Edelmen's SPI Exam Review

अब Quizwiz के साथ अपने होमवर्क और परीक्षाओं को एस करें!

At the focus, the beam diameter is______ the diameter transducer diameter. a) equal to b) half c) double d) one-fourth

B

Compression is used to: a) decrease the amplitude b) decrease the range of amplitudes c) decrease the range of frequencies

B

Decimal uses a bases of 10, binary uses a bases of: a) 1 b) 2 c) 5 d) 10

B

How many decibels is related to a 90% decrease in imaging power? a) -1 dB b) -10 dB c) -90 dB d) -100 dB

B

If 3MHz sound has a 2dB of attenuation in 1cm of tissue, what is the amount of attenuation of 6MHz sound in 0.5cm of the same tissue? a) 5 dB b) 2 dB c) 10 dB d) 1.5 dB

B

If a 5 MHz wave is traveling in the tissues listed below, which will have the shortest wavelength? a) fat b) air c) muscle d) bone

B

______ is the distance covered by one cycle. a) pulse length b) wavelength c) cycle distance d) cycle duration

B

What measures the output of a transducer? a) receiver b) display c) hydrometer d) hydrophone

D

When the sound source and the receiver are not moving directly towards or away from directly towards or away from each other, the _____ of the angle between them enters into the calculation of doppler shift. a) average b) slope c) since d) cosine

D

Where does coded excitation originate? a) the demodulator b) the flux capacitor c) the transducer d) the pulser

D

Which is not an acoustic variable? a) density b) pressure c) distance d) intensity

D

Which of the following has the greatest output intensity? a) B-mode b) gray scale imaging c) CW Doppler d) pulsed Doppler

D

Which of the following is associated with cavitation? a) thermal index b) Snell's law c) Avogadro's number d) mechanical index

D

Which of the following is determined by the source and the medium? a) frequency b) period c) propagation speed d) range resolution

D

With good images on the display but not on the printer, one should: a) increase the gain b) check the scan head c) check the scan converter d) adjust the recorder

D

In soft tissue, the approximate attenuation coefficient in dB/cm is equal to 1/2 of ______ in ______.

Frequency, in MHz

The process of reducing the difference between the smallest and largest voltages is called ________.

compression

A transducer ________ one form of ________ into another.

converts, energy

What the three attenuation components?

scattering, reflection, and absorption

The most likely amount of reflection at a boundary between soft tissue is: a) 1% b) 22% c) 34% d) 99%

A

The production of a voltage from deformation is called a) piezoelectricity b) impedance c) cogeneration d) flux

A

The units of pulse repetition frequency are: a) per minute b) microseconds c) mm/microseconds d) MHz

A

What is a typical doppler frequency?

1-10,000Hz

What is the correct notation for mega-milli-kilo-micro

10^6 - mega 10^-3 - milli 10^3 - kilo 10^-6 - micro

If the level of acoustic variable ranges from 55-105, what is the amplitude? a) 105 b) 50 c) 25 d) 55

25

How many cm are in 60 mm?

6

For Doppler, what incident angle results in no shift?

90deg

*A single element transduce is focused by a) by the manufacturer b) cannot be focused c) by increasing power d) by the sonographer

A

*Which of these factors has the greatest influence on pulse repetition period? a) display depth b) thickness of the PZT crystal c) attenuation of the sound beam d) impedance of the medium e) display's dynamic range

A

All of the following are statements regarding in-vitro bioeffects are true EXCEPT: a) in vitro bioeffect conclusions are clinically relevant b) in vitro bioeffects are always real c) in vitro bioeffects are very important d) in vitro bioeffects may not be applicable to clinical settings

A

All of the following are true EXCEPT: a) two waves with identical frequencies must interfere constructively. b) constructive interference is associated with waves that are in-phase. c) out-of-phase waves interfere destructively. d) waves of different frequencies may exhibit both constructive and destructive interference at different times.

