. aspirin b.antihistamines d.penicillin
B
An ADR experienced as a consequence of receiving an inappropriately high dose of the drug due to patient characteristics: a. idiosyncracy c. side effect b. extension effect d. Type B
B
An antitubercular agent which is associated with the development of ocular toxicity is A.Rifampin D. Streptomycin B. Ethambutol E. Para-aminosalicylic acid C. Isoniazid
B
An associated pharmacological effect of chlorphenamine maleate: a. hypotension c. headache b. sedation d. nausea
B
An incompatibility observed when Pantopropazole 8mg/mL is mixed with Midazolam 0.1 mg/mL A. Immediate lactescence (milky appearance) B. Immediate yellow coloring C. Initial heavy orange turbidity becoming red-orange liquid with red precipitate D. Immediate Opalescence
B
. A deficiency of which of the following may lead to goiter? A. Magnesium C. Iodine B. Aluminum D. Fluorine
C
. Energy beverages contain high content of: A. Protein C. Caffeine B. Fat D. Enzyme
C
. Medication errors due to failed communication, except; A. Poor handwriting B. Mispronounciation of a medication is not the same. C. Doses normally used with the medication are not the same. D. hastily written prescription
C
A 48 - year olod salesman with known hypertension complains of a decreasing annual income, a loss of "drive", and a depressed outlook on life. His blood pressure is normal on medication. The anti hypertensive drug most likely to be the cause of his new complaint is: A. Hydralazine D. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Alpha methyldopa E. Guanathedine C. Reserpine
C
A STAT order means the drug has to be administered a. as needed by the patient c. immediately b. at the hour of sleep d. before surgery
C
A STAT order means the drug should be administered: A. As needed by the patient C. Immediately B. At the hour of sleeps D. Before surgery
C
A common adverse effect related to the use of aluminum antacids a. nausea c. constipations b. vomiting d. all of the above
C
A drug that increases the anticoagulant action of warfarin because its metabolite competes with the anticoagulant for plasma protein binding sites: a. tolbutamide c. chloral hydrate b. aspirin d. diazepam
C
A humectant retards a. bacterial growth d. spreadability b. degradation e. all of the above c. surface evaporation
C
A mathematical model for a potentiating drug effect: a. 1 + 1 = 2 c. 0 + 1 = 2 b. 1 + 1 = 3 d. 1 + 1 = 0
C
A patient under Ketorac treatment should avoid the following drugs except: A. Meclizine C. Gold compound B.Cefotetan D. Methotrexate
C
A prescription implies the combination of Silver nitrate, water, made isotonic with sodium chloride. If the incompatibility is not recognized it will lead to: A. Change in the color of hte solution B. Evolution of carbon dioxide gas C. Formation of white prcipitate D. Formation of a gel - like substance
C
A prescription should be refused when: a. patient is terribly sick b. there is no available delivery service c. essential information is missing d. it is not signed by the pharmacist
C
A prescription where the generic name does not correspond to the brand name a. violative Rx c. impossible Rx b. erroneous Rx d. yellow DDB Rx
C
A remedy for tablet granulations containing vitamin C: a. prepare by dry granulation c. both A & B b. use precoated ascorbic acid granules d. none of the above
C
A synonym for vitamin C is a. riboflavin d. cyanocobalamin b. tocopherol e. thiamine c.ascorbic acid
C
ADR's may also be classified based on their onset of reaction. Which of the following classifications appears two or more days after drug exposure? A. Acute C. Latent B. Subacute D. Mild
C
Acidic group of amino acids responsible for binding basic drugs, expect a. glutamic c. lysine b. aspartic d. tyrosine
C
Adverse drug reactions characterized by exaggerated or inordinate response to normal doses of a drug: a. idiosyncrasy c. hypersensitivity b. allergy d. potentiation
C
After initiation therapy, Mr. J.T suddenly suffers from spasm of the face and neck. Which of the following drug(s) should not be given to alleviate the above symptoms? I. Diazepam injection II. Diphenhydramine III. Benztropine A. I only C. II and III only B. I and II only D. All of the above
C
All of the following are common side effects of Quinidine administration except: A. Diarrhea D. Tinnitus B. Nausea and vomiting E. Headache C. Dry mouth
C
Allopurinol is potentially dangerous if used in combination with mercaptopurine because of: I. Inhibition of hypoxanthine - guanine phosphoribosyl - transferases II. Inhibition of Xanthine oxidase III. Inhibition of guanylate kinase IV. Accumulation of the chemotherapeutic drug A. I, II, III D. IV only B. I, III E. All of the choices given C. II and IV
C
An error which ooccurs when a patient is given a medication other than the one intended by the prescriber. A. Prescribing error C. Dispensing error B. Medication error D. Knowledged-based error
C
An incompatibility observed when Rifampicin 6mg/mL is mixed with Tramadol 8.33 mg/mL A. Immediate lactescence (milky appearance) B. Immediate yellow coloring C. Initial heavy orange turbidity becoming red-orange liquid with red precipitate D. Immediate Opalescence
C
Anemics should refrain from the use of: A. Nasal decongestants C. Chloramphenicol B.NSAID's D. ASA
C
Are added to drug formulations to prevent or reduce oxidation a. complexing agents c. antioxidants b. surfactants d. additives
C
Because it is the language of medical science throughout the world, this language is still used in Rx writing: a. English c. Latin b. German d. Spanish
C
Bulk-forming laxatives are the choice for older adults or laxative-dependent patients. Patients who are using this laxative should be strictly instructed by the pharmacist to A. Avoid its use longer than one week without medical supervision B. Discontinue if any signs of diarrhea or abdominal pain occurs. C. Dissolve the laxative in one full glass of water and followed by another glass of fluid to prevent obstruction D. Avoid exposure to sunlight
C
Capsules are prepared extemporaneous by: A. Alligation method C. Punch method B. Geometric dilution D. Fusion method
C
Chloramphenicol can lead to this untoward drug reaction: a. agranucytosis c. both A & B b. Gray syndrome d. none of the above
C
Citric acid, atropine sulfate and ferrous sulfate are classified as: a. eutectic mixtures c. efflorescent substances b. deliquescent substs. d. polymorphs
C
Concurrent administration of Trihexylphenidyl, Amitriptyline, and Chlorpromazine would result to: A. Additive hypotensive effects B. Antagonistic effect C. Additive anticholinergic activity D. Additive hypoglycemic property
C
Corticosteroids are frequently given with antacids to a. enhance absorption b. slow absorption c. reduce ulceration and bleeding d. increase the rate of distribution
C
Cough and cold remedies with decongestants are not recommended to patient experiencing: A. Loww RBC count C. High blood pressure B. GI ulcer D. Airway obstruction
C
Cyclophosphamide, Busulfan, and Carmustine all have in common the classification of: A. Antimetabolite D. Natural product B. Antibiotic E. All of the choices given C. Alkylating agent
C
DPI means A. Dose per inhalation C. Dry powder for inhalation B. Drug Prescription inventory D. Drug for peritoneal injection
C
Decreased urinary recycling, increases elimination rate constant hence a. increases half life b. longer duration of pharmacologic response c. shortens duration of pharmacologic response d. increases therapeutic concentration in the body
C
Degradation of drugs or Excipient molecules brought by light, either room light or sunlight is known as: A. Solvolysis C. Photolysis B. Oxidation D. Polymerization
C
Degradationof drugs or excipient molecules can be brought about by light, either room lights or sunlight. a. solvolysis c. photolysis b. oxidation d. polymerization
C
Diuretics tend to enhance lithium salt toxicity due to a. direct drug interaction b. potassium depletion c. sodium depletion d. increase solubility of the lithium salts
C
Dosage error is an example of: A. Physical incompatibility B. Chemical incompatibility C. Therapeutic incompatibility D. The error is not classified as an incompatibility
C
During drug interaction, the affected drug may become more active resulting to the following except: a. increase drug activity c. less effective b. longer therapeutic action d. toxicity
C
Ecstacy exhibits this type of ADR: a. Type A b. Type B c. Type C d. Type D
C
Emulsions made with tweens are usually: a. unstable d. clear b. w/o e. reversible c. o/w
C
Enzyme induction of Phenobarbital with oral contraceptives can lead to: a. decreased Phenobarbital action b. increased oral contraceptives action c. unreliable contraception d. none of the above
C
Examples of co-solvents: a. water, butanol c. glycols, sorbitol, glycerol b. alcohol, mineral oil d. acetone, water, alcohol
C
Factors commonly associated with chemical incompatibility for I.V. admixtures except: A. Drug concenbtration C. Color change B. pH of the solution D. Temperature and light
C
General corrections of incompatibilities include all of the ff. except: a. separation of immiscible liquids c. use of a different brand b. change of vehicle d. substitution of ingredients
C
Generic dispensing means: a. dispensing drugs with generic names only b. dispensing with correct prescription c. dispensing the costumer's choice from generally equivalent drugs d. dispensing drugs in proper containers
C
