EMT EVERYTHING PT. 2

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According to coworkers, your 25-year-old female patient suddenly began acting aggressively and being verbally abusive. She tells you she is "starving" and you notice that she is pale and diaphoretic. Which of the following would be an appropriate general impression? A. An underlying physical illness B. Alcoholic intoxication C. Alcohol withdrawal D. Sudden onset of schizophrenia

An elderly patient struck her head during a ground level fall. She presents with confusion, memory loss, elevated blood pressure and decreasing pulse. Which of the following conditions is most likely? A. Head injury B. Stroke C. Low blood sugar D. Psychiatric emergency

A ________ device works by blowing oxygen or air continuously at a low pressure to prevent a patient's alveoli from collapsing. A. CPAP (Continuous Positive Airway Pressure) B. COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease) C. FROPVD (Flow-Restricted, Oxygen Powered Ventilation Device) D. Nonrebreather

Contraindications for the use of Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) can include which of the following? A. History of pulmonary fibrosis B. History of obstructive sleep apnea C. Audible rhonchi D. Audible wheezing

Management of the suicidal patient includes all of the following except: A. psychoanalysis of the patient by the EMT. B. a SAMPLE history. C. communication. D. a physical examination.

What condition is when fluid accumulates in the lungs, preventing them from breathing adequately? A. Pulmonary edema B. Pneumonia C. Pulmonary embolism D. Asthma

What is NOT one of the symptoms of a pulmonary embolus? A. sudden calmness B. pain and swelling in one or both legs C. sudden onset of sharp chest pain D. anxiety

Which of the following patients does not necessarily have inadequate breathing? A. Patient with an irregular respiratory rhythm B. Patient with agonal respirations C. Patient with cyanosis D. Patient's whose breath sounds cannot be heard

Which of the following respiratory rates is considered an abnormal respiratory rate for an adult? A. 8 breaths/min B. 16 breaths/min C. 20 breaths/min D. 12 breaths/min

You are on the scene of a possible overdose. You find a 30-year-old man pacing about his living room. There is evidence of illicit drug use and the apartment is in disarray. The patient seems agitated and nervous. Attempts at calming the patient should include which of the following? A. Repeat part of what the patient is saying to show that you are listening to him. B. Sit close to him with your arm around his shoulders to show that you are truly concerned. C. Stand still with your arms crossed to instill a sense of control and authority. D. Speak quickly to give the patient all of the important information without delay.

You are on the scene of a 3-year-old patient who is in respiratory distress. The mother states the child rapidly developed a sore throat and is found in the tripod position. He is crying and drooling profusely. What condition do you suspect? A. Epiglottitis B. Strep throat C. Croup D. Child abuse

When managing a patient who may hurt himself or others, you should do all of the following except: A. watch for sudden changes in the patient's behavior. B. make sure only you and the patient are in the room. C. retreat if the patient becomes threatening. D. keep bystanders a safe distance away.

When providing emergency care to an aggressive or hostile patient, what is the highest priority? A. Finding out if the patient is oriented to person, time, and place B. Performing a scene size-up C. Calming the patient down D. Checking the patient for possible physical causes of the behavior

When should the EMT most likely expect to hear wheezes in a patient complaining of shortness of breath secondary to an asthma attack? A. While breathing in B. While breathing out C. While holding his breath D. In between breaths

Which of the following actions is the MOST appropriate for the EMT to take when managing a patient with a behavioral emergency? A. Establish control of the situation by a show of force. B. Remain calm and reassure the patient. C. Find out if the patient's insurance covers psychiatric treatment. D. Quickly perform a head-to-toe exam and transport without delay.

Which of the following is acceptable when managing the patient with a behavioral or psychiatric emergency? A. Go along with the patient's hallucinations or false beliefs. B. Make supportive statements such as, "That must have been very hard for you." C. Allow family members to confront the patient about his behavior. D. Sit as close to the patient as you can to reassure him that you will not abandon him.

Which of the following statements concerning people who have made prior suicide attempts is true? A. They are usually just making a cry for help but do not want to die. B. They are at an increased risk for a subsequent successful suicide. C. They should be allowed to sign a release if their injuries are not serious. D. They do not require psychological counseling like a person who is truly depressed.

Your patient is a 22-year-old male who has ingested a large amount of alcohol and is vomiting. He is conscious but uncooperative. He allows you to examine him but refuses transport to the hospital. You have sought assistance from law enforcement on scene. Which of the following is the BEST action? A. Obtain a witnessed refusal. B. Contact medical control for further advice. C. Stay with the patient until he has stopped vomiting. D. Find a relative or neighbor to come over and stay with the patient.

Concerning attempted suicide, which of the following statements is true? A. There is always an indication that a suicide attempt is imminent. B. Truly suicidal patients nearly always leave a note. C. All suicide attempts must be taken seriously, even if the method seems insincere. D. Attempted suicide is a matter for law enforcement, not EMS.

There are general rules when dealing with psychiatric emergencies. Which of the following is NOT one of those rules and would be considered inappropriate? A. Identify yourself and your role. B. Listen to the patient. You can show you are listening by repeating part of what the patient says back to him. C. Never make eye contact with the patient, as it will just increase his nervousness. D. Speak slowly and clearly, using a calm and reassuring tone.

Today patients with cystic fibrosis are surviving to: A. infancy. B. older adulthood. C. adulthood. D. toddler years.

What is the best way to determine that you are getting adequate ventilation with a bag-valve mask? A. Push the full amount of the bag into the patient. B. Hyperventilate the patient until the oxygen saturation reaches 100%. C. Look for chest rise and fall. D. Ensure the pulse oximeter reads 95 to 100%.

When a person acts in a manner that is unacceptable to himself or those around him, this would be considered which of the following? A. Psychotic episode B. Mental illness C. Behavioral emergency D. Psychosomatic reaction

Which of the following inhalers would NOT be used to reverse an asthma attack? A. Albuterol B. Ventolin C. Beclomethasone D. Proventil

Which of the following is a possible side effect of a prescribed inhaler for respiratory problems? A. Decreased heart rate B. Trapped air in the lungs C. Tremors D. Sleepiness

Which of the following must be treated by the EMT if present in a patient with an apparent behavioral emergency? A. Severe clinical depression B. Suicidal ideology C. Hypoglycemia D. Acute alcohol intoxication

Which of the following should NOT be included in documentation of an incident involving a patient with a behavioral or psychiatric emergency? A. Your actions B. Description of the patient's behavior C. Whether or not you think the patient is mentally ill D. Your observations of the patient's surroundings at the scene

Which of the following should the EMT keep in mind when evaluating a patient for a possible behavioral emergency? A. The EMT must determine the cause of the behavior before making a transport decision B. The behavior should be evaluated outside of the situation at hand C. The behavior should be evaluated based on the situation at hand D. Uncommon emotional reactions should always be considered a behavioral emergency

All of the following are general rules in dealing with a psychiatric patient except: A. make eye contact with the patient. B. listen to the patient, showing you are listening by repeating part of what the patient says back to him. C. speak slowly and clearly, and use a calm and reassuring tone. D. do not be judgmental; instead, show pity, as he needs to know that you understand him.

As an EMT, it is important that you be able to do all of the following except: A. deal with a wide variety of emotions and behaviors. B. ensure your safety and that of others at the scene. C. control your own emotions when dealing with patients who say upsetting things to you. D. provide counseling and advice to patients with personal problems.

EMTs may come across a situation where a patient begins to act extremely agitated or psychotic. Elevated temperature and sometimes alcohol or drug intoxication may be present. The patient will soon cease struggling, and often within minutes the patient develops inadequate or absent respirations and subsequently dies. It is important for the EMT to be alert for this sequence of events in a patient who exhibits this behavior and monitor the patient constantly throughout the call. This condition is called: A. excited psychosis. B. bipolar disorder. C. psychotic delirium. D. excited or agitated delirium.

Once you have established with reasonable certainty that your patient is suffering from a behavioral emergency, which of the following is the best course of action? A. Begin intense individual counseling with the patient. B. There is no need to assess for medical conditions if the patient does not have a history of past medical problems. C. Establish the best way to restrain the patient before he has the opportunity to become violent. D. Attempt to determine if there is a possible physical cause for the patient's behavior.

What condition is when there is an infection in one or both lungs caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi? A. Pulmonary edema B. Pulmonary embolism C. Asthma D. Pneumonia

What is the primary effect on the body when an EMT assists a patient with a prescribed inhaler if the patient is short of breath? A. Dissolved mucus in the airways B. Decreased heart rate C. Increased contraction of the diaphragm D. Relaxation of the bronchioles

When a patient or bystander at the scene of an emergency displays fear, anger, or grief, this is best described as which of the following? A. Catharsis B. Post-traumatic stress disorder C. Neurosis D. Stress reaction

Which of the following BEST defines inadequate breathing? A. Wheezing noises when breathing B. Breathing slower than normal C. Breathing faster than normal D. Breathing that is insufficient to sustain life

Which of the following does NOT indicate that a patient may be about to become violent? A. Tense body posture or clenched fists B. Loud voice and rapid pacing C. Profane language D. Crying

Which of the following factors suggest that a patient is at risk for suicide? A. Recent emotional trauma B. Sudden improvement in depression C. Alcohol and drug abuse D. All of the above

Which of the following findings would be helpful in differentiating between a closed head injury and a behavioral emergency? A. Combativeness B. Irrational behavior C. Confusion D. Unequal pupils

Which of the following is the primary cause of COPD? A. Infection B. Congenital diseases C. Air pollution D. Cigarette smoking

Which of the following medical conditions may be the underlying cause of an apparent behavioral emergency? A. Mental illness B. Stroke C. Hypoglycemia D. All of the above

Which of the following patients with difficulty breathing should NOT receive supplemental oxygen? A. An infant whose eyes may be damaged by excessive oxygen administration B. A patient whose oxygen saturation level is 93% on room air C. A patient with a chronic lung disease who may have a hypoxic drive D. None of these patients should have oxygen withheld.

Which of the following signs of inadequate breathing is more prominent in children than in adults? A. Nasal flaring B. Grunting respirations C. See-sawing of the chest and abdomen D. All of the above

Which of the following would most likely be seen just prior to respiratory arrest? A. Very deep, rapid respirations B. Breathing through the nose, not the mouth C. Accessory respirations D. Agonal respirations

Your patient is a 60-year-old female with a sudden onset of severe difficulty breathing. She has no prior history of respiratory problems. Which of the following should be done before applying oxygen by nonrebreather mask? A. Obtain a history of the present illness. B. Check the patient's oxygen saturation level. C. Listen to the patient's breath sounds. D. None of the above

When responding to an attempted suicide, which of the following is the EMT's primary concern? A. Personal safety B. Contacting law enforcement since suicide is illegal C. Managing the patient's airway D. Determining whether the patient suffers from clinical depression

When you hear wheezes while auscultating your patient's breath sounds, which of the following is most likely the cause? A. The lower air passages in the lungs are narrowed. B. There is mucus in the air passages. C. There is an upper airway obstruction. D. There is fluid in the lungs.

Which of the following communication strategies should be used in dealing with a patient with a behavioral emergency? A. Acknowledge the patient's feelings B. Interrupt the patient if he appears to be going off on a tangent about something not concerning the immediate situation. C. Show deep sympathy for the patient's predicament and let him know he can't control the things that are happening to him. D. Stay 2 to 3 inches from the patient at all times to make him feel secure.

Which of the following does NOT occur during inspiration? A. Diaphragm relaxes B. Intercostal muscles contract C. Chest cavity increases in size D. Diaphragm lowers

Which of the following is the most proper dose of inhaled medication the EMT can assist the patient with administering? A. One spray B. The number of sprays directed by medical control C. Two sprays D. As needed until respiratory status improves

You are first on the scene of a 61-year-old female in need of assistance with her respirations. You have a pocket mask with supplemental oxygen. How can you determine that your artificial ventilation is effective? A. You assure oxygen is being delivered at 15 liters per minute. B. Patient's pulse returns to normal. C. You are assisting respirations at 10 breaths per minute. D. Patient's skin color remains the same.

Your patient is a 24-year-old male who is severely depressed. He tells you that he can't "handle the pressure" anymore and that he wants to die. He is refusing transport. Which of the following is the most appropriate decision regarding this patient's care? A. Respect the patient's wishes; he is alert, oriented, and capable of giving consent. B. Transport the patient against his will with the assistance of law enforcement. C. Contact the patient's family to find out what their wishes are. D. Leave the scene and allow law enforcement to handle the situation.

When dealing with a psychiatric emergency, which one of the following would generally be inappropriate behavior on your part? A. Act in a calm manner, giving the patient time to gain control of his emotions. B. Let the patient know that you are listening to what he is saying, and explain things to the patient honestly. C. Be as hurried as you can. It is extremely important to resolve the call and get the patient to the hospital as soon as possible. D. Stay alert for sudden changes in behavior.

In which of the following circumstances is medical direction necessary when assisting a patient with the use of a prescribed inhaler? A. The inhaler belongs to another family member, not the patient. B. Medical control is not necessary since assistance with inhaled medications is in the EMT scope of practice. C. Patient has already overused the inhaler before your arrival. D. Medical control is necessary in all situations in which an EMT assists with a prescribed inhaler.

It is important that, as an EMS provider, you avoid creating a situation where positional asphyxia could occur. Which of the following is positional asphyxia? A. Positional asphyxia is the name for the position someone assumes after she has been hit with a taser. B. Positional asphyxia is the position the person is seated in when you approach him. C. Positional asphyxia is a birth defect that causes psychiatric issues and is initiated because of the way the fetus was positioned in the uterus. D. Positional asphyxia is inadequate breathing or respiratory arrest caused by a body position that restricts breathing.

Which of the following is appropriate when assessing an emotionally disturbed patient? A. Establish eye and verbal contact. B. Avoid arguing with the patient. C. Make it clear that you are in control of the situation, not the patient. D. Both A and B

Which of the following is proper when assisting a patient with the use of a prescribed inhaler? A. Have the patient inhale deeply before delivering the spray. B. Make sure that the inhaler has been kept in the refrigerator. C. Do not use the patient's inhaler, because you do not know how the medication has been stored. D. Have the patient hold the inhaled medication in his lungs as long as possible.

Which of the following statements concerning behavioral emergencies is true? A. The person with a behavioral emergency requires prolonged institutionalization. B. A person with a behavioral emergency is mentally ill. C. Emotional outbursts are considered behavioral emergencies. D. It may be difficult to determine what behavior is abnormal for a given person in a given situation.

Concerning behavioral emergencies, which of the following statements is true? A. It is relatively easy to determine if the underlying cause of a behavioral emergency is related to drug abuse. B. A patient who does not respond to crisis management techniques may be restrained for transport to a psychiatric facility. C. Only a licensed psychiatrist can apply crisis management techniques with a patient having a behavioral emergency. D. A diabetic problem never mimics signs of a behavioral emergency.

The EMTs should provide patients with viral respiratory infections: A. a prescribed inhaler. B. oxygen. C. antibiotics. D. a small-volume nebulizer.

When restraining a patient, which of the following is NOT a consideration? A. How to position the patient B. Patient's informed consent C. Number of people available to carry out the required actions D. Patient's size and strength

A patient who has shallow, slow, irregular gasping breaths is said to have ________ respirations. A. Kussmaul's B. central neurogenic C. agonal D. Cheyne-Stokes

Your patient is exhibiting bizarre and aggressive behavior; he starts shouting and becomes violent. He has extra strength and appears insensitive to pain. Drug paraphernalia is visible on-scene. This behavior is known as: A. chemical delirium. B. sensory excitement. C. excited delirium. D. intoxication reaction.

Your patient is a 15-year-old female who has been diagnosed with a personality disorder. She has no history of violent behavior. The staff at her residential care facility wants her to be transported for evaluation of a possible urinary tract infection. Which of the following is the BEST way to handle this situation? A. Refuse to transport the patient without a police escort. B. Transport the patient, but do not speak to her or perform an assessment. C. Ask that the patient be given a tranquilizer injection prior to transport. D. Have a female EMT attend to the patient.

Most dialysis patients have

other underlying diseases

The process of combining the patient and patient-carrying device into a unit ready for moving and transporting the patient is called: Answer loading. wrapping. immobilizing. packaging.

packaging

The process of combining the patient and patient-carrying device into a unit ready for moving and transporting the patient is called: Answer loading. wrapping. immobilizing. packaging.

packaging.

Patients with a history of chronic sickle cell anemia (SCA) may present with

pale appearance and bradypnea on exertion

When responding to the scene of a motor vehicle collision, be sure to take all steps to size up the scene, including: leaving all emergency revolving beacons, headlights, and flashers on for visibility. parking behind the wreckage if you are the first on the scene to warn motorists from behind. parking at least 50 feet away from the wreckage if there is no fire or escaping liquids. parking downwind and downhill to avoid fire or hazardous liquids.

parking at least 50 feet away from the wreckage if there is no fire or escaping liquids.

You find a middle-aged male is sitting against a wall in obvious distress. The patient appears to be extremely short of breath and has an open wound to his chest that is making a sucking sound. You should IMMEDIATELY:

place your gloved hand over the wound.

Shortly after you sustain a minor injury, such as a cut in the skin, you notice a white substance (pus) emanating from the wound. This substance consists of:

plasma containing a massive number of WBCs

2 components of clotting

platelets & clotting factors

Long term kidney damage is typically caused by

poorly controlled diabetes and/or high blood pressure

The elbow is ________ to the wrist.

proximal

Dialysis patients who have missed an appointment may present with signs of ________, which is a similar presentation to ________.

pulmonary edema; congestive heart failure

Hemodialysis is the

removal of blood to artificially filter it and then return it to the circulation

The sludging of sickled RBCs in the capillaries results in

severe pain in the chest, abdomen, and extremities

Only slight chest movement or abdominal wall motion is an indication of

shallow breathing

The urethra is ______ in the female than in the male

shorter

Symptoms of missed dialysis are

shortness of breath from fluid buildup, dysrhythmias, elevated potassium,

Some drawbacks to using sterile aluminum foil as an occlusive dressing include:

skin lacerations may occur from the sharp edges.

Which of the following contributes most significantly to the occurrence of ambulance crashes? Time of day Size of the vehicle Speed of the vehicle Weather conditions

speed of vehicle

Renal failure occurs when

the kidneys lose their ability to adequately filter the blood and remove toxins/excess fluid from the body. Most serious disease of the kidneys

Continous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) is

the most common type of PD where fluid is left in the peritoneal cavity by clamping the catheter for 4-6 hours. Uses gravity to add fluid and then drain it

The rate of artificial ventilations through a stoma is based on

the patient's age

What are breathing Retractions?

the pulling in of the muscles during breathing. It is an indication that the patient is having trouble breathing

When using pocket face mask, be located at

the top/side of patient head with no suspected spine injury top of patient head with suspected spine injury

2 main emergencies with ESRD

those that arise from loss of normal kidney function and those that are complications of dialysis treatments

The sensation felt when palpating an arterial-venous fistula or shunt is known as a

thrill

Acute anemia may be the result of

trauma or sudden massive GI bleeding

You are at the scene of a vehicle collision and have found that there is one patient who is in stable condition. At this point, the call can be categorized as: Answer no longer a true emergency. triaged. an unfounded call. a non-incident.

triaged

Patients on blood thinners are frequently

upgraded to trauma center transport because of their increased risk of uncontrolled bleeding

Always ______ rather than ______ patients in respiratory failure/arrest

ventilate; oxygenate Apply oxygen to device when ventilating

You should administer oxygen by NRB mask to a patient

with adequate breathing & a pulse ox of 90%

Operators of emergency vehicles must drive with the safety of others in mind. This is known as driving: Answer with due regard. defensively. as a public servant. with emergency privilege.

with due regard.

Flow time available

(tank pressure - residual pressure) x C / flow rate Constants D = 0.16 E = 0.28 M = 1.56 G = 2.41 H - 3.14

Which of the following is NOT essential equipment on an ambulance? An automatic transport ventilator Portable oxygen tanks Pediatric oxygen administration devices Portable suction unit

...

Which of the following is the primary reason why ambulances should have two oxygen supply systems? Answer To provide oxygen to two patients at one time To provide oxygen to the patient in the event of vehicle breakdown To ensure a supply of oxygen for long-distance transports To have a backup system in the event of failure of the primary system

...

You are on the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which the grandstand at a race track has collapsed. As the triage officer, you have encountered a 14-year-old male whose leg has been amputated above the knee. He is responsive to verbal stimuli, and he has an open airway, shallow rapid breathing, and a weak, rapid carotid pulse. This patient would be classified as a Priority ________ for treatment and transport.

Flow-Restricted, Oxygen-Powered Ventilation Device (FROPVD)

100% oxygen at up to 40 L/m Trigger the device until chest rises & repeat every 5 seconds

Which of the following is a normal respiratory rate for an adult at rest?

12 breaths per minute

The range of normal blood glucose level is from a low of 60 to 80 mg/dL to a high of:

120 to 140.

What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) of your adult male patient who has fallen off a horse, has his eyes open, can follow your commands to squeeze his hands, but is confused about what happened and his whereabouts? 12 14 15 13

Vital signs should be reassessed every ________ minutes for a stable patient.

The maximum flow rate recommended to achieve high concentrations of oxygen when using a nonrebreather mask is typically

15 lpm

Your patient has a heart rate of 82, a respiratory rate of 16, and a blood pressure of 120/80 and does not appear to be in any distress. You should repeat vital sign measurements at least every:

15 minutes.

Basic parts of a bag-valve system

15/22 respiratory fitting Non-jam valve Be nonrebreathing Self-refilling shell

An oxygen level of ________ is required for normal breathing.

19.5 percent

Which of the following is true concerning disinfection? Answer A solution of 1 part household bleach to 100 parts water is an effective disinfectant for health care purposes. High level disinfection destroys all sources of infection. A low-level disinfectant will kill germs on ambulance floors and walls. All of the above

1:100

If capillary refill is assessed in a child patient, how long should it take the normal pink color to return to the nail bed?

2 seconds

No matter what size it is, an oxygen tank is full at

2,000 psi

Typical pressure of oxygen in a cylinder

2.0 - 2.2 ksi

Hyperventilation of a patient with a severe brain injury means that bag-valve-mask ventilations are provided at a rate of ________ per minute. 20 24 30 34

When taking blood pressure, the cuff should be inflated to what point?

20 to 30 mmHg beyond the point where the pulse disappears

Safe residual pressure is

200 psi. Below that pressure there is not enough oxygen to allow for proper delivery to the patient

A patient-carrying device should have at least ________ straps to hold the patient securely. Answer 3 5 1 2

How many times a week do the majority of American hemodialysis patients receive treatment?

The chest cavity can hold up to ________ liter(s) in an adult, leading to the possibility of massive internal hemorrhage without any external blood loss.

The chest cavity can hold up to ________ liter(s) of blood in an adult, leading to the possibility of massive internal hemorrhage without any external blood loss.

A patient-carrying device should have at least ________ straps to hold the patient securely. Answer 3 5 1

3 straps

Obesity is defined as a body mass index greater than: 35. 25. 30. 40.

30.

How much space does the tongue take up in an adult?

40%

Approximately how many Americans are currently on some type of dialysis?

400,000

The EMT should reassess the vital signs of an unstable patient every ________ minutes.

Oxygen cylinders should be hydrostatically tested

5-10 years

What is the percentage of oxygen provided by connecting a high flow of oxygen to the oxygen inlet found on a pocket mask?

50%

ICS systems recognize that the manageable span of control is:

6 people.

How much space does the tongue take up in a child?

60%

How many cervical vertebrae are there? 7 12 5 4

Approximately what percentage of United States dialysis patients treat themselves at home?

An approximate normal systolic blood pressure can be calculated for infants and children by using which of the following formulas?

80 plus 2 times the age in years

Your patient is warm, dry, and pink and denies shortness of breath. Which of the following should the EMT expect to find when evaluating the patient's oxygen saturation?

98 percent

1) Which of the following refers to a program or process for evaluating and improving the effectiveness of an EMS system? A) Quality improvement B) System effectiveness management C) Process Improvement Plan (PIP) D) Total quality system Answer:

10) What is the minimum level of certification required of ambulance personnel responsible for direct patient care? A) Emergency Medical Technician B) Emergency Medical Responder C) Advanced EMT D) Emergency Ambulance Driver Answer:

12) What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes use of advanced airway devices and some prehospital medication administration? A) Advanced EMT B) Paramedic C) Emergency Medical Responder D) EMT Answer:

16) Upon arrival at the hospital, the EMT advises hospital personnel of the patient's condition, observations from the scene, treatment rendered, and other pertinent data to assure continuity of care. This process is known as which of the following? A) Transfer of care B) Breach of duty C) Definitive care D) End of tour Answer:

20) To be compassionate and empathetic, to be accurate with interviews, and to inspire confidence are all examples of which of the personal traits of a quality EMT? A) Able to listen to others B) Pleasant C) Judgmental but fair D) Emotionally stable Answer:

25) Which of the following is a personal trait an EMT should demonstrate? A) Self-starter B) Strong student C) Strong communication D) Good eyesight Answer:

3) All of the following are ways that an EMT can increase both physical and mental well-being, except: A) drinking caffeine instead of alcohol. B) following a regular walking regimen. C) spending more time relaxing with friends and family. D) eating more carbohydrates. Answer:

3) In 1966 the National Highway Safety Act charged which of the following agencies with the development of emergency medical service standards? A) U.S. Department of Transportation B) U.S. Department of the Interior C) U.S. Department of Health Services D) U.S. Department of Homeland Security Answer:

32) Which of the following is a physiologic effect of the "Stress Triad" as described by the physician Hans Selye? A) Bleeding gastric ulcers B) Hypertrophy of the lymph nodes C) Atrophy of the adrenal glands D) Amnesia for stressful events Answer:

41) You and your new EMT partner arrive first on the scene of a single car rollover on the shoulder of a busy highway. You pull off in a safe location and just as you stop the ambulance, your partner throws the passenger door open, steps out of the truck, and begins jogging through the scattered debris toward the overturned car. You shout for him to stop and he looks back at you, but then continues to the vehicle and begins assessing the driver. Later, as you are restocking in the ambulance bay of the local trauma center your partner tells you that he thinks you acted unprofessionally by shouting at him. What is the best way to respond? A) Shouting was an attempt to protect the EMT from a potentially unsafe scene. B) New EMTs should expect partners to yell at them occasionally. C) The On-Duty Supervisor should be called. D) An EMT should never hurry to assist a patient. Answer:

43) Since EMS personnel are often exposed to both acute and chronic stressors, ________ management may be helpful to cope with on-the-job experiences. A) critical incident stress B) crisis intervention C) stress prevention D) chronic stress Answer:

45) While transporting a patient to the hospital who has a history of terminal brain cancer, the patient says, "I know I'm going to die, but first I want to see my grandson graduate from high school." What stage of death and dying describes this patient's current condition? A) Bargaining B) Denial C) Anger D) Depression Answer:

49) You observe a coworker telling a terminal cancer patient and her family, "Everything will be okay." Making false reassurances is considered: A) naive and uncompassionate. B) caring and supportive. C) professional and discreet. D) ambiguous and uncertain. Answer:

50) Which of the following behaviors would demonstrate that an EMT understands reactions to death and dying? A) Being tolerant of angry reactions by patients and family members B) Giving a dying patient hope that a cure can be found before the patient dies C) Providing spiritual guidance to patients who express anger at God D) Being firm with grieving family members and telling them they need to accept what has happened Answer:

51) Which three "Rs" are essential for the EMT to practice when reacting to danger? A) Retreat, radio, reevaluate B) Remember, respect, respond C) Ricochet, recover, re-entry D) Realize, react, reassess Answer:

52) What is the EMT's highest priority at the scene of a hazardous materials incident? A) Personal safety B) Identification of hazardous materials C) Patient care D) Safety of bystanders Answer:

55) You are first on the scene of a vehicle collision where a vehicle has gone off a bridge and is partially submerged. You are told that a person is still trapped in the vehicle. Your partner starts to take off his shoes and prepares to go in to save the victim. You stop your partner and tell him it is too dangerous. He tells you he is prepared to die to save a life. What is the best response to him? A) He is not only putting his life at risk, but also placing the lives of the professional rescuers unnecessarily at risk. B) His family will not receive any benefits if he is not trained in rescue and dies while attempting a rescue. C) The patient's family may sue him if he is not successful in rescuing him. D) He will force additional fire units to come to his aid unnecessarily and waste taxpayer money. Answer:

6) Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the modern emergency medical services (EMS) system? A) To have trained personnel respond quickly and provide emergency care on the scene, during transport, and at the hospital B) To have trained personnel capable of assessing and caring for injured and ill patients on the scene C) To have trained personnel understand the limitations of their training and "do no harm," while providing prompt transport to the hospital D) To have trained personnel knowledgeable in all aspects of prehospital care Answer:

61) What is a simple step EMTs can perform to help prevent the spread of flu in the prehospital environment? A) Place a surgical mask on suspected flu patients. B) Transport all patients with coughs to negative pressure rooms. C) Notify the CDC and local health department of flu cases. D) Encourage patients to get their H1N1 antivirals early in the flu season. Answer:

7) What has the modern emergency medical services (EMS) system been developed to provide? A) Prehospital care B) Prompt emergency response C) Safe emergency transportation D) Trained medical personnel Answer:

8) Which of the following is the most common gateway for hospital services for patients who need emergency medical assistance? A) Emergency department B) Emergency medical services system C) Surgical services department D) Emergency medical dispatch center Answer:

A clot cannot form without which of the following blood components? A. Platelets B. White blood cells C. Corpuscles D. Plasma

A postal worker has been attacked by a dog during her mail delivery route. The patient is a 54-year-old female with several dog bites on her lower extremities and left arm. The worst of these bites is located on the back of her right leg just above the ankle. How can you explain the location of this injury using anatomical landmarks? A. The bite is located on the posterior aspect of the calf distal to the knee. B. The bite is located on the anterior aspect of the calf just distal to the knee. C. The bite is located on the anterior aspect of the calf just proximal to the knee. D. The bite is located on the posterior aspect of the calf just proximal to the knee.