A

All of the following are true of normal cavitation EXCEPT: a) harmful bioeffects are commonly observed b) it is also known as inertial cavitation c) only a 10% increase in pressure is needed to convert to this from table cavitation d) temperatures in the thousands of degrees are created e) it is consistent with shock waves

A

All of the following will improve temporal resolution EXCEPT: a) increased line density b) single rather than multi focus c) higher frame rate d) shallower depth of field e) slower speed of sound in a medium

A

An ultrasound system is set to 0db and is transmitting at full intensity. What is the output power when the system is transmitting at 50% of full intensity? a) -3 dB b) -50 dB c) 10 dB d) 3 dB e) -10 dB

A

As the impedance of two media become vastly different, the.... a) reflection increases b) transmission increases c) refraction increases d) absorption increases

A

From a safety standpoint, which one of the following methods is best? a) low transmit output and high receiver gain b) high transmit output and low receiver gain c) high near gain and low far gain d) low near gain and high far gain e) high reject and high transmitter output

A

How is range ambiguity artifact eliminated? a) lower the PRF b) raise the PRF c) increase the gain d) use a lower frequency transducer

A

Identify one o the advantages of coded excitation: a) penetration b) improved lateral resolution c) improved temporal resolution d) shorter pulse repetition period

A

Identify one of the advantages of coded excitation a) improved contrast resolution b) improved lateral resolution c) improved temporal resolution d) shorter pulse repetition period

A

If the frequency is decreased, the numerical value of the radial resolution is a) increased b) decreased c) unchanged

A

If the intensity is increased by 3dB, it: a) doubles b) triples c) halved d) quartered

A

If the output of the machine is increased by 20dB, the beam intensity is increased: a) 100 times b) 1,000,000 times c) 20 times d) 10 times

A

If the spatial pulse length is 10mm, what is the axial resolution? a) 0.5cm b) 5 cm c) 10 mm d) 1 cm

A

If the transducer diameter increases, the lateral resolution at its smallest dimension is: a) increased b) decreased c) unchanged

A

If we increase the the frequency, the near zone length is: a) increased b) decreased c) unchanged

A

Impedance is the _______ of _______ and ________. a) product, propagation speed and density b) sum, stiffness and density c) quotient, stiffness and propagation speed. d) difference, attenuation and density

A

In a B-mode display, which of the following axes are used for the amplitude of the reflection? a) z-axis b) m-axis c) x-axis d) y-axis e) time base axis

A

In a real time scanner, which of these choices determines the maximum frame rate? a) depth of view b) pixel size c) attenuation coefficient d) beam diameter c) lateral resolution

A

In soft tissue: distance traveled = ________ x round trip time a) propagation speed b) wavelength c) period d) PRF

A

In which of these biological tissues will sound waves propagate most quickly? a) tendon b) blood c) lung d) fat e) amniotic fluid

A

Pre-processing occurs a) when the patient is scanned b) when images are transferred to the VCR c) after the images are on the tape d) when the image exits the scan converter

A

Sound Intensity decreased by 75% is how decibels of attenuation? a) 6dB b) 9 dB c) 5 dB d) 10 dB

A

The angle of incidence of an ultrasound beam is perpendicular to an interface. The two media have the same propagation speeds. What process cannot occur? a) refraction b) reflection c) transmission d) attenuation

A

The creation of an image by scanning from different angles best describes__________. a) spatial compounding b) fill-in interpolation c) phase quadrate d) persistance

A

The dynamic range is the ratio of the smallest to the largest ________ that a system can process without distortion. a) amplitude b) frequency c) phase delay d) spatial length

A

The interaction of microscopic bubbles and ultrasound form the basis for cavitation bioeffects. Which of the following forms of cavitation are most likely to produce microstreaming in the intracellular fluid and shear stresses? a) stable cavitation b) normal cavitation c) transient cavitation d) inertial cavitation e) active cavitation

A

To measure the ultrasound beam intensity, use a a) calibrated hydrophone b) lateral oscilloscope c) water filled phantom d) tissue equivalent phantom

A

Traveling through the same medium, if the frequency is doubled, the propagation speed is a) unchanged b) doubled c) halved d) quartered

A

Under which of the following conditions is later resolution improved? a) decreased beam diameter b) decreased pulse duration c) decrease imaging depth d) decrease pixel size e) decrease spatial pulse length

A

What happens to the speed of sound in a medium when the bulk modulus increases? a) faster b) slower c) unchanged

A

What increased patient exposure? a) exam time b) frequency c) video taping d) wavelength

A

What is displayed on the x-axis of an M-mode image? a) time b) time-of-flight c) reflector depth d) echo intensity e) red blood cell velocity

A

What is the fraction of time that a transducer is transmitting? a) duty factor b) pulse duration c) period d) PRF spatial duration