How many doses of teaspoonful each are there in a 4-fl. Oz. bottle of medication? a. 10 b. 20 c. 24 d. 30
C
How many grains are there in 5.0 g of strychnine sulfate? a. 10.4 gr b. 20.4 gr c. 77.2 gr d. 0.99 gr
C
Hydrochlorothiazide causes all of the following except: A. Hypokalemia C. Hyperuricemia B. Hypercalcemia D. Hyperglycemia
C
Hypertensive episodes might result with concomitant use of: A. Aloe vera - Thiazide B. Gingko biloba - ASA C. Ma huang - Pseudoephedrine D. Herbal ectasy - alcohol
C
If there is doubt in legibility of the prescription, the pharmacist should: a. decide based on patient's ailment c. consult the prescriber b. make an educated guess d. consult MIMS
C
In radiopharmacy, he term "rem" means a. radiation per millisecond b. radiation per minute c. roengent-equivalent-man d. external roentgens per minute e. roentgen exposure per minute
C
In the drugstore saquinavir should be stored in the refrigerator, however, once brought to room temperature it can be used out within. A. 1 day C. 3 months B. 1 week D. 1 hour
C
Increased sugar level in the blood over normal level. a. hypercalcemia c. hyperglycemia b. hyperkalemia d. hyperuricemias
C
Isoniazid - induced liver damage A. Occurs primarily in patients under 30 years of age B. Occurs with increased frequency in patients receiving concomitant ethambutol therapy C. Probably due to the formation of a toxic hydrazine metabolite that binds to liver protein D. Frequently associatd with allergic manifestations such as eosinophilia, fever and rash E. All of the choices given
C
It is an error in judgment, and in most situations, it is made as either a failure of expertise or lack of experience. A. Slips C. Mistakes B. Lapses D. Skill-based error
C
It is an example of eutectic substance A. Aspirin C. Citirc acid B. Camphor D. Color formation
C
It is classified as an error in dispensing which are usually due to either the misapplication of good rules/ procedures, or application of bad rules/ procedures. A. Knowledgedd-based error C.Rule-based error B. Medication-based error D. Skill-based error
C
Lamotrigine (Lamictal) is a/an: A. Pain reliever C. Antiepileptic B. Antiparkisonian drug D. DMARDs
C
Levodopa - carbidopa combination has the popular brand name of: A. Tagamet C. Sinemet B. Stalevo D. Dilantin
C
Methylphenidate SR is generally indicated for the treatment of A. Parkinson's disease C. Attention Deficit Syndrome B. Weight reduction D. Pain reliever
C
Most common types of medication error in community setting, except: A. Incorrect dose C. Substitution C. Quantity not specified D. Dose not specified
C
Mrs. Romano experienced skin rash that are charcteristically large, deep red in color which becomes darker at the center. The said rashes appeared red in color which becomes darker at the center. The said rashes appeared after taking Amoxicillin for 3 days. The ADR is suspected to be: A. Photosensitivity reactions C. Erythema multiforme B. Toxic epidermal necrolysis D. Serum sickness
C
NPO means: a. patient should be given drugs after meals b. patient should be given drugs before meals c. patient should not be given anything by mouth d. patient should be left undisturbed
C
Occurs immediately upon compounding like presence of precipitate; Effervescene of color changes. a. minor incompatibility c. immediate incompatibility b. delayed incompatibility d. major incompatibility
C
Oral antihistamines exhibit the following side effect: a. drowsiness c. both A & B b. sleepiness d. anemia
C
Otoxicity is an ADR commonly associated with the use of: A. Penicillin C. Aminoglycosides B. Phenothiazine D. Acetaminophen
C
Patients on Isoniazid therapy should be strictly advised by the Pharmacist not to take ______ because of increase possibility of liver toxicity A. Phenytoin C. Alcohol B. Corticosteroid D. Warfarin
C
Patients who are using oral contraceptives should be informed by the Pharamcist that its frequent use can result in a deficiency of which vitamin B? A. Vitamin B5 C. Vitamin B6 B. Vitamin B1 D. Vitamin B12
C
Penicillin and ASA are contraindicated to: A. Hypertensives C. Asthmatics B. Patients with ulcer D. Anemics
C
Piroxicam is a /an: a. prohibited drug c. OTC drug b. regulated drug d. any of these answers
C
Prednisone is converted to which of the following by the liver? a. Cortisone d. Methylprednisolone b. Hydrocortisone e. Dexamethaxone c. Prednisolone
C
Pregnant woman should be advised not to take ACE inhibitors due to its adverse effect(s) which include(s): A. Possible skull defects C. Both A and B B. Oligohydramnios D. Impaired platelet function
C
Propranolol may cause all of the following except: A. Bradycardia C. Hyperglycemia B. Bronchiolar constriction D. Reduced myocardial contractility
C
Purified water USP may NOT be used in: a. syrups d. elixirs b. topical preparations e. effervescent solutions c. parenteral preparations
C
Reduction of gastric juices by antiulcer agents on a regular basis for extended periods can deplete an intrinsic factor, which is necessary for the absorption of which vitamin B? A. Vitamin B1 C. Vitamin B12 B. Vitamin B2 D. Vitamin B6
C
Remedy when a solid substance faild to dissolve in a liquid a. addition of an inert ingredients b. prepare an emulsion c. prepare a suspension d. dispensing the ingredients separately
C
Reye's syndrome has been associated with the use of which analgesic drug? A. Naproxen C. Aspirin B. Celecoxib D. Paracetamol
C
Side effects of streptomycin: a. headache c. ototoxicity b. dryness of the mouth d. none of the above
C
Side effects of thiourea anti-thyroid medications (Propylthiouracil and Methimazole) include A. Hyperthyroidism D. SIADH B. Priapism E. Iodism C. Agranulocytosis
C
Sodium benzoate is effective as a preservative if the pH of the preparation is: a. above 4 c. below 4 b. above 7 d. below 7
C
Solutions that contain bacteriostatic agents: a. cannot be tested for sterility b. must be cultures on agar plates for sterility tests c. must be diluted beyond the bacteriostatic level for sterility tests d. do not require a sterility test e. are none of the above
C
Spans and tweens are a. highly polymerized mannuronic acid anhydrites b. phospholipids c. polyoxyalkalene derivatives d. glycosides
C
The "NO SUBSTITUTION" instruction is seen on a. erroneous prescription c. vilative prescription b. impossible prescription d. any of the above
C
The abbreviations SOS on prescription means: a. at once d. do not repeat b. freely e. on alternate days c. if needed
C
The adverse effect that may be experienced when taking cough and cold remedies containing Phenylpropanolamine is: A. GI disturbances C. Increase in BP B. Serum sickness D. Decrease in BP
C
The benefits of electronic prescribing and dispensing are the following, except: A. Rapid information exchange B. Better clarity and communication of prescription information C. Amplify fraud risks present in the paper - based process D. Improved confidentiality and security of health information
C
The dose of a drug is 0.5 mg/kg. What dose should be given a 6-year-old child who weights 44 lb? a. 0.003 g d. 0.100 g b. 0.033 g e. 0.05 g c. 0.010 g
C
The ff. drugs often precipitate an interaction when administered with a second drug, except: a. sedation c. hemolytic anemia b. headache d. hypokalemia
C
The following condition/s will amplify the activity of cardiac glycosides: a. hypercalcemia c. both a & b b. hypokalemia d. none of the above
C
The following drugs shold be taken 20 minutes before meals, except: A. Verapramil C. Prednisone B. Meyoclopramide D. Furosemide
C
The following response belong to Type B adverse drug reactions, except: a. allergy of Cefotaxime b. aplastic anemia in patients taking chloramphenicol c. facial abnormalities in babies born to alcoholic mothers d. peripheral neuritis in a british missionary ill with tuberculosis
C
The hydrolytic product of Aspirin is: A. Salicylic acid + ascorbic acid B Salicylic acid + citirc acid C. Acetic acid + Salicylic acid D. Sodium acetate + Acetic acid
C
The most prevalent commercial solid dosage forms are: a. hard capsules d. bulk powders b. soft gelatin capsules e. divided powders c. tablets
C
The strength of folic acid in OTC vitamins should not exceed A. 1 mg C. 0.4 mg B. 10 mg D. 10 mcg
C
The supply of medicine to an individual patient in accordance to the prescription given by the physician: a. compounding c. dispensing b. formulation d. none of the above
C
This container is impervious to air and other gases under ordinary conditions of handling storage and transport: a. airtight container c. hermitically sealed b. security closed d. child-resistant container
C
This drug inhibits the Vit. K dependent synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX and X a. Tetracycle c. Warfarin b. Diphenhydraime d. Aspirin
C
To calculate a loading dose, one must first determine: a. body clearance c. volume of distribution b. fraction protein bound d. all of the above
C
To prevent errors, the pharmacist uses: a. his knowledge of pharmacognosy b. his knowledge of chemistry c. his broad knowledge of drugs d. his knowledge of diseases
C
Too rapid infusion of TPN may lead to: A. Sepsis C. Anemia B. Hyperglycemia D. Hyperammonemia
C
Toxic substance used as anti - knock in fuel additive, and in the manufacture of electric cable, hose and pipes: A. Magnesium C. Lead B. Iron D. Cobalt
C
Upon exposure to air, aminophylline solution may develop: a. gas c. crystals of theophylline b. a precipitate of aminophylline d. a straw color
C
Used as pharmaceutical packaging materials include aluminum, tin and tin-coated lead a. glass c. metals b. plastics d. paperboards