All of the following are common techniques for measuring blood pressure, except: A. Rhythm method B. Auscultation C. Palpation D. Blood pressure monitor

As you approach the scene of a motorcycle accident, you see an EMR trying to stop the bleeding on the patient's left arm. You notice that the EMR has blood covering the front of his shirt and running down his arms. What Standard Precautions are needed? A. Gloves, gown, and face mask with eye shield are needed. B. There is no need for Standard Precautions because you have no open injuries. C. Gloves, gown, eye protection, and an N-95 or HEPA respirator are needed. D. Gloves and gown only are needed.

As you are assessing a 32-year-old asthmatic woman who has called EMS due to difficulty breathing, her husband enters the home through a back door and shouts, "Get your hands off her; she doesn't need your help. She needs to be taught a lesson about her smart mouth." Which of the following is the best course of action? A. Request police backup immediately and consider leaving the scene. B. Attempt to remove the patient from the home and continue treatment en route to the hospital. C. Let the husband know that his behavior is inappropriate, and if it continues you will call for the police. D. Continue assessment and respond that the patient is sick and needs medical attention.

As you arrive at the scene of a house fire, a very upset man screams at you to help his young son, who is trapped under a piece of burning wood on the ground. Which of the following should you do first? A. Size-up the scene before acting. B. Perform an initial assessment on the patient. C. With the father's help, grab the boy by the arms and pull him from underneath the wood. D. Use a blanket to put out the fire on the piece of wood.

A 16-year-old patient presents with labored breathing and increased respiratory rate, increased heart rate, and leaning forward with his hands on his knees. His skin is pink and his accurate pulse oximetry is 96. This patient is suffering from respiratory: A. distress. B. arrest. C. failure. D. hypoxia.

A 26-month-old toddler is reported to have fallen and lacerated his chin. His mother did not witness the fall. As you proceed through your assessment, your partner reports that she's concerned about his heart rate, which she measures as 64. She's checked it twice. Your knowledge of normal vital signs for a patient this age suggests that his pulse rate is: A. too slow. B. not reliable. C. within normal range. D. too fast.

Before applying a nonrebreather mask, the EMT should take what action? A. Inflate the reservoir bag and make sure the bag does not deflate during inspiration. B. Make sure the oxygen supply has greater than 2,000 psi in the tank. C. Insert a properly sized oropharyngeal airway. D. Connect the mask to a humidified oxygen source and wait for the patient's heart rate to slow.

Cells make up tissues, tissues make up organs, and organs make up: A. systems. B. organelles. C. groups. D. sections.

Certain blood vessels that contain specialized sensors that detect the level of internal pressure and transmit messages to the nervous system, which then triggers the smooth muscle in the vessel walls to make any needed size adjustments, are called: A. pressure receptors. B. volume receptors. C. chemoreceptors. D. stretch receptors.

During the primary assessment of an unresponsive two-month old infant, which pulse should be palpated? A. Brachial B. Radial C. Umbilical D. Carotid

Failure of the liver would result in which of the following? A. Inability to detoxify harmful substances in the bloodstream B. Inability to filter out old and damaged blood cells C. Inability to secrete insulin D. None of the above

How far apart should your hands be when using a power grip? A. 10 inches B. 6 inches C. 15 inches D. 24 inches

If capillary refill is assessed in a child patient, how long should it take the normal pink color to return to the nail bed? A. 2 seconds or less B. 5 seconds or less C. 4 seconds or less D. 3 seconds or less

In a blood pressure reading of 120/80, the 120 is measuring what body process? A. Systolic blood pressure; when the left ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the arteries B. Systolic blood pressure; when the right ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the veins C. Diastolic blood pressure; when the left ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the arteries D. Systolic blood pressure; when the left ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the veins

In a conscious adult patient, which of the following pulses should be assessed initially? A. Radial B. Brachial C. Pedal D. Carotid

In assessing a patient's breathing, what is your first question? A. Is he breathing? B. Is he big sick or little sick? C. Is his breathing adequate or inadequate? D. Is he alive or dead?

In normal exhalation, the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax to contract the chest, which creates a positive pressure. This is what type of process? A. Passive B. Inspiration C. Active D. Respiration

In the normal drive to breathe, chemoreceptors are stimulated by: A. high carbon dioxide. B. low carbon dioxide. C. high oxygen. D. diffusion.

In the primary assessment, which of the following is NOT an acceptable method of assessing the patient's circulatory status? A. Taking a blood pressure reading B. Assessing the patient's skin color C. Checking a radial pulse D. Looking for serious bleeding

Infancy is defined as the stage of life from birth to: A. 12 months. B. 9 months. C. 15 months. D. 18 months.

Injuries to the brain and spinal cord, sepsis, and severe allergic reactions can cause what similar cardiovascular problem? A. Loss of tone B. Increased SVR C. Permeability D. Hypertension

In EMS, which of the following BEST describes the term intervention? A. Taking steps to correct a problem B. Determining if there is a problem C. Decreasing the EMT's liability for negligence D. Creating a permanent record of patient care

Not all inspired air reaches the alveoli; 150 mL is stopped in the airway leading to the alveoli. This is called: A. dead air space. B. tidal volume. C. vital capacity. D. bronchial air

Patients in late adulthood are likely to face which of the following challenges? A. Self-worth B. Tax burden C. Hygiene D. All of the above

Shock occurs as a result of which of the following? A. Inadequate perfusion B. Adequate perfusion C. C/Q match D. V/Q match

The abdominal quadrants include all of the following except the: A. right medial. B. left upper. C. right upper. D. left lower.

The basic nutrient of the cell and the building block for energy is: A. glucose. B. water. C. oxygen. D. protein.

The bone most commonly fractured with a "broken hip" is the: A. femur. B. tibia. C. ilium. D. fibula.

The disruption of lung tissue by mechanical forces or medical problems can upset diffusion, which is defined as: A. the process of gas exchange between the alveoli and the capillaries. B. the ability of the lungs to expand equally during inspiration. C. maintaining enough positive pressure in the pleural space to keep the lungs from collapsing. D. the exchange of gases in the bronchi.

The first set of vital sign measurements obtained are often referred to as which of the following? A. Baseline vital signs B. Normal vital signs C. Standard vital signs D. None of the above

The human body is made up of ________ % water. A. 60 B. 17.5 C. 75 D. 7.5

The lower jaw bone is also known as the: A. mandible. B. maxillae. C. orbit. D. manubrium.

The metabolism that creates large amounts of carbon dioxide and lactic acid but generates little energy is called: A. anaerobic. B. homeostatic. C. hyperoxic. D. aerobic.

The pressure that is created when the heart pushes the blood throughout the circulatory system is called: A. hydrostatic pressure. B. osmotic pressure. C. hyperstatic pressure. D. oncotic pressure.

The pulse palpated on the top of the foot is called the ________ pulse. A. dorsalis pedis B. phalanx proximalis C. tibialis posterior D. suprametatarsal

Urgent moves are required when: A. performed for treatment of life threats along with precautions for spinal injuries. B. an emergency move is not possible. C. there are no life threats and conditions are stable. D. rapid transport is necessary.

What are the two most easily injured portions of the spine? A. Cervical and lumbar B. Lumbar and sacral C. Cervical and thoracic D. Sacral and coccygeal

What element does the cell need in order to NOT dehydrate and die? A. Water B. Glucose C. Proteins D. Oxygen

What is the largest bone of the lower leg? A. Tibia B. Patella C. Fibula D. Femur

What is the name of the heart dysfunction caused by an electrical source that causes the heart to beat too fast? A. Tachycardia B. Trauma C. Bradycardia D. Heart attack

What is the primary reason for an EMT to use specific and proper medical terminology? A. Medical communication needs to be exact and consistent. B. It will make patients and family members trust in the EMT's abilities more. C. People may think that an EMT is not intelligent or professional unless she uses medical terms. D. EMS providers can't bill for services unless the correct terminology is used in all documentation.

What is the type of metabolism that occurs when energy is created with a balance of adequate oxygen and nutrients? A. Aerobic B. Anaerobic C. Hypoxic D. Homeostatic

What system is a group of organs and glands designed for the specific purpose of reproduction? A. Reproduction system B. Lymphatic system C. Renal system D. Respiratory system

When a stretcher with a patient secured to it is elevated, what occurs? A. The center of gravity is raised and this causes a tip hazard. B. The patient feels more comfortable being at near normal height. C. The stretcher is more stable and easily pushed. D. The EMTs lessen the possibility of injury from being bent over the patient.

When considering the potential for injury from a fall, which of the following is LEAST important? A. Patient's weight B. Type of surface onto which the patient fell C. Height of the fall D. Whether the patient struck anything with his body on the way down

When discussing left and right in terms of anatomic locations, what do they refer to? A. Left and right from the patient's perspective. B. Anatomic left and right refer to the provider's left and right orientation when facing a patient in the anatomic position. C. What left and right refer to anatomically is dependent on the patient's positioning when care is provided. D. Whoever is speaking about the anatomic location determines left and right orientation.

When inserting an oropharyngeal airway, how many degrees do you need to rotate the airway so the tip is pointing down into the patient's pharynx? A. 180 B. 45 C. 90 D. 270

When should the EMT evaluate the need for Standard Precautions? A. An evaluation should be made throughout the call. B. An evaluation should be made before arrival on-scene. C. No evaluation is ever needed, since the precautions are the same for every call. D. An evaluation should be made once a general impression of the patient has been formed.

Which of the following BEST describes inadequate breathing? A. The minute volume is less than normal. B. The respiratory rate is faster than normal. C. The respiratory rate is slower than normal. D. The minute volume is greater than normal.

Which of the following are the abdominal regions created by drawing two imaginary lines intersecting at the navel? A. Abdominal quadrants B. Abdominal sextants C. Abdominal regions D. Abdominal planes

Which of the following are the vital signs that need to be recorded? A. Pulse, respiration, skin color, skin temperature and condition, pupils, and blood pressure B. Pulse, respiration, skin color, skin temperature, pupils, and blood pressure C. Pulse, respiration, skin color, skin temperature and condition D. Pulse, respiration, skin color, skin temperature and condition, pupils, blood pressure, and bowel sounds

Which of the following best describes an urgent move? A. Moving a patient from a car directly to a long spine board B. Pulling a patient by her feet across a parking lot C. Dragging a patient from a burning house using his shirt D. Using a sheet to move a patient from a bed to the stretcher

Which of the following describes the chief complaint? A. Reason why the patient summoned EMS B. Events immediately preceding the call for EMS C. Overall impression of the patient's condition D. All of the above

Which of the following describes Fowler's position? A. Sitting upright with the legs straight B. Lying flat on the back C. Lying on the side D. Lying on the stomach

Which of the following devices is best suited for maneuvering a patient through a narrow hallway? A. Flexible stretcher B. Long backboard C. Basket stretcher D. Wheeled stretcher

Which of the following devices should be used to carry a patient down the stairs whenever possible? A. Stair chair B. Basket stretcher C. Wheeled ambulance stretcher D. Scoop stretcher

Which of the following differences should be expected when assessing a pediatric patient, as compared to the adult patient? A. The normal respiratory rate is faster. B. An adult's tongue is proportionally larger than that of a child and should always be considered as a potential airway obstruction. C. The normal pulse rate is slower. D. Capillary refill is not as reliable an indicator of circulatory status.

Which of the following is NOT assessed during the "Breathing" phase of the primary assessment? A. Obtaining a pulse oximetry reading B. Determining the presence of respirations C. Counting the respiratory rate D. Determining the depth of respiration

Which of the following is NOT correct when performing a log roll? A. Place both feet flat on the ground. B. Keep your back straight. C. Use your shoulder muscles. D. Lean forward from the hips.

Which of the following is NOT part of the lower extremity? A. Carpals B. Patella C. Femur D. Pelvis

Which of the following is a disadvantage of oropharyngeal airways (OPAs)? A. They cannot be used in a patient with a gag reflex. B. They require the use of a water-soluble lubricant. C. They cannot be used in patients with a suspected skull fracture. D. They do not come in pediatric sizes.

Which of the following is acceptable for maintaining a seal between an oxygen cylinder and regulator? A. Gasket B. Medical grade adhesive tape C. Grease plug D. Pop-off valve

Which of the following is the BEST defense for an EMT when facing allegations of misconduct from a mentally ill patient? A. Providing accurate and complete documentation, supported by a third-party witness B. Making sure you and your partner get your stories straight before talking to anyone C. Having a clean employment record and lack of a criminal background D. Hiring a background investigator to discredit the accuser

Which of the following is the BEST way to assess a patient's skin temperature? A. Place the back of your hand against the patient's forehead. B. Place the back of your hand against the patient's abdomen. C. Place your cheek against the patient's forehead. D. Place your cheek against the patient's abdomen.

Which of the following is the purpose of the primary assessment? A. To detect and treat immediately life-threatening problems B. To find all of the patient's signs and symptoms C. To discover trends of improvement or deterioration in the patient's condition D. To detect dangers to the patient and/or EMS crew

Which of the following is true concerning scene size-up? A. The need for additional resources must be determined on both medical and trauma calls. B. Information from bystanders is not important on trauma calls. C. Determining the number of patients is not important on a medical call. D. Scene size-up does not play a role in determining the nature of the illness.

Which of the following is true concerning the potential for violence at the scene of an EMS call? A. An unusual lack of activity at the scene may signal impending violence against the EMT. B. Signs of impending violence are obvious if you know what to look for. C. The chance for violence is very low at emergency scenes. D. You do not need to worry about violence at an emergency scene once the police have secured it.

Which of the following is true concerning expiration? A. The diaphragm moves upward. B. The ribs move upward and outward. C. The intercostal muscles contract to force air out of the lungs. D. The chest cavity increases in size.

Which of the following is true regarding a patient who has a mental status of less than "alert"? A. His brain may not be getting enough oxygen. B. His condition does not indicate the need for oxygen. C. He is likely in a state of REM sleep. D. He has adequate circulation.

Which of the following makes up more than half of the volume of blood in the body? A. Plasma B. Platelets C. Red blood cells D. White corpuscles

Which of the following may cause a patient to exhibit abnormal behavior? A. Hypoxia B. Snakebites C. Gastroenteritis D. Allergic reaction

Which of the following organs functions as a reservoir for blood that can be used in case of blood loss? A. Spleen B. Liver C. Heart D. Thyroid gland

Which of the following patients should NOT have their airway opened using a head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver? A. A homeless person of undetermined age found lying unresponsive in an alley with no bystanders. B. A 50-year-old woman who choked on a piece of food while dining in a restaurant and was lowered to the floor by a waiter. C. A 35-year-old diabetic woman who is in the driver's seat of the car in her driveway, who becomes unresponsive while speaking to her husband. D. A 25-year-old man who is still unresponsive after a grand mal seizure.

Which of the following presentations would be considered normal during the "Breathing" phase of the primary assessment? A. Respiratory rate of 12 with adequate depth B. Respiratory rate of 28 with adequate depth C. Respiratory rate of 6 with shallow depth D. Respiratory rate of 16 with altered mental status

Which of the following questions will most likely illicit your patient's chief complaint? A. What made you call 911 this evening? B. Do you have any medical problems? C. How have you been feeling lately? D. Have you been drinking today?

Which of the following respiratory rates should be cause for alarm in a 2-month-old child? A. 16 breaths/min B. 32 breaths/min C. 28 breaths/min D. 40 breaths/min

Which of the following should always be done next for a behavioral patient once you have established scene safety? A. Conduct a primary assessment B. Restrain the patient C. Obtain baseline vital signs D. Assess the patient's blood glucose

Which of the following situations requires additional action by the EMT during scene size-up? A. The sound of a barking and growling dog upon approaching the door to a residence. B. A vehicle collision where bystanders are recording video on their phones. C. A bystander who is smoking a cigarette at the scene of an assault at a local park. D. A news media helicopter arrives and hovers overhead at the scene of a vehicle collision.

Which of the following sounds may be heard in lower respiratory obstruction? A. Wheezing B. Stridor C. Crowing D. Snoring

Which of the following structures do NOT form part of the thorax? A. Ischium B. 8th through 19th vertebrae C. Sternum D. Ribs

Which of the following structures is found in the lower airway? A. Bronchi B. Tonsils C. Pharynx D. Uvula

Which of the following structures receives deoxygenated blood from the body via the vena cavae? A. Right atrium B. Left atrium C. Right ventricle D. Left ventricle

Which of the following would be a normal set of vitals for a 4-year-old male patient? A. Heart rate 110/minute, respiratory rate 24/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg B. Heart rate 100/minute, respiratory rate 34/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 100 mmHg C. Heart rate 60/minute, respiratory rate 24/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg D. Heart rate 140/minute, respiratory rate 30/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 60 mmHg

Which of these patients would require a tracheostomy mask for supplemental oxygen administration? A. A patient with a stoma B. A patient with quadriplegia C. A patient with chronic bronchitis D. A patient with upper airway inflammation

Which organ secretes insulin after a person eats a large meal? A. Pancreas B. Spleen C. Liver D. Gallbladder

While transporting a patient with a traumatic wound to the back, you call in report to the receiving hospital over the radio. Due to radio static and background noise in the Emergency Department, the physician has had to ask you twice to repeat if the wound was superior or inferior. Why would this distinction be important? A. The location of the wound is important in determining which types of resources to have available when the patient arrives. B. It is a triage question to determine if the patient is critical or not so the hospital can prioritize. C. The answer is not necessarily important. The physician is just focusing on getting her standard questions answered while dealing with an inadequate radio system. D. The physician is just trying to determine if the wound is deep or not so she knows what to prepare for.

Why is inhalation described as an active process? A. It requires chest muscles to contract and use energy to move, creating a negative pressure. B. It uses oxygen to assist chest muscles to contract, creating a negative pressure. C. It requires the diaphragm to relax and use energy to move, creating a positive pressure. D. It requires chest muscles to relax and use energy to move, creating a positive pressure.

Why is it important to gather a detailed medical history when dealing with a psychiatric emergency? A. It will alert you to past issues as well as medication. B. It is not. You want to get the call resolved as quickly as possible and this will just delay it. C. It will help you to determine if the police are needed. D. It will help you to determine if you need to restrain the patient.

You and your partner are en route to a motor vehicle crash involving a tanker truck on a rural road. Dispatch informs you that fluid is leaking from the truck, that there are several bystanders passed out on the ground near the cab of the truck, and that a caller has reported the code that appears on a placard attached to the tanker truck. You should: A. consult the Emergency Response Guidebook. B. remove the bystanders from the scene. C. park downwind from the tanker truck. D. park about 50 feet from the truck.

You and your partner respond to the scene of a private residence for a patient who is a known diabetic patient. The patient is pacing and cursing as you approach. You should: A. request assistance from law enforcement personnel. B. immediately restrain the patient. C. approach the patient and firmly order him to sit with his hands in his lap. D. obtain a blood glucose level right away.

You are attempting to assess the blood pressure of a 35-year-old male at the scene of a multiple vehicle collision. The scene is very noisy and you are unable to clearly hear the patient's heartbeat. You should: A. obtain the blood pressure by palpation. B. use an automatic blood pressure machine. C. try using the patient's other arm. D. have your partner try auscultating the blood pressure.

You are attempting to replace the oxygen cylinder in your truck. After removing the regulator from the old cylinder, removing the old cylinder, and placing the new cylinder in the oxygen compartment, you attempt to connect the regulator. The new cylinder has a yellow stripe around it instead of a green one but was stored with the green cylinders. You are unable to get the regulator to seat properly and it will not turn. You should: A. remove the cylinder and get a green cylinder. B. replace the oxygen regulator with a new one. C. attempt to force the regulator onto the cylinder. D. put the old cylinder back on the truck.

You are called to the scene of a patient who fell approximately 5 feet off a stepladder to the floor of a third-story attic of a very old building. He is complaining of severe neck and back pain, and he has an obvious fractured ankle. You cannot get your stretcher past the first-floor stairs and your long spine board is not practical with the winding spiral staircase and the small attic access. What is the best device to safely get the patient out of the attic where he can be properly immobilized? A. Vest-type extrication device B. Flexible stretcher C. Stair chair D. Scoop stretcher

You are caring for a 25-year-old male patient that has been shot once in the head. The patient is in extremis (near the point of death) with a noticeable breathing pattern that alternates between no breathing and fast breathing. Your understanding of pathophysiology leads you to believe the breathing pattern may be due to damage to the section of his brain responsible for respiratory control, also known as the: A. medulla oblongata. B. thalamus. C. frontal lobe. D. cerebellum.

You are caring for a 4-month-old male patient who is reported to have vomited five times today. His parents describe no other associated symptoms or complaints. The patient is lying on the couch with a pacifier in his mouth, smiling at you. Developmentally, you would expect a patient of this age to be able to: A. drool without swallowing. B. say the word "no." C. have attachment anxiety or fear strangers. D. sit up without assistance.

You are moving an elderly patient down the stairs using a stair chair. The patient is alert and very anxious. What should you do prior to moving the patient to prevent her from grabbing the railing and causing you to fall? A. Explain to the patient what you are doing and advise her to hold her hands together and not let go until you are finished moving her. B. Place the patient on oxygen during the move to calm her down. C. Use a strap to safely secure the patient's arms to the chair without causing any loss of circulation to the patient's extremities. D. Gently tie the patient's hands together until you are downstairs to prevent her from unconsciously grabbing the railing.

You are transporting a patient to the hospital from a motor vehicle crash. Your patient's initial blood pressure was 88/52. You should reassess blood pressure: A. at least every 5 minutes. B. only if the patient gets worse. C. only if the pulse rate changes. D. at least every 15 minutes.

You are ventilating a cardiac arrest patient when he begins to vomit copious amounts of large pieces of undigested food. Which of the following would be most effective in clearing the airway? A. Using large bore suction tubing without a tip or catheter attached B. Irrigating the mouth with sterile water to dilute the material before suctioning C. Using a rigid pharyngeal suction tip D. Using a 14 French suction catheter

You are ventilating a 6-year-old child and note that his heart rate has decreased from 70 to 54. Which of the following is NOT appropriate? A. Notify medical control that the patient's condition has improved. B. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and continue ventilating. C. Increase the force of ventilations. D. Check the flow of oxygen reaching the bag-valve-mask device.

You find a teenage male lying supine in his bedroom. You hear gurgling sounds from the patient's mouth and see vomit with pill fragments on the floor. You should FIRST: A. suction the airway. B. ventilate with oxygen. C. perform chest thrusts. D. identify the pills.

You find a middle-aged unresponsive man lying prone on the ground near a ladder. You should FIRST: A. manually immobilize his head. B. move the ladder out of the way. C. pick him up with a scoop stretcher. D. roll him over to a supine position.

You have arrived at the scene of a call for a "man down." As you enter the residence you note that your patient is a male in his mid-60s who is awake but does not seem to acknowledge your presence. He is perspiring profusely, has cyanosis of his ears and lips, and has rapid, shallow respirations. Which of the following should you do first? A. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask and supplemental oxygen. B. Obtain the patient's medical history. C. Listen to his lung sounds. D. Check for a radial pulse.

You have a 38-year-old patient who has fainted. Following your local protocol you use a light wave device to determine the SpO2. As the EMT, you attach the device on the patient's finger, which gives you a reading of 91. What does that reading indicate? A. Mild hypoxia B. Significant hypoxia C. Severe hypoxia D. Normal results

You have performed a head tilt-chin lift maneuver on a 17-month-old boy and are attempting to ventilate him with a bag-valve mask. You are experiencing a lot of resistance with each breath and the chest is barely rising. Prior to attempting ventilations again, you should: A. perform chest thrusts. B. ease the head forward a little. C. tilt the head back further. D. finger sweep the airway.

You have responded to a call about a "psychiatric patient" to find a 24-year-old woman talking to herself in her home. She is rocking back and forth and you can see from a distance that she is perspiring profusely. You also see an empty medication bottle on the floor. She does not acknowledge your presence. When you attempt to speak to her, she continues to talk to herself as if you were not there. Which of the following should be included in your actions at the scene? A. Ensure that law enforcement is responding and wait for their arrival. B. Look through the house with your partner to try to find some clues to the patient's problem. C. Distract her so your partner can look around the house. D. Shake the patient's shoulder to check for responsiveness to physical stimuli.

You have responded to a multiple casualty incident involving an overturned bus. Patients have been thrown around the interior of the bus and several are piled on top of each other. What type of move would you perform to gain access to the most critically injured patients? A. Emergency move B. Non-urgent move C. Urgent move D. Extremity lift

You respond to a call at a park where you find a 550-pound patient who has fallen down a slope near a creek. As you and your partner discuss the situation, you decide to call a second unit for lifting assistance. Once the patient is on a stretcher, how would the additional two personnel help in this lift? A. You place one person on each corner of the stretcher to balance the weight and share in the lifting. B. You will place two persons at the head of the stretcher, one at the foot, and one to act as a spotter. C. You will place two persons at the foot, one at the head, and the other to act as a safety anchor with a rope. D. They would position themselves half way up the slope to take over when you and your partner get fatigued.