A

What is the location of the minimum cross-sectional area of the beam? a) focus b) fraunhofer zone c) far zone d) near zone

A

What is the production of deformation from voltage called? a) piezoelectricity b) impedance c) cogeneration d) flux

A

What is the significance of gray scale variation in the spectrum of a pulsed wave doppler display? a) it represents the number of red blood cells creating the reflection. b) it represents the velocity of red blood cells c) it represents the speed of red blood cells d) it represents the convergence of red blood cell lamina e) it determines the ensemble length

A

What may be the unit of amplitude? a) cm b) Hz c) msec d) watts e) none of the above

A

When may a patient revoke their consent to be treated? a) at any time b) when it is safe to terminate the procedure c) never

A

Which has the greatest amount of attenuation? a) bone b) fat c) water d) muscle

A

Which is most likely to create Rayleigh Scattering? a) Red Blood Cells b) muscle c) scattering d) bone

A

Which of the following best describes the features of a sound wave and medium that determine the speed of sound in the medium? a) density of the medium and stiffness of the medium b) density of the medium and power of the sound beam c) elasticity of the medium and frequency of the sound beam d) stiffness of the medium and elasticity of the medium e) pulse repetition period of the sound wave and density of the medium

A

Which of the following best describes the mechanistic approach to the study of bioeffects? a) cause-effect b) exposure-response c) risk-benefit d) causation-reaction e) effect-microstreaming

A

Which of the following choices determines the signal amplitude in the transducer of an ultrasound system? a) reflected intensity of the sound beam b) post processing c) edge enhancement filtering d) demodulation

A

Which of the following conditions is axial resolution improved? a) decreases spatial pulse length b) decreased pulse amplitude c) decreased imaging depth d) decreased pixel size e) decreased beam diamete

A

Which of the following has a propagation speed closest to "soft tissue"? a) muscle b) fat c) bone d) air

A

Which of the following has the greatest influence on temporal resolution? a) propagation speed and the imaging depth b) frequency of sound and the propagation speed c) wavelength of sound and propagation speed d) output power & frequency

A

Which of the following is associated with power mode Doppler? a) poor temporal resolution and flash artifact b) lower sensitivity and high temporal resolution c) high sensitivity and high frame rates d) flash artifact and reduced sensitivity e) good temporal resolution and flash artifact

A

Which of the following sound waves is ultrasonic and least useful in diagnostic imaging? a) 30 KHz b) 8 Mhz c) 8,000 Hz d) 3,000 Hz e) 15 Hz

A

Which of the following will result in the greatest number of shades of gray in a digital image display? a) large pixels with many bits/pixels b) small pixels with a few bits/pixels c) many TV lines per frame d) high contrast e) narrow dynamic range

A

Which of these following choices best describes an ideal epidemiological bioeffects study? a) randomized and prospective b) benefits outweigh the risks c) retrospective and optimized d) ideal and non-biased e) prudent and safe

A

Which transducer would be best to image superficial structures? a) small diameter, high frequency b) small diameter, low frequency c) large diameter, high frequency d) large diameter, low frequency

A

While scanning in a water tank, what location in a sound beam has the highest intensity? a) focal point b) focal zone c) fresnel zone d) fraunhofer zone e) half value depth

A

With the presence of __________ we see more boundaries than there are reflecting surfaces. a) reverberations b) shadowing c) enhancement d) arrays

A

You enter a room only to find that the patient does not speak English. Which id the best to obtain consent? a) call for a hospital interpreter b) use sign language c) obtain it from a bilingual family member who is in the room d) point to the signature line of the consent form and have the patient sign it

A

if wires in an AIUM test object do not appear in the same place as on the display, what is amiss? a) registration accuracy b) dynamic range accuracy c) near gain d) gray scale dynamic range

A

T or F: a system which was not working well now does not display clear images in the far field. This may be a problem with the: a) transducer b) receiver c) monitor d) scan converter

A - true B - true C - true D - true

What is another name of longitudinal resolution? a) axial b) depth c) lateral d) tansverse

A or B

_________ resolution is determined by the spatial pulse length a) radial b) image c) axial d) angular

A or C

If a reflector is moved twice as far away from the transducer, how will this affect the time-of-flight of a sound pulse? a) quadruple it b) double it c) no change d) halve it

B

If the frequency of an ultrasound wave is doubled, what happens to the period? a) doubles b) halved c) remains the same d) 4x greater