C
Various drugs may induce vitamin deficient states as an undesirable side effect. Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine) deficiency may be related to taking A. Estrogen containing oral contraceptives B. Colchicine C. Isoniazid D. All of the choices given
C
Vitamins are considered drugs if/when; A. They are prescribed B. They are recommended C. They are used for pharmacological effects D. Vitmains are not drugs, they are nutrients
C
Water is most likely to cause instability on the following drugs, except: a. Penicillins c. Alkaloids b. Cephalosporins d. Benzodiazepines
C
What advice regarding Midazolam as an adjunct to anesthesia can you provide as drug information to patient? A. Provides analgesia B. Provides adequate skeletal muscle relaxation alone C. Useful for ameliorating seizure activity D. Produces cardiovascular stimulation E. Containdicated in patients with asthma COPD
C
What is the proof strength of a 50% (v/v) solution of alcohol? a. 25 proof d. 75 proof b. 50 proof e. 150 proof c. 100 proof
C
What would be the appropriate auxillary label one can use in dispensing system A. For external use only C. Shake the bottle before using B. Store in a cool dry place D. Both B and C
C
When an oxidizing agent is triturated in a mortar with a reducing agent, this would likely result to: a. formation of damp mass b. discoloration of powders c. violent explosion d. volatilization of some of the ingredients
C
When drugs are inappropriately mixed in syringes or infusion prior to administration, it will giver rise to: A. Pharmacokinetic interaction C. Pharmaceutical interaction B. Pharmacodynamic interaction D. Beneficial interaction
C
When one dispenses which benzodiazepine has a prolonged duration of action? A. Alprazolam C. Flurazepam B. Triazolam D. Oxazepam
C
When the combined effects of 2 drugs are equal to the sum of their individual effect, it is known as: A. Potentiation C. Summation B. Synergism D. Additive
C
When the response of a patient to one or more drugs is different in nature than that intended by the prescriber is called: a. antagonistic incompatibility b. threrapeutic incompatibility b. chemical incompatibility d. physical incompatibility
C
Which is the most appropriate cautionary and advisory label for Brufen? A. Do not take anything containing aspirin while taking this medicine. B. This medicine may color the urine. C. Take with or after food. D. Do not take indigestion remedies at the same time of day as this medicine.
C
Which is the most appropriate cautionary and advisory label for Nalidixic? A. Avoid alcoholic drink. B. May cause drowsiness. C. Avoid exposure of skin to direct sunlight or sun lamps. D. Do not stop taking this medicine except on your doctor's advice.
C
Which of hte following vehicles can precipitate Sodium Phenobarbital? A. Simple syrup C. Syrup of orange B. Purified water D. All of the cho
C
Which of the ff. correctly applies to this group of drug products? Paracetamol 325 mg. Tab, Cortal 325 mg Tab, Alvedon 325 mg Tab a. all are generically equivalent c. all are non-prescription drugs b. all are in brand names d. all are prescription drugs
C
Which of the following NSAID's is a prodrug? A. Diclofenac C. Diflunisal B. Ibuprofen D. Indomethacin
C
Which of the following advises can the Pharmacist give to patients on Hydrochlorothiazide therapy? A. Take with or without food, but always on the same condition. B. Avoid foods rich in Vitamin K. C. Not take after 18 o' clock so that it doesn't interfere with the sleep. D. Take wiith food rich in lipids.
C
Which of the following agents used in the treatment of pulmonary tuberculosis has the side effect of loss of perception of the color green? A. Isoniazid D. Streptomycin B. Rifampin E. Para-aminosalicylic acid C. Ethambutol
C
Which of the following anti - fungal agent(s) is/are useful in the treatment of oral candidiasis? I. Itraconazole II. Clotrimazole III. Nystatin A. I only C. II and III only B. I and II only D. All of the choice given
C
Which of the following conditions is/are a consequence of wrongly dispensing Celebrex with Cerebryx or vice versa? A. Episodes of respiratory arrest due to potency difference betwwen the two drugs B. Severe toxicity and death C. Decline in mental status D. Cardiovascular complications
C
Which of the following drug is indicated for the treatment of Cisplatin toxicity? A. Acetycysteine C. Amifostine B. Aniplatin D. Naltrexone
C
Which of the following is NOT used as a vehicle for injections? a. peanut oil c. theobroma oil b. cotton seed oil d. sesame oil
C
Which of the following statements is true? A. Freshly boiled and cooled purified water must be used when making suspensions B. All suspensions will attract a 4 - week discard date C. All suspensions need a direction to shake the bottle D. Suspensions containing a suspending agent do not need a direction to shake the bottle
C
Which one of the following antacid products is a chemical combination of aluminum and magnesium hydroxides? a. Maalox c. Riopan b. Mylanta d. Gelusil
C
Zephiran is used in ophthalmic solution as: a. suspending agent c. antimicrobial agent b. surfactant d. antimicrobial agent and surfactant
C
Which of the following statements is true? A. Freshly boiled and cooled purified water must be used when making suspensions B. All suspensions will attract a 4 - week discard date C. All suspensions need a direction to shake the bottle D. Suspensions containing a suspending agent do not need a direction to shake the bottle
C. All suspensions need a direction to shake the bottle
The intermittent administration of a second solution, like antibiotics, through a Y - tube in an existing IV line is known as: A. IV push C. IV piggyback B. IV bolus D. IV infusion
CQ
A patient has "High cholesterol" if his total serum cholesterol value greater than A. 120 mg/dL C. 180 mg /dL B. 360 mg/dL D. 240 mg/dL
D
A patient is carrying prescription of Ampicillin, which of the following advises can the Pharmacist give to the patients upon dispensing? A. Take with food B. Do not take with food C. Avoid foods rich in proteins D. Taken on an empty stomach with a glass of water and avoid acid foods
D
A prescription with 10 or more ingredients of the same therapeutic use is: A. Simple C. Magistral B. Yellow D. Polypharmaceutical
D
Acacia in the presence of Bismuth salts can form a "cake" at the bottom of the container. This manifestation is known as: a. gelatinization c. emulsification b. hydrolysis d. cementation
D
According to ASHP, the stability of unpreserved parenteral is: A.Within 1 week if refrigerated B.Within 1 month if frozen C. 28 hours from preparation if stored at room temperature. D. All of the above
D
According to the FDA, pharmacist can help in fixing the problem of drug name confusion through the following means, except: A. Verifying with the doctor information that is not clear before filling a prescription B. Keeping look-alike, sound-alike products separated from one another on pharmacy shelves C. Avoiding stocking the multiple product sizes together D. Separate the products of the same packaging
D
Activated charcoal is used in some antidotes because of which of its properties? a. neutralizing d. adsorptive b. emetic e. stabilizing c. absorptive
D
Acyclovir when mixed with HCl salts of amine containing drugs, like Diltiazem HCl, Meperidine HCl, etc., will show an incompatibility will be produced? A. Color change C. Insolubility B. Evolution of gas D. Precipitation
D
Administrative / Professional function of the pharmacist that include training and supervising interns and externs during their required work experiences is A. Supervisory C. Managerial B. Community service D. Receptor
D
Alkaline salts like potassium penicillin when placed in an acidic solution can result in: a. conversion into free acid c. insolubility b. precipitation of penicillin d. all of the above
D
All of the following are adverse effects of gold compounds except: A. Diarrhea C. Stomatitis B. Abdominal pain D. Lipoatropy
D
All of the following are progestin components of oral birth control pills EXCEPT A. Norgestrel D. Mestranol B. Norethidrone acetate E. Levonorgestrel C. Ethynodiol diacetate
D
All of the following instruction must be given by the pharmacist to the patients who are going to take digitalis, except: A. Avoid abrupt withdrawal after prolonged use; must be reduced gradually under physician supervision. B. Avoid all OTC medications, especially antacids and cold remedies. C. Avoid changing with other brand or dosage form for it may act differently D. Rise slowly from reclining position
D
An anionic exchange resin intended to bind bile acids, cholesterol metabolites and co-administered drugs: a. chloramphenicol c. tetracycline b. cholesterol precursor d. colestyramine
D
An impossible prescription is described by the following except: a. only the generic name is written but not legible b. both generic & brand names are not legible c. the generic name does not correspond to the brand name d. the generic name is not legible and the brand is written legibly
D
Aspirin combines with Phenylsalicylate resulting to: a. melting c. turbid solution b. non-homogenous mixture d. moist mass
D
Before dispensing Theophylline prescription, Pharmacist must advise the patient to: A. Avoid acid foods like orange juice and tomato B. Take food rich in lipids. C. Take on an empty stomach with a glass of water D. Take with foods but avoid foods rich in protein and cabbages.