You respond to a patient who is choking. The victim is suffering from the most common of airway obstructions. This would indicate that the problem is in the ________ airway. A. upper B. alveoli C. lower D. bronchial

You respond to a 48-year-old morbidly obese female patient. Her adult daughter called you because she has not gotten up from her oversized recliner chair in over a week. She has tried to help her out of the chair but states that each time her mother screams in agony. The foul odor presence of urine and feces is strong around the patient. Her feet do not touch the ground, and any attempt to lift the patient by her arms or scoot her down to the end of the chair results in severe pain to the patient. You are finding it nearly impossible to get a good grip on the patient. How will you get her out of the chair? A. Vest-type extrication device B. Soft stretcher C. Long spine board D. Lie the chair back and use a scoop stretcher

Your patient is a 30-year-old female who may have overdosed on antidepressant medications. On your arrival, she is lying supine on her bed with her head on a pillow. She is unresponsive to painful stimuli and is snoring. She appears to be pale and her skin is cool and clammy. What should you do first? A. Remove the patient's pillow. B. Insert an oropharyngeal airway. C. Check the patient's pulse. D. Apply oxygen by nonrebreather mask.

Your patient is a 33-year-old man who has been ejected from his vehicle during a high-speed collision. During your primary assessment it is discovered that he is not moving, does not appear to have adequate respirations, and has suffered moderate external bleeding. Which of the following should be done first? A. Open the airway. B. Control the bleeding with direct pressure. C. Begin bag-valve-mask ventilations. D. Check the patient's carotid pulse.

Your patient is a 6-year-old male who appears very anxious, is using increased effort during expiration, and has a fever. He is wheezing and has a respiratory rate of 34. The patient's skin is very warm and dry. He does not have any cyanosis. The child is drooling and his mother states that he complained of a sore throat and pain on swallowing earlier in the afternoon. Which of the following conditions is most likely causing the patient's distress? A. Epiglottitis B. COPD C. Cystic fibrosis D. Pneumonia

Your patient is warm, dry, pink, and denies shortness of breath. Which of the following should the EMT expect to find when evaluating the patient's oxygen saturation? A. 98% B. 95% C. 102% D. 91%

Your patient, a 29-year-old female, was the front seat passenger in a vehicle that was struck in the passenger's side door by another vehicle that ran a red light. Which of the following is most likely to have occurred? A. The patient's body was pushed forcefully out from under her head, causing injury to the cervical spine. B. The patient took the "down and under" pathway, causing trauma to her lower extremities. C. The patient took the "up and over" pathway, striking her head on the windshield. D. The patient impacted the steering wheel with her chest, causing a fracture of the sternum.

Of the following patients, which injury is the highest priority to receive controlled hyperventilation? A 25-year-old female victim of battery who is awake but complains of a headache and has bloody fluid draining from her nose and left ear A 15-year-old female who was ejected from a vehicle, struck her head on a tree, and displays decerebrate movements in response to painful stimuli A 25-year-old male who regained consciousness one or two minutes after being struck on the head by a baseball bat and is now asking repetitive questions A 70-year-old male who struck his head when he fell in the parking lot, has a large laceration on his forehead, and is disoriented

A 15-year-old female who was ejected from a vehicle, struck her head on a tree, and displays decerebrate movements in response to painful stimuli

For which of the following patients would the use of a short spine immobilization device be appropriate? A 52-year-old female who crashed her vehicle into the front of a convenience store and who is awake, oriented, and complaining of neck pain An unresponsive driver who was found in the driver's seat of a pickup truck that crashed into a tree A 15-year-old male who struck a curb with his motorized scooter and flipped over the handlebars A 77-year-old female who fell down a flight of stairs and is in an awkward position lying on her side on the landing

A 52-year-old female who crashed her vehicle into the front of a convenience store and who is awake, oriented, and complaining of neck pain

You are on the scene of a church bus roll-over collision. There are 30 passengers involved. As triage officer, which one of the following patients should you assign the highest priority?

A 70-year-old woman who is awake but having difficulty breathing and has absent lung sounds on the right side

For which of the following wounds should the EMT apply an absorbent dressing moistened with sterile saline and then cover it with an occlusive dressing?

A gunshot wound to the abdomen from which a loop of intestine is protruding

What is Stridor?

A high pitched sound generated by an obstructed upper airway

Anemia is

A lack of a normal number of red blood cells in the circulation

Which of the following BEST describes the location of the mid-axillary line?

A line from the center of the armpit, extending vertically down the side of the chest

Continuous cycler-assisted peritoneal dialysis (CCPD)

A machine fills and empties the abdominal cavity 3-5 times a night while the person sleeps

What should you place behind a child's shoulders to help keep their airway open?

A pad, because laying flat for them can close the airway

Which of the following cause the pulse oximetry to give a false or incorrect reading?

A patient in shock or hypothermia, carbon monoxide and certain poisonings, fingernail polish, excessive movements, poor batteries

A patient with jugular vein distention (JVD) is most likely suffering from which of the following injuries?

Which of the following patients is at risk for failure of the cardiopulmonary system?

A patient with severe asthma or COPD

Which of the following is an accurate definition of a flail chest?

A section of the chest wall that is unstable, leading to breathing problems

You are managing a patient who is being extricated from a vehicle by a rescue crew using hydraulic tools. Which of the following items should you use in order to protect your patient during the extrication process?

A short spine board to prevent debris from contacting the patient

Upon assessment of your patient, you notice that he has cool, sweaty skin. This finding is best described as which of the following?

A sign

Which of the following BEST defines domestic terrorism?

A small group of people directing violent acts at the population or government without foreign influence

Which of the following is adequate protection for the EMT's head while at the scene of an auto extrication?

A standard construction hardhat

Which of the following BEST describes the medical condition of shock?

A state of inadequate tissue perfusion

What is the correct terminology for a wound in which a vacuum has been created within the chest, drawing air into the thorax with each breath?

A sucking chest wound

What is a Nasopharyngeal Airway?

A tube inserted through the nose to maintain an open airway

Patient care for complications of dialysis

ABCs Control any serious bleeding from site Oxygen Be aware patient may present with signs of shock Transport bag of dialysis fluid with patient

Patient care for someone who has missed dialysis

ABCs Obtain BP in arm without fistula Place in position of comfort Oxygen at 15 L/m Monitor vitals Transport to a hospital with dialysis capabilities

Which of the following are the abdominal regions created by drawing two imaginary lines intersecting at the navel?

Abdominal quadrants

Coagulopathy

Abnormal clotting of blood

Which of the following respiratory rates would NOT be found in a patient experiencing respiratory distress?

Absent

Someone who has more hair than average on his body is at a higher risk than someone with less hair to be exposed to a toxin by which of the following routes?

Absorption

A(n) _______________ set of vital signs is important for critical decision making for the EMT.

Accurate

Which of the following BEST describes the origins of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? Acquired disease Congenital disease Either a congenital or acquired disease Neither a congenital nor acquired disease

Acquired disease

Why should you avoid aggressive hyperventilation with a BVM?

Additional air may be introduced into the stomach

Normal breathing rates

Adult: 12-20/min Child: 15-30/min Infant: 25-50/min (minimum of 20)

Which of the following is NOT an example of a specialty rescue team?

Advanced cardiac life support

________ patients are at high risk for acquiring the inherited disorder called sickle cell anemia.

African American

On arrival at a vehicle collision, you observe a small fire in the engine compartment. A bystander is attempting to smother the fire with a jacket as you approach with an A-B-C extinguisher from your ambulance. Which of the following is the best method of extinguishing the fire?

Aim at the base of the fire and use short bursts until the fire is out.

While assessing a patient with a laceration to the neck, the EMT must be aware that which of the following conditions may develop? Deep vein thrombosis Air embolus Air thrombosis Deep vein embolus

Air embolus

Ventilation

Air is moved into and out of the chest

A 44-year-old male involved in a collision at 50 mph struck the windshield of his vehicle with his face. Which of the following injuries should you prepare to treat? Cervical spine trauma Brain injury Airway obstruction All of the above

All of the above

A terrorist incident may have features in common with which of the following types of incidents?

All of the above

An inaccurate oxygen saturation reading can result in all of the following EXCEPT:

All of the above

Anthrax can infect an individual through which of the following routes of exposure?

All of the above

At which of the following locations is an EMT likely to encounter a patient using an advanced medical device? Nursing home Specialty care center Private residence All of the above

All of the above

During a power failure, how should the EMT verify adequate ventilations are being administered to an unresponsive patient with a tracheostomy tube using a bag-valve mask? Observe for improving skin color. Ensure a good connection between the bag-valve mask and the tracheostomy tube. Observe for chest rise and fall. All of the above

All of the above

In which of the following settings should the EMT be alert to the possibility of hazardous materials emergencies?

All of the above

Obesity increases the risk for which of the following health problems? Liver disease Type 2 diabetes Respiratory problems All of the above

All of the above

Under which of the following conditions are safety vests with reflective trim effective in increasing the visibility of the EMT?

All of the above

Which of the following human factors can lead to an increased risk of injury for an EMT at the scene of a vehicle collision?

All of the above

Which of the following injuries may produce distended neck veins (JVD)?

All of the above

Which of the following injuries requires the use of an occlusive dressing?

All of the above

Which of the following injuries requires the use of an occlusive dressing?

All of the above

Which of the following is a consideration when responding to a terrorist incident?

All of the above

Which of the following is a feature of a good disaster plan?

All of the above

Which of the following is a function of the rehabilitation sector in a hazardous materials incident?

All of the above

Which of the following is a function of the skin?

All of the above

Which of the following is a sign of possible brain injury? A deep laceration of the scalp Projectile vomiting Irregular breathing pattern All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following is an advantage of removing the roof of a vehicle that has sustained major damage in a collision?

All of the above

Which of the following is an important reason for controlling spectators at the scene of an extrication incident?

All of the above

Which of the following is of concern with a puncture wound?

All of the above

Which of the following is of concern with a puncture wound?

All of the above

Which of the following is true concerning lacerations?

All of the above

Which of the following is true concerning lacerations?

All of the above

Which of the following may be a clue that an incident is the result of terrorist violence?

All of the above

Which of the following may be a hazard of an improperly fitting cervical collar? Allows hyperextension of the neck Prevents the patient from opening his mouth Allows flexion of the neck All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following should be considered during the scene size-up of a hazardous materials emergency?

All of the above

Which of the following should the EMT consider when protecting a patient during extrication

All of the above

While on the scene of an emergency call involving a patient who is dependent upon a medical device for survival, the EMT can ask which of the following individuals about the specifics of the device? The patient's family The patient The patient's home health aid or nurse All of the above

All of the above

While ventilating a conscious patient's tracheostomy tube with a connected bag-valve mask, the EMT should verify the patient's comfort level for which of the following? The ventilation volume The ventilation pressure The ventilation rate All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following is NOT appropriate in caring for a patient with closed soft-tissue injuries and a significant mechanism of injury?

All of the answer choices are appropriate.

Which of the following injuries does NOT produce distended neck veins?

All of the answer choices may cause distended neck veins.

Stabilizing a vehicle is unnecessary when a vehicle is on its roof with:

All roof supports collapsed.

Terrorist incidents typically involve all of the following agents EXCEPT:

Allergens.

You are just leaving the scene of a multiple-casualty incident with two Priority 1 patients. Which of the following is appropriate regarding communication?

Allow the transportation sector officer to notify the receiving facility.

What conditions can result in a loss of muscle tone?

Altered mental status Neurologic disorders

When placing cribbing:

Always squat, so you can move away quickly.

What is a Patent Airway?

An airway that is open and clear and will remain open and clear

What constitutes a multiple-casualty incident (MCI)?

An event that places a great demand on EMS equipment and personnel resources

Which of the following describes the midline of the body?

An imaginary line dividing the body into equal right and left halves

Which of the following BEST describes an evisceration?

An open wound of the abdomen from which organs protrude

At which of the following locations could you palpate a malleolus?

Ankle

You are beginning triage at the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which a commuter train has derailed. Which of the following should you do first?

Announce that everyone who can get up and walk needs to go to the parking lot of a nearby building.

What is another term for the frontal aspect of the body?

An outbreak of which of the following illnesses would be LEAST likely to occur naturally?

Anthrax

A fracture of which of the following bones would be considered a skull fracture? Temporal bone Nasal bones Maxilla Any of the above

Any of the above

A patient being transported by ambulance to the hospital can have his blood pressure measured by which of the following methods?

Any of the above

What is considered the lower airway?

Anything below Glottic

What is considered the upper airway?

Anything from the Glottic and up

Which of the following traumatic chest injuries may result in massive, often fatal internal hemorrhage?

Aortic dissection

Which of the following traumatic chest injuries may result in massive, often fatal internal hemorrhage?

Aortic dissection

While palpating the radial pulses of a patient who was involved in a motor vehicle crash, you notice a difference in the strength of the pulses bilaterally. This is a finding that you suspect may be associated with:

Aortic dissection.

A teenage male has fallen onto a railing while skateboarding. He complains of right-sided chest pain and moderate dyspnea. Exposure of the chest reveals a section of his ribs that is moving opposite of the rest of the ribs. You should:

Apply a bulky dressing over the section.

Your patient is a 38-year-old male driver of a vehicle that left the roadway and struck a bus stop shelter and a tree. He is conscious and alert, he has some abrasions on his forehead, his skin is warm and dry, and he has a strong radial pulse and no difficulty breathing. Which of the following descriptions represents the MOST appropriate way for removing the patient from the vehicle? Apply a cervical collar and perform rapid extrication onto a long backboard. Have the patient stand up and then do a "standing take-down" onto a long backboard. Place the backboard on the stretcher and have the patient stand, turn, and lie down on the backboard while you maintain manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine. Apply a cervical collar and short spine immobilization device before removing to a long backboard.

Apply a cervical collar and short spine immobilization device before removing to a long backboard.

Bleeding from open abdominal injuries should initially be controlled with which one of the following techniques?

Applying direct pressure to the wound

Bleeding from open abdominal injuries should initially be controlled with which one of the following techniques?

Applying direct pressure to the wound

Your patient is a 21-year-old male who slid head-first down a water slide at his fraternity house and impacted the bales of straw that his fraternity brothers had erected as a barrier to keep participants from sliding onto the adjacent highway. The patient is conscious and complaining of neck pain. Which of the following should be included in your assessment? If the patient has no numbness or tingling, ask him to stand and try to walk. Apply painful stimuli to his extremities, starting distally and moving closer and closer to the body. Ask the patient to cautiously touch his chin to his chest to check for range of motion. Ask the patient to grasp and squeeze your hands.

Ask the patient to grasp and squeeze your hands.

Patient with slow ventilation

Assess, explain, place mask, squeeze with their inhalations and slowly increase rate

Patient with rapid ventilation

Assess, explain, place mask, squeeze with their inhalations and slowly lower rate

Which of the following is true about using a siren when responding to an emergency? All drivers will pull over to the right and stop when they hear your siren. You can safely assume that all motorists will hear your siren. Assume that some motorists will hear your siren but ignore it. If a vehicle won't move out of your way, pull close behind it and sound your siren.

Assume that some motorists will hear your siren but ignore it.

You respond to a patient who was hit in the face with a chair. Upon arrival, you notice a patient leaning in the corner and bleeding profusely from the mouth and nose. Your first action should be which of the following? Assure scene safety. Suction the airway and have the patient lean back. Take c-spine precautions. Place the patient on a nonrebreather mask at 15 lpm.

Assure scene safety.

You are transporting a patient to the hospital from a motor vehicle crash. Your patient's initial blood pressure was 88/52. You should reassess blood pressure:

At least every 5 minutes.

Where do baseline vital signs fit into the sequence of patient assessment?

At secondary assessment

In which of the following locations is the femoral pulse palpated?

At the groin

You are unable to find a radial pulse on a patient from a motor vehicle crash. You should:

Attempt to find the carotid pulse

Which of the following methods should the EMT attempt first when transporting a patient to the hospital?

Auscultation

The method of taking blood pressure by using a stethoscope to listen to the characteristic sounds produced is called:

Auscultation.

Which of the following terms describes the heart muscle's ability to generate its own electrical impulses?

Automaticity

To respond to a hazardous materials incident, the EMT should be trained at which of the four levels?

Awareness

11) Which of the following pathogens can live in dried blood for days and should be a major concern for EMS providers even while cleaning contaminated equipment? A) Tuberculosis B) Hepatitis B C) Hepatitis A D) AIDS Answer:

12) Healthcare employers are required by law to provide a hepatitis B ________ available to employees free of charge. A) prophylaxis B) vaccine C) cure D) immunity Answer:

15) What BEST defines the evaluation of the patient's condition in order to provide emergency care? A) Patient access B) Patient assessment C) Medical intervention D) Patient advocacy Answer:

15) Which one of these groups is at greatest risk of contracting and transmitting tuberculosis? A) Current and former smokers B) Immunosuppressed patients C) Uranium mine workers D) Healthcare practitioners Answer:

19) You respond to a laceration call. When you arrive on-scene, you walk into the house and find a person suffering from a severe wrist laceration from a broken window. Without thinking, you immediately grab the wrist and apply direct pressure to the wound. You then realize that, in your hurry to save a life, you forgot to put on your gloves. You look down to see your hand is covered in blood. When practical, you immediately wash your hands thoroughly. What is your next best action? A) Report the exposure incident because it is the law and you could be fined a large sum of money for failing to report the exposure. B) Report the exposure so you can protect yourself from any accidental infection. C) Report the exposure. Failure to report the exposure may result in you not receiving financial compensation for a potential line-of-duty injury. D) If your hands had no open wounds, it is not required to report the exposure as there is no risk of infection, and you could get in trouble at work for failure to follow policy. Answer:

23) The tuberculin skin test (TST), formerly known as the purified protein derivative (PPD) test, is used to: A) determine if a person has infected others with TB. B) detect a person's exposure to tuberculosis. C) inoculate healthcare workers against TB infections. D) prevent tuberculosis from spreading following an exposure. Answer:

28) You have just come on duty. The EMT on the previous shift complains to you that the QI manager was giving him grief because he did not document three sets of vital signs on the patient record. The EMT is angry and does not understand why documenting three sets of vital signs is so important. What is the best answer you could give him? A) Vital signs are something you have to fill out because the state requires it. B) The recording of three sets of vital signs demonstrates that you were trending the patient's condition. C) It is important you show the QI manager that you are a team player. D) The report looks better when all the boxes are filled out. Answer:

31) The EMT's role in the quality improvement process includes becoming involved in the quality process, keeping carefully written documentation, obtaining feedback from patients and the hospital staff, continuing your education, and which of the following? A) Writing protocols and standing orders B) Maintaining your equipment C) Providing quality care D) Being a member of the QI committee Answer:

32) Which of the following is a role of the EMT in the quality improvement process? A) Taking responsibility for the actions of one's partner B) Writing complete patient care reports C) Critiquing performance of one's partner D) Assuring personal safety Answer:

39) Which of the following behaviors would be considered a common sign of stress rather than an acute psychological problem? A) Failure to use PPE appropriately on a regular basis B) Irritability with friends, family, coworkers, or patients C) Flashbacks, nightmares, and feelings of detachment D) Increased speeding and reckless driving Answer:

41) What is a positive, healthy way to help deal with stress? A) Caffeine to "get up and go" B) Regular physical exercise C) Adding workload to a busy regular schedule D) Drinking alcohol to "unwind" Answer:

44) Critical Incident Stress Debriefings (CISDs): A) are always recommended. B) are now less common than they once were. C) must be held from 2 to 4 hours following an incident to be effective. D) have been replaced with "defusings." Answer:

53) What reference provides important information regarding hazardous materials, emergency care, and procedures in case of accidental fire or release; supplies definitions of placard colors and identification numbers; and should be standard issue on-board all ambulances and rescue units? A) Accidental Exposure and Contamination Guide B) Emergency Response Guidebook C) Emergency Preparedness and Response Plan D) Safety Data Sheets Answer:

54) You are dispatched to the staging area of a terrorist-related chemical exposure. The incident commander asks you to stand by while hazmat personnel bring patients to the cold zone. As an EMT on-board an ambulance, what statement BEST describes your role? A) Triage patients to be decontaminated. B) Transport decontaminated patients. C) Coordinate hazmat response. D) Transport patients to be decontaminated. Answer:

60) Which of the following pathogens is transmitted through contact with open wounds or sores? A) Pertussis B) Staphylococcus C) Rubella D) Meningitis Answer:

62) Which of the following provides the greatest personal safety for an EMT working at a motor vehicle collision? A) Nonslip footwear B) Reflective outer clothing C) Portable radio D) Flashlight Answer:

7) Due to the high risk of an unstable work environment, EMTs responding to a motor vehicle crash may consider using ________ in addition to standard PPE. A) N-95 masks B) heavy-duty gloves C) face shields D) Level B hazmat suits Answer:

8) You are called to an assault on a homeless male. Dried blood from the trauma is visible around the patient's mouth and nose. During assessment, you note the patient has a productive cough. The patient says, "Don't worry, I'm not contagious. I've had this cough for a year." Describe the best approach regarding respiratory isolation. A) Isolate the patient with a nonrebreather mask. B) Mask yourself and the patient. C) Mask yourself only. D) Use gloves for PPE, as that's all that's needed. Answer:

9) Which of the following is true regarding proper hand cleaning? A) Soap and water should be used following any patient contact if the EMT does not wear gloves. B) If the EMT's hands are visibly dirty, an alcohol-based hand cleaner is not sufficient. C) In cases where soap and water and alcohol-based hand cleaners are not immediately available, bleach wipes should be used. D) Following patient contact, the EMT should soak his hands in warm soapy water for at least 30 seconds and then shake them vigorously. Answer:

A blood pressure in an adult patient of 134/84 mm Hg would be considered: A. hypertension. B. prehypertension. C. hypotension. D. normotension.

A patient with bilateral femur fractures would have which of the following? A. A femur fracture in which the bone ends have punctured the muscle and skin of the thigh B. Fractures of both femurs C. Two fractures in the same femur D. A femur fracture occurring with little or no trauma

An infection of the brain is called: A. multiple sclerosis. B. encephalitis. C. meningitis. D. rhinitis.

An injury caused by an object that passes through the skin or other body tissue is known as which of the following? A. Cavitating trauma B. Penetrating trauma C. Impaling trauma D. Puncturing trauma

At what point is the scene size-up complete? A. Upon stabilization of the c-spine B. At the end of the call C. When the number of patients has been determined D. When crashed vehicles have been stabilized

At which of the following stages is toilet-training most likely to begin? A. Infant B. Toddler C. Preschool age D. School age

A 21-year-old patient presents with labored breathing and audible wheezes, heart rate of 124, respiration 36; he has significantly altered mentation. What is the best treatment for this patient? A. Give mouth-to-mouth breathing with a nasal cannula, providing the patient with an increase of oxygen. B. Ventilate with a bag-valve mask with high oxygen or FROPVD. C. Supplement the breaths with high-concentration oxygen through a nonrebreather mask. D. Use a pocket mask, which will provide adequate oxygen to improve the patient's condition.

Breathing sounds that should concern the EMT are: A. retractions, and diaphragmatic breathing. B. snoring, gurgling, wheezing, and crowing. C. snoring, gurgling, wheezing, crowing, and crowning. D. tachycardia, retractions, and diaphragmatic breathing.

Carbon dioxide is transported back to the lungs in two ways: via the red blood cells and: A. white blood cells. B. plasma. C. oncotic pressure. D. hydrostatic pressure.

Concerning the use of humidified oxygen, which of the following is true? A. The water reservoir should be changed on a weekly basis. B. It is not of great benefit during short transports but can make the patient more comfortable. C. The water in the reservoir should be treated with chlorine tablets to prevent the growth of bacteria. D. It should only be used when assisting ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device.

For a patient without a possibility of spinal injury, which of the following carries should be used to move him from a bed to a stretcher? A. Direct-ground lift B. Draw-sheet method C. Firefighter's carry D. Extremity lift

If the weight being pulled is below the level of the EMT's waist, he should be in a(n) ________ position. A. squatting B. kneeling C. overhead D. feet-together

In which age group do you anticipate seeing patients who have less efficient cardiovascular systems and a reduction of previous blood volume? A. Early adulthood B. Late adulthood C. Infancy D. Middle adulthood

In EMS, what does mental status refer to? A. Any history of mental illness that the patient may have B. Patient's level of awareness of his surroundings C. Patient's general level of intelligence D. None of the above

Janie is having difficulty breathing. Her current tidal volume is 350 mL, and she is breathing at 28 times per minute. What would be her minute volume? A. 378 mL B. 9,800 mL C. 12.5 mL D. 342 mL

Middle adulthood is the stage of life from ________ to ________ years. A. 35; 55 B. 41; 60 C. 35; 65 D. 31; 60

Of the three types of oxygen flowmeters, which one can only be used upright? A. Constant flow selector valve B. Pressure-compensated flowmeter C. Hudson gauge flowmeter D. Bourdon gauge flowmeter

Patients in which age group tend to be very concerned with body image? A. Middle adulthood B. Adolescence C. Early adulthood D. School age

Perhaps the simplest way to determine if a patient has a patent airway is to: A. check for adequate chest rise. B. say "hello." C. auscultate for breath sounds. D. determine a respiratory rate.

Plasma oncotic pressure is created by the movement of which of the following? A. Constriction of the vessels B. Large proteins C. Dilation of the vessels D. Contraction of the heart

The abbreviation mm Hg indicates that the blood pressure is measured by which of the following comparisons? A. Millimeters of water B. Millimeters of mercury C. Atmospheric pressure D. Minimum heart rate

The device that some EMS services use as a light wave device to measure oxygen saturation (SpO2) is called a(n): A. sphygmomanometer. B. pulse oximeter. C. capnography. D. end tidal CO2 meter.

The increase in the work of breathing is reported as: A. troubled breathing. B. labored breathing. C. noisy breathing. D. obstructed breathing.

The mnemonic AVPU is used to evaluate which of the following? A. Patient's transport priority B. Patient's level of responsiveness C. EMT's general impression of the patient's condition D. Patient's chief complaintQ

The most vulnerable part of the cell is the: A. DNA. B. membrane. C. nucleus. D. mitochondria.

The oxygen flow rate for a nasal cannula should not exceed ________ liters per minute. A. 2 B. 6 C. 8 D. 4

The potential space between the lung and chest wall is called the: A. carina space. B. pleural space. C. dead space. D. lung space.

The sympathetic nervous response causes which of the following to occur? A. Breathe slower and deeper, blood vessels to dilate, heart to beat stronger and faster, skin to sweat, pupils to constrict, and skin to become pale B. Breathe faster and deeper, blood vessels to constrict, heart to beat stronger and faster, skin to sweat, pupils to dilate, and skin to become pale C. Breathe faster and deeper, blood vessels to constrict, heart to beat stronger and faster, skin to sweat, pupils to constrict, and skin to become warm D. Breathe faster and deeper, blood vessels to dilate, heart to beat stronger and slower, skin to sweat, pupils to dilate, and skin to become pale

The term cyanosis is used when the patient's skin color is noted to be which of the following characteristics? A. Yellow B. Blue-gray C. Very pale D. Flushed

The transition from childhood to adulthood is known as which of the following? A. Early adulthood B. Adolescence C. Transitional D. Young adult

The volume of air that is moved in and out of the chest in a normal breath cycle is called: A. expiration. B. tidal volume. C. inspiration. D. vital capacity.