B

Multiple reflections that are equally spaced are called: a) refractions b) reverberations c) shadows d) comets

B

Post processing occurs when the image a) is played off of the VCR b) entered the A/D converter but before display c) after it leaves the A/D converter d) after it leaves the scan converter

B

Reject is used to: a) adjust the appearance of highly reflective objects b) adjust the appearance of lowly reflective objects c) improve axial resolution d) improve digital scan convert sensitivity

B

The Doppler shift is the _______ of two frequencies. a) sum b) difference c) product d) ratio

B

The Fresnel is the: a) focus b) near zone c) far zone d) penetration depth

B

The angle between the ultrasound pulse and the boundary between two media is 56deg. What is this called? a) direct incidence b) oblique incidence c) indirect incidence d) orthogonal incidence

B

The region from the transducer to the minimum beam cross-sectional area is the a) Fraunhofer zone b) Fresnel zone c) focus d) Snell's length

B

The time from the beginning of the pulse to the end of that pulse is _______? a) period b) pulse duration c) pulse length d) PRF

B

What determines the frequency of a sound beam from a pulsed transducer? a) voltage applied to PZT b) PZT thickness c) frequency of the system d) PRF of the pulser

B

What happens to the speed of sound in a medium when the bulk modulus of the medium decreases? a) faster b) slower d) unchanged

B

What is displayed on the y-axis of an m-mode image? a) time b) time-of-flight c) reflector depth d) red blood cell velocity

B

What is the standard for communication between medical imaging computers? a) ALARA b) PACS c) D-to-A conversion d) DICOM e) A-to-D conversion

B

When the ultrasound machine displays only strong reflecting objects and nothing else, the sonographer should: a) adjust the far gain b) increase output power c) increase lateral resolution d) adjust the TGC

B

Which of the following best describes a sound beam? a) electrical impulses b) a collection of mechanical vibrations in the form of compressions and rarefactions c) a wave that man can hear d) electromechanical variations e) ionic vibrations

B

Which of the following best describes the empirical approach to the study of bioeffects? a) cause-effect b) exposure-response c) risk-benefit d) causation-reaction e) effect-microstreaming

B

Which of the following improves the signal-to-noise ratio? a) dynamic range b) frame averaging c) gray scale d) edge enhancement e) receiver gain

B

Which of the following is not a beam steering technique for a mechanical scan head? a) rotating wheel b) phased beam c) oscillating disc d) oscillating mirror

B

Which of these boundaries will create the strongest reflection? a) air - lung b) air - soft tissue c) air - blood d) soft tissue - blood

B

While propagating, a sound wave is refracted. Finally, it returns to the transducer. The system processes the sound wave as if it has: a) refracted and returned b) traveled in a straight line, reflected & returned c) traveled in a straight line, attenuated, reflected & returned

B

what happens to venous blood flow to the hear during expiration? a) increased b) decreased c) unchanged

B

A hydrophone is used to measure: a) velocity b) frequency c) intensity d) phase

B or C

Biologic effects have not been documented below what intensity? (SPTA) a) 100 w/cm b) 100 mW/ cm^2 c) 100 mW/cm^2 d) 100 mW/cm^3

B or C

*In the analog converter, what component stores the image data? a) computer memory b) video tape recorder c) diaeletric matrix d) none of the above

C

*Which of the following will result in the highest mechanical index? a) high frequency and low power b) high intensity and high frequency c) low frequency and high signal amplitude d) low intensity and low frequency

C

A quality assurance program: a) is not needed in small labs b) is very time consuming and expensive c) is needed by all labs d) cannot be performed by sonographers

C

According to AIUM statement on bioeffects, there have been no confirmed bioeffects below intensities of ________ watts per square centimeters SPTA. a) 10 b) 0.01 c) 0.1 d) 1 e) 100

C

An ultrasound machine has a digital scan converter but has an analog input signal. the machine needs to have a a) hydbrid multiplexer b) modem c) analog to digital converter d) digital monitor

C

As a result of _____ the propagation speed increases. a) increasing stiffness and increasing density b) increasing stiffness and increasing elasticity c) decreasing compressibility and decreasing density d) decreasing stiffness and decreasing density.