D
Benefits derived from good physician-patient interaction, except; A. Patient's compliance with therapy B. Patient's have more trust in their caregiver C. reduced resistance to therapy and management D. Increase patient's self-medication
D
Calcium Acetate is indicated for the treatment of: A. Hypocalcemia C. Hypercalcemia B. Hypophosphatemia D. Hyperphosphatemia
D
Chemical incompatibility includes all of the following except: a. racemzation c. cementation b. implosion d. liquefaction
D
Chloramphenicol palmitate exists in 3 different polymorphs, each differ in the ff. properties, except: a. solubility c. melting point b. free energy d. none of the above
D
Clindamycin is closely related to which of the following in effective spectrum? a. Chloramphenicol d. Lincomycin b. Tobramycin e. It is unique in spectrum c. Kanamycin
D
Cold preparations when taken in large doses may interact with: a. sedatives c. MAOIs b. guaiafenisin d. a and c
D
Combinations liable to produce therapeutic incompatibilities when administered at the same time except: a. sedatives and stimulants c. caffeine and chloral hydrate b. tannins and aloins d. aspirin and warfarin
D
Common errors in dispensing can result from: A. Unfamiliarity with drug names C. Newly available products B. Similar packaging or labeling D. All of the choices given
D
Compounding is concerned with: a. supply of a medicine c. order for medicine b. preparation & distribution of drugs d. preparation of medicine
D
Concurrent use of alcohol with sedatives and other depressant drugs result to: I. Hyperexcitability II. Hallucinations III. Coma A. I, II, III C. II, III B. I, II D. III only
D
Consequence of diverse drug reactions: a. increased mortality c. increased cost of therapy b. prolonged hospital stay d. all of the above
D
Cyanocobalamin is a (an): a. steroid d. vitamin b. choline esterase inhibitor e. enzyme c. hallucinogen
D
Detection of drug-related problems requires an assessment of the need for a change in drug therapy. Possible problem includes the following, except: A.Inappropriate compliance C. Wrong drug B. Dose too low D. Undiagnosed condition
D
Diazoxide, a drug used for treatment of hypertensive crisis, is most closely related to: A. Nitrofurantoin D. Thiazide diuretics B. Sulfonamides E. Nitrates C. Dopamine agonists
D
Displacement of a plasma-protein bound drug such as in Warfarin-phenylbutazone interaction, results in: a. hemorrhage b. increase concentration of warfarin c. decreased activity of warfarin d. both A & B
D
Dose designation(s) that sholud be avoided to prevent misinterpreatations: A. Trailing zero after decinmal point B. Naked decimal point C. Large doses without properly placed commas D. All of the choices given
D
Drug products that are considered prohibited, expect a. Heroine and Morphine b. Coca leaf and its derivative cocaine c. Mescaline and Indian Hemp d. Secobarbital
D
Drugs that increase caffeine levels by inhibiting its metabolism include all of the following except: A. Ciprofloxacin C. Oral contraceptives and Prednisone B. Cimetidine. D. Theophylline
D
Factors that reduced binding capacity to albumin, except a. liver impairment c. during pregnancy b. smoking d. nenonates patient
D
Factors that tend to reduce stomach contraction and gastric emptying rate except: a. consumption of meals high in fat c. depression b. patient lying on left side d. hyperthyroidism
D
Furosemide is available in: I. Tablet II. Oral solution III. Injection A. I only C. II and III only B. I and II only D. All of the choice given
D
General factors to be considered injudging the safety of a prescribed dose except; A. Physiological states of the patient B. Pathologic condition of the patient C. Frquency of administration D. Site of absorption of the drug
D
Gums are used in tabletting primarily as: a. disintegrators d. binding agents b. glidants e. both B & C c. lubricants
D
Hyponatremia has been associated with carbamazepine and certain oral hypoglycemic agents. Oral hypoglycemic agents which have been associated with SIADH include A. Glipizide D. Chlorpropamide B. Acetazolamide E. Acetohexamide C. Tolazamide
D
If the combined effects are equal to those expected for drugs acting by the same mechanisms. A. Potentiation C. Summation B. Synergism D. Additive
D
If the dispensing order requires the insulin that has the shortest duration of action and the fastest onset of action, then the insulin to be given is _________. A. Humulin R C. Humaloq B. Lantus D. Novoloq
D
Important characteristics of idiosyncratic drug reaction, except: a. congenital hypersensitivities b. genetic or hereditary in origin c. metabolic abnormality d. none of the above
D
In evaluating the appropriateness of the prescription and medication order, the pharmacist should check the following, except: A. The patient's disease or condition requiring treatment. B. The prescribed route of administration. C. The biological action of the prescribed product. D. The auxillary and cautionary labels
D
In performing therapeutic intervention, the following information should be communicated to the prescriber, except: A. Brief description of the problem B. Reference source that documents the problem C. Description of the clinical significance of the problem D. Possible physical and chemical incompatibility
D
In pricing prescription, the pharmacist must consider a. cost of ingredients c. percentage mark up b. professional fee d. all of the above
D
In pricing the prescription, the pharmacist must consider: a. cost of ingredients c. percentage mark-up b. professional fee d. all of the above
D
In selection of the proper package or container,the pharmacist choose the container that: A. Ensure the product stability B. Comply with legal requirements C. Promote patient compliance D. All of the choices given
D
In the dispensing of outpaitent medication, the pharmacist mus not do the following, except: A. review all appropriate information regarding prescription refills B. Be personally present for supervision C. None of the above D. All of the above
D
Incompatibbility which occurs when Heparin solution is mixed with an intermittent Aminoglycosides infusion is manifested with the following, except: A. Precipitation C. Gas bubbles B. Color change D. Cloudiness
D
Incompatibility problems are common in mixtures containing; A. Mannitol C. Nutritional solutions C. Bicarbonate D. All of the choices given
D
Increase urinary recycling increase half hence, expect a. decreases elimination rate constant b. blood levels rise and persist longer c. danger of toxicity in multiple dosing d. increases elimination rate constant
D
Iodine is known to be insoluble in water. To remedy this, _____ is added to make an aqueous solution A. Citric acid C. Caffeine B. Ammoinium citrate D. Potassium iodide
D
It is classified an error in dispensing which is usually either due to inattention or over attention A. Knowledged-basesd error C. Medication-based error B. Rule-based error D. Skill-based error
D
Liquefaction of crystalline salt occurs on trituration is due to: a. addition of water b. addition of other liquid ingredient c. absorption of moisture from the air d. liberation of water of crystallization
D
Major pathway of excretion are via the kidney into the urine and via the liver into the a. bile c. alveolar air b. urine d. feces
D
Miglitol and Acarbose are: A. Antihypertensive agents C. Antibacterial agents B. Antiasthma agents D. Oral hypoglycemic agents
D
Miltown is the brand name of: A. Triazolam D. Meprobamate B. Carisopodol E. Methocarbamol C. Cimetidine
D
Mixture of phenolic, aldehyde, ketonic compounds and alcohols are examples of a. insoluble substances c. delinquent substances b. hydroscopic substances d. eutectic mixtures
D
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAO inhibitors) and foods rich in tyramine like cheese will lead to: a. accumulation of pressor amines b. increase in blood pressure c. non-metabolism of tyramine d. all of the above
D
Most common side effects of erythromycin therapy: a. anaphylaxis c. headache b. ototoxicity d. abdominal cramps
D
Mr. Edward Cullen is taking Verapramil SR 240 mg for the treatment of his BP. The pharmacist may tell him that he must be careful using the following drugs except: A. Atenolol C Disopyramide B, Digoxin D. Indomethacin
D
Mrs. Bella comes into the pharmacy to find drugs use in Philippines. Pharmacist may suggest all of the following reference materials except A. Martindale Extra Pharmacopeia C. USP adopted name B. Index nominum D. All of the above
D
NSAID's induced ADR is: A. Pigmentary retinopathy C. Hepatic necrosis B. Steven Johnson's syndrome D. GI ulcer
D
One of the mechanisms for "resistance" to an antihypertensive drug regimen is retention of salt and water and an increase in extracellular fluid volume. Agents which have been shown to cause retention of salt and water include A. Methyldopa C. Guanethedine B. Clonidine D. All of the above
D
Optimum absorption takes place in the a. gastrointestinal tract c. stomach b. receptor d. small intestine
D
Oxidation is: a. loss of electrons c. cause of drug instability b. dehydrogenation d. all of the above
D