The wrist is ________ to the elbow. A. dorsal B. distal C. inferior D. medial

The "fight-or-flight" response is activated by the: A. endocrine system. B. sympathetic nervous system. C. renal system. D. parasympathetic nervous system.

The jaw-thrust maneuver is the only _______ airway procedure for an unconscious patient with possible head, neck, or spine injury or unknown mechanism of injury. A. forbidden B. recommended C. required D. prohibited

To be effective, a suction unit must be able to generate air flow of ________ liters per minute and create a vacuum of ________ mmHg. A. 30; 30 B. 30; 300 C. 300; 30 D. 300; 330

To check the distal pulse of a patient with an injury to the forearm, the EMT would check for a pulse in which location? A. Armpit B. Wrist C. Throat D. Upper arm

Upon assessment of your patient, you notice that he has cool, sweaty skin. This finding is best described as which of the following? A. Symptom B. Sign C. Diagnosis D. Complaint

What are the signs of hypoxia? A. Warm dry skin, with difficulty in breathing, and hypertension B. Commonly seen as blue or gray skin, deterioration of patient's mental status like confusion or restlessness C. Shock caused from the lack of blood flowing to the vital organs like the brain and heart that is irreversible D. Disease process that robs the patient of adequate breathing and perfusion

What are the small bones that make up the wrist called? A. Tarsals B. Carpals C. Metatarsals D. Metacarpals

What causes the "seesaw" breathing pattern of young children? A. The cricoid cartilage and trachea are both more flexible than in adults, making breathing more difficult. B. They rely more on the diaphragm during breathing difficulty. C. The size of their tongues in proportion to their mouths. D. The pronounced inward curvature at the bottom of the ribcage.

What is FiO2? A. The concentration of gases in our expired air, which is referred to as the fraction of used oxygen B. The concentration of oxygen in our inhaled air, which is referred to as the fraction of inspired oxygen C. The amount of oxygen delivered via an airway adjunct in liters per minute D. The flow rate of gases provided to the patient by mask or nasal cannula

What is NOT one of the primary organs for the female reproductive system? A. Uterus B. Urethra C. Vagina D. Ovaries

What is a normal capillary refill time in a pediatric patient? A. 1 minute B. less than 2 seconds C. 3 seconds D. 5 seconds

What is a patent airway? A. A rigid suction device used to remove fluid and foreign objects from the pharynx to secure the airway B. A term used by EMS practitioners to indicate that the patient has a secured and opened airway necessary for life C. An airway that is in need of securing via an oral or nasal pharyngeal airway D. The condition of the patient's airway at the start of a lifesaving intervention

What is another name for the eye socket? A. Odontoid process B. Orbit C. Zygomatic arch D. Parietal bone

What is another name for the shoulder blade? A. Patella B. Scapula C. Clavicle D. Pharynx

What is another term for the frontal aspect of the body? A. Dorsal B. Anterior C. Posterior D. Caudal

What is the best description of the chest's mechanical functions? A. With the chest being an airtight space, the act of breathing occurs when the muscles of the diaphragm and intercostal relax, which causes the lungs to expand and air to flow into the lungs. B. The chest is a closed space with only one opening; the trachea, to inspire air; the diaphragm contracts down and the intercostal muscles expand the ribs, causing a negative pressure that fills the lungs with air. C. The diaphragm contracts, causing the intercostal muscles that are attached to the lungs to also contract, which moves the air into the lungs. D. The chest is a closed space, and the pleural space surrounds the lungs; when the diaphragm contracts and the intercostals expand, the chest and lungs move outward and downward, allowing expiration and gas exchange in the lungs.

What is the contraindication for the use of a scoop or orthopedic stretcher? A. Internal injuries B. Spinal injury C. Hip fracture D. Pelvic injury

What is the correct order of air flow from the nose to the alveoli in the lungs? A. Nose, hyperpharynx, pharynx, hypopharynx, trachea, mainstem bronchi, bronchi, alveoli B. Nose, nasopharynx, pharynx, hypopharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli C. Nose, pharynx, hypopharynx, epiglottis, trachea, crania, mainstem bronchi, alveoli D. Mouth, pharynx, epiglottis, hypopharynx, trachea, mainstem bronchi, crania, alveoli

What is the danger that an altered mental status can pose to a patient's breathing? A. Depressed alveolar function B. Loss of muscle tone and airway collapse C. Bronchospasms D. Hyperoxia

What is the long bone of the upper portion of the arm? A. Scapula B. Humerus C. Ulna D. Radius

What is the normal response of the pupils when exposed to bright light? A. Fluttering B. Constriction C. Dilation D. No effect

What is the preferred number of rescuers when using a stair chair? A. Only one with the track-like chair B. Three: two lifting and one spotting C. Four: one for each corner of the device D. Two: one in front and one in back

What is the pressure remaining in the arteries after the pulse wave has passed through? A. Venous pressure B. Diastolic blood pressure C. Resting blood pressure D. Systolic blood pressure

What law of physics explains why a patient's liver can be injured from the impact of his car with a tree? A. Law of kinetic energy B. Law of inertia C. Second law of motion D. Newton's law of moving energy

What signs and symptoms would indicate inadequate breathing in a patient? A. Decreased depth of respiration, decreased rate of breathing, hot clammy skin, normal mental status B. Increased effort to breathe, cyanosis, cool clammy skin, altered mental status C. Increased effort to breathe, increased depth of respiration, pink dry skin, normal mental status D. Rapid breathing, pale skin, and a normal mental status

What type of blood vessels surround the alveoli? A. Veins B. Capillaries C. Arterioles D. Arteries

What word would be used to refer to a patient's rapid breathing? A. Dyspnea B. Tachypnea C. Tachycardia D. Dyseffusion

When determining possible injuries suffered from a gunshot wound, which of the following is true? A. Bullets pass in a straight line through the body from the point of entry to the exit wound. B. The EMT must be aware that bullets cause damage in more than one way. C. The EMT must ask the patient or bystanders exactly where the shooter was standing. D. The EMT must determine the caliber of ammunition involved.

When placing all fingers and the palm in contact with the object being lifted, you are using which of the following? A. Lock grip B. Power grip C. Vise grip D. Power lift

When pupils are dilated they are: A. elliptical or elongated in shape. B. larger than normal. C. irregularly shaped. D. smaller than normal.

When taking blood pressure, the cuff should be inflated to what point? A. Until the patient says it hurts B. 30 mmHg beyond the point where the pulse disappears C. Until the Velcro starts to crackle D. Until the gauge reads 200 mmHg

When the EMT checks the pupils he or she is checking for what three things? A. Movement, gaze, and equality B. Size, equality, and reactivity C. Reactivity, gaze, and equality D. Color, equality, and reactivity

When the heart contracts and forces blood into the arteries, the pressure created is known as the: A. diastolic blood pressure. B. systolic blood pressure. C. pulse pressure. D. central venous pressure.

Where should you position the weight of the object being lifted? A. As far from the body as possible B. As close to the body as possible C. To one side or the other D. An arm's length away from the body

Which of the following BEST describes the anatomic position? A. Standing in profile with the hands on the hips B. Standing, facing forward, with arms at the side, palms forward C. Standing, facing forward, with arms raised above the head D. Supine with arms crossed over the chest and knees slightly bent

Which of the following BEST describes the location of the mid-axillary line? A. A line drawn diagonally from the outer end of the clavicle to the navel B. A line from the center of the armpit, extending vertically down the side of the chest C. A line drawn horizontally from one armpit to the other, across the front of the body D. A line drawn vertically from the xiphoid process to the pubic bone

Which of the following BEST describes the proper placement of the blood pressure cuff? A. Midway between the elbow and shoulder B. Covering two-thirds of the upper arm C. One inch below the armpit D. Covering the patient's elbow

Which of the following BEST describes blunt-force trauma? A. The object is not sharp, but it penetrates the body when enough force is used. B. An object strikes the body, but it does not penetrate the body tissues. C. The object penetrates soft tissue, but it cannot penetrate bone. D. A rounded object impacts the body tissues.

Which of the following are the components of the nervous system? A. Spinal cord and motor nerves B. Brain, spinal cord, and nerves C. Brain and autonomic nerves D. Spinal cord and sensory nerves

Which of the following best describes body mechanics? A. Proper use of the body to protect patient safety B. Proper use of the body to facilitate lifting and moving objects C. Equipment designed to minimize stress on the user's body D. Both B and C

Which of the following colors identifies an oxygen cylinder? A. Blue and yellow B. Green and white C. Orange and red D. Black and tan

Which of the following is a good indication of an occluded airway? A. The patient is crying loudly. B. The patient has snoring respirations. C. The patient is alert. D. The patient is speaking clearly.

Which of the following is another name for an ambulance cot? A. Stair chair B. Wheeled ambulance stretcher C. Scoop stretcher D. Reeve's stretcher

Which of the following is necessary to deliver oxygen to patients at a safe pressure? A. Flowmeter B. Regulator C. Float ball D. Filter

Which of the following is the best device to deliver high-concentration oxygen to a breathing patient? A. Simple face mask B. Nonrebreather mask C. Oropharyngeal airway D. Nasal cannula

Which of the following is the correct method of suctioning? A. Suction continuously, both while inserting and withdrawing the suction tip or catheter. B. Insert the catheter or tip to the desired depth prior to applying suction. C. Begin suctioning as you insert the suction tip or catheter into the mouth. D. Suction intermittently, both while inserting and withdrawing the suction tip or catheter.

Which of the following is true concerning the procedure for inserting a nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)? A. The length of the device is not as important as it is with oropharyngeal airways. B. The bevel should be turned toward the nasal septum. C. If a water-soluble lubricant is not available, a silicon spray can be substituted. D. It can only be placed in the right nostril.

Which of the following oxygen cylinders would normally run out after 50 minutes when flowing at 10 liters per minute? A. D tank B. E tank C. M tank D. G tank

Which of the following patients does NOT require the administration of supplemental oxygen? A. A 31-year-old male who is unresponsive due to an overdose of narcotics B. A 24-year-old woman who is breathing 28 times per minute after being in an argument with her husband C. A 60-year-old woman with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who can speak two or three words at a time without a breath D. A 6-year-old male with a history of asthma whose breath sounds are silent and who is drowsy

Which of the following patients should not be transported in a stair chair? A. Patient who is nauseated B. Patient with a suspected spinal injury C. Patient with difficulty breathing D. Patient found lying in bed

Which of the following patients would be considered to be at the greatest risk for suicide? A. 44-year-old woman who has just recovered from a serious illness B. 22-year-old man who has lost his job and is getting divorced C. Married, 30-year-old man who has just learned that his employer is transferring him to a different state D. 35-year-old female who has a child with a serious illness

Which of the following respiratory processes requires the active use of muscles? A. Exhalation B. Inhalation C. Gas exchange D. Bifurcation

Which of the following should be kept in mind when assessing and managing the airway of a pediatric patient? A. Due to their short necks, pediatric patients require a greater degree of hyperextension to open the airway than do adults. B. The trachea is easily obstructed by swelling. C. The tongue is not as likely to obstruct the airway as in an adult. D. Gastric distention is unlikely.

Which of the following should you use when you want to move a patient from a wheelchair to a stretcher? A. Clothing lift B. Extremity lift C. Ground transfer D. Modified direct lift

Which of the following situations generally allows the EMT to transport a patient with a behavioral emergency against his or her wishes? A. The patient's personal physician gives you permission. B. The patient is a threat to himself or others. C. A family member gives consent and is willing to accompany the patient. D. The patient's insurance company agrees to pay, even though the patient has not given consent.

Which of the following statements BEST describes the exchange of gas in the alveoli? A. Air moves into the airway, blood arrives via the pulmonary veins, and osmosis occurs. B. Air moves into the alveoli, blood is transported by the pulmonary capillaries, and diffusion occurs. C. Blood moves by way of the pulmonary capillaries, air arrives at the alveoli, and osmosis occurs. D. Blood moves from the left heart to the lungs, air arrives in the alveoli sacks, and diffusion occurs.

Which of the following statements concerning forcible restraint of patients is true? A. This is necessary only with mentally ill individuals. B. This is normally considered to be within the jurisdiction of law enforcement. C. It causes irreparable emotional harm to most patients. D. It is easily accomplished by two EMTs with a good plan.

Which of the following statements provides reasons for the disruption of respiratory control? A. Mechanical failure, soft-tissue damage, obstruction, and lack of perfusion will interrupt this control. B. Medical reasons, infections, trauma, toxins, and drugs, along with neurologic disorders, can interrupt this control. C. A structural reason that has caused collapse of the upper and lower airways to block the flow of oxygen to the alveoli can interrupt this control. D. A medical, structural, and mechanical failure that has initiated the cascade of life-threatening problems will interrupt this control.

Which of the following statements regarding behavioral emergencies is NOT true? A. Patients experiencing a behavioral emergency are not always dangerous to themselves or others. B. It would be unusual to find a person with schizophrenia outside a mental health facility. C. Differences in culture may initially appear to be abnormal behaviors to the EMT. D. Apparent behavioral emergencies may be due to an underlying medical cause.

Which of the following statements regarding body mechanics is true? A. Position your feet close together. B. Use your legs to lift. C. Use your back to lift. D. Twist your torso while lifting.

Which of the following traumatic conditions may account for signs and symptoms of a behavioral emergency? A. 10% BSA partial thickness burn B. Internal hemorrhage C. Fractured lumbar vertebra D. Fractured tibia

Which of the following types of blood vessels allow the exchange of substances directly between the blood and the cells of the body? A. Alveoli B. Capillaries C. Veins D. Arterioles

Which of the methods listed below is best described as moving a patient from the floor to a stretcher by having two or more rescuers kneel, curl the patient to their chests, stand, and then reverse the process to place the patient on the stretcher? A. Power lift B. Direct ground lift C. Direct carry D. Draw-sheet method

Which one of the following statements is NOT true? A. In any given year, 26.2% of adult Americans suffer from a diagnosable mental disorder. B. It is very unusual for an EMT to be called for a psychiatric emergency. C. Just over 20% of the population of adult Americans has anxiety or panic issues. D. Almost 10% of the population of adult Americans has a mood disorder such as depression.

Which organ is the principal organ of the renal system? A. Bladder B. Kidney C. Ureter D. Urethra

While assessing the airway of a pediatric patient, you will notice that it is different than that of an adult. Which of the following is one of those differences? A. The cricoid cartilage is less developed, reducing the possibility that it can be completely occluded. B. The trachea is smaller, softer, and more flexible, allowing it to be more easily obstructed. C. The tongue is smaller, taking up less room in the mouth and allowing larger objects to occlude the airway. D. The chest wall is softer, making it easier for the chest to expand.

While caring for a 3-year-old child, you should be concerned if his respiratory rate exceeds ________ breaths per minute. A. 16 B. 30 C. 20 D. 24

You and your EMT partner are preparing to ventilate an elderly non-trauma patient who has a stoma. Your partner performs the head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver and you ask him to return the patient's head to a neutral position. "Why? This is not a pediatric patient!" your partner protests. What would you say? A. Stoma breathers should only have their airways positioned after placement of the ventilation device. B. It is not necessary to position the airway of a stoma breather when providing ventilations. C. Using the head-tilt, chin-lift prior to clearing any mucus plugs from the stoma can cause airway occlusion. D. Elderly patients should never have their heads tilted back because spinal curvatures are common and can prevent airway positioning.

You and your partner arrive on the scene of a 400-pound patient lying in bed. He complains of nausea and vomiting for the past 3 days. When he tries to sit up, he gets very dizzy and has a syncopal episode. Realizing that he cannot assist you in getting on the stretcher, you decide to do which of the following? A. Use the patient's sheets to slide him over to the stretcher. B. Call for additional manpower to move the patient. C. Use the power lift technique to carefully and safely lift the patient to the stretcher. D. Place the patient on a backboard to provide better gripping points to move the patient.

You are about to apply a blood pressure cuff to an unconscious patient when you notice that she appears to have a tube underneath the skin of her arm. The tube feels like it has fluid going through it. You should: A. continue to take her blood pressure in the arm. B. find another site to measure her blood pressure. C. use an automatic blood pressure cuff instead. D. move the cuff down to the forearm and inflate.

You are approaching a 16-year-old male with bright red spurting blood coming from his leg. He is screaming, and he begs you to help him. You should FIRST: A. assess his airway. B. control the bleeding. C. apply oxygen. D. ask him to calm down.

You are assessing a female patient with depression. She tells you that her psychologist said that she is dealing with "empty-nest syndrome." What age group is this associated with? A. Late adulthood B. Middle adulthood C. School age D. Early adulthood

You are at the scene where a 19-year-old female college student has been drinking large quantities of alcohol throughout the evening. On your arrival, the patient is lying on her back with no signs of trauma, has vomited, and has slow, wet sounding respirations. Which of the following should you do next? A. Check for carotid and radial pulses. B. Open the patient's airway using a head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver. C. Assist respirations with a bag-valve-mask device. D. Determine the respiratory rate.

You are called to a motor vehicle collision where the car is on fire. You should ensure safety by: A. using your fire extinguisher to put out the fire. B. remaining a safe distance from the car until the fire is out. C. borrowing turnout gear from the fire department. D. putting your unit back in service and leaving the scene.

You are called to a 72-year-old patient with weakness and headache with an initial blood pressure of 140/92. Her repeat blood pressure at 5 minutes is unchanged. Her condition is called: A. stroke. B. hypertension. C. prehypertension. D. hypotension.

You are called to the scene of an attempted suicide. You arrive to find a 25-year-old man sitting on the sofa who apparently cut his wrists. Family members have bandaged them, and there does not appear to be any bleeding risk at this time. The scene is secure. Which action would you NOT take in treating this patient? A. Contact the receiving hospital and report on current mental status and other essential information. B. Make sure you take charge of the situation. Let the patient know that what he has done is wrong. Tell him he is coming with you whether he likes it or not. Do not worry about gaining the patient's confidence. Take charge. The patient must know that you are the boss. C. As soon as possible, perform a history and physical exam and provide emergency care on the wrist, if necessary. D. Perform a detailed physical exam only if it is safe and you suspect the patient may have an injury.

You are called to the scene of a 45-year-old nonsmoker male with a history of asthma in respiratory distress. You find him lying supine on the couch. The patient is lethargic but can answer all your questions appropriately. He is diaphoretic, and complains of being cold, coughing, and having difficulty breathing for the past 3 days. His vital signs are blood pressure of 110/70, heart rate of 116, respiratory rate of 24, oxygen saturation of 93%, and temperature of 100.6°F. You hear rhonchi in the left lobes and he is coughing up yellow-tinged sputum. What condition do you suspect? A. Asthma B. Pneumonia C. COPD D. Silent myocardial infarction

You are caring for a 47-year-old male patient with classical chest pain suggestive of a myocardial infarction. Based on your understanding of the cardiovascular system, you know he could be suffering from damage, narrowing, or blockage of what arteries? A. Femoral arteries B. Coronary arteries C. Brachial arteries D. Pulmonary arteries

You are on the scene of a person down. You arrive at a college dormitory and find a 21-year-old patient lying supine on the floor, unresponsive. The patient is "guppy" breathing at 5 times a minute, has a strong radial pulse at 110 beats per minute, and has vomited on himself. Friends state they went out to dinner and a party. They returned to change clothes for another party and he never came out of his room. Your partner suctions the patient, inserts an oropharyngeal airway, and ventilates the patient with a bag-valve mask with high-concentration oxygen. You listen to lung sounds and there are coarse rhonchi bilaterally. What condition do you suspect? A. Severe meningitis B. Aspiration C. Overdose D. Status asthmaticus

You are on the scene of a 5-year-old patient who is in respiratory distress. The mother states that the patient has been making a "seal bark"-sounding cough for the past 24 hours. The child is very scared. The patient has stable vital signs. He is leaning forward in the tripod position and is drooling profusely. After performing your primary assessment, what is your best treatment option? A. Provide oxygen by BVM. B. Calm the child as much as possible and provide oxygen by blow-by. C. Use a tongue depressor to examine the patient's mouth to determine whether the patient has strep throat or croup. D. Provide high-concentration oxygen and have the parent hold it to the patient's face.

You are responding to a 54-year-old female patient in respiratory distress. The patient is on home oxygen by nasal cannula at 1 lpm. The patient has diminished lung sounds bilaterally with wheezes. She appears malnourished and has a barrel chest. What condition do you suspect? A. Congestive heart failure B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease C. Asthma D. Bronchitis

You are transporting a 44-year-old female with chest pain and sudden respiratory distress. She is agitated, anxious, and refuses to have a nonrebreather mask applied. Which of the following is the best option? A. Consult with medical control about restraining the patient. B. Use a nasal cannula instead. C. Have her breathe into a paper bag to control her hyperventilation. D. Do not make further attempts to administer oxygen as it will only agitate the patient further.

You are treating an unconscious patient who does not have a possibility of spinal injury and who is breathing adequately. Which of the following is the BEST position for transporting the patient? A. Semi-Fowler position B. Recovery position C. Supine D. Fowler position

You are ventilating an adult patient with a bag-valve mask when you notice that his abdomen is getting bigger. You should: A. decrease the flow of oxygen. B. reduce the force and volume of ventilations. C. apply pressure to the abdomen. D. suction the airway.

You care caring for a patient that looks at you as you approach. Which of the following represents the correct order of assessment for the EMT during the primary assessment from start to end? A. Patient priority, general impression, mental status, airway, breathing, circulation B. General impression, mental status, airway, breathing, circulation, patient priority C. Mental status, general impression, airway, breathing, circulation, patient priority D. None of the above

You enter a room to find a 16-year-old female sitting upright in a chair with her back straight, leaning forward, and her arms supporting her. She is having a hard time talking to you. You should suspect: A. abdominal pain. B. respiratory distress. C. allergic reaction. D. chest discomfort.

You have arrived on the scene at a high school football field where a 17-year-old male is lying on the ground. He is unresponsive and cyanotic, and he is making obvious respiratory effort without moving adequate amounts of air. Which of the following should be done first? A. Insert a nasopharyngeal or oropharyngeal airway. B. Open the patient's airway using a manual maneuver. C. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen. D. Apply high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask.

You respond to a cafeteria to find an unconscious person with gurgling sounds upon exhalation and inhalation. What is the probable cause of the respiratory sounds? A. Tongue blocking the airway B. Fluids in the airway C. Cardiac arrest D. Complete airway obstruction

You respond to a childcare center for a report of an injured 4-year-old. Her pulse is 130 beats per minute. Which of the following BEST describes this finding? A. Normal for the child's age B. Tachycardic C. Unable to determine without knowing the family history D. Bradycardic

You respond to a 30-month-old patient who has passed out. Is the patient's blood pressure important to your treatment and why? A. Yes, blood pressure must be taken on everyone because without it we cannot impact the patient's field management. B. No, blood pressure taken on children younger than age 3 is difficult and has little impact on the patient's field management. C. Yes, blood pressure can be taken on children because it is the only way we can understand the patient's condition. D. No, blood pressure taken on children younger than age 3 can cause damage to the tender tissues of the arm that could lead to hypertension in later life.

You should have a keen awareness that there may be injuries based on your scene size-up. This is known as which of the following? A. Nature of illness B. Index of suspicion C. Mechanism of injury D. Law of inertia

Your partner asks why EMTs should avoid use of medical terminology when communicating with most patients. What should you tell her? A. You should say that you are an experienced EMT and since she is new, she should just take your advice and apply it. B. Tell her that the point of communicating with patients and other providers is so there is clear understanding; using medical terms when not necessary can cause confusion. C. Explain that using large words and medical terms can be seen as being egotistical, which can alienate both patients and other providers. D. Tell her that the general public isn't smart enough to understand medical terminology and that all communication must be "dumbed down" when talking to patients.

Your patient fell out of a tree while putting the roof on a tree house. A 15-foot ladder is required to enter the tree house and there is enough room for an adult to stand up inside. Your patient should be transported to: A. an urgent care center. B. a trauma center. C. the closest hospital. D. a neurosurgery center.

Your patient is a 22-year-old female that accidentally ate some shellfish and is now having a severe reaction. She tells you that the last time she ate shellfish, "they had to put a breathing tube in my throat and I almost died." Her face is starting to swell up and you can hear audible wheezing when she breathes. The chemical that produces edema and narrowing of the airways during hypersensitivity reactions like this is called: A. serotonin. B. histamine. C. insulin. D. acetylcholine.

Your patient is a 24-year-old woman with asthma who is struggling to breathe and is very agitated. She has cyanosis of her lips and nail beds, and is cool and clammy to the touch. When you attempt to assist her ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device, she becomes combative and repeatedly pushes the mask away from her face. Which of the following is the BEST option? A. Have your partner restrain the patient's hands so you can ventilate her. B. Apply supplemental oxygen and be prepared to assist her ventilations as needed. C. Wait for the level of consciousness to decrease so that she can no longer resist your attempts to ventilate. D. Obtain a complete set of baseline vital signs.

Your patient is a 55-year-old man with a history of chronic bronchitis. You have been called to his home today because of an increase in his level of respiratory distress. The patient is on 2 liters per minute of oxygen by nasal cannula at home. Your assessment reveals difficulty speaking due to shortness of breath, leaning forward to breathe, a productive cough, and a respiratory rate of 32 per minute. Which of the following is true concerning the best course of action for this patient? A. You should increase the patient's oxygen flow rate until his respiratory rate decreases and then resume oxygen administration at 2 liters per minute. B. You should increase the patient's oxygen flow rate to deliver adequate amounts of oxygen to his tissues. If his respiratory rate decreases, you can assist him with a bag-valve-mask device. C. Because increased blood levels of carbon dioxide are the primary stimulus to breathe, you should encourage the patient to rebreathe his exhaled air from a paper bag. D. You should not increase the patient's oxygen flow rate because of his likely dependence on a hypoxic drive to stimulate breathing.

Your patient is a 65-year-old male with a history of COPD. He is sitting up and complaining of a severe shortness of breath. You should: A. administer 4 lpm of oxygen via nasal cannula. B. apply a nonrebreather mask giving 15 lpm of oxygen. C. insert a nasal airway and ventilate. D. suction the airway with a rigid suction catheter.

Your patient is breathing 4 shallow breaths per minute due to overdosing on his pain medication but he has a palpable radial pulse. He vomited prior to your arrival and is choking. You should: A. insert an oropharyngeal airway and ventilate. B. roll him over onto his side to clear the airway. C. move the patient to the ambulance and suction. D. perform chest thrusts to clear the lungs.

Your 79-year-old female patient appears to show all signs and symptoms of a stroke. Her level of consciousness has rapidly deteriorated, she is now unconscious, and she can no longer control her own airway. While you intervene to manage her airway, the best position in which to keep fluid or vomitus from occluding her airway would be the: A. Trendelenburg position. B. recovery position. C. prone position. D. Fowler position.

Dangerous organisms that can grow in a variety of environments and are capable of producing toxic substances are known as:

Bacteria.

Which of the following is NOT appropriate in caring for a patient with closed soft-tissue injuries and a significant mechanism of injury?

Bandage and splint all injuries prior to transport.

The first set of vital sign measurements obtained are often referred to as which of the following?