C

Assuming a constant frequency, what happens if the diameter of an unfocused circular transducer is increased? a) the distance to the far field is reduced b) the beam width in the near field is reduced c) the beam width in the near field is increased d) the ultrasound wavelength is increased e) the sensitivity is reduced

C

Enhancement, multipath, and side lobes result in: a) image distortion b) clearer images c) artifact d) resolution problems

C

How many bits are needed to represent 1024 gray shades? a) 1024 b) 8 c) 10 d) 3 e) 512

C

How many bits are needed to represent 16 shades of grey? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

C

How many data bits are needed to represent 46 gray shades? a) 46 b) 5 c) 6 d) 8

C

If a manufacturer changes the lines per frame and kept the imaging depth the same, ,what else would change? a) PRF b) period c) frame rate

C

If the intensity of a sound beam remains unchanged while the beam area is reduced in half, what has happened to the power? a) quadrupled b) doubled c) halved d) unchanged

C

If the lines per frame is increased while the imaging depth is unchanged, then: a) frame rate increases b) number of shades of gray c) the frame rate decreases d) this cannot happen

C

If the power of a sound wave is increased by a factor of 8, how many decibels is this? a) 3 dB b) 6 dB c) 9 dB d) 8 dB

C

Lateral resolution can be improved by: a) increasing gain b) decreasing gain c) focusing d) smoothing

C

Power of sound has units of: a) dB b) dB/cm c) watts d) watts/cm^2

C

Put in increasing order of propagation speed: a) air, bone, water b) bone, water, air c) air, water, bone d) water, air, bone e) bone, air, water

C

Refraction only occurs if there are: a) normal incidence & different impedances b) indirect intensity & different propagation speeds c) oblique incidence and different propagation speeds d) oblique frequency & identical impedences

C

The Curie Temperature has which effect? a) the backing material delaminates from the active element b) the glue binding the crystal & matching layer melts c) the ferroelectric material is depolarized d) the matching layer changes its impedance

C

The Doppler shift is a measure of: a) ratio of incident frequency to reflector frequency b) sum of incident frequency & reflected frequency c) difference between incident frequency & reflected frequency d) product of incident and reflected frequencies

C

The duty factor for CW ultrasound is a) 10.0 b) 1% c) 1.0 d) 0.0%

C

The effects of soft tissue on ultrasound are called: a) acoustic proliferation properties b) dynamic effects c) acoustic propagation properties d) biological effects

C

The more bits per pixel: a) the better the resolution b) the higher the pixel density c) the more shades of gray d) higher reliability

C

The more pixels per inch: a) the better the temporal resolution b) the better is the spatial c) the more shades of gray d) the higher the reliability

C

The propagation speed of ultrasound in the AIUM test object is: a) 1m/s b) 1.54 m/s c) 1.54 mm/microsec d) 1km/s

C

The range equation relates distance from the reflector to ______ and _______. a) time-of-flight, distance b) frequency, wavelength c) time-of-flight, propagation speed d) propagation speed, density

C

The speed of sound of ultrasound in soft tissue is closest to: a) 1,540 km/sec b) 1.54 km/sec c) 1,500 m/s d) 1,540 mm/sec

C

Traveling through the same medium, if the frequency is doubled, the wavelength is a) unchanged b) doubled c) halved d) quartered

C

What are the units of intensity? a) watts b) dB c) watts/cm^2 d) dB

C

What information does doppler shift provide? a) flow b) cardiac output c) velocity d) speed

C

What is not the responsibility of the sonographer? a) clean the filters b) adjust the recorder c) adjust the converter matrix d) change paper

C

What is the Fraunhofer? a) focus b) near zone c) far zone d) penetration depth

C

What is the elimination of voltages that do not exceed a certain level? a) amplification b) decompensation c) reject d) demodulation

C

What is the meaning of a thermal index = 3? a) tissue temperature may rise to 3 degrees Fahrenheit b) tissue temperature will rise 3 degrees Celsius c) tissue temperature may rise 3 degrees Celsius d) microbubbles 3mm in diameter will burst

C

What is the most typical doppler shift measured clinically? a) 3.5 Mhz b) 3,500,000 Hz c) 2 kHz d) 1,000 kHz e) 20,000 Hz

C

Where are the harmonics created? a) receiver b) transducer c) tissues d) beam former

C

Which cannot be performed by the sonographer? a) adjust overall gain b) clean VCR recording heads c) clean pixels d) adjust TGC

C

Which is not a part of the transducer? a) active crystal b) matching layer c) A/D converter d) wire