Patients on Tetracycline therapy should be advised by the pharmacist to: A. Take on empty stomach and with a glass of water B. Stay erect during 15 to 30 minutes C. Avoid drinking milk D. All of the above
D
Pharmacists should caution patients whoare taking niacin that this drug: a. stains the urine bright red c. causes muscular weakness b. causes ringing in the ears d. should be taken with meals
D
Pharmacokinetically, enzyme induction will result to the following, except: a. peak level decreases b. accelerated metabolism c. increased overall elimination rate d. pharmacological responses are decreased
D
Phenelzine can result in a hypertensive crisis when co - administered wiht all of the following except: A. Pickled erring (Tyramine) D. Diazepam B. Amphetamines E. Ephedrine C. Phenylpropanolamine
D
Poor patient compliance with prescription instruction is usually due to the ff. except: a. patient understood pharmacists instructions poorly b. pharmacist has poor communication skills c. inadequate time of pharmacist for patient counseling d. any of the above
D
Potential side effects of therapy with chlorpropamide include all of the following except A. Syndrome of inappropriate diuretic ADH secretion (SIADH) B. Antabuse reaction C. Skin rash D. Lactic acidosis E. Hypoglycemia
D
Precipitation can be: a. physical incompatibility c. adverse drug reaction b. chemical incompatability d. A or B
D
Probenecid and penicillin exhibits this type of interaction: A. Enzyme induction C. Alteration gastric emptying B. Enzyme inhibition D. Competition of tubular secretion
D
Probenecid and penicillin exhibits this type of interaction: a. enzyme induction c. alteration in gastric emptying b. enzyme inhibition d. competition for tubular secretion
D
SALAD means: A. Slow acting and lipophilic drugs B. Green vegeatables with dressing C. Small and Large Molecular weight drugs D. Sound alike and look alike drugs
D
Situation(s) in which Pharmacists are more likely to make mistakes in dispensing. A. Excessive reliance on memory and lack of standardization B. Inadequate availability of information C. A only D. Both A and B
D
Source/s of information regarding incompatibilities a. Remington c. Product inserts b. USP d. all of the above
D
Steroidal and Non - steroidal drugs will exacerbate: A. Asthma C. Arryhthmia B. Anemia D. GI ulcer
D
Substance used as a test for liver function by measuring the amount of hippuric acid in urine a. sodium borate c. sodium salicylate b. aspirin d. all of the above
D
Sudden withdrawal of steroids can result in: a. anemia c. Parkinson's disease b. hypertension d. addison's disease
D
Tenormin is a brand name of: A. Albuterol C. Pindolol B. Esmolol D. Atenolo
D
Teratogenicity is a/an: a. Type A ADR c. Type C ADR b. Type B ADR d. Type D ADR
D
Tetracyclines tend to form complexes with: a. iron salts c. calcium salts b. magnesium salts d. all of the above
D
The amount os suspending agent to be added in a suspension depends on the: A. Voulme of the prescription C. Volume of the solvent used B. Amount to be suspended D. All of the above
D
The antiseptic property of hydrogen peroxide is due to a. ozone c. peroxidase b. acetanilide d. oxygen
D
The approved clinical use of the product based on substantial evidence of the efficacy and safety of the drug a. warning c. pharmacologic category b. formulation d. indication
D
The combination of NaHCO3 with an organic acid (citric or tartaric acid) will result in: a. precipitation c. oxidation b. color changes d. effervescence
D
The combined action of two or more drugs which results in an Enhancement or intensifying effects is termed: a. metabolism c. stimulation b. antagonism d. synergism
D
The conversion of an optically active drug with one chiral center into an optically inactive isomer: a. polymorphism c. epimerization b. enatiomerism d. racemization
D
The date after which the product is not intended to be used: a. beyond-use date c. stop date b. expiry date d. both A & B
D
The deficiency of which of the following may increase the chances of bleeding? A. RBC C. T lymphocytes B. WBC D. Thrombocytes
D
The drug doxylamine is a/an: I. OTC sleeping aid II. Antihistamine III. Commercially available as Unisom A. I, III C. I, II B. II, III D. I, II, III
D
The ff. is/are characteristic/s of side effects: a. dose-dependent c. associated pharmacological effect b. predictable d. all of the above
D
The following are effects of food on drugs, except: A. Change drugs absorption C. Interact with drugs B. Neutralize drug effects D. Influence their absorption
D
The following are instructions necessary to patients who are taking decongestant, except: A. To be used only for few days to avoid rebound congestion. B. To be avoided when cardiac and thyroid conditions are present C. To discontinue when its side effects set in, such as nervousness, tremor, headache, etc. D. To avoid all estrogen and progestin products
D
The following are possible remedies for liquefaction of solid substances except: a. triturate separately and mix by tumbling b. add adsorbents to liquid combination c. dispense powders separately d. incorporate cotton in packaging
D
The following are the physiologic effects of food on drug reaction, except: a. reducing gastric emptying rate b. milk reduces absorption of tetracycline c. tea increases absortion of paracetamol d. vegetables potentiate anticoagulants
D
The following are true regarding excretion of acidic drugs except: a. exist in the ionized state in alkaline urine b. exist in the non-ionized form in acidic urine c. acidic urine increases drug action d. none of the above
D
The following type/s of incompatibility may be dispensed: a. intentional incompatability b. unintentional incompatability c. delayed chemical incomp., but within shelf-life of product d. both A & C
D
The follwoing are the common causes of medication errors, except: A. Failed comminication C.Lack of the patient education B. Dose miscalculations D. All of the choices given
D
The generic name of Mucosolvan is: A. Guaifenesin C. Bromhexine B. Carbocisteine D. Ambroxol
D
The ingestion of alcoholic drinks while on analgesic or sedative therapy represents a commonly encountered drug interaction that may result in: a. tolerance c. excessive CNS stimulaton b. antagonism d. excessive CNS depression
D
The minimum weighable quantity for class A prescription balance is: A. 100 mg C. 60 mg B. 80 mg D. 120 mg
D
The pharmacist should advise patient to avoid sunlight when she or he is on: I. HCTZ II. Thioridazine III. Tetracycline A. I only C. II and III only B. I and II only D. All of the choice given
D
The prescription requires the combination of sodium bicarbonate, Sodium Salicylate and water. The pharmacist fully understands that sodium carbonate and sodium salicylate will lead to the oxidation of the latter forming brown quinoid derivative. This incompatibility can be remedied by: I. Adding color diluents II. Adding antioxidants III. Removal of water A. I, II, III C. I, III B. II, III D. I, II
D
These reactions belongs to Augmented type (type A): a. extension effect c. side effect b. allergy d. a and c
D
Tobacco and cigarettes are potent enzyme inducers. As a consequence, a. one needs to increase dose of drug c. this is an ADR b. this leads to drug tolerance d. all of the above
D
Traditional classification of adverse drug reactions: a. side effect c. allergy b. extension effect d. all of the above
D
Undesirable side effects of Reserpine include: A. Bradycardia C. Diarrhea B. Postural hypotension D. All of the above
D
Valium and Tagamet combination will not result to one from the ff: a. Tagamet delay elimination of anti-anxiety agent b. Increased sedation and dizziness c. Blood levels of anti-anxiety drug increased d. Valium increases the metabolism of Tagamet
D
Vanishing creams are classified as: a. oleaginous d. o/w b. absorption bases e. w/o c. water-soluble bases
D
Warfarin - Vitmain K rich food combination is an interaction characterized by: A. Decrease absorption D. Increase liver damage B. Increase bioavailability E. Synergistic / Additive combination C. Antagonistic combination
D
When dispensing a compounded prescription, these information must be written on the label except: a. indications c. name of manufacturer b. name and strength of actives d. name of physician
D
When dispensing prepared dosage forms, the pharmacist may use which of the ff dose equivalents? a. exact equivalent c. approximate dose b. exact dose d. a and b
D
Which drug would you advise the patient not to take together with Cimetidine? I. Maalox II. Ketoconazole III. Theophylline A. I only C. II and III only B. I and II only D. All of the choice given
D
Which is not a routine procedure for dispensing prescription? A. Check the legal requirements C. Provide patient advice B. Dispense the correct product D. Inaptness of the prescription
D
Which of the following antibiotics is most closely associated with the development of hepatitis? A.Kanamycin D. Isoniazid B. Penicillin G E. Ethambutol C. Tetracycline
D
Which of the following antihistamine(s) is/are nonsedative histamines? I. Cetirizine II. Terfenadine III. Astemizole A. I only C. II and III only B. I and II only D. All of the choice given
D