Baseline vital signs

You are treating an unresponsive homeless patient found in an alley. During your assessment you notice bruising behind both ears. This is known as what? Fatigue signs Warrior's signs Soldier's signs Battle's signs

Battle's signs

Full immobilization of a trauma patient, including placing a cervical collar and securing the patient to a backboard, should take place at which of the following points in time. Before moving the patient to the ambulance Before the primary assessment En route to the hospital After checking for cervical range of motion

Before moving the patient to the ambulance

Your patient is a 17-year-old male baseball player found pulseless and apneic after being struck in the chest by a baseball 6 minutes ago. He is surrounded by other players and staff but no one is providing care. You should:

Begin chest compressions.

You are treating a patient with paradoxical motion on the left side of the chest. He is breathing shallow at a rate of 4 breaths per minute. You should:

Begin positive pressure ventilation.

Nonrebreather mask

Best way to deliver high concentrations of oxygen to a breathing patient. Exhaled air escapes through valve 12-15 L/m at 80-100% oxygen

Complications of dialysis

Bleeding from A-V site, clotting/loss of function, bacterial infection

The term cyanosis is used when the patient's skin color is noted to be which of the following characteristics?

Blue-gray

When preparing to move a patient that is using a specialty medical device from his house to the ambulance, which of the following questions would be appropriate to ask the family? What worked best for moving the patient the last time he was transported by ambulance? How do you normally move the patient? Can you carry the patient to the ambulance since you know the best way to move the patient? Both A and B are correct.

Both A and B are correct.

Which of the following are the components of the nervous system?

Brain, spinal cord, and nerves

10) What mode of transmission most accurately describes the route of spreading hepatitis A? A) Respiratory droplet B) Unprotected sex C) Fecal-oral D) Bloodborne Answer:

14) Which of the following is the primary responsibility of the EMT? A) Protect and stabilize the patient B) Communicate with other responders on the scene C) Maintain personal health and safety D) Provide emergency care Answer:

14) Which of the following statements about HIV/AIDS is true? A) HIV positive needlesticks have a 30 percent infection rate. B) The HIV virus lives longer outside the body than hepatitis B. C) HIV positive needlesticks have less than a 0.05 percent infection rate. D) Drugs are not available that slow HIV from progressing into AIDS. Answer:

17) Which of the following is a component of patient advocacy? A) Immobilizing the neck of a patient with a possible spinal injury B) Granting patient wishes and not reporting spousal abuse to the authorities C) Building rapport with the patient during transport to the hospital D) Providing oxygen to a patient that is short of breath Answer:

18) Who is responsible for on-scene safety of EMS providers? A) Traffic director B) Law enforcement C) All crew members D) Triage officer Answer:

19) Which of the following BEST describes a person who speaks up on behalf of the patient and supports his cause? A) Guardian B) Assistant C) Advocate D) Representative Answer:

2) What is a common term used to describe the items needed for Standard Precautions or body substance isolation precautions? A) Harm-reduction strategy B) Exposure-control plan C) Personal protective equipment D) Infection-control plan Answer:

21) Which of the following is a physical trait necessary for performing the duties of an EMT? A) Nonjudgmental and fair B) Ability to lift and carry 200 pounds C) Ability to speak clearly D) Ability to remain calm in stressful situations Answer:

24) Which of the following terms is best defined as "a state of physical and/or psychological arousal to a stimulus?" A) Homeostasis B) Distress C) Stress D) Eustress Answer:

25) Which of the following is the form of stress that can cause immediate and long-term problems with an EMT's health and well-being? A) Megastress B) Hyperstress C) Distress D) Eustress Answer:

26) What is NOT one the common settings that an EMT may work in? A) Rural/wilderness settings B) Ambulance services C) Hospitals D) Fire departments Answer:

27) The National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) was founded to establish which of the following? A) An education curriculum for EMT courses B) Quality oversight of emergency medical services practices C) National standards for emergency medical services personnel D) Quality improvement and quality assurance programs for emergency medical services Answer:

29) An EMT is confronted by an armed gunman who is threatening to kill the EMT and his partner. An elevation in the EMT's heart rate and blood pressure occurs in which stage of the body's response to stress? A) Resistance stage B) Exhaustion stage C) Alarm reaction stage D) Response stage Answer:

29) Why is it important for EMTs to participate in quality improvement programs? A) To ensure that individuals making false calls for EMS are prosecuted B) To identify problem employees and create a corrective action plan C) To identify problems and develop a plan to prevent their recurrence D) To ensure adequate personnel are available for emergencies Answer:

30) After delivering a patient to the emergency department, you discuss with hospital staff the details of your care and ask for suggestions to improve your care. This is an example of your role in which of the following? A) Patient advocacy B) Transfer of care C) Quality improvement D) Continuing education Answer:

31) According to Dr. Hans Selye, the third stage of the "Stress Triad" is known as the ________ stage. A) resistance B) cumulative C) exhaustion D) alarm Answer:

34) The application of oxygen for a patient who is short of breath without having to contact the physician in the emergency department is an example of which of the following? A) On-line medical direction B) Standards of care C) Standing orders D) Breach of duty Answer:

35) Which of the following BEST describes a list of steps the EMT should perform while assessing and managing emergency medical situations? A) Standing orders B) On-line medical direction C) Protocols D) Standard operating procedures Answer:

38) You respond to a 35-year-old male patient who fell 50 feet from a bluff. Your authority to provide emergency care is an extension of the Medical Director's license to practice medicine. You are acting as a(n) ________ of the Medical Director. A) subordinate B) employee C) designated agent D) extension Answer:

39) A fellow EMT is talking with the Medical Director at a staff meeting. The EMT states that the neighboring ambulance service is carrying special clotting bandages for serious bleeding wounds. The special bandages cost five times as much as the regular bandages, but the EMT claims they work ten times better. The EMT wants the Medical Director to approve the bandages for use in their ambulances. The Medical Director responds to the EMT by saying he will not approve the bandages until he can prove they are worth the additional cost. How can the EMT best prove the worth of the special bandages? A) Have a member of the other ambulance service call the Medical Director to provide firsthand information on how the special bandages are much better. B) Call the manufacturer of the special bandage and request literature to give to the Medical Director. C) Perform a literature search to see what studies have been done on the special bandages and report the findings to the Medical Director. D) Order a small number of the special bandages and compare them side-by-side to the regular bandages. Answer:

4) Centralized coordination of emergency medical access, transportation, and care most refers to which of the following? A) Emergency preparedness plan B) Trauma system C) Resource management D) Central deployment Answer:

40) For the last few days, your regular EMT partner has been having trouble sleeping, has been on edge, and has trouble concentrating on his job during EMS calls. Luckily, your call volume has been low with no serious calls since the infant cardiac arrest you both worked last month. You ask him if anything is bothering him and he states he is fine in every way. He states that he has been going to the bars lately to relax and invites you to come along for some drinks after work. Choose the best answer for this situation. A) Your partner is suffering from acute stress reaction and you should recommend to him that he seek professional counseling. B) Your partner is suffering from post-traumatic stress disorder and you should go to the bar with him to provide moral support and talk with him. C) Your partner is suffering from a delayed stress reaction and you should recommend that he seek professional counseling. D) Your partner is suffering from a cumulative stress reaction. This is a natural response and he should be fine in a few days. Answer:

40) You and your EMT partner are assigned to spend a day at the senior center where you are to inspect the rooms and common areas for fall hazards. Your partner is upset that he is not in the ambulance where the "action is." He complains that "looking for loose rugs" is a waste of his time. What would be the best response to his complaints? A) It is good practice for the next emergency call. B) It makes the taxpayers happy. C) Injury prevention in the community is an important component of EMS. D) It minimizes the number of 911 calls late at night. Answer:

42) An EMT involved in an especially difficult call, such as one in which a coworker was killed, should be urged to: A) discuss the experience freely with coworkers. B) begin a course of psychiatric medications. C) seek help from a trained mental health professional. D) conceal the problem because care may not be covered financially. Answer:

46) When responding to the scene of a patient who was discovered to be unresponsive, not breathing, and without a pulse, family members state that the patient has been suffering from cancer for several years. One of his sons is cursing at you and your partner, saying that you are not moving fast enough. Which stage of grief is the patient's son experiencing in response to his father's death? A) Denial B) Depression C) Anger D) Acceptance Answer:

5) An EMT should consider wearing protective eyewear when caring for which of these patients? A) A patient with a difficult-to-visualize scalp laceration B) A trauma patient who is covered in dirt, rocks, and other foreign debris C) A patient who is actively coughing D) A patient who was sprayed with mace by police during arrest Answer:

5) Which of the following agencies is responsible for establishing EMS system assessment programs? A) Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) B) National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) C) National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) D) United States Health Services Agency (HSA) Answer:

56) You are dispatched to a female with altered mental status. Once inside the home, you find a female who appears to have been beaten unconscious. A man, who smells of alcohol, says that she is his wife and that he does not know what happened: "I just found her this way!" The husband is behaving suspiciously, appears paranoid, and is pacing erratically around the room. What would be the safest course of action? A) Continue to question the man and begin treating the patient. B) Evacuate the patient and begin treatment. C) Leave the house and call for law enforcement. D) Have your partner call for help while you stay with the patient. Answer:

58) You are dispatched to a "man down" with no further information. As your unit arrives on-scene, you see a crowd of bystanders looking at a man lying in an alleyway. The bystanders begin screaming to you, "Help him, he's been shot! He's bleeding real bad!" What would be the best course of action? A) Move bystanders aside since the patient will die without treatment. B) Tell law enforcement investigators to meet your unit at the ER. C) Dispatch law enforcement and wait until the scene is secure. D) Load and go, because you're already on-scene. Answer:

59) You are approaching the scene of a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following would be the first way to safeguard your well-being as an EMT? A) Take personal protective equipment (PPE) precautions. B) Request additional resources. C) Ensure scene safety. D) Utilize DOT-approved reflective safety clothing. Answer:

6) During which of these situations would the EMT be least likely to experience a body substance exposure? A) Bandaging a laceration B) Childbirth C) Splinting a sprained ankle D) Glucometry Answer:

9) Which of the following BEST describes a communication system capable of identifying the number and location of the phone from which a caller is calling? A) Data display 911 B) Priority dispatch 911 C) Enhanced 911 D) Advanced 911 Answer:

A fall is considered severe anytime an adult patient has fallen more than ________ feet. A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 8

A(n) ________ set of vital signs is important for critical decision making for the EMT. A. repeated B. complete C. accurate D. unbiased

All of the following can result in upper airway obstructions, except: A. infections. B. burns. C. severe bronchoconstriction. D. facial trauma.

An approximate normal systolic blood pressure can be calculated for infants and children by using which of the following formulas? A. 120 minus 2 times the age in years B. 80 times 2 plus the age in years C. 80 plus 2 times the age in years D. 120 plus 2 times the age in years

An artery is a blood vessel that only: A. carries deoxygenated blood. B. returns blood to the heart. C. carries blood away from the heart. D. carries oxygenated blood.

At the scene of a vehicle collision in which there are no apparent hazards, which of the following guidelines should be followed for establishing a danger zone? A. The danger zone should be 15 feet in all directions. B. The danger zone should be 150 feet in all directions. C. The danger zone should be 50 feet in all directions. D. There is no need to establish a danger zone when there are no apparent hazards.

A 12-year-old female patient is having an asthma attack after participating in some strenuous activity during recess at school. She's taken several doses of her own bronchodilator with little relief. Your partner immediately administers oxygen. Providing supplemental oxygen will increase the amount of oxygen molecules carried by the ________ in her blood, helping oxygenate critical organs like the brain. A. albumin B. white blood cells C. hemoglobin D. plasma

A child's ________ takes up proportionally more space in the pharynx than does an adult's. A. epiglottis B. cricoid cartilage C. tongue D. trachea

Daniel has been performing landscaping on a hot, humid summer day when he suddenly becomes dizzy and feels like he might faint. This disruption of fluid balance is most likely caused by: A. hyperthermia. B. hypotension. C. dehydration. D. tachycardia.

During which age group is the body in peak physical condition? A. Adolescent B. Middle adult C. Early adult D. Preschool

For which of the following patients would capillary refill be a reliable sign of circulatory status? A. 92-year-old man complaining of weakness on his right side B. 24-year-old homeless man who has spent the night outside in the rain C. 3-year-old child with a fever and cough D. 50-year-old woman complaining of chest pain

How many pounds are most battery-powered hydraulic systems rated to safely lift? A. 200 B. 500 C. 700 D. 300

If a hole is created in the chest wall, air could escape or be drawn in, or if bleeding develops within the chest, air and blood can accumulate in the pleural space. This would force the lung to: A. work harder with minimal problems. B. increase respirations. C. collapse. D. increase the minute volume.

In relation to anatomy, the term topography means: A. blood pressure fluctuations. B. the study of the skin. C. external landmarks of body structures. D. key elements of the central nervous system.

In which of the following locations is the femoral pulse palpated? A. Behind the knee B. On the medial side of the upper arm C. At the groin D. On the medial side of the ankle, posterior to the tibia

In which of the following situations should the EMT consult the Emergency Response Guidebook? A. Downed power lines at the scene of a vehicle collision B. Patient with a suspected infectious disease C. Chlorine gas leak at a public swimming pool D. Domestic disturbance with the potential for violence

Our blood transports oxygen from the lungs to the cells and returns with what byproduct of metabolism? A. Lactic acid B. Carbon monoxide C. Carbon dioxide D. Carbolic acid

Slight movement of the chest during respiration is usually indicative of which of the following? A. Normal breathing B. Labored breathing C. Shallow breathing D. Noisy breathing

Stretchers that are designed to carry obese patients weighing up to 800 pounds (or more) are called: A. battery-powered stretchers. B. wheeled stretchers. C. bariatric stretchers. D. hydraulic stretchers.

Stroke volume depends on a series of factors: one is the force the myocardial muscle exerts to move the blood. This is known as: A. preload. B. automaticity. C. contractility. D. afterload.

The cardiac muscle receives its supply of oxygenated blood by which of the following mechanisms? A. Absorption of oxygen from the blood returning from the lungs B. Coronary veins that branch off the pulmonary vein as it returns oxygenated blood to the heart C. Coronary arteries that branch off the aorta D. None of the above

The cellular structure that is responsible for synthesizing proteins is: A. nucleus. B. sodium pump. C. endoplasmic reticulum. D. mitochondria.

The layer of covering that protects the nervous system is called the: A. skull. B. cerebrospinal fluid. C. meninges. D. spinal column.

The movement of ions across the cell membrane is needed to accomplish repolarization. What cell structure is used to prepare for depolarization? A. Mitochondria B. Nucleus C. Sodium potassium pump D. Endoplasmic reticulum

The movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and circulating blood is called: A. osmosis. B. internal respiration. C. pulmonary (external) respiration. D. cellular respiration.

The normal stimulus to breathe is stimulated by the chemoreceptors that measure the change of what two gases? A. Low hydrogen and high carbon monoxide B. High hydrogen and low carbon dioxide C. High carbon dioxide and low oxygen D. High carbon monoxide and low oxygen

The process by which glucose and other nutrients are converted into energy is called: A. respiration. B. catabolism. C. metabolism. D. depolarization.

The process of air moving in and out of the chest is called: A. tidal volume. B. inhalation. C. ventilation. D. respiration.

The range of normal blood glucose level is from a low of 60 to 80 mg/dL to a high of: A. 90 to 100. B. 110 to 130. C. 120 to 140. D. 100 to 120.

The respiratory system moves air in and out; however, to ________ cells, the air that is inhaled must meet up with the circulatory system. A. defuse B. register C. perfuse D. hyperoxygenate

The safe residual for an oxygen cylinder is ________ psi. A. 1,000 B. 300 C. 200 D. 500

The seat of respiratory control is found in the: A. lungs. B. chest. C. medulla oblongata. D. nose.

The term body mechanics describes the proper use of your body to lift without injury. What are the three considerations to review before any lift? A. The object, patient injury, and communication B. Equipment, patient injury, and communication C. The object, your limitations, and communication D. Environment, physical limitations, and communication

Venturi masks are designed to mix oxygen with: A. nitrogen. B. humidified air. C. inhaled air. D. carbon monoxide.

Vital signs should be reassessed every ________ minutes for a stable patient. A. 5 B. 20 C. 15 D. 10

Water that is found in the space between cells and blood vessels is called: A. hydrostatic. B. intravascular. C. interstitial. D. intracellular.

What are the three ways to take blood pressure? A. Auscultation, palpation, and osculation B. Sphygmomanometer, blood pressure monitor, and heart monitor C. Palpation, auscultation, and blood pressure monitor D. Sphygmomanometer, auscultation, and blood pressure monitor

What device is used to perform mouth-to-mask ventilation? A. Bag-valve mask B. Automatic transport ventilator C. Pocket face mask D. Stoma

What is NOT one of the basic parts of a bag-valve-mask system? A. Be nonrebreathing B. Non-jam valve C. 15/25 respiratory fitting D. Self-refilling shell

What is a normal heart rate for a school age child? A. 80-120/minute B. 140-160/minute C. 70-110/minue D. 80-130/minute

What is the bone on the thumb side of the forearm? A. Ulna B. Fibula C. Radius D. Acromion

What is the most common digestive disorder? A. Flatus B. Irritable bowel and gastric esophageal disease C. Vomiting and diarrhea D. Diarrhea and gastric esophageal disease

What is the stage of development where there are several physiological and psychosocial changes, second only to infancy or adolescence? A. Preschool age B. Middle adulthood C. Late adulthood D. Toddler

What is the inferior-most portion of the sternum? A. Manubrium B. Sternal notch C. Xiphoid process D. Body

What is the large, wing-shaped bone on either side of the pelvis? A. Ischium B. Acetabulum C. Ilium D. Pubis

What should you NOT do when using a stair chair? A. Lean forward from the hips. B. Keep your back straight. C. Lean forward from the waist. D. Flex your knees.

What two components are directly related to aerobic metabolism? A. Electrolytes and carbohydrates B. Exercise and water C. Oxygen and glucose D. Carbolic acid and air

What type of move should the EMT use to move a patient who is in a car that has started to burn? A. Non-urgent move B. No attempt to move C. Emergency move D. Urgent move

What type of muscles control the size of the bronchioles in the lungs? A. Skeletal B. Striated C. Smooth D. Voluntary

What substances, when dissolved, separate into charged particles? A. ATP B. Ions C. Electrolytes D. Cations

When carbon dioxide is not exchanged, the net result is high carbon dioxide, a condition called ________, within the body. A. hyperemia B. hyperglycemia C. hypercapnia D. hyperthermia

When suctioning the airway, suction should never be applied for longer than ________ seconds. A. 45 B. 60 C. 10 D. 30

When the lung collapses without injury or any other cause, it is called which of the following? A. Spontaneous pulmonary embolism B. COPD C. Spontaneous pneumothorax D. Spontaneous pertussis

When the body's water moves from the bloodstream into the interstitial space, it is called: A. hydrostatic. B. dehydration. C. edema. D. hypovolemia.

When ventilating a child with inadequate respirations, which of the following is the maximum rate at which artificial respirations should be delivered? A. 15 per minute B. 12 per minute C. 20 per minute D. 24 per minute

Which chamber of the heart is the strongest, most muscular part of the heart and is primarily responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the body? A. Right ventricle B. Right atrium C. Left ventricle D. Left atrium

Which component of blood is responsible for forming clotting factors to stop bleeding? A. White blood cells B. Red blood cells C. Platelets D. Plasma

Which of the following BEST defines adenosine triphosphate (ATP)? A. It is the form of energy that is produced in the mitochondria from glucose and DNA. B. It is the form of energy that is produced in the nucleus from glucose and other nutrients. C. It is the form of energy produced in the mitochondria and is the cell's engine responsible for all cell function. D. It is the form of energy produced in the endoplasmic reticulum and is the cell's engine responsible for all cell function.

Which of the following BEST describes the medical condition of shock? A. An extreme emotional reaction to a stressful event B. Delayed capillary refill C. A state of inadequate tissue perfusion D. Hypotension

Which of the following describes why fast respiration may decrease minute volume? A. The rate causes turbulence in the trachea that increases the friction and decreases the amount of air movement. B. It is due to the delay in the movement of the intercostal muscles and the pleural space. C. The lungs may not have the time to fill and exchange gas. D. The rate does not decrease minute volume; it actually increases.

Which of the following is NOT a cause of unequal pupils? A. Artificial eye B. Eye injury C. Fright D. Stroke

Which of the following is NOT a common psychosocial challenge of late adulthood? A. Financial burdens B. Concern about death and dying C. Self-destructive behaviors D. Issues of self-worth

Which of the following is NOT performed during the "Airway" phase of the primary assessment? A. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway B. Head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver C. Obtaining the respiratory rate D. Suctioning

Which of the following is an advantage of using a nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)? A. It is ideal for patients with a suspected skull fracture. B. It eliminates the need for manual positioning of the patient's head to keep the airway open. C. It may be tolerated by many patients with a gag reflex. D. All of the above

Which of the following is the feeling infants get when they know all their needs will be met? A. Scaffolding B. Moro reflex C. Bonding D. Trust

Which of the following is the most reliable means of determining whether a patient has any immediately life-threatening conditions? A. Obtaining a detailed medical history B. Use of intuition C. Systematic approach to assessment D. Thorough scene size-up

Which of the following is the primary function of the stomach? A. Absorption of water from food products B. Production of bile C. Chemical breakdown of food by acidic secretions D. Absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream

Which of the following will deliver a medium velocity impact? A. Ice pick B. Bullet from an assault rifle C. Bullet from a handgun D. Butcher knife

With regard to anatomical locations, which of the following is NOT true? A. The foot is distal to the knee. B. The umbilicus is located on the ventral aspect of the body. C. The mouth is proximal to the nose. D. The ears are located on the lateral aspect of the head.

You and your EMT partner respond to a local shipping warehouse for a worker who was hit by a falling crate. Upon arrival, you find the man lying on the concrete floor of the facility, alert and oriented but unable to move or even feel his legs below the waist. Based on the mechanism of injury and the symptoms, which of the patient's body systems would you suspect has been impaired? A. Endocrine system B. Cardiopulmonary system C. Nervous system D. Immune system

You are approaching an adult female lying supine on the ground with snoring respirations. You should FIRST: A. insert an oropharyngeal airway. B. ventilate with a bag-valve mask. C. open her airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver. D. insert a nasopharyngeal airway.

You are assessing an 82-year-old female that has been lost in the woods behind her nursing home for several hours on a crisp fall evening. Your pulse oximeter shows her oxygen saturation to be 82% even though she appears to be breathing adequately. In order to ensure an accurate reading you should: A. try a different pulse oximeter. B. place the probe on the patient's earlobe. C. warm the patient's hands and try again. D. place the probe on the patient's toe.

You are assessing a 48-year-old male who is unconscious. The scene is safe and you hear the patient gurgling. What is your next action? A. Quickly check the pulse. B. Insert an airway adjunct. C. Suction the airway. D. Apply supplemental oxygen.

You are assessing a 6-month-old female patient who, according to the parents, is not acting normally. At this stage of development, the patient should be able to do which of the following? A. Sit alone on the floor B. Respond to the word "no" C. Sit upright in a high chair D. Sleep

You are dispatched to a local fast-food restaurant for a "nature unknown" call. You arrive on-scene and find a 47-year-old male in front of the counter repeatedly singing "Happy Birthday" to himself. Police are on-scene and the scene is safe. Which of the following would be considered appropriate care? A. Quickly approach the patient and take charge. Tell him he has to come with you to be evaluated. B. Have the police take charge, restrain the patient, and have him brought into your ambulance. C. Quietly and carefully evaluate the situation and keep your emotions under control. Be as unhurried as you can. D. Have your partner join you in approaching the patient and explain to him that he has to stop singing or you will have him arrested.

You are dispatched to a suicide attempt. You arrive to find a 16-year-old, who is extremely agitated and pacing up and down in the living room of his house. Apparently, he had threatened to go out, get a gun, and shoot himself. The parents called it in as an attempted suicide. The scene is safe and there are apparently no weapons accessible to the patient. Which of the following would NOT be appropriate in caring for this patient? A. Do not take any action that may be considered threatening by the patient. To do so may bring about hostile behavior directed against you or others. B. Do not isolate yourself from your partner or other sources of help. C. Make certain the patient gets between you and the door. The patient should always feel he has an escape route. D. Always be on the watch for weapons.

You are on the scene of an explosion at a suspected methamphetamine manufacturing operation. You and your partner are the first to arrive and note two middle-aged men and a woman on the front lawn with burns and cuts on their faces and arms. The fire department is en route. Which of the following resources should be the LEAST important to be requested by the EMT during the scene size-up? A. Law enforcement B. One or two additional ambulances C. Hazardous material clean-up crew D. Gas company

You are transporting a patient down a bumpy road. Your patient's blood pressure has just been measured by the monitor to be 190/110. The patient's blood pressure on scene was 130/80. You should: A. ignore the blood pressure reading. B. apply the automatic cuff to the other arm. C. re-measure the blood pressure manually. D. have the driver increase truck speed.

You are unable to find a radial pulse on a patient from a motor vehicle crash. You should: A. begin chest compressions. B. listen for heart sounds. C. attempt to find the carotid pulse. D. apply the pulse oximeter.

You are ventilating an 85-year-old male without difficulty. A nurse tells you that the patient has dentures. To ensure a good mask seal, you should: A. use an infant mask over the nose. B. remove the dentures. C. leave the dentures in place. D. tape the dentures in place.

You have responded to a nursing home and find an elderly patient in his bed in cardiac arrest. Which type of move would you perform to get the patient to a hard surface so you can perform chest compressions? A. Clothing drag B. Non-urgent move C. Emergency move D. Rapid move

You respond to a large concert venue where a number of spectators are reported to be severely intoxicated. You are directed to an area where several patients appear to be unconscious, lying face down on the ground. The position of these patients is described as: A. supine. B. anterior. C. prone. D. posterior.

You respond to the scene of a two-vehicle T-bone vehicle collision. The driver's side door is smashed shut and will not open. The front passenger door will open. The front passenger is stable and complaining of severe head and neck pain. You suspect that he has a potential spinal injury. The driver is unresponsive, in critical condition, and has gurgling respirations. You should extricate the passenger by which technique? A. Take extra care to protect the passenger's neck with a KED board or short spine board because of the injury. B. Carefully move the patient using full c-spine precautions. C. Move the patient out of the car as quickly as possible, in the direction of the long axis of the body. D. Move the patient as quickly as possible so he can get to a hospital before paralysis sets in.

Your patient is a motorcyclist who was ejected after striking a guard rail. The patient is unresponsive to painful stimuli and is breathing shallowly six to eight times per minute. Which of the following should you do first? A. Apply a nonrebreather mask with an oxygen flow rate of 15 lpm. B. Perform a rapid trauma assessment. C. Use a bag-valve mask with supplemental oxygen. D. Apply a cervical collar.

Your patient is a 42-year-old woman who fell two feet from a ladder and is complaining of pain in her ankle. Which of the following are you unable to determine from the information given? A. Airway status B. Chief complaint C. Transport priority D. General impression

Your patient is a 72-year-old female who has "twisted her ankle" coming down some steps. She is alert and complaining of pain in her right ankle, but she jokes about her "clumsiness." Which of the following should you do next? A. Administer high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask. B. Determine the presence of a carotid pulse. C. Ask if the patient has pain anywhere besides her ankle. D. Take immediate manual control of the patient's cervical spine.