C

Which of the following is proportional to the square of the amplitude? a) period b) attenuation c) power d) frequency e) speed

C

Which of the following is the best lateral resolution? a) 15mm b) 6mm c) 0.06 cm d) 2cm

C

Which of these intensities is the smallest? a) SATP b) SPTP c) SATA

C

Which type of artifact appears most commonly with highly reflective objects? a) reverberations b) mirroring c) shadowing d) enhancement e) defocusing

C

You are performing a quality assurance study on an ultrasound system using a tissue equivalent phantom. You make an adjustment using a knob on the system console that changes the appearance of reflector brightness from fully bright to barely visible. What are you evaluating? a) resolution b) dynamic range c) system sensitivity d) vertical calibration e) slice thickness

C

______ is the time to complete one cycle a) pulse duration b) pulse period c) period d) duration period

C

________ is a redirection of an ultrasound bean in many directions as a result of a rough boundary between two media: a) refraction b) Rayleigh Scattering c) scattering d) reflection

C

If a 5 MHz wave is traveling in the tissues listed below, which will have the longest wavelength? a) fat b) air c) muscle d) bone

D

What is the name of the receiver function that corrects the for attenuation?

Compensation

*With normal incidence, what factors affect refraction of US? A) propagation speeds B) frequencies C) attenuation coefficients D) none of the above

D

A transducer with more than one active element is called: a) multipurpose b) annular c) mechanical d) array

D

Attenuation of ultrasound in soft tissue id closest to: a) 3dB/1 Mhz b) 1dB/cm/10 Mhz c) 2 dB/cm d) 0.6 dB/cm/MHz

D

Changing which of the following would not cause any change in a hard copy image output? a) TGC b) overall gain c) output power d) display brightness & contrast e) depth of view

D

Fill-in of an anechoic structure such as a cyst is known as all of the following except? a) partial volume artifact b) slice thickness artifact c) section thickness artifact d) ghosting artifact

D

If the frame rate increases and liners per frame is unchanged, what else must have happened? a) ultrasound speed increases b) frequency increases c) depth increases d) depth decreases

D

If the wave's amplitude is doubles, what happens to the power? a) nothing b) halved c) doubled d) quadrupled

D

Images on a videotape are stored using: a) magic b) magnetism c) paper d) computer memory

D

In an air-tissue interface, what percentage of the ultrasound is reflected? a) 0% b) near 0% c) 50% d) near 100%

D

Propagation speed = _______ x wavelength a) pulse duration b) period c) # of cycles in the pulse d) frequency

D

Rectification and smoothing are components of which of the following? a) amplification b) decompensaation c) reject d) demodulation

D

Sound waves are: a) electric b) mechanical, transverse c) spectral d) longitudinal, mechanical

D

The angle between the ultrasound pulse and the boundary between two media is 90deg. What is this called? a) direct incidence b) oblique incidence c) indirect incidence d) orthogonal incidence

D

The consolidation of many images into a single frame best describes which of the following? a) dynamic range b) fill-in interpolation c) phase quadrate d) persistance

D

The dB is defined as the _______ of two intensities. a) sun b) difference c) product d) ratio

D

The distance to a target is doubled. The time-of-flight for a pulse to travel to the target and back is: a) 4 times b) 8 times c) the same d) 2 times

D

The rayl is the unit of.... a) intensity b) reflectance c) density d) impedance

D

The units of attenuation are ___ : this is a ___ scale A) mm/cm ; parametric B) dB/m ; multiplicative C) none ; relative D) dB ; logarithmic

D

Under which circumstance is cavitation most likely to occur? a) high frequency and low power b) high intensity and high frequency c) low intensity and low frequency d) low frequency and high signal amplitude

D

Under which circumstances is the mechanical index the highest? a) high frequency and low power b) high intensity and high frequency c) low intensity and low frequency d) low frequency and high signal amplitude

D

What Doppler angle is most inaccurate? a) 15-30deg b) 30-45deg c) 45-60deg d) 60-75deg

D

What are the units of longitudinal resolution? a) Hertz b) Rayls c) m/s d) feet

D

What artifact has a grainy appearance and is caused by the interference effects of scattered sound? a) spackle b) reverberation c) slice thickness d) speckle e) section thickness

D

What can pulsed doppler measure that continuous wave cannot? a) duration b) speed c) velocity d) location e) frequency

D

What component if the ultrasound unit contains the memory bank? a) transducer b) receiver c) display d) scan converter