Which of the following antitubercular agents is associated with the development of toxicity? A.Rifampin D. Streptomycin B. Ethambutol E. Para-aminosalicylic acid C. Isoniazid
D
Which of the following brand names corresponds to Allopurinol? I. Zyloprim II. Xanor III. Llanol A. I, II, II D. I only B. I, II E. III only C. I, III
D
Which of the following combinations of Tricyclic antidepressant and metabolite is correct? A. Amitriptylline - desipramine D. Imiprmaine - desipramine B. Imipramine - nortriptyline E. Fluoxetine - protriptyline C. imipramine - trimipramine
D
Which of the following drug is not a cephalosporin? A. Ceftriaxone C. Ceftazidime B. Cefuroxime D. Chlorhexidine
D
Which of the following factors influence drug metabolism and metabolic pathway? a. genetic variation c. physiologic or disease state b. antioxidant d. none ofthese answers
D
Which of the following factors may make it necessary to give lower doses of drugs to geriatric patients? a. reduced enzyme activity c. enhanced absorption b. reduced kidney function d. a and b
D
Which of the following histamine is specially used in the treatment of vertigo? A. Loratidine C. Cetirizine B. Clemastine D. Meclizine
D
Which of the following interactions is beneficial? A. Oral contraceptives - antibiotics C. Anthistamine - alcohol B. Tetracycline - antacid D. Penicillin - Probenecid
D
Which of the following is NOT a naturally occurring emulsifier? a. acacia d. veegum b. cholesterol e. tragacanth c. gelatin
D
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of vasodilators? A. Hypotension C. Edema B. Tachycardia D. Weight loss
D
Which of the following is a short acting barbiturate? A. Phenobarbital C. Butarbital B. Amorbarbital D. Pentobarbital
D
Which of the following is not a component of parenteral Hyperalimentation? A. Vitamins and minerals C. Sugars B. Electrolytes D. Antibiotics
D
Which of the following prodoucts is an iron preparatiion? I. Iberet II. Circulan III. Feldene A. I, II, III D. I only B. II only E. I, III C. II only
D
Which of the following should be carefully dispensed with Selegiline I. Meperidine II. Fluoxetine III. Tyramine A. I only C. II and III only B. I and II only D. All of the choice given
D
Which of the following statement is not true regarding local anesthetics? A. Produce effects by inhibiting voltage gated sodium channels B. Inhibition of sodium channels enhanced by repetitive depolarizations C. Small nerve fibers more susceptible than large nerve fibers D. All sensory functions of a nerve affected equally at onset of anethesia E. Vasoconstriction prolongs duration of action
D
Which of these drug products require a physician's prescription? a. Aspirin 325 mg tab c. Nubain 10 mg/vial b. Paracetamol 500 mg Tab d. both B & C
D
Which statement is incorrect regarding interaction involving tyramine containing substance and MAO inhibitor? a. inhibition of MAO result in the accumulation of large amounts of norepinephrine b. decrease in the rate of intracellular metabolism c. large amount of norephinephrine can cause severe headache and hypertension d. large amount of stored norepinephrine can cause hypotensive crisis
D
Zinc taken during pregnancy can cause: A. Premature deliveries C. Liver damage B. Stillbirths D. Both A and B
D
Upon dispensing Phenytoin a pharmacist may advise the patient that is major Adverse drug action is/are: I. Gingival hyperplasia II. Lupus erythematosus III. Ataxia A. I only C. II and III only B. I and II only D. All of the choice given
D`
Abbreviations considered to be problem - prone of "dangerous abbreviations" include: A. mcg D. QOD B. QID E. All of the choices given C. u
E
Agents which may be useful for treating hyperthyroidism include all of the following except: A. Propylthiouracil D. Propranolol B. Coricosteroids E. Bromocriptine C. Lugol's solution of Potassium iodide
E
Alpha methyldopa has been used successfully in the control of hypertension. It side effects include all of the following except: A. Positive direct Coomb's test D. Fever B. Diarrhea E. Nephrotic syndrome C. Hemolytic anemia
E
Bronchiolar constriction is a rare but potentially dangerous side effect of A. Quinidine D. Phenytoin B. Lidocaine E. Propranolol C. Procainamide
E
Denaturation of emulsions is characterized by: a. irreversible precipitation d. changing of external phase b. reversible precipitation e. C & D c. creaming
E
Dermatologic side effects of corticosteroid therapy include A. Acne D. Ecchymosis B. Striae, thinning of the skin E. All of the above C. Telangiectasia
E
Drug belonging to List A are: I. Regulated drugs II. Prohibited drugs III. Drug requiring strict precautions in their use A. I only D. I, II, III B. II only E. I, II C. III only
E
Endocrine effects of Chlorpromazine include all of the following except: A. Decrease in adrenocorticotropins B. Decrease in gonadotropins C. Decrease in release of pituitary Growth hormone D. Increase in prolactin secretion E. Decrease in thyroid hormone production
E
Flutamide is an anti-androgen. Possible therapeutic uses of anti-androgens include A. Male contraception B. Hirsutism and virilization in women C. Acne and baldness in both sexes D. Prostatic cancer E. All of the above
E
JCAHO patient safety goals encourage hospitals to remove ______ from floor stock A. Lidocaine D. All of the choices given B. Esmolol E. A and B only C. Concentrated electrolytes
E
Manifestation of overdose with Dimenhydramine may include A. Blurred vision D. Sinus tachycardia B. Dry mouth E. All of the choices given C. Hallucinations
E
Practical strategies to reduce errors resulting from sound-alike medications and verbals orders include: I. Read back verbal orders II. Prohibit the use of all verbal orders III. Establish policies on who can receive verbal orders A. I, II D. III only B. II, III E. I, II, III C. I, III
E
Risk factors of ADR's include: I. Age of the patient II. Associated diseases III. Number of concurrent medications being taken A. I only D. II, III B. III only E. I, II, III C. I, II
E
Salicylic acid is used primarily as a/an: a. analgesic d. uricosuric agent b. antipyretic e. keratolytic agent c. cough suppressant
E
Statements which explain the mechanism of action of oral sulfonylurea agent include all of hte following except: A. Decreased hepatic glucose production B. Increased tissue sensitivity to insulin C. Increased insulin binding to insulin receptor D. Correct of post receptor defects which contribute to insulin E. Regenerate beta cells of the pancreas
E
Surface-active agents tend to enhance absorption due to: a. their effects on biological membrane b. their effects on the dissolution rate of drugs c. reduction of interfacial tension d. B & C only e. A, B, and C
E
Tetracyclines tend to form complexes with: a. calcium ions d. iron ions b. magnesium ions e. all of the above c. aluminum ions
E
The pharamcist must always be aware of possible drug interactions. Aluminum hydroxide antacids tend to interfere with the gastrointestinal absorption of A. Cephalexin D. Chloramphenicol B. Penicllin G E. Tetracyline C. Erythromycin
E
The two major properties of drug that are usually modified by Complexation are: a. odor and taste d. chemical structure and stability b. taste and solubility e. stability and solubility c. chemical structure and solubility
E
What will result if the distribution of drugs is slower than the process of biotransformation and elimination? a. high blood levels of drug b. low blood levels of drug c. synergism d. potentiation e. failure to attain diffusion equilibrium
E
Which of the following antibiotics is most closely associated with the development of ocular toxicity? A.Kanamycin D. Isoniazid B. Penicillin G E. Ethambutol C. Tetracycline
E
Which of the following types of tissues frequently store drugs? a. fatty tissue d. A & B b. muscle tissue e. A & C c. protein tissue
E
Aspirin with antacids will cause: a. Alteration of pH b. Complexation and adsorption c. Alteration of GIT flora d. Alteration of motility
a. Alteration of pH
What is the possible mechanism involved in the interaction of quinidine and digoxin? a. Changes in renal clearance b. Changes in biliary clearance c. Changes in absorption d. Changes in tissue binding
a. Changes in renal clearance
Verapamil can decrease ___________ of digoxin. a. Clearance b. Protein binding c. Absorption d. Metabolism
a. Clearance
Administration of ketoconazole to a patient who is currently taking omeprazole would likely result to: a. Decreased efficacy of the antifungal agent b. Decreased activity of the proton pump inhibitor c. Enhanced efficacy of the antifungal agent d. Increased activity of the antiulcer drug
a. Decreased efficacy of the antifungal agent
Addison's disease is caused by? a. Discontinuation of steroids b. Chronic use of steroids c. Overdosage of steroids d. Hypersensitivity of steroids
a. Discontinuation of steroids
If drug A is more hydrophilic than drug B, then: a. Drug A will be better distributed than drug B b. Drug B will be better distributed than drug A c. Both drugs will be distributed at the same rate and extent d. Both drugs will be eliminated at the same rate and extent
a. Drug A will be better distributed than drug B
A physiological or psychological state resulting from drug administration: a. Drug dependence b. Drug habituation c. Drug addiction d. Drug tolerance