Your patient is a middle-aged man who appears to be in distress and is clutching his chest. These observations lead you to suspect which type of problem? A. Anaphylaxis B. Choking C. Cardiac D. Digestive

Your patient is in late stages of liver failure and has requested to be transported to the emergency department. You take your body substance isolation and move him to your cot and notice his skin is warm and dry with a yellow color. Your radio report to the hospital should state your patient is: A. flushed. B. mottled. C. jaundiced. D. cyanotic.

Your unit has arrived on the scene of a multiple vehicle collision where several vehicles have rear-ended each other. You are directed by the incident commander to care for a 23-year-old female in the first vehicle. The firefighter on-scene holding manual spinal immobilization indicates that her primary complaint is back pain from her head whipping back and forth from the impact. Your understanding of the anatomy of the spinal column and vertebrae suggests that this type of mechanism of injury results in frequent injuries to which part of the spinal column? A. Lumbar spine B. Thoracic spine C. Cervical spine D. Sacral spine

Your 4-month-old patient is reported to be irritable and lethargic after feeding poorly for two days. One method for assessing the patient's level of hydration is to gently palpate the soft spots on the surface of the skull. These soft spots are also known as the: A. carpals. B. mandibles. C. fontanelles. D. acromion process.

Your 89-year-old male patient has called for help because he almost passed out after bringing in his garbage cans from the curb. The patient lives alone and says that he became panicked when he started feeling so lightheaded and dizzy. Patients in this age group often undergo all of the following changes to their health, except: A. sleep-wake cycle disrupted. B. blood volume decreases. C. increased metabolism. D. deterioration of respiratory system.

Normally, respiratory drive is triggered by changing levels of: A. oxygen. B. glucose. C. carbon dioxide. D. pH.

At 0330, you responded to the scene of an overturned tanker truck. What organization could you contact to obtain information about the liquid the truck is carrying?

CHEMTREC

_______________ is the response agency, established in Washington, DC, as a service of the Chemical Manufacturers Association, that can provide either you or your dispatcher with information about the hazardous material and contact the shipper to provide you with information about the material.

CHEMTREC

Give ____ levels of oxygen to patients with

COPD.

Types of noninvasive positive pressure ventilation (NPPV)

CPAP: continuous positive airway pressure BiPAP: biphasic continous positive airway pressure

Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the EMT to take when caring for a patient with an AICD who goes into cardiac arrest? The AED should be applied and used, but CPR should not be started while on-scene or transporting the patient. No action beyond transport is required since the patient already has an implanted defibrillator. CPR and an AED should be used as indicated while on-scene and transporting the patient. CPR should be started, but the AED should not be used while on-scene or transporting the patient.

CPR and an AED should be used as indicated while on-scene and transporting the patient.

Kidney stones

Calcium stones that usually cause no symptoms when they remain in the kidney but cause unilateral flank pain when they descend and become lodged in the ureter

You have arrived at the scene of a motor vehicle collision to find that there are several critically injured patients.

Call for additional rescue units and transporting ambulances.

What type of blood vessels surround the alveoli?

Capillaries

Which of the following types of blood vessels allow the exchange of substances between the blood and the cells of the body?

Capillaries

The pathophysiology of _________ is one in which the pericardial sac fills with blood to the point where the chambers of the heart no longer fill adequately, usually secondary to trauma.

Cardiac tamponade

What are the small bones that make up the wrist called?

Carpals

Which of the following is NOT part of the lower extremity?

Carpals

An artery is a blood vessel that only:

Carries blood away from the heart.

Which of the following may be a source of ignition when an ambulance is parked off the roadway in a field of dried grass?

Catalytic converter

Which portions of the spine are the most vulnerable to injury? Thoracic and lumbar Cervical and lumbar Cervical and sacra Thoracic and sacra

Cervical and lumbar

hat are the two most easily injured portions of the spine?

Cervical and lumbar

Cervical spine

Your patient is a 10-year-old male whose jacket hood caught on a branch as he jumped out of a tree. He was momentarily suspended about 12 inches off the ground but was immediately lowered to the ground by his brothers. Which of the following injuries should you suspect? Cervical spine injury Lumbar spine injury Soft-tissue injury of the neck only Thoracic spine injury

Cervical spine injury

Which of the following is the primary function of the stomach?

Chemical breakdown of food by acidic secretions

Signs of inadequate breathing

Chest movements are absent, minimal, uneven Skin/lips/tongue are blue/gray (cyanosis) Children may have retractions above clavicle or between ribs

When ventilating, ensure

Chest rises & falls Ventilation rate is not too fast/slow

What is most important to assess during patient assessment during secondary assessment?

Chief complaint

What can cause an acute airway obstruction?

Choking on a foreign body Trauma Burns Blunt Force

What is the relatively rare condition that can cause respiratory depression?

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has changed the stimulus to breathe to the hypoxic drive and high concentration can depress breathing.

Which of the following spine sections make up the tailbone?

Coccyx

In which of the following zones is the EMT expected to be staged at the scene of a hazardous materials incident?

Cold zone

Which of the following is NOT an acceptable way of attempting to identify a hazardous material?

Collecting a sample of the material for laboratory analysis

Which of the following is a principle of effective incident command?

Command is most effective when one person is responsible for not more than six other people.

The senior EMT on the first ambulance that arrived on a scene with multiple patients should assume which of the following roles until relieved by a senior official?

Commander of the medical aspect of the scene

Venturi mask

Commonly used on patients with COPD

You are on an EMS standby for a boxing tournament. During one of the matches, one of the female boxers delivers a forcible uppercut to the chest of her opponent, who falls to the ground. The match is declared over on the basis of a TKO. However, the opponent fails to arise following a 1-2 minute interval. EMS is summoned to the ring. You find the patient pulseless and breathing agonal gasps. You suspect which of the following traumatic conditions?

Commotio cordis

You are on an EMS standby for a boxing tournament. During one of the matches, one of the female boxers delivers a forcible uppercut to the chest of her opponent, who falls to the ground. The match is declared over on the basis of a TKO. However, the opponent fails to arise following a 1 to 2 minute interval. EMS is summoned to the ring. You find the patient pulseless and breathing agonal gasps. You suspect which of the following traumatic conditions?

Commotio cordis

The mechanism of injury in which a patient's chest has struck an immovable object, such as a steering wheel, may most accurately be described as a:

Compression injury.

Which of the following injuries is considered an indirect brain injury? Cerebral laceration Depressed skull fracture with cerebral penetration by bone fragments Gunshot wound to the head Concussion

Concussion

What is the normal response of the pupils when exposed to bright light?

Constriction

Which of the following is a function of the autonomic nervous system? Speaking Running or walking Constriction of blood vessels Solving complex math problems

Constriction of blood vessels

Continue releasing pressure until the clicks or tapping stop, and record both numbers. These are the blood pressure.

Blunt trauma resulting in a closed chest injury creates the potential for which of the following internal injuries?

Contusion

In addition to lacerations, blunt trauma resulting in a closed chest injury creates the potential for which of the following internal injuries?

Contusion

Which of the following is NOT an open tissue injury

Contusion

Which of the following is NOT an open tissue injury?

Contusion

Coronary arteries

The cardiac muscle receives its supply of oxygenated blood by which of the following mechanisms?

Coronary arteries that branch off the aorta

Blood thinning medications include:

Coumadin (warfarin) Paradax (dabigatran) Eliquis (apixaban) Xarelto (rivaroxaban) Lovenox (enoxaprin) Plavix (clopidogrel)* Aspirin* * = Inhibit platelet aggression

Your patient has an open abdominal wound with intestines protruding. You should:

Cover the organs with moist sterile dressings.

You have covered an open chest wound with your gloved hand and the patient's breathing has improved. In order to free your hand to provide further care, you should:

Cover the wound with a sterile dressing. cover the wound with an occlusive dressing.

Which of the following BEST describes the proper placement of the blood pressure cuff?

Covering two-thirds of the upper arm

Two elements that differentiate a hazardous materials incident from a terrorist incident are:

Crime scene considerations and targeting responders.

Which of the following chemical agents prohibits the use of oxygen in the cells?

Cyanide

1) Which of the following descriptions BEST defines the term pathogen? A) An immunity developed after an exposure B) A study of the origins of infection and disease C) A medication with a harmful effect D) An organism that causes infection and disease Answer:

11) What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes activation of the EMS system and provides immediate care for life-threatening problems? A) Emergency Medical Dispatcher B) Cardiac care responder C) EMT D) Emergency Medical Responder Answer:

13) What level of emergency medical training provides the most advanced pre-hospital care? A) Advanced EMT B) Emergency Medical Responder C) Emergency Medical Technician D) Paramedic Answer:

13) Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding tuberculosis (TB)? A) The incubation period of TB is from 1 to 7 days. B) TB is not spread through surface contamination. C) The TB pathogen only affects lung tissue. D) A tuberculin skin test can detect TB exposure. Answer:

16) You are treating a patient who has a productive cough and who reports weight loss, loss of appetite, weakness, night sweats, and fever. Which of the following diseases is most likely the cause of these signs and symptoms? A) Hepatitis B B) Pneumonia C) AIDS D) Tuberculosis Answer:

17) The CDC recommends using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer in all except which of the following situation(s)? A) The patient has a bloodborne communicable disease. B) The patient has a respiratory illness. C) The provider is not vaccinated against hepatitis B. D) The provider's hands come into contact with fecal matter. Answer:

18) What is the name of the federal act that mandates a procedure by which emergency healthcare providers can find out if they have been exposed to potentially life-threatening diseases while on the job? A) Communicable Disease Notification Act B) EMS Personnel Health Protection Act of 1991 C) Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Act D) Ryan White CARE Act Answer:

2) Which of the following groups is credited with developing the earliest documented emergency medical service? A) The Spanish B) The Egyptians C) The Mayans D) The French Answer:

20) What are the minimum Standard Precautions an EMT should take when transporting a patient infected with Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS)? A) Gloves, N-95 mask, and goggles B) Gloves C) Gloves and N-95 mask D) Gloves, N-95 mask, goggles, and gown Answer:

21) When covering a patient's mouth and nose with a mask of any kind, which of the following is the primary risk? A) Causing or exasperating respiratory illnesses B) Interfering with patient communication C) Upsetting the patient because of the social stigma D) Obstructing the ability to visualize and protect the airway Answer:

22) When the potential exists for exposure to exhaled air of a person with suspected or confirmed TB, a(n) ________ mask should be worn by the EMT. A) surgical B) B-50 C) nonrebreather D) N-95 Answer:

22) Which of the following is a personality trait required of EMTs? A) Ability to lift and carry 125 pounds B) Awareness of problems with color vision C) Ability to dominate the patient D) Control of personal habits Answer:

23) Which of the following best describes training that supplements the EMT's original training and that is usually taken in regular intervals? A) Distance education B) EMT training program C) Recertification D) Continuing education Answer:

24) During the new employee orientation, the training officer meets with the new EMTs and explains to them the monthly training schedule and the classes they must attend for EMT recertification. One of the new EMTs asks the training officer why they have to keep taking EMT courses if they already passed the EMT examination. What is the best answer? A) The state requires the training. B) EMTs forget everything once they pass the EMT exam. C) It looks good to a jury should the service be sued. D) EMS is constantly evolving in response to evidence-based research. Answer:

26) What action does an organ undergo to best describe the term hypertrophy? A) Absence B) Wasting C) Changing D) Enlargement Answer:

27) Which of the following parts of the nervous system is responsible for the "fight or flight" response experienced in response to a stressor? A) Parasympathetic nervous system B) Central nervous system C) Peripheral nervous system D) Sympathetic nervous system Answer:

28) Which hormone helps the body control stress, regulate metabolism, and influence an immune response? A) Immunoglobulin B) Serotonin C) Epinephrine D) Cortisol Answer:

30) The "Stress Triad," or the body's response to a stressful stimulation, is known as general ________ syndrome. A) incident B) resistance C) reaction D) adaptation Answer:

33) The term burnout is also known as a(n) ________ stress reaction. A) delayed B) post-traumatic C) acute D) cumulative Answer:

33) Who assumes the ultimate responsibility for patient care rendered by the EMT? A) EMS supervisor B) EMT C) Director of quality assurance D) Medical Director Answer:

34) Post-traumatic stress disorder may be described as a(n): A) acute stress reaction. B) cumulative stress reaction. C) severe stress reaction. D) delayed stress reaction. Answer:

35) What are some signs and symptoms that a coworker may be experiencing delayed stress reaction (PTSD)? A) Suspicion of friends, family, coworkers, or patients B) Excessive sleeping, loss of appetite, and distractibility C) Headaches, stomach ailments, and a chronic cough D) Flashbacks, nightmares, and feelings of detachment Answer:

36) A written authorization for an EMS provider to perform a particular skill in a specific situation is a(n): A) on-line protocol. B) standard of care. C) direct medical order. D) standing order. Answer:

36) A(n) ________ is a situation that may lead to an acute stress reaction. A) routine call B) abuse of alcohol C) ongoing night shift D) injury of a coworker Answer:

37) One's "cognitive ability" refers to his or her ability to do which of the following? A) Control his or her emotions B) Use fine motor skills C) Adapt to stress D) Think and solve problems Answer:

37) You and another new EMT are studying your local protocols. The other EMT notices that you may give oral glucose without utilizing on-line medical control, but you must get an on-line order from a physician before assisting a patient in taking his nitroglycerin for chest pain. The EMT asks you why some drugs require on-line medical control while others do not. What is the best answer to give him? A) Glucose is only sugar so it cannot hurt the patient. B) The physician does not trust EMTs. C) The patient's nitroglycerin might be expired. D) The physician wants to be sure it is appropriate for the patient. Answer:

38) Which of the following terms refers to a positive form of stress that helps people work when under pressure and respond effectively? A) Prostress B) Distress C) Unstress D) Eustress Answer:

4) What would be the primary reason for an EMT to change gloves between contact with different patients? A) To protect the EMT from becoming infected B) To minimize the amount of time the EMT's hands are spent in gloves C) To ensure soiled gloves are changed as soon as possible D) To prevent spreading infection to the next patient Answer:

47) A family member who keeps pleading with a deceased loved one to "wake up" is experiencing which reaction to death and dying? A) Anger B) Rejection C) Projection D) Denial Answer:

48) You have just worked a cardiac arrest call on a 48-year-old father of three. Despite your best efforts, the patient died in the emergency department. As you are getting your ambulance in service, the patient's wife rushes out of the emergency department. She finds you and begins screaming at you that her husband's death is your fault. She blames you for not getting on the scene fast enough, taking too long at the house, and not shocking her husband back to life like she has seen on television. What response should you have to her anger? A) Recognize that she is in the denial stage of grief and interrupt her hysterical behavior pattern by getting her attention and helping her calm down. B) Reassure her that you did everything you could and that everything will be okay. C) Correct her misconceptions and remind her that television shows are fiction, so she will not sue you in the future. D) Listen empathetically to all of her complaints and let her know she can contact you for any additional assistance. Answer:

57) You are on the scene of an "unknown medical" call. The patient is a 26-year-old, 250-pound male patient who suddenly becomes violently angry. Everything you say to the patient only makes him angrier. Offended by your questions, he screams that he is going to "cut your tongue out" and hurries into the kitchen. What should you do? A) Radio for police and then calmly walk out of the house, being sure to take all of your medical equipment. B) Tackle the patient before he can get a kitchen knife to stab you. C) Radio for police and relay to dispatch important scene information until they arrive. D) Leave immediately to a safe area and then call for police assistance. Answer:

A condition that is caused by a decreased number of red blood cells is called: A. erythrocythemia. B. polycythemia. C. leukemia. D. anemia.

A disruption of the balance between oncotic pressure and hydrostatic pressure is critical to regulating: A. waste removal and urine. B. oxygenation and perfusion. C. perfusion and proper circulation to the tissues. D. blood pressure and cell hydration.

A nonrebreather mask at 12 to 15 liters per minute will generally provide the patient what percentage of oxygen? A. 16-21 B. 90-100 C. 24-44 D. 80-100

A patient being transported by ambulance to the hospital can have his blood pressure measured by which of the following methods? A. Palpation B. Auscultation C. Blood pressure monitor D. Any of the above

A patient breathing in room air should be receiving ________ percent oxygen. A. 16 B. 5 C. 100 D. 21

A patient whose mental status can be described as "verbal" is able to: A. talk spontaneously and respond to the EMT's questions. B. respond only to a stimulus such as the EMT rubbing his sternum with his knuckles. C. tell you his or her name, his or her location, and what day it is. D. respond to speaking or shouting by opening the eyes.

A patient with a pulse rate of 120 beats per minute is considered which of the following? A. Bradycardic B. Dyscardic C. Normocardic D. Tachycardic

An oxygen saturation of 97% is considered which of the following? A. Hypoxia B. Severe hypoxia C. Significant hypoxia D. Normal

At which of the following locations could you palpate a malleolus? A. Elbow B. Spinal column C. Wrist D. Ankle

At which of the following points should you begin your scene size-up? A. When you arrive on the scene, but before exiting the ambulance B. When the patient or family member opens the door to the residence C. After exiting the ambulance, but before making patient contact D. As you approach the scene in the ambulance

A 59-year-old male has suffered a severe laceration from a circular saw while cutting wood in his garage. Upon your arrival, you find the patient sitting on the floor in a pool of blood. He is extremely pale. Based on your knowledge of pathophysiology, you would expect his body to try to compensate for the blood loss in all of the following ways, except: A. increased respirations. B. sweaty skin. C. increased pulse. D. constricted pupils.

A ________ is not typically used in the prehospital setting for oxygen administration. A. tracheostomy mask B. nasal cannula C. regulator D. partial rebreather mask

During an emergency move, which of the following techniques should be used, whenever possible, to minimize the possibility of further aggravating a possible spinal injury? A. Roll the patient over. B. Pull the patient from the feet, not the shoulders. C. Move the patient sideways, alternating between moving the shoulders, then the hips. D. Move the patient in the direction of the long axis of the body.

During the primary assessment of a responsive adult patient, where should the pulse be checked? A. At the brachial artery B. At the femoral artery C. At the carotid artery D. At the radial artery

Glucose is a building block for what form of energy in the cell? A. Electrolytes B. Mitochondria C. Endoplasmic reticulum D. ATP

How often should a patient's vital signs be reassessed during transport to the hospital after he has had his pulse restored with CPR and the use of an AED? A. Every 10 minutes B. Every 2 minutes C. Every 15 minutes D. Every 5 minutes

On which of the following types of calls should you bring your portable suction unit to the patient's side upon arrival on the scene? A. Cardiac arrest B. Seizure C. Motor vehicle collision D. All of the above

Physiology is the study of: A. exercise and nutrition. B. body structures. C. muscles and movement. D. body systems.

Production of energy occurs in what part of the cell? A. Nucleus B. Endoplasmic reticulum C. Potassium pump D. Mitochondria

Recording and documenting your patient's first set of vital signs is very important because, when combined with reassessments, it allows you to do which of the following? A. Make an accurate diagnosis of the patient's illness. B. Compare your patient's condition with other patients' conditions. C. Fill in all of the blanks on the patient care report form. D. Discover trends and changes in the patient's condition.

The inside of a person's thigh is also known as its ________ aspect. A. lateral B. axillary C. inferior D. medial

The method of taking blood pressure by using a stethoscope to listen to the characteristic sounds produced is called: A. articulation. B. pulsation. C. palpation. D. auscultation.

The movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide across the cell membranes from the capillaries is called: A. oxygenation. B. external respiration. C. dehydration. D. internal respiration.

The net result of respiratory challenges is low oxygen, also called ________, within the body. A. anoxia B. hypoglycemia C. anorexia D. hypoxia

The pressure against the walls of the blood vessels as blood is ejected from the heart and circulates through the body is the ________ blood pressure. A. diastolic B. central venous C. mean arterial D. systolic

The study of how disease affects the functioning of the human body is called: A. physiology. B. anatomy. C. psychology. D. pathophysiology.

The term lateral is best defined as: A. under the arms. B. to the back of. C. toward the middle of. D. to the side.

The trachea branches off at the ________ and forms two mainstem bronchi. A. pleura B. alveoli C. bronchioles D. carina

The two major portions of the skull are the: A. manubrium and mandible. B. frontal bone and ilium. C. atlas and axis. D. cranium and face.

The high-pitched sound caused by an upper airway obstruction is known as: A. rales. B. rhonchi. C. gurgling. D. stridor.

To calculate the minute volume, you need to multiply what two measurements? A. Tidal volume and dead space air B. Alveolar ventilation and respiratory rate C. Respiratory rate and bronchial dilation D. Tidal volume and respiratory rate

To determine blood pressure, the EMT should position the cuff over the upper arm and place the stethoscope over the brachial artery. Next, she should inflate the cuff, then slowly deflate the cuff, listening for clicks or tapping sounds while remembering the number at the first sound. What is the next step in taking a blood pressure? A. Re-inflate the cuff on the patient's arm and repeat the process to verify the reading. B. Dump all the pressure and record the number as the diastolic pressure. C. Remove the cuff from the patient's arm, place it on the opposite arm, and repeat the process to verify the reading. D. Continue releasing pressure until the clicks or tapping stop, and record both numbers. These are the blood pressure.

What BEST defines the immediate sense of the patient's degree of distress, formulated from the patient's immediate environment, appearance, and chief complaint? A. Scene size-up B. Secondary assessment C. Primary assessment D. General impression

What condition of immediate concern results from a loss of red blood cells due to hemorrhage? A. Decreased production of carbon dioxide B. Decrease in pulse rate C. Decreased ability to fight infection D. Decreased oxygen delivery to the tissues

What do chemoreceptors found in the body and vascular system measure? A. Low oxygen and low carbon dioxide B. High oxygen and high carbon dioxide C. High oxygen and low carbon dioxide D. Low oxygen and high carbon dioxide

What is the distinction between anatomy and physiology? A. The terms are synonymous. B. Anatomy is the study of body components and systems, and physiology is the study of injuries and disease processes. C. Anatomy is the study of physical body structures, whereas physiology is the study of emotions and behavior. D. Anatomy is the study of body structures, and physiology is the study of body function.

What is the likely impact of power stretchers on EMS? A. Insurance reimbursement will increase for ambulance services. B. There is no likely impact of power stretchers on EMS. C. There will be an increase in the number of home health transfers. D. There will be a decrease in the number of injuries among EMTs.

What is the main benefit of using a stair chair with a track-like system over a traditional stair chair? A. There is no benefit of a track-like stair chair over a traditional stair chair. B. A stair chair with a track-like system can be manipulated to lift into an ambulance using a hydraulic system. C. Only one EMT is required to operate a stair chair with a track-like system. D. A stair chair with a track-like system prevents the patient from having to be lifted down stairs.

What is the percentage of oxygen provided by connecting a high flow of oxygen to the oxygen inlet found on a pocket mask? A. 21% B. 16% C. 100% D. 50%

What is the relatively rare condition that can cause respiratory depression? A. Lungs can react unfavorably to oxygen when the concentration is too high for a long period of time and this can depress breathing. B. High concentration of oxygen can depress breathing when the patient has an allergic reaction from the oxygen. C. The eyes can develop scar tissue on the retina from a high concentration of oxygen. D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has changed the stimulus to breathe to the hypoxic drive and high concentration can depress breathing.

What is the sound of the soft tissue of the upper airway creating impedance or partial obstruction to the flow of air? A. Stridor B. Gurgling C. Hoarseness D. Snoring

What is the strongest and most muscular part of the heart? A. Right atrium B. Right ventricle C. Left atrium D. Left ventricle

What system produces chemicals called hormones that help to regulate many body activities and functions? A. Lymphatic system B. Digestive system C. Respiratory system D. Endocrine system

What two body systems are critical for the life support chain? A. Cardiopulmonary and digestive systems B. Respiratory and endocrine systems C. Cardiovascular and lymphatic systems D. Respiratory and cardiovascular systems

What vessel carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs? A. Aorta B. Pulmonary veins C. Vena cavae D. Pulmonary artery

When a person has an exaggerated response to a body invader, the person is said to have: A. hyposensitivity. B. antibody reaction. C. histamine dump. D. hypersensitivity.

When does respiratory distress change to respiratory failure? A. When the compensatory mechanism is no longer needed and the patient goes into arrest. B. When the respiratory challenge continues, the systems fail with the demand for oxygen, pupils dilate, and the skin becomes hot and dry. C. When the patient who is short of breath, with noisy respiration, presents in the tripod position but then suddenly has the condition clear up and return to normal. D. When the respiratory challenge continues, the systems cannot keep up with the demand, and skin color and mental status change.

When lifting a patient, a basic principle is to: A. lift with your lower back. B. extend your arms to maximize your lift. C. rush your lift to minimize your lift time. D. know your lifting limits.

When you place your finger in an infant's palm, she grasps it with her fingers. This is an example of which reflex? A. Rooting B. Sucking C. Moro D. Palmar

When you startle a 4-month-old, he throws his arms out, spreads his fingers, then grabs with his fingers and arms. The reaction is known as the: A. startle reflex. B. rooting reflex. C. scaffolding reflex. D. Moro reflex.

Where do baseline vital signs fit into the sequence of patient assessment? A. Ongoing assessment B. At the patient's side C. At primary assessment D. At secondary assessment

Where should the EMT assess for injury when caring for a patient who had a two-story fall and landed square on his feet? A. Patient's lower back B. Patient's femur C. Patient's ankles D. All of the above

Which layer of the skin is exposed to the environment? A. Adipose tissue B. Dermis C. Subcutaneous tissue D. Epidermis

Which of the following BEST describes an EMS provider's "sixth sense"? A. Scene safety B. Diagnostic ability C. General impression D. Clinical judgment

Which of the following body systems primarily produces hormones? A. Cardiovascular B. Exocrine C. Gastrointestinal D. Endocrine

Which of the following describes the midline of the body? A. An imaginary line dividing the body into a front and a back portion B. An imaginary line dividing the body into a top and bottom portion C. The intersection of two imaginary lines crossing at the umbilicus D. An imaginary line dividing the body into equal right and left halves

Which of the following factors should be considered before lifting any patient? A. Your physical limitations B. Communications C. The weight of the patient D. All of the above

Which of the following findings is generally NOT used to assess an adult's circulation? A. Evaluation for bleeding B. Patient's skin color, temperature, and condition C. Patient's distal pulse rate D. Patient's capillary refill time

Which of the following indicates a possible circulatory problem? A. Weak, thready pulse that is normal in rate B. Slow pulse C. Rapid pulse D. All of the above

Which of the following is NOT a consideration that should be used by the EMT in establishing the size of the danger zone? A. Presence of hazardous materials B. Wind direction C. Fire D. Amount of equipment needed

Which of the following is NOT an acceptable method or adjunct in restraining a patient? A. Restraining the patient face-up B. Placing a surgical mask over the patient's face to prevent spitting C. Securing all four limbs with approved restraint devices D. Hog-tying the patient

Which of the following is NOT determined in a scene size-up? A. Need for additional resources B. Potential hazards to the EMS crew C. Mechanism of injury D. Chief complaint

Which of the following is NOT part of the general impression? A. Position in which the patient is found B. Patient's age and race C. Patient's facial expression D. Patient's past medical history

Which of the following is NOT part of the upper extremities? A. Carpals B. Scapula C. Clavicle D. Calcaneus

Which of the following is a benefit of using small-volume nebulizers for the treatment of respiratory problems? A. The patient can easily carry this equipment in a purse or pocket. B. They will work even when the patient's ventilations are inadequate. C. Nebulized medications have fewer side effects than aerosolized medications from an inhaler. D. They allow greater exposure of the patient's lungs to the medication.