D

What is the actual time that an ultrasound machine is creating a pulse? a) duty factor b) period c) pulse period d) pulse duration

D

What is the minimum value of the duty factor? a) 10.0 b) 1% c) 1.0 d) 0.0%

D

What is the propagation speed determined by? a) wavelength b) intensity & density c) amplitude d) density and elasticity e) density and amplitude

D

You enter a hospital room to perform an ultrasound exam. Which of the following should you do first? a) check the room number b) ask a nurse to confirm the patient's name c) ask the patient if they speak english d) check the patient's wristband for identification

D

An ultrasound system is set to 0db and is transmitting at full intensity. What is the output power when the system is transmitting at 10% of full intensity? a) -3 dB b) -50 dB c) 40 dB d) 3 dB e) -10 dB

E

If 300,000 cycles occur in one second, what is the frequency? a) 3 MHz b) 30 kHz c) 300 MHz d) 3 kHz e) 0.3 MHz

E

In which was is an annular phase array transducer different than a linear phase array transducer? a) the linear is steered mechanically b) the linear can have multiple focal zones c) the annular can create a sector shaped image d) the linear has higher pulse repetition frequency e) the annular is steered mechanically

E

The relative output of the ultrasound instrument is calibrated in dB and the operator increases the output by 60 dB. The beam intensity is increased by which of the following? a) 5% b) two times c) twenty times d) on hundred times e) on million times

E

What is the accuracy of reflector depth position on an A-mode, B-mode, or M-mode display called? a) range resolution b) horizontal calibration c) axial resolution d) speed error artifact e) depth calibration

E

What is the range of frequencies created by medical diagnostic doppler transducers? a) 4-10 Hz b) 10-20 Mhz c) 1-10 kHz d) 2-20 Hz e) 2-10 MHz

E

Which of the following clinical modalities has the lowest output intensity? a) pulsed doppler b) continuous wave doppler c) power doppler d) duplex scanning e) gray scale imaging

E

Which of the following sets of properties of a test phantom is most relevant when assessing depth calibration accuracy? a) reflector spacing and reflection coefficient b) attenuation of speed in the ultrasound medium c) reflector spacing and ultrasound attenuation in the medium d) reflector reflection coefficient and ultrasound attenuation in the medium e) reflector spacing and propagation speed.

E

T or F: the sonographer cannot change, directly or indirectly, the duty factor of the machine.

F

T or F: there have not been any biological effects from ultrasound in the laboratory.

F

T or F. Doppler shifts always occur if the sound source and receiver are in motion.

False

T or F: A mirror image artifact can appear along side of true anatomy

False

T or F: A sonographer's education ends when they become registered/

False

T or F: Axial resolution is affected by focusing.

False

T or F: Doppler Shifts are always created when the source and receiver are in motion relative to each other.

False

T or F: Doppler shifts occur if the source and the observer are in motion relative to each other and the angle between the motion and the sound beam is 90deg.

False

T or F: Sonographers cannot effect a patient's exposure to acoustic energy.

False

T or F: The digital scan converter has a number of pixels assigned to each bit.

False

True of False: Increasing the frequency increases the penetration depth.

False

True or False: With normal incidence, the angle is 180deg.

False

T or F: Doppler Shifts always occur if the sound source and receiver are in motion.

False.

Snell's law describes the physics of _______.

Refraction

T or F: A sound wave is a pressure wave made of compressions and rarefactions.

True

T or F: Doppler shifts occur if the source and the observer are in motion relative to each other and the angle between the motion and the sound beam is not 90deg.

True

T or F: Gray scale can be changed by the sonorgrapher

True

T or F: Shadowing may result from high amounts of reflection of ultrasound energy.

True

T or F: The manufacturer increases the number of scan lines per frame. As a result, the following may have to be decreased. a) frequency b) frame rate c) sector angle d) imaging depth e) power output

a) false b) true c) true d) true e) false

T or F: Later resolution also goes by these names: a) axial b) azimuthal c) longitudinal d) range

a) false b) true c) false d) false

Volume has which unit?

cm^3

Put in decreasing order: a) deca b) deci c) micro d) centi

abdc

Put in decreasing order of propagation speed. a) gas b) liquid c) solid

c b a

Circumferences may be measure in the unit of:

cm

Impedance is the product of ________and ________.

density and propagation speed


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