a. Drug dependence
Which of the following does not cause a therapeutic incompatibility? a. Errors in pricing c. Prescription writing errors b. Dosage form errors d. Errors in storage and supply
a. Errors in pricing
The lowering of melting point is called: a. Eutexia b. Evolution of gas c. Hygroscopicity d. Deliquescence
a. Eutexia
Clindamycin HCl are greatly unionized at: a. High pH b. Low pH c. NeutralpH d. Any of the choices
a. High pH
The degradation reaction of aspirin involves: a. Hydrolysis b. Racemization c. Oxidation d. Photolysis
a. Hydrolysis
Substances which absorb moisture from air but do not dissolve are called: a. Hygroscopic powders c. Deliquescent powders b. Effervescent powders d. Efflorescent powders
a. Hygroscopic powders
Allergic reactions that are due to a person's immune response: a. Hypersensitivity b. Idiosyncracy c. Synergism d. Potentiation
a. Hypersensitivity
The following are manifestations of chemical incompatibilities, except: a. Immiscibility b. Photolysis c. Gel formation d. Evolution of gas
a. Immiscibility
The concentration of the ionic moiety of weak acids increases with: a. Increasing pH of aqueous solution b. Decreasing pH of aqueous solution c. Increasing pOH of aqueous solution d. Decreasing pOH of aqueous solution
a. Increasing pH of aqueous solution
The unusual result of triturating camphor and menthol is: a. Liquefaction b. Efflorescence c. Hygroscopicity d. Deliquescence
a. Liquefaction
A syndrome strongly resembling Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) is and adverse reaction associated with the use of: a. Procainamide b. Amiodarone c. Reserpine d. Diazoxide
a. Procainamide
In terms of susceptibility to photochemical decomposition, which is not included in the group? a. Riboflavin b. Nitroprusside c. Nifedipine d. Amlodipine
a. Riboflavin
Involves the degradation of the drug or excipients through reaction with the solvents present in the formulations: a. Solvolysis b. Oxidation c. Photolysis d. Polymerization
a. Solvolysis
According to pH partition hypothesis, a weak, acidic drug will be absorbed from the stomach because: a. The drug will exist primarily in the unionized, more lipid soluble form b. The drug will exist primarily in the ionized, more water-soluble form c. Weak acids are more soluble in basic medium d. The ionic form of the drug facilitates absorption
a. The drug will exist primarily in the unionized, more lipid soluble form
Extensive sedation caused by decreased clearance an example of: a. Type A b. Type B c. Type C d. Type D
a. Type A
Etretinate is a potent teratogen in human and should be discontinued several months before pregnancy. It is a derivative of what vitamin? a. Vitamin A c. Vitamin C b. Vitamin B d. Vitamin D
a. Vitamin A
Reactions which are noxious, unintended and which occur at doses normally used in man for prophylaxis, diagnosis or therapy: a. Drug Interactions c. Pharmacodynamic Interactions b. Adverse Drug Reactions d. Therapeutic Incompatibilities
b. Adverse Drug Reactions
Which of the following is true? a. Displacement of warfarin from its protein binding sites by sulfonamides may lead to thrombosis b. Antibiotics, by decreasing the GI flora, may interrupt the enterohepatic recirculation of oral contraceptives resulting to reduction in the serum estrogen concentration c. Penicillin decreases renal excretion of probenecid by blocking the active tubular secretion of the antibacterial drug d. Phenobarbital, antihistamine and alcohol have potentiating sedative activity
b. Antibiotics, by decreasing the GI flora, may interrupt the enterohepatic recirculation of oral contraceptives resulting to reduction in the serum estrogen concentration
A pregnancy category that indicates that animal studies have failed to demonstrate risk and there are no adequate and well-controlled studies in pregnant women a. Category A c. Category C b. Category B d. Category D
b. Category B
Acacia in the presence of bismuth salts can form a 'cake' at the bottom of the container. This manifestation is known as: a. Gelatinization b. Cementation c. Hydrolysis d. Emulsification
b. Cementation
The transport of a substance from one part of the body to another by means of blood: a. Absorption c. Metabolism b. Distribution d. Excretion
b. Distribution
The following are true regarding incompatibilities, except: a. Problems arising during compounding, dispensing and drug administration b. Easier to correct than to prevent c. May be intentional or unintentional d. Must be recognized by pharmacists
b. Easier to correct than to prevent
The reaction between sodium bicarbonate and aspirin would result to: a. Formation of precipitate c. Hydrolytic changes b. Evolution of gas d. Invisible changes
b. Evolution of gas
Angie is taking ciprofloxacin for her UTI. After 7 days, she showed no improvement. What drug could she possibly be taking together with the antibiotic? a. Vitamin B complex c. Atropine b. Ferrous sulfate d. Ascorbic acid
b. Ferrous sulfate
Substances which absorb moisture from the air are called: a. Effervescent powders c. Anhydrous powders b. Hygroscopic powders d. Efflorescent powders
b. Hygroscopic powders
A drug-induced hypersensitivity reaction caused by sulfonamides: I. Parkinson'sdisease II. Stevens-Johnson's disease III.Contact dermatitis a. I only b. II only c. II and III d. I, II, III
b. II only
What will happen to the plasma concentration of Phenytoin when it is administered concomitantly with Valproic acid? a. Decreased concentration of Phenytoin due to increased protein binding b. Increased concentration of Phenytoin due to decreased protein binding c. No change in concentration of Phenytoin d. Decreased concentration of Phenytoin due to early excretion of Phenytoin
b. Increased concentration of Phenytoin due to decreased protein binding
Light-sensitive substances are best protected using a. Amber bottle c. Flint glass b. Light-resistant container d. Carbon box
b. Light-resistant container
In basic urine, acidic drugs are: a. Non-ionized, hence reabsorbed, decrease half life b. More ionized, not reabsorbed, decrease half life c. More non-ionized, not reabsorbed, increase half-life d. Non-ionized, not reabsorbed, increased elimination rate
b. More ionized, not reabsorbed, decrease half life
Drugs bound to plasma proteins are considered: a. Pharmacologically active b. Pharmacologically inactive c. Free drugs d. Bioavailable drugs
b. Pharmacologically inactive
What can be observed if antacid is taken together with Bisacodyl? a. Increased absorption of Bisacodyl leading to enhanced defecation b. Premature liberation of Bisacodyl leading to gastric irritation c. Lowered pH in the stomach leading to premature liberation of Bisacodyl d. Improved efficacy of Bisacodyl due to pH increase
b. Premature liberation of Bisacodyl leading to gastric irritation
Remedy when a liquid substance fails to homogenize in a liquid: a. Addition of an inert agent b. Prepare an emulsion c. Prepare a suspension d. Dispensing the ingredients separately
b. Prepare an emulsion
Enzyme inhibition of clopidogrel can lead to: a. Hypoglycemia b. Profuse bleeding c. Blood clotting d. Convulsion
b. Profuse bleeding
The precipitation of an organic substance from a saturated solution when highly soluble salts are added is known as: a. Polymorphism c. Racemization b. Salting-out d. Eutexia
b. Salting-out
An associated pharmacological effect of chlorphenamine maleate: a. Hypotension b. Sedation c. Headache d. Nausea
b. Sedation
Delay in gastric emptying time for the drug to reach the duodenum will _____, thereby prolonging the onset of time for the drug: a. Slow the rate and extent of drug distributon b. Slow the rate and extent of drug absorption c. Increase the rate and extent of drug absorption d. Increase the rate and extent of drug metabolism
b. Slow the rate and extent of drug absorption
A drug-induced hypersensitivity reaction caused by sulfonamides: a. Parkinson's Disease c. Hypertension b. Stevens-Johnson's Syndrome d. Contact Dermatitis
b. Stevens-Johnson's Syndrome
Anaphylaxis is: a. Type A ADR c. Type E ADR b. Type B ADR d. Type F ADR
b. Type B ADR
Which of the following is true regarding the pharmacokinetics of amphetamine? a. Non-ionized form is more readily excreted b. Urinary acidification facilitates elimination c. Polar form is more readily absorbed d. Concurrent intake of sodium bicarbonate hastens elimination
b. Urinary acidification facilitates elimination
.A mathematical model for a potentiating drug effect: a. 1+1=2 c. 0+1=2 b. 1+1=3 d. 1+1=0
c. 0+1=2
Which of these teratogens may compromise the fetal renal system? a. Warfarin c. ACE inhibitor b. Androgen d. Lithium
c. ACE inhibitor
The most common side effect of erythromycin therapy: a. Anaphylaxis b. Torsades de pointes c. Abdominal cramps d. Ototoxicity
c. Abdominal cramps
Water is most likely to cause instability on the following drugs, except: a. Penicillins c. Alkaloids b. Cephalosporins d. Benzodiazepines
c. Alkaloids
Chloramphenicol potentiates the action of anticoagulants by: a. Impairment of absorption of Vitamin K. b. Inhibition of coumarin metabolism in the liver c. Both of the above d. None of the above.