Which of the following is a function of the skin? A. Protection from the environment B. Regulation of body temperature C. Balancing water in the body D. All of the above

Which of the following is a known cause of inaccurate oxygen saturation readings? A. Jaundiced nail beds B. Fever C. Hypotension D. Carbon monoxide inhalation

Which of the following is a normal respiratory rate for an adult at rest? A. 24 breaths per minute B. 10 breaths per minute C. 22 breaths per minute D. 12 breaths per minute

Which of the following is a sign of adequate artificial ventilations in a pediatric patient? A. You notice cyanosis developing around the mouth. B. The breath is delivered easily. C. Pulse rate slows down. D. Pulse rate increases.

Which of the following is a sign of an inadequate airway? A. Regular chest movements B. Equal expansion of both sides of the chest when patient inhales C. Typical skin coloration D. Nasal flaring

Which of the following is an indicator that a patient's nervous system has been impaired? A. General weakness B. Changes in pupil dilation C. Hearing disturbances D. All of the above

Which of the following is another name for the squat-lift position? A. Weight-lifter technique B. Power grip C. Direct carry D. Power lift

Which of the following is completed first during the primary assessment? A. Assessing mental status B. Opening the airway C. Determining transport priority D. Forming a general impression

Which of the following is directly related to the endocrine system? A. Brain B. Kidneys C. Liver D. Pancreas

Which of the following is the correct manner for checking for responsiveness in an apparently unresponsive infant? A. Shaking the child B. Rubbing the sternum with your knuckles C. Pinching the earlobe D. Flicking the soles of the feet

Which of the following is the correct position of an EMT's feet when lifting? A. Two feet apart B. As close together as possible C. As wide apart as possible D. Shoulder-width apart

Which of the following is the only movable bone of the face? A. Maxillae B. Manubrium C. Zygoma D. Mandible

Which of the following is the proper position for maintaining the airway in a child with a decreased level of consciousness? A. Using a cervical collar to keep the chin elevated B. Flexing the neck to place the chin on the chest C. Hyperextension of the neck D. Placing the head and neck in a neutral position

Which of the following is the term used to describe an infant's reaction to his environment? A. Personality B. Bonding C. Attitude D. Temperament

Which of the following is true concerning the primary assessment? A. Manual airway maneuvers must be performed on all patients. B. External bleeding will be obvious as you enter the room and initially see the patient. C. The EMT should perform a sternal rub on all patients to test for response to painful stimuli. D. The primary assessment begins by just observing the patient as you enter the room.

Which of the following is used to immobilize a patient with a suspected spinal injury? A. Portable stretcher B. Basket stretcher C. Scoop stretcher D. Long backboard

Which of the following may be a hazard at the scene of a vehicle collision? A. Electrocution B. Other emergency vehicles C. Hazardous materials D. All of the above

Which of the following patients is a high priority for transport? A. Pediatric patient with abrasions to both knees from a fall B. High school student with dizziness after giving blood C. Adult female with knee pain D. Adult male with difficulty breathing

Which of the following should you do when reaching for something? A. Avoid twisting. B. Avoid reaching more than 15 to 20 inches in front of your body. C. Keep your back in a locked-in position. D. All of the above

Which of the following situations will NOT require additional resources at the scene? A. A call for a sick person at home during which an odor of natural gas is detected B. A 300-pound woman complaining of back pain C. A call to a manufacturing plant where a worker has his hand caught in a machine D. A patient with emphysema who is on oxygen therapy at home

Which of the following stages is commonly referred to as "the twilight years"? A. Adolescence B. Middle adulthood C. Early adulthood D. Late adulthood

Which of the following structures allows food to move from the mouth to the stomach? A. Vena cavae B. Trachea C. Duodenum D. Esophagus

Which of the following structures closes over the trachea to protect it during swallowing? A. Diaphragm B. Cricoid cartilage C. Pharynx D. Epiglottis

Which of the following structures or tissues is NOT part of the musculoskeletal system? A. Acetabulum B. Tendons C. Ligaments D. Fat

Which of the following techniques is used when formulating the general impression? A. Detecting odors B. Listening for unusual sounds C. Looking for visual clues D. All of the above

Which of the following terms describes the heart muscle's ability to generate its own electrical impulses? A. Irritability B. Conductivity C. Contractility D. Automaticity

Which urgent move should be performed for a patient seated in a vehicle? A. Rapid immobilization B. Rapid takedown C. Rapid takeout D. Rapid extrication

Why does a patient involved in an auto crash who has major internal abdominal bleeding require oxygen to maintain internal respiration? A. The red blood cells have a reduction of hemoglobin that reduces the amount of oxygen that can be transported. B. A lack of oxygen in the air decreases the oxygen diffused into the bloodstream, which creates an increase of carbon dioxide. C. The swelling of the abdominal space causes the diaphragm to be restricted, which will reduce the thorax space. D. A lack of circulating volume decreases the oxygen and carbon dioxide transport capability.`

Why should an EMT avoid the use of acronyms and abbreviations when communicating? A. The medical acronyms and abbreviations used by prehospital care providers and hospital staff are different. B. Using acronyms and abbreviations is considered unprofessional. C. They should only be avoided in verbal communications, where they can be misunderstood; they are expected in written patient care reports. D. There is a chance that they can lead to errors in continued care for the patient.

With regard to medical terminology, a prefix is: A. the foundation of a word or term. B. a modifier that indicates if a term is singular or plural. C. the combination of any two or more whole words. D. added to the beginnings of roots or words to modify or qualify their meaning.

You and your EMT partner are responding to a medical aid call in the rural West County area. The dispatcher advises that the caller is reporting the patient as having a history of "plegia." Why would it be beneficial to have the dispatcher clarify a prefix for the word plegia? A. A patient with plegia is potentially contagious, and the EMTs need to know what precautions are required. B. Because a dysplegiac patient generally requires an EMT-Paramedic level of care, and it may change the level of response. C. There is actually no need to clarify the word. D. Without a clarifying prefix, it is difficult for the EMTs to effectively prepare for the type of patient they may encounter.

You and your partner respond to a residence for a fall. You arrive to find a group of approximately 30 adults surrounding a middle-aged man who appears to be unconscious. A police car pulls in behind you. You should: A. leave the area and stage until the scene is cleared of people. B. have the police officer drag the victim over to the ambulance. C. enter the scene ahead of the police officer to provide care. D. wait for the police officer to assess the safety of the scene.

You are aggressively ventilating an adult patient with a bag-valve mask when you notice that his previously strong pulse is getting weaker. You should: A. reduce the concentration of oxygen. B. begin chest compressions. C. increase the concentration of oxygen. D. reduce the volume of the ventilations.

You are approaching a young adult male lying supine on the ground with his eyes closed. You should FIRST: A. expose his chest. B. feel for a pulse. C. open his airway. D. ask him if he is okay.

You are assessing a 12-year-old male patient who has been involved in a bicycle accident. This patient would be classified as being in which stage of life? A. Junior school age B. Middle school age C. Adolescent D. School age

You are assessing a 55-year-old male complaining of chest pain and have determined that his radial pulse is barely palpable. You also determine that there were 20 pulsations over a span of 30 seconds. Based on this, how would you report this patient's pulse? A. Pulse 20 and weak B. Pulse 40, weak, and irregular C. Pulse 20, weak, and regular D. Pulse 40 and weak

You are called to a kindergarten class where a boy has fallen while climbing on playground equipment. The teacher saw him fall and hit his stomach on a step. He is sobbing and holding his abdomen. As you assess him, you find his skin cool and clammy, his pulse is 132, respiratory is 28. Why is the boy acting this way? A. He possibly has wet his pants and does not want anyone to know. B. He is embarrassed and is afraid that the other students will make fun of him. C. He is really upset and wants his mother. D. He possibly has internal injuries and is in shock.

You are called to care for a child who has fallen out of a third-story window. You arrive to find the child in his mother's arms. As you approach, you notice the child's skin is pale with dark spots of cyanosis. You would report this uncommon condition of blotchy skin as: A. flushed. B. jaundiced. C. cyanotic. D. mottling.

You are dispatched to a local bar for the report of an unresponsive female patient found in the bathroom. As you approach the scene, you notice a large crowd outside the front door holding beer bottles. The group has pulled the patient outside. As you approach the scene, people from the group start yelling, "Do something! She's not breathing." What concerns you the most about this scene? A. The crowd stating the patient is not breathing B. The fact that the patient has been moved from where she was found C. The possibility that the patient may be intoxicated D. The large crowd that has been drinking and is now yelling at you

You are dispatched to a psychiatric emergency for a 68-year-old male. Dispatch provides no other information and, when questioned by you, they do not have any more information. Although all steps are important in dealing with this situation, which step is the MOST important? A. Vital signs and SAMPLE history B. Primary assessment C. Secondary assessment D. Scene size-up

You are on the scene of a tanker truck versus passenger vehicle collision on a rural highway. The vehicles are just beyond a curve in the roadway and there is a distinct odor of diesel fuel. It is dark and there is little traffic. Which of the following should be used to alert oncoming traffic to the situation? A. Yellow crime scene tape B. Flares C. Flashing lights on the ambulance D. Reflective triangles

You are on the scene where a 23-year-old female has attempted suicide by cutting her forearms with a razor. She is sitting in the front yard and has lost a large amount of blood. She is conscious and holding a small razor blade, and tells you to get away from her. Which of the following should NOT be done? A. Keep bystanders away from the patient. B. Use Body Substance Isolation (BSI). C. Call law enforcement for assistance. D. Take the razor blade away from her by force.

You have been called to a private residence where a 16-year-old female patient is reported by her parents to be "acting strangely" and possibly "on something." Upon your arrival, the patient is locked in her bedroom refusing to open the door. The patient refuses to speak to you and will only come out if her best friend is present. Your knowledge of life-span development indicates that the following characteristics are common with a patient of this age. A. Preoccupation with body image B. Self-destructive behaviors such as tobacco, alcohol, and drug use C. Depression and suicide D. All of the above

You have been dispatched to a shopping mall to assess a 1-month-old female patient that tumbled out of her stroller while her mother was shopping. Upon your arrival, the baby is awake, alert, and happily smiling and cooing at her mom. The mother reports that the child did not appear to suffer any injuries as a result of the fall. As you assess the patient and place your finger in her hand, she grasps it tightly. This is known as the: A. sucking reflex. B. rooting reflex. C. Moro reflex. D. palmar reflex.

You have just arrived on the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a compact car was struck from behind by a delivery truck. The driver of the delivery truck is standing outside his vehicle talking to police when you arrive, but the driver of the car is still seated in the driver's seat. You have noted moderate damage to the rear of the car. For which of the following injuries should you have the highest level of suspicion? A. Fractures of the lower extremities B. Chest injury C. Abdominal injuries D. Neck injury

Your partner is assessing a 55-year-old man who was found sitting on the tailgate of his truck after being involved in a motor vehicle collision. You should FIRST: A. lay the patient down in the truck bed. B. instruct the patient to stand up. C. assist the patient to the stretcher. D. manually immobilize the cervical spine.

Your patient has a heart rate of 82, a respiratory rate of 16, and a blood pressure of 120/80 and does not appear to be in any distress. You should repeat vital sign measurements at least every: A. 10 minutes. B. 5 minutes. C. 20 minutes. D. 15 minutes.

Your patient is an 86-year-old male with congestive heart failure. He called for help tonight because he cannot breathe and feels like he is "drowning in his own lungs." The patient has had several heart attacks in the past and he tells you his "heart is shot." The patient's cardiac output is likely diminished because: A. the pressure in the system against which the heart must pump is increased (afterload is increased). B. less blood fills his heart with each contraction (preload is diminished). C. the heart's force of contraction is reduced (contractility is diminished). D. All of the above are true.

Your patient is a 15-year-old male with a history of multiple prior hospitalizations for asthma. Upon your arrival the patient responds only to painful stimuli and is making very weak respiratory effort. Which of the following should you do next? A. Contact medical control. B. Check the patient's oxygen saturation level. C. Assist the patient with his inhaler. D. Assist the patient's ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen.

Your patient is a 37-year-old male sitting on the kitchen floor. His wife is attempting to talk with him, but he does not look at her or answer. He is fidgeting and has apparently thrown some dishes against the wall. What should be your first consideration? A. Ask the wife to step into the other room so you can speak with the patient alone. B. Quickly check the patient's carotid pulse. C. Ask the wife to step outside with you so you can get information from her. D. Stay a safe distance away.

________ blood returns to the right side of the heart. A. Red B. Anemic C. Oxygenated D. Deoxygenated

Cylinder sizes

D - 350 L E - 625 L M - 3,000 L G - 5,300 L H - 6,900 L

Assessing blood pressure on a patient with an AV shunt, fistula, or graft could lead to which of the following? Inaccurate blood pressure readings Uncontrollable hemorrhage in the extremity Damage to the AV shunt, fistula, or graft, requiring surgery Nothing, as there is no need to avoid assessing blood pressure in a patient's arm with an AV fistula, shunt, or graft.

Damage to the AV shunt, fistula, or graft, requiring surgery

Why might you consider contacting medical direction before applying a tourniquet in the case of uncontrollable bleeding from an AV fistula?

Damage to the fistula may occur

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of an EMT at the scene of a hazardous materials emergency?

Decontaminating injured victims

You are administering oxygen to a 25-year-old male with an oxygen saturation of 90 percent. To verify the effectiveness of your therapy, you would expect to see the patient's oxygen saturation:

Decrease

You are administering oxygen to a 25-year-old male with a heart rate of 120. To verify the effectiveness of your therapy, you would expect to see the patient's heart rate:

Decrease.

What condition of immediate concern results from a loss of red blood cells due to hemorrhage?

Decreased oxygen delivery to the tissues

Which of the following is a potential complication of hyperventilating a patient with a brain injury? Increasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood Increasing blood flow to the brain Decreasing blood flow to the brain Decreasing the patient's blood pressure

Decreasing blood flow to the brain

Negative side effects of artificial ventilation

Decreasing cardiac output/dropping blood pressure (heart can't use negative pressure to help fill chambers). Minimized by using just enough volume to raise the chest Gastric distension: Filling of stomach with air. Minimized with airway adjuncts & proper airway opening techniques Hyperventilation: Ventilating too quickly, causes too much CO2 to be blown off and causes vasoconstriction and limit brain blood flow

You are palpating the abdomen of a motor vehicle collision patient when you feel a pulsing mass. You should:

Defer further abdominal palpation.

When extrication will involve cutting the roof off a vehicle, stabilization of the vehicle should include:

Deflating all tires by pulling the valve stems.

Which of the following is NOT a common field finding in spinal injuries? Deformity Impaired breathing Tenderness Pain

Deformity

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of decontamination from hazardous materials?

Deodorizing

Which of the following is defined as an area of the body surface that is innervated by a single spinal nerve? Spinous process None of the above Malar Dermatome

Dermatome

Complications of SCA include

Destruction of the spleen, sickle cell pain crisis, acute chest syndrome, priapism, stroke, jaundice

What is an Oropharyngeal Airway?

Device inserted through the patient's mouth to maintain an open airway

What are airway adjuncts?

Devices that aid in opening an airway and keeping it open

What is the pressure remaining in the arteries after the pulse wave has passed through?

Diastolic blood pressure

Pulmonary respiration

Diffusion of oxygen and CO2 that takes place between the alveoli and circulating blood cells

Cellular respiration

Diffusion of oxygen and CO2 that takes place between the cells and circulating blood

Which of the following is the underlying cause of neurogenic shock? Blood loss from damaged spinal blood vessels Failure of the heart to adequately pump blood Extreme emotional response to paralysis Dilation of blood vessels

Dilation of blood vessels

You respond to the scene of a dialysis clinic where you presented with a 64-year-old male patient with blood soaked bandages noted around his right arm at the site of his A-V fistula. How should you manage this patient's hemorrhage?

Direct pressure on the A-V fistula with elevation

Which of the following refers to a condition that interferes significantly with a person's ability to engage in activities of daily living? Handicapped Disabled Terminal Disability

Disabled

You are assessing a patient in the front seat of a vehicle that was involved in a head-on collision. As you examine the interior of the vehicle, you notice the air bags have not deployed. What action should you take in order to render the scene safe to work?

Disconnect the battery and wait 2 minutes before entering the vehicle.

If the steering wheel must be displaced during extrication and the air bag has not deployed, which of the following actions is recommended by air bag manufacturers?

Disconnect the battery cables.

Recording and documenting your patient's first set of vital signs is very important because, when combined with reassessments, it allows you to do which of the following?

Discover trends and changes in the patient's condition.

Name the process that removes the biological (etiological) contamination hazards as it destroys microorganisms and their toxins.

Disinfection

Which of the following actions may need to be taken by the EMT when treating and transporting a patient who was exposed to, and contaminated by, a hazardous material?

Disposing of patient care equipment such as blood-pressure cuffs and backboards

As it pertains to hazardous materials, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration requires employers to:

Document the appropriate level of training for each employee.

Which two types of terrorism does the Federal Bureau of Investigations define as occurring in the United States?

Domestic and international

The pulse palpated on the top of the foot is called the ________ pulse.

Dorsalis pedis

Which of the following is a common reason that EMTs are struck by motor vehicles at the scene of motor vehicle collisions on roadways?

Drivers are distracted by the scene of the collision and do not pay attention to what they are doing.

Which of the following BEST describes when positive pressure is applied to the patient's airway using a CPAP machine? Between inhalation and exhalation During exhalation only During both inhalation and exhalation During inhalation only

During both inhalation and exhalation

You are an EMT on the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which there are 50 patients from a bus roll-over. Incident command has been established and EMS, law enforcement, and rescue sectors are established. You have just discovered that one of the bus passengers was carrying a suspicious package that is now leaking a white powdery substance. Which of the following entities should you contact about this?

EMS sector officer

Which of the following BEST describes a disease such as deafness? Acquired disease Congenital disease Either a congenital or acquired disease Neither a congenital nor acquired disease

Either a congenital or acquired disease

The medical acronym EMD stands for which of the following? Answer Emergency Medical Director Emergency Medical Doctor Emergency Medical Driver Emergency Medical Dispatch

Emergency Medical Dispatch

Which of the following is a resource for specific actions to be taken by personnel dealing with a hazardous materials incident?

Emergency response guidebook

When should the EMT calculate a GCS with a patient who suffered a fall of 20 feet from his apartment building? At the hospital before writing the care report En route to the hospital As he approaches the patient Before departing from the scene

En route to the hospital

Which of the following body systems produces hormones?

Endocrine

If you notice the apneic patient's abdomen getting larger during artificial ventilation, what should you do?

Ensure that you are not hyperventilating the patient

Which of the following is the highest priority during extrication?

Ensuring your personal safety

Which layer of the skin is exposed to the environment?

Epidermis

Which of the following structures closes over the trachea to protect it during swallowing?

Epiglottis

Which of the following structures protects the lower airway from food, liquids, and other substances?

Epiglottis

Which of the following structures allows food to move from the mouth to the stomach?

Esophagus

If you are first on scene, what should you do first in determining where and how should you park your apparatus?

Establish Command and confirm the exact location of the incident with the dispatch center before parking.

You are called to a local hardware store for a male patient complaining of difficulty breathing. As you pull into the parking lot you notice several people in front of the building coughing and in obvious distress. What would be an appropriate course of action at this point?

Evaluate the scene further for indications of a hazardous environment and request a hazardous materials response.

How often should a patient's vital signs be reassessed during transport to the hospital after he has had his pulse restored with CPR and the use of an AED?

Every 5 minutes

You are dispatched to a 42-year-old male who was shot in the abdomen and thrown from a vehicle. The patient is critical and a high-category trauma; however, due to the mechanism of illness, it is necessary to backboard the patient prior to transport. What is an important assessment before securing the patient?

Examining the patient for entrance and exit wounds

You are dispatched to a 42-year-old male who was shot in the abdomen and thrown from a vehicle. The patient is critical and a high-category trauma; however, due to the mechanism of injury, it is necessary to backboard the patient prior to transport. What is an important assessment before securing the patient?

Examining the patient for entrance and exit wounds

Most state statutes allow an emergency vehicle operator to do which of the following on emergency calls? Drive around lowered cross-arms at a railroad crossing Exceed posted speed limits if life and property are not endangered Be exempt from liability in the event of a collision Pass a stopped school bus with its red flashers on

Exceed posted speed limits if life and property are not endangered

Most state statutes allow an emergency vehicle operator to do which of the following on emergency calls? Answer Drive around lowered cross-arms at a railroad crossing Exceed posted speed limits if life and property are not endangered Be exempt from liability in the event of a collision Pass a stopped school bus with its red flashers on

Exceed posted speed limits if life and property are not endangered

What is a cycle of filling and draining of the abdominal cavity during peritoneal dialysis called?

Exchange

The formula dose x time represents which of the following?

Exposure

EMS operations generally include the Mobile command center and what other six areas?

Extrication, Staging, Triage, Treatment, Transportation, and Rehabilitation

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a neurological assessment that looks at which of the following? Eye opening, verbal response, and motor response Grip strength, verbal response, and eye opening Verbal response, motor response, and AVPU Motor response, arm movement, and speech

Eye opening, verbal response, and motor response

An acronym for the manually triggered ventilation device is

FROPVD

Which of the following can serve as appropriate eye protection for an EMT on the scene of an extrication?

Face conforming goggles

Which of the following structures or tissues is NOT part of the musculoskeletal system?

Fat

You have been dispatched to a local shopping mall where a 63-year-old female patient has slipped and fallen in a department store. Upon your arrival, you find her supine on the ground, conscious and oriented with stable vital signs, complaining of severe pain to the upper portion of her left leg and hip. Her left leg is slightly shortened and rotated outward. The bone most commonly fractured with a "broken hip" is the:

Femur

Find another site to measure her blood pressure.

Which of the following is the BEST protection for an EMT's upper body during an extrication operation?

Firefighting turnout coat

Your patient is a 30-year-old construction worker who fell from a scaffolding and has been impaled through the right orbit by a 36-inch piece of concrete reinforcement bar. The patient responds to verbal stimuli and appears to have multiple other injuries. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? Remove the reinforcement bar and pack the orbit with sterile moist dressings to keep the scene time under 10 minutes. Transport with the reinforcement bar in place to prevent delay at the scene. Test the reinforcement bar for stability and remove it only if it is loose enough to be easily pulled from the wound. Firmly stabilize the reinforcement bar in place so that the rescue crew can cut it short.

Firmly stabilize the reinforcement bar in place so that the rescue crew can cut it short.

Johnny is an EMT with a local ambulance service. As part of his job, he is trained to recognize the existence of a potentially dangerous scene involving hazardous materials and know when to request a hazmat response. Johnny's level of hazardous materials training is at the _______ level.

First Responder Awareness

Soraya is an EMT who volunteers for a local fire department. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, she helps prevent the incident from becoming larger and ensures bystanders remain safe. Soraya's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level.

First Responder Operations

Which of the following animals is the direct source of exposure of the bacterium that causes the plague to humans?

Fleas

You respond to a cafeteria to find an unconscious person with gurgling sounds upon exhalation and inhalation. What is the probable cause of the respiratory sounds?

Fluids in the airway

Which of the following is a common hazard associated with the inner circle of a typical auto extrication?

Flying glass and metal fragments

Which of the following is the opening at the base of the skull? Foramen magnum Orbits Spinous process Temporomandibular joint

Foramen magnum

Artificial (positive pressure) ventilation

Forcing air/oxygen into the lungs when a patient has stopped or has inadequate breathing. Opposite of normal body inhalation (use positive pressure vs. creating negative pressure)

A patient with bilateral femur fractures would have which of the following?

Fractures of both femurs

You are caring for a 27-year-old male who has a puncture wound to the right upper chest. The patient was stabbed with a serrated steak knife by his ex-girlfriend. You have placed an occlusive dressing to the site and began emergent transport to the closest trauma center. However, while en route the patient begins to complain of increasing shortness of breath. You notice a decrease in ventilatory volume and an increase in thoracic diameter. Which of the following options would be the best step to perform next?

Free a corner or edge of the dressing and have the patient exhale to release pressure buildup. And re-seal the wound.

Free a corner or edge of the dressing to release pressure buildup.

Which of the following is NOT a cause of unequal pupils?

Fright

Which of the following is acceptable for maintaining a seal between an oxygen cylinder and regulator?

Gasket

Which of the following is a complication of using an FROPVD on an adult patient?

Gastric distension can occur

Which of the following should be used to protect a patient during extrication?

Goggles

What is the universal color for medical grade oxygen tanks?

Green

For which of the following wounds should the EMT apply an absorbent dressing moistened with sterile saline and then cover it with an occlusive dressing?

Gunshot wound (GSW) to the abdomen from which a loop of intestine is protruding

Which of the following is NOT generally recognized as a form of terrorist incident?

Harassment

Andrea is an EMS supervisor with a combined EMS/Fire department. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, she uses her knowledge of hazardous materials to support the activities of other responders and manage the scene. Andrea's level of hazardous materials training is at the _________ level.

Hazardous Materials Specialist

Eduardo is an EMT with a major metropolitan fire department. He is assigned to a station within an industrial complex. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, Eduardo functions on a team where he plugs a leaking drum. Eduardo's level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level.

Hazardous Materials Technician

When using a short spine immobilization device, which part of the body is secured last? Arms Torso Head Legs

Head

Your patient has been involved in a motor vehicle collision. He has a contusion on his forehead, is confused, and is bleeding from his nose. His heart rate is 90 beats per minute, blood pressure is 80/58 mmHg, respirations are 20 breaths per minute, and his skin is cool and clammy. Which of the following sets of injuries should you suspect? Head injury, spine injury, and internal bleeding Head injury Head injury and spine injury Head injury and internal bleeding

Head injury, spine injury, and internal bleeding

Which of the following is the correct position to use when transporting a patient who has a tracheostomy tube? Shock position Prone Head slightly elevated Supine

Head slightly elevated

Once you encounter uncontrolled bleeding from an AV fistula, what would you consider using to control bleeding in addition to direct pressure and elevation?

Hemostatic dressings

Which of the following features increases the appeal of an infectious agent for use in terrorist attacks?

High infectivity

Hypercapnia

High levels of CO2

What is the underlying cause of bluish or reddish facial discoloration following a traumatic asphyxiation?

High pressure on the chest leads to blood being forced from the right atrium into the face and neck.

What is the underlying cause of bluish or reddish facial discoloration following a traumatic asphyxiation?

High pressure on the chest leads to blood being forced from the right atrium into the face and neck.

Why does air enter the lungs during inhalation?

High pressure outside the body & negative pressure inside the lungs

In most cases, which of the following is the correct way to provide initial management of a suspected cervical spine injury? Hold the patient's head still in a neutral, "eyes forward" position. Gently apply pressure to the top of the patient's head. Maintain the patient's head and neck in the position they are found. Provide approximately 15 pounds of upward cervical traction.

Hold the patient's head still in a neutral, "eyes forward" position.

Alveolar ventilation

How much air actually reaches the alveoli

What is the long bone of the upper portion of the arm?

Humerus

Which of the following may result from the application of a cervical collar that is too large for the patient? Rotation of the head and neck Hyperflexion of the neck Hyperextension of the neck Excessive lateral movement of the mandible

Hyperextension of the neck

You are called to a 72-year-old patient with weakness and headache with an initial blood pressure of 140/92. His repeat blood pressure at 5 minutes is unchanged. His condition is called:

Hypertension.

To prepare a patient for intubation

Hyperventilate

Pulse oximeter.You have a 38-year-old who has fainted. Following your local protocol you use a light wave device to determine the SpO2. As the EMT, you attach the device on the patient's finger, which gives you a reading of 91. What does that reading indicate?

Hypoxia

In which of the following circumstances should a helmet be removed? If you suspect a skull fracture and need to palpate the head If you want to place a nasal cannula on the patient but cannot because his ears are covered by the helmet If the helmet interferes with airway management If the helmet fits so snugly that you cannot inspect the ears for the presence of blood or fluid

If the helmet interferes with airway management

How can you tell immediately that the patient's airway is stable?

If the patient is able to speak normally

What is the large, wing-shaped bone on either side of the pelvis?

Ilium

Which of the following phases of extrication follows the other three?

Immobilizing and extricating the patient

Which of the following is NOT a consideration in the general protection against agents used in terrorist attacks?

Immunization

Which of the following causes worsening of the damage in a brain injury? Allowing seepage of cerebrospinal fluid from the ears or nose Administration of 100 percent oxygen Failure to keep the patient awake and talking Improper management of airway and ventilation

Improper management of airway and ventilation

When responding to an emergency located on an interstate highway in a medium-duty ambulance, the vehicle should be positioned:

In the same direction as other response vehicles in a single line.

Failure of the liver would result in which of the following?

Inability to detoxify harmful substances in the bloodstream

You are on the scene of a probable terrorist attack with several other agencies, both local and federal. In order to operate in an efficient manner, all agencies should follow the:

Incident Command System.

As pressure within the cranium increases, which of the following is the result? Decreased blood pressure, decreased pulse Increased blood pressure, decreased pulse Decreased blood pressure, increased pulse Increased blood pressure, increased pulse

Increased blood pressure, decreased pulse

What signs and symptoms would indicate inadequate breathing in a patient?

Increased effort to breathe, cyanosis, cool clammy skin, altered mental status

You are treating a 54-year-old female patient who was involved in a domestic dispute; you notice an abrasion to the side of her head. The patient is unresponsive with a blood pressure of 200/110, a pulse of 60 beats per minute, and slightly irregular breathing. The patient's presentation is most likely caused by which of the following? Increased intracranial pressure Coup-contrecoup injury Closed head injury Increased arterial pressure

Increased intracranial pressure

Respiratory distress

Increased work of breathing; a sensation of shortness of breath

Nonrebreather mask only

Increasing respiratory distress Short of breath 3-4 word sentences increasing anxiety

What can cause a chronic airway obstruction?

Infections that cause swelling of the airway

Which of the following respiratory processes requires the active use of muscles?

Inhalation

Your patient is a 16-year-old male who was ejected from an all-terrain vehicle and struck his head on a large rock. He was not wearing a helmet. He is unresponsive with shallow, irregular respirations; a blood pressure of 170/110 mmHg; and a heart rate of 50 beats per minute. Which of the following interventions would be MOST appropriate? Insert an oropharyngeal airway and ventilate via bag-valve mask at 30 breaths per minute. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and give oxygen by nonrebreather mask at 15 lpm. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and give oxygen by nonrebreather mask at 15 lpm. Insert an oropharyngeal airway and ventilate via bag-valve mask at 20 breaths per minute.

Insert an oropharyngeal airway and ventilate via bag-valve mask at 20 breaths per minute.

Common signs and symptoms following an injury to a hollow abdominal organ include:

Irritation and peritonitis.

What 2 questions must you consider when assessing a patient's airway

Is the airway open? Will the airway stay open?

2 questions when assessing breathing

Is the patient breathing? If so, is the breathing adequate?

Which of the following structures does NOT form part of the thorax?

Ischium

Why is the skin temperature such an important vital sign?

It can provide valuable information about the patient's circulation, a drop in perfusion, and if the blood vessels in the skin constrict, which could indicate a life-threatening problem.

As air travels through the nasal passages, what happens to it?

It is warm and humidified

Which of the following BEST describes the benefit of a three-sided occlusive dressing over a foursided occlusive dressing for an open chest wound?

It reduces the chances of developing a tension pneumothorax.

Which of the following BEST describes the benefit of a three-sided occlusive dressing over a four-sided occlusive dressing for an open chest wound?

It reduces the chances of developing a tension pneumothorax.

Which of the following is the rule of thumb for determining the stability of a vehicle that has been involved in a collision?

It should only be considered stable after assessment by trained rescue personnel.

Jaundiced.

____ transplants are the most common in the US, with about ______ per year

Kidney; 16,000

The increase in the work of breathing is reported as:

Labored breathing.

Which of the following is classified as an open head injury? Contusion without a skull fracture Laceration with a skull fracture Laceration without a skull fracture Both A and B

Laceration with a skull fracture

Anemia

Lack of a normal number of red blood cells in the circulation

When pupils are dilated they are:

Larger than normal.

Which of the following provides the BEST protection for the EMT's hands during a vehicle rescue operation?

Leather gloves

What is the strongest and most muscular part of the heart?

Left ventricle

Your patient is an 84-year-old male with difficulty breathing and peripheral edema. He tells you he has been suffering for many years with "heart failure" and his condition is worsening, especially with trouble breathing at night. Your knowledge of cardiovascular physiology suggests that his condition could have resulted from the failure of either the right or left side of his heart. Which chamber of the heart is the strongest, most muscular part of the heart and is primarily responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the body?

Left ventricle

Which of the following transport positions is indicated for the patient in shock? Legs raised 8 to 12 inches. Left lateral recumbent Sitting Recumbent

Legs raised 8 to 12 inches.

Upon arrival at the scene of a motor vehicle collision, you find a vehicle that is on fire. The fire is confined to the engine compartment and the hood is tightly closed. Of the following, which is the BEST course of action?

Let the fire burn and concentrate on extricating the patient.

You are at the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a single vehicle has collided with a tree. You note that the driver's side air bag has deployed. Which of the following is recommended by air bag manufacturers?

Lift the air bag and inspect the steering wheel for damage.

Which of the following is a vascular organ in the abdomen that can produce blood loss quickly enough to result in life-threatening hemorrhage following high mechanism of injury blunt trauma?

Liver

Which of the following is a vascular organ in the abdomen that can produce blood loss quickly enough to result in life-threatening hemorrhage following high mechanism of injury blunt trauma?

Liver

Signs of adequate breathing

Look: equal chest expansion Listen: present and equal breath sounds Feel: air moving out of nose/mouth

Which of the following signs is LEAST likely to indicate a traumatic brain injury? Low blood pressure Irregular breathing pattern Vomiting Irrational behavior

Low blood pressure

Nasal cannula

Low concentrations of oxygen. 4-6 L/m, higher flowrates are uncomfortable 24-44% oxygen

Hypoxia

Low levels of oxygen

During transport, where should the catheter bag be after loading the patient and stretcher into the ambulance if the patient has an indwelling urinary catheter? In the patient's lap, but not higher than his heart On the ambulance floor Hanging from the ceiling of the ambulance or IV pole higher than the patient Lower than the patient, but not on the floor

Lower than the patient, but not on the floor

Which of the following BEST describes the Trendelenburg position?

Lying on the back with head lower than the legs

If the patient cannot open and maintain the airway themselves, what must you do?

Maintain it for them!

What is another name for the zygomatic bone? Malar Maxillae Temporal Mandible

Malar

Which of the following is the only movable bone of the face?

Mandible

Your 15-year-old patient was playing baseball today and was struck in the face by a baseball bat. As you assess his injuries and manage spinal immobilization, you note that several of his teeth are broken and he seems to have deformity and pain isolated to his lower jaw. The lower jaw bone is also known as the:

Mandible.

Which of the following is a strategy to maintain an occlusive dressing to bloody or diaphoretic skin?

Manually maintain pressure.

Which of the following is a strategy to maintain an occlusive dressing to bloody or diaphoretic skin?

Manually maintain pressure.

What source will provide first aid information about hazardous materials for employees at a work site?

Material Safety Data Sheet

The abbreviation mmHg indicates that the blood pressure is measured by which of the following comparisons?

Millimeters of mercury

On assessment of the midsection of a 32-year-old male who was struck by a car, you find an abdominal evisceration with several loops of his large intestine exposed. The abdomen appears to have a clean-cut laceration and the bleeding is controlled. Which of the following is the BEST approach toward managing the exposed intestines?

Moisten a sterile dressing with saline solution and cover the abdominal contents.

Why should EMS providers administer oxygen to a patient who is suspected of hypoxia?

More oxygen in the inspired air will increase the amount absorbed by the blood.

Hemodialysis

Most common, where machine pumps blood through filters to remove toxins and excess fluid

Which of the following is the most common type of multiple-casualty incident that EMS providers will respond to?

Motor vehicle collisions

You are called to care for a chi ld who has fal len out of a third-story window. You arrive to find the chi ld in his mother's arms. As you approach, you notice the child's skin is pale with dark spots of cyanosis. You would report this uncommon condition of blotchy skin as:

Mottled.

Artificial Ventilation Techniques

Mouth-to-mask* Two-rescuer bag-valve mask (BVM)* Flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device One-rescuer bag-valve mask* *preferably with high-concentration supplemental oxygen

Chemical cold packs are carried on the ambulance for treatment of which of the following? Answer Seizures Musculoskeletal injuries Snake bites Abdominal pain

Musculoskeletal injuries

Which safety device prevents car doors from opening during a collision?

Nader pin

Low concentrations of oxygen (24% to 44%) can be administered by using

Nasal cannula

When disconnecting a battery cable to disrupt a vehicle's electrical system, the EMT should disconnect the:

Negative cable from the battery.

You are treating a 35-year-old male patient that has been involved in a motorcycle incident. The patient is unresponsive with a blood pressure of 60/40, a pulse of 66 beats per minute, and respirations of 18 breaths per minute. The patient's presentation is most likely caused by which of the following? Cardiogenic shock Septic shock Increased intracranial pressure Neurogenic shock

Neurogenic shock

Which of the following describes the proper position of the patient's head for spinal immobilization? Chin tilted upward for airway maintenance Neutral, in-line "eyes forward" position Stabilized in position found The "sniffing" position

Neutral, in-line "eyes forward" position

Is removal of carbon monoxide from the cells a function of the blood?

Your patient is breathing 21% oxygen. Is the patient on supplemental oxygen?

What are some signs of an inadequate airway?

No signs of breathing Evidence of foreign bodies in the airway Breathing movement is limited to the abdomen Nasal flaring Retractions (in children)

You respond to a 30-month-old patient who has passed out. Is the patient's blood pressure important to your treatment and why?

No, blood pressure taken on children younger than age 3 is difficult and has little impact on the patient's field management.

A 36-year-old male was accidentally shot with a nail gun into the chest. You see the nail, which protrudes about 2 to 3 centimeters from the thorax, when you visualize the injury site. Under which of the following circumstances should you remove the nail from the injury site?

None of the above

Which of the following is a good choice for preventing further injury to a patient during auto extrication?

None of the above

Oxygen delivery rates/concentrations

Nonrebreather: 12-15 L/m, 80-90% Nasal cannula: 1-6 L/m, 24-44% Partial rebreather: 9-10 L/m, 40-60% Venturi mask: Up to 15 L/m, 24-60% Tracheostomy mask: 8-10 L/m

An oxygen saturation of 97 percent is considered which of the following?

Normal

Which of the following is an unsafe behavior that contributes to most injuries at the scene of vehicle collisions?

Not wearing proper protective gear

If the patient is choking and coughing, what should you do?

Nothing, just call 911

Which of the following agencies have developed regulations for dealing with hazardous materials emergencies

OSHA and EPA

Bariatrics is defined as the branch of medicine that deals with the cause, prevention, and treatment of which disease? Diabetes Sleep apnea Blindness Obesity

Obesity

Obtain the blood pressure by palpation.

You arrive on the scene of an unknown emergency. As you scan the surrounding area, you notice a large number of people wearing unique armbands and shouting anti-government comments though you are not aware of any public gathering scheduled for today. Your suspicions of a potential terrorist incident are the result of:

On-scene warning signs.

You can only use a Oropharyngeal airway on what kind of patient?

One that does not have a gag reflex (unconscious)

Which of the following BEST describes an evisceration?

Open wound of the abdomen from which organs protrude

When working at a nighttime emergency on a roadway, which of the following safety considerations should the prudent EMS provider do to increase safety?

Operate amber warning lights only, if the option is available.

What does Chronic mean?

Over time

Patient care of SCA

Oxygen Monitor for respiration Monitor fever patients for hypoperfusion Transport to stroke center if possible

3 major issues to consider about oxygen

Oxygen is a drug Oxygen can cause harm by reacting with anaerobic respiration waste once restored Oxygen should be administered based on your overall evaluation of the patient's presentation & possible underlying conditions

Compare the pain a patient experiences when receiving a shock from a pacemaker against the pain felt when receiving a shock from an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD). Pacemakers are painless and AICDs are painful. Both are painful. Pacemakers are painful and AICDs are painless. Both are painless.

Pacemakers are painless and AICDs are painful.

Your patient is a 27-year-old male who has been involved in a motorcycle collision in which he was not wearing a helmet. He does not respond when you speak to him, but he makes incomprehensible sounds when you press your knuckles on his sternum. Which of the following BEST describes his level of consciousness? Alert Verbal Painful Unresponsive

Painful

What are the three ways to take blood pressure?

Palpation, auscultation, and blood pressure monitor

Which organ secretes insulin after a person eats a large meal?

Pancreas

A ________ is not typically used in the prehospital setting for oxygen administration.

Partial rebreather mask

Which of the following is the EMT's key role at the scene of an auto extrication?

Patient advocate

You are attending to an end-stage renal disease (ESRD) patient who has missed dialysis. Which of the following statements is most accurate?

Patients who have missed dialysis and who become unresponsive and pulseless respond very well to the use of an AED.

Which of the following systems includes the pairs of nerves that enter and exit the spinal cord between each pair of vertebrae? Peripheral nervous system Central nervous system Autonomic nervous system All of the above

Peripheral nervous system

Which of the following is the main advantage of peritoneal dialysis over hemodialysis? Peritoneal dialysis is much faster. Peritoneal dialysis is more effective. Peritoneal dialysis is likely to be done at the patient's home. Peritoneal dialysis is less prone to infection.

Peritoneal dialysis is likely to be done at the patient's home.

Signs that identify the hazardous material contained within a transport vehicle are called:

Placards.

Which of the following is the BEST way to assess a patient's skin temperature?

Place the back of your hand against the patient's forehead.

Your patient is pregnant at 20 weeks' gestation and has been thrown from a horse. She is complaining of back pain. Which of the following is the correct procedure for immobilizing her spine? Use a short immobilization device and transport the patient in a sitting position. Place the patient supine on the backboard. Place the patient on her left side on the backboard. Place the patient supine on the backboard, then put a pillow under the right side of the backboard.

Place the patient supine on the backboard, then put a pillow under the right side of the backboard.

Place your gloved hand over the wound.

Tracheostomy mask

Placed over stoma

Your patient is a 21-year-old male who has a gunshot wound to the chest. Which of the following is the highest priority in managing this patient?

Placing an occlusive dressing over the wound

Your patient is a 21-year-old male who has a gunshot wound to the chest. Which of the following is the highest priority in managing this patient?

Placing an occlusive dressing over the wound

Which of the following constituents makes up half of the volume of blood in the body?

Plasma

A clot cannot form without which of the following blood components?

Platelets

You have been dispatched to the site of a construction accident where a 36-year-old male patient was moderately cut by some machinery. His left arm has a 4" deep laceration that appears to have stopped bleeding with the gauze and direct pressure applied by his coworkers. Your knowledge of physiology suggests that which component of blood was partially responsible for forming clotting factors to stop the bleeding?

Platelets

A drug that is commonly used to prevent clot formation, especially in heart patients, is

Plavix

Your patient is a 35-year-old woman who was driving a minivan that was struck in the driver's side door by another vehicle. You notice that when you apply pressure to her sternum with your knuckles she extends her legs and flexes her arms and wrists. When giving your radio report, which of the following terms should you use to describe this? Tonic-clonic activity Posturing Cushing's reflex Battle's sign

Posturing

What category would include a patient with a blood pressure of 134/84 mmHg?

Prehypertension

Which of the following phases of extrication comes before the other three?

Preparing for the rescue

Once access to the patient is gained, which of the following is the next goal during an auto extrication?

Primary assessment and rapid trauma exam

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Emergency Medical Dispatcher? Prioritizing calls that come in Providing medical direction to the responding units Coordinating with other public safety agencies Providing emergency instructions to the caller

Prioritizing calls that come in

Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-causality incident who has no pulse is deemed a _______ patient.

Priority 0

Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-causality incident who is not breathing initially, but begins breathing when the airway is open, is deemed a _______ patient.

Priority 1

You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Please triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #1 is a 16-year-old female with the following vital signs: respirations 28, pulse 132, and altered mental status with cool clammy skin.

Priority 1, red tag

You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Please triage this patient based on this scenario. Patient #4 is a 13-year-old female with the following vital signs: respirations 8, pulse 124, and nonresponsive with blood from the ears and nose.

Priority 1, red tag

Using START triage guidelines, a patient on the scene of a mass-causality incident who is alert and has a capillary refill time of less than 2 seconds is deemed a _______ patient.

Priority 3

With START triage, when you arrive on the scene you ask all the patients who can walk to move to one area. These patients are categorized as:

Priority 3 walking wounded.

You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Please triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #2 is an 8-year-old male with the following vital signs: respirations 10, pulse 102, and alert mental status with warm dry skin.

Priority 3, green tag

You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Please triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #5 is a 17-year-old male with the following vital signs: respirations 18, pulse 104, alert, crying, and wanting his mother; he is ambulatory. Priority 2, yellow tag Priority 3, green tag Priority 4, black tag

Priority 3, green tag

You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Please triage this patient based on this scenario: Patient #3 is a 38-year-old female with the following vital signs: respirations 0, pulse 0, and non responsive.

Priority 4, black tag

Prone.

Your patient is a 30-year-old female involved in a motorcycle crash. She was not wearing a helmet and struck her head on the pavement. She is unresponsive and has a blood pressure of 152/110 mmHg. Her pulse is 60 beats per minute and respirations are 8 breaths per minute and shallow. Which of the following is an appropriate intervention? Elevate the legs. Provide cervical spine immobilization. Hyperventilate at a rate of 24 breaths per minute using supplemental oxygen. Apply a pressure dressing to her scalp lacerations.

Provide cervical spine immobilization.

Which of the following activities should NOT occur during the scene size-up?

Providing airway management

A type of harm that you may be exposed to as an EMT responding to a terrorist incident that is characterized by a resulting post-traumatic stress disorder (PSTD) is typically called a:

Psychological harm.

What vessel carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs?

Pulmonary arteries

Pulse 40 and weak

The device that some EMS services use as a light wave device to measure oxygen saturation (SpO2) is called

Pulse oximeter.

Which of the following are the vital signs that need to be recorded?

Pulse, respiration, skin color, skin temperature and condition, pupils, and blood pressure

In a conscious adult patient, which of the following pulses should be assessed initially?

Radial

To check the distal pulse of a patient with an injury to the forearm, the EMT would check which of the following pulses?

Radial

What is the bone on the thumb side of the forearm?

Radius

An unresponsive patient is found sitting in the front seat of a vehicle with his legs pinned under the dash. Once his legs have been freed, which of the following methods should be used for removal of the patient?

Rapid extrication technique

You respond to a high school football field on a hot, humid day to find a 16-year-old male complaining of dizziness and weakness after playing football for an hour. Which of the following would you expect his vital signs to be?

Rapid pulse, low blood pressure, and sweaty skin

What could happen to a patient's speech that would tell you something is wrong with the airway?

Raspy Hoarse Stridor Gurgling

Inadequate breathing

Rate of breathing or depth of breathing falls outside normal ranges If continues in this manner, patient will develop respiratory arrest & die Oxygen saturation below 95%

You are transporting a patient down a bumpy road. Your patient's blood pressure has just been measured by the monitor to be 190/110. The patient's blood pressure on scene was 130/80. You should:

Re-measure the blood pressure manually.

What is the key decision-making point in assessing someone in repsiratory distress?

Recognize inadequate breathing before respiratory arrest develops

Recovery position.

While performing night operations, which of the following combinations of lights provide maximum visibility?

Red/amber warning lights ON, headlights OFF, fog lights OFF, and traffic directional boards ON

Respiratory failure

Reduction of breathing to the point where oxygen intake is not sufficient to support life

What is the device that reduces the pressure from an oxygen tank to something usable for the patient?

Regulator

The current trend in international terrorism is that it tends to be motivated by which of the following?

Religion

When a patient is defibrillated, you should do what with the bag attached to an intubation tube?

Remove it so the weight of the unsupported bag does not dislodge the tube

Peritoneal dialysis

Removing toxins/fluid from the peritoneal cavity with a special dialysis fluid and allows patients to remain at home but takes longer

When controlling the scene of an emergency involving damaged power poles and downed electrical wires, the EMT must remember to:

Request appropriate personnel to cut the power source.

Which of the following is NOT the role of the first arriving EMT at the scene of a possible hazardous materials emergency?

Rescuing any victims still in the area of the spill

What is abnormal about sickle cell shape?

Resemble the shape of a sickle and have less compressibility to fit through small capillaries

Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment (START) is a system that relies on some simple commands and what three physiologic parameters?

Respiration, pulse, and mental status

Artificial ventilation PFM, BVM< FROPVD

Respiratory arrest Assisted ventilations at 10-12/min for adult, 20/min for child/infant

Biological warfare is most effective when the agent can gain access through which of the following routes?

Respiratory tract

Which of the following structures receives deoxygenated blood from the body via the vena cavae?

Right atrium

Which of the following pieces of equipment is acceptable for use in the prehospital stabilization of suspected cervical spine injuries? Soft cervical collars Five-pound sand bags Rigid cervical collars All of the above

Rigid cervical collars

Concerning the threat of nuclear devices used in terrorist attacks, which of the following is MOST likely to be used in such an attack?

Sabotage of facilities for nuclear research

An area near a hazardous materials incident that is upwind from the incident and on higher ground is a good location for a:

Safe zone.

What is another name for the shoulder blade?

Scapula

Which of the following is an accurate definition of a flail chest?

Section of the chest wall that is unstable, leading to breathing problems

Which of the following is controlled by the left side of the brain? Sensation in the left arm Sensation of the right leg Movement of both lower extremities Movement of the left arm

Sensation of the right leg

Messages from the body to the brain are carried by which of the following types of nerves? Sensory Skeletal Motor Cranial

Sensory

Which of the following measures can the EMT take to create a safer extrication scene?

Setting up road flares every 10 feet for a safe distance to divert traffic away from the collision

Assisted ventilations Pocket face mask, bag-valve mask, flor-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device

Sever respiratory distress: 1-2 word sentences, diaphoretic, severe anxiety

Slight movement of the chest during respiration is usually indicative of which of the following?

Shallow breathing

Your patient has a rapid, regular, and thready pulse. Which of the following is a possible cause of this finding?

Shock

Which of the following is NOT a phase of the extrication process?

Simplification

Which of the following describes Fowler's position?

Sitting upright with the legs straight

When the EMT checks the pupils he or she is checking for what three things?

Size, equality, and reactivity

Some drawbacks to using sterile aluminum foil as an occlusive dressing include:

Skin lacerations may occur from the sharp edges.

What type of muscles control the size of the bronchioles in the lungs?

Smooth muscles

Breathing sounds that should concern the EMT are:

Snoring, gurgling, wheezing, and crowing.

The bony bumps you feel along the center of a person's back are known as which of the following? Vertebrae Foramen magnum Spinous process None of the above

Spinous process

Which of the following organs functions as a reservoir for blood that can be used in case of blood loss?

Spleen

What organ may seriously be damaged in sickle cell anemia, and often subsequently leads to severe infections?

Spleen, sickle cells block it

What is the Carina?

Spot where the trachea branches

Which of the following BEST describes the anatomical position?

Standing, facing forward, with arms at the side, palms forward

You have arrived at the scene of a vehicle collision in which there are utility wires down around the vehicle. The three occupants appear dazed and other responding units have not yet arrived. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Stay at a distance and caution the occupants to stay inside the vehicle.

Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of dressings used in the prehospital management of most open wounds?

Sterile

Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of dressings used in the prehospital management of most open wounds?

Sterile

Which of the following is NOT a role of dialysis in a renal failure patient? Remove fluid from the body Filter and detoxify the blood Remove waste from the body Stimulate blood cell production

Stimulate blood cell production

When blood accumulates between the brain and the dura mater, what is the result? Epidural contusion Subdural contusion Epidural hematoma Subdural hematoma

Subdural hematoma

What is the correct terminology for a wound in which a vacuum has been created within the chest, drawing air into the thorax with each breath?

Sucking chest wound

You are assessing a 48-year-old male who is unconscious. The scene is safe and you hear the patient gurgling. What is your next action?

Suction the airway.

What does Acute mean?

Suddenly

What is Edema?

Swelling

You are on the scene at an office building where a 32-year-old male is described as having difficulty breathing and chest pain. The patient is allergic to peanuts and thinks he may have accidentally ingested some cookies with peanuts in them this afternoon during his break. He's pale with a pulse rate of 158 and a respiratory rate of 36. You understand that a "fight or flight" response may have been activated in this patient, involving which nervous system and which hormone?

Sympathetic nervous system and epinephrine

The pressure against the walls of the blood vessels as blood is ejected from the heart and circulates through the body is the ________ blood pressure.

Systolic

When the heart contracts and forces blood into the arteries, the pressure created is known as the:

Systolic blood pressure.

In a blood pressure reading of 120/80, the 120 is measuring what body process?

Systolic blood pressure; when the left ventricles contract and the blood is forced into the arteries

A patient with a pulse rate of 120 beats per minute is considered which of the following?

Tachycardic

You respond to a childcare center for a report of an injured 4-year-old. Her pulse is 130 beats per minute. Which of the following BEST describes this finding?

Tachycardic

When grossly decontaminating a patient who is not wearing personal protective equipment in a hazardous materials incident, which of the following techniques should be used?

Taking a low-pressure decontamination shower

Which of the following describes the proper application of an occlusive dressing for an open chest wound?

Tape the dressing securely on three sides.

Which of the following describes the proper application of an occlusive dressing for an open chest wound?

Tape the dressing securely on three sides.

Which of the following describes vehicle glass that is designed to break into small pieces rather than shattering into sharp fragments?

Tempered glass

A patient with jugular vein distention is most likely suffering from which of the following injuries?

Tension pneumothorax

Which of the following patients is at greatest risk of respiratory failure and should be carefully monitored for ventilatory status throughout treatment and transport?

Tension pneumothorax

Which of the following patients is at greatest risk of respiratory failure and should be carefully monitored for ventilatory status throughout treatment and transport?

Tension pneumothorax

When log-rolling a patient with a suspected spinal injury, which of the following EMTs directs the move? The EMT at the head of the patient The EMT with the highest level of training The EMT with the most seniority The EMT at the heaviest portion of the patient

The EMT at the head of the patient

Which of the following is true with regards to touching a patient who is being shocked with an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD)? The EMT will always feel the shock and it is very dangerous to the EMT as well. The EMT cannot feel the shock of