c. Both of the above
Teratogenic drugs cause physical defects in the developing fetus. Which pregnancy drug category is characterized if animal studies have shown an adverse effect and there are no adequate and well-controlled studies in pregnant women; or no animal studies have been conducted and there are no adequate and well controlled studies in pregnant women: a. Category A c. Category C b. Category B d. Category D
c. Category C
Potential benefits justify the risk: a. Category B b. Category C c. Category D d. Category X
c. Category D
Eutectic Mixture of Local Anesthetic (EMLA) is formulated in the form of: a. Ointment c. Cream b. Solution d. Tablet
c. Cream
Citric acid, atropine sulfate and ferrous sulfate are classified as: a. Eutectic mixtures b. Deliquescent substances c. Efflorescent substances d. Polymorphs
c. Efflorescent substances
The following responses belong to Type B ADR, except: a. Allergy to Cefotaxime b. Aplastic anemia in patients taking chloramphenicol c. Facial abnormalities in babies born to alcoholic mothers d. Peripheral neuritis in British missionary ill with tuberculosis
c. Facial abnormalities in babies born to alcoholic mothers
The most common type of chemical incompatibility: a. Oxidation-Reduction b. Photolysis c. Hydrolysis d. Precipitation
c. Hydrolysis
When a patient on spironolactone medication takes banana, what could possibly happen? a. Nothing, the patient will be normal b. The banana will antagonize the effect of the spironolactone c. Hyperkalemia d. Hypernatremia
c. Hyperkalemia
The following is/are true regarding absorption of salicylic acid: I. Non-ionized form is more lipid-soluble and absorbable II. Ionized form is more lipid-soluble and absorbable III. Polar form is more readily absorbed IV. Absorption is decreased when taken with antacid a. I, III c. I, IV b. II, III d. III, IV
c. I, IV
DM is on Simvastatin medication and she also became fond of drinking grapefruit juice during breakfast. This can lead to: a. Increase therapeutic effect of simvastatin b. Decrease therapeutic effect of simvastatin c. Increase risk for the adverse effect of simvastatin d. Decrease risk for the adverse effect of simvastatin
c. Increase risk for the adverse effect of simvastatin
During drug interaction, the affected drug may become more active resulting to the following, except: a. Increased drug activity b. Longer therapeutic action c. Less effective d. Toxicity
c. Less effective
Degradation of drugs or excipient molecules can be brought about by light, either room light or sunlight: a. Solvolysis c. Photolysis b. Oxidation d. Polymerization
c. Photolysis
Corticosteroids are frequently given with antacids to: a. Enhance absorption c. Reduce ulceration and bleeding b. Slow absorption d. Increase rate of distribution
c. Reduce ulceration and bleeding
Overdosage could be due to the following except: a. Excessive amounts taken at one time b. Doses repeated at too frequent intervals c. Tinctures instead of fluidextracts d. Dose dumping from modified-release formulation
c. Tinctures instead of fluidextracts
Ecstacy exhibits this type of ADR: a. Type A c. Type C b. Type B d. Type d
c. Type C
Enzyme induction of phenobarbital with oral contraceptives can lead to: a. Decreased phenobarbital action b. Increased oral contraceptive action c. Unreliable contraception d. None of the above
c. Unreliable contraception
When an oxidizing agent is triturated in a mortar with a reducing agent, this would likely result to: a. Formation of damp mass b. Discoloration of powders c. Violent explosion d. Volatilization of some of the ingredients
c. Violent explosion
Precipitation can be: a. Physical incompatibility c. Adverse drug reaction b. Chemical incompatibility d. A and B
d. A and B
.Sudden withdrawal of steroids can result to: a. Anemia b. Hypertension c. Parkinson's Disease d. Addison's Disease
d. Addison's Disease
Alkaline salts like potassium penicillin when placed in an acidic solution can result to: a. Conversion into free acid b. Precipitation of penicillin c. Insolubility d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Drug that should not be given to patients who have undergone surgery including dental surgery: a. ASA c. Ibuprofen b. APAP d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) and foods like cheese will lead to: a. Accumulation of catecholamines b. Increase in blood pressure c. Non-metabolism of tyramine d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Oxidation: a. Loss of electrons c. Cause of drugs instability b. Dehydrogenation d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Tetracyclines are not recommended to be taken: a. When one's activity requires exposure to direct sunlight b. With antacids c. By children d. All of these
d. All of these
Anemics should refrain from the use of: a. Nasal decongestants c. Chloramphenicol b. NSAIDs d. Aspirin
d. Aspirin
Which of the following drugs causes a decrease in gastric emptying time? a. Anticholinergics b. Narcotic analgesics c. Metoclopramide d. Atropine
d. Atropine
The following type/s of incompatibility may be dispensed: a. Unintentional incompatibility b. Intentional incompatibility c. Delayed chemical incompatibility but within shelf-life of product d. Both B and C
d. Both B and C
The most serious drug-induced blood disorder may be caused by using: a. Methyldopa c. Aspirin b. Ibuprofen d. Chloramphenicol
d. Chloramphenicol
Which of the following is not an enzyme inducer? a. Carbamazepine b. Chronic Alcoholism c. Cigarette smoking d. Chloramphenicol
d. Chloramphenicol
An anionic exchange resin intended to bind acids, cholesterol metabolites and co-administered drugs: a. Chloramphenicol b. Cholesterol precursor c. Tetracycline d. Cholestyramine
d. Cholestyramine
Probenecid and penicillin combination exhibits this type on interaction: a. Enzyme induction b. Enzyme inhibition c. Alteration in gastric emptying d. Competition in tubular secretion
d. Competition in tubular secretion
Displacement of a drug from plasma binding sites would usually expected to: a. Decrease tissue levels of the drug b. Increase tissue levels of the drug c. Decrease the volume of distribution of the drug d. Decrease the metabolism of the drug
d. Decrease the metabolism of the drug
Phenobarbital-antihistamine drug combinations will result to: a. Phenobarbital metabolism is accelerated by antihistamine b. Antihistamine metabolism is accelerated by phenobarbital c. Phenobarbital peak level increases d. Decreased phenobarbital overall elimination rate
d. Decreased phenobarbital overall elimination rate
Urushiol may cause what type of allergic drug reaction? a. Anaphylactic b. Cytotoxic c. Cell-mediated d. Delayed
d. Delayed
Which of the following pairing is incorrect? a. Methimazole : Aplasia cutis b. ACEI : Renal dysgenesis c. Neural tube defects : Valproic acid d. Ebstein anomaly : NaCl
d. Ebstein anomaly : NaCl
Which of the following describe/s Type B ADR? I. Idiosyncratic II. Dose-dependent III. Allergic or immunologic in nature a. I only b. III only c. I and II d. I and III
d. I and III
Tetracycline tends to form complexes with: I. Iron salts II. Magnesium salts III. Calcium salts a. I,II b. III only c. I, III d. I, II, III
d. I, II, III
The activity of drug metabolizing enzymes can be decreased by: I. Cimetidine II. Erythromycind III. Smoking a. I, II b. I, III c. III only d. I, II, III
d. I, II, III
Which preparations increase the danger of bleeding in case of simultaneous intake with coumarin derivatives? I. Metronidazole II. Erythromycin III. Phenobarbital IV. Ketoconazole a. I, II, III, IV b. I, II, III c. I, II d. I, II, IV
d. I, II, IV
The following are true regarding excretion of acidic drugs, except: a. Exist in the ionized state in alkaline urine b. Exist in the non-ionized form in acidic urine c. Acidic urine increases drug action d. None of the above
d. None of the above
Which of the following is not a physical incompatibility? a. Volatilization b. Polymorphism c. Sorption d. Optical isomerism
d. Optical isomerism
This type of drug interaction is caused by a chemical or physical incompatibility when 2 or more drugs are mixed together: a. Biopharmaceutic c. Pharmacodynamic b. Pharmacokinetic d. Pharmaceutic
d. Pharmaceutic
Pharmacokinetically, enzyme induction will result to the following, except: a. Peak level decreases b. Accelerated metabolism c. Increased overall elimination rate d. Pharmacological responses are decreased
d. Pharmacological responses are decreased
What serum level concentration must be primarily and carefully monitored if a patient is taking Lasix® together with Lanoxin®? a. Calcium c. Magnesium b. Sodium d. Potassium
d. Potassium
Co-amoxiclav: a. Synergism b. Addition c. Antagonism d. Potentiation
d. Potentiation
Optimum absorption takes place in the: a. Gastrointestinal tract b. Receptor c. Stomach d. Small intestine
d. Small intestine
Oral administration of Bisacodyl suppository is what type of adverse drug reaction? a. Type C c. Type E b. Type D d. Type F
d. Type F
Theodore Joseph took amoxicillin for his sinusitis. After 14 days, there was no improvement on his condition. Upon checking, he was taking 250 mg of the drug instead of 500mg as prescribed by the doctor. What type of ADR is this? a. Type C b. Type D c. Type E d. Type F
d. Type F
Aplastic Anemia: a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV
d. Type IV
Pelzpel after having a kidney transplant experienced general discomfort, uneasiness and according to the doctor, the kidney function is decreasing. Daryl is experiencing what specific type of Type B ADR? a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV
d. Type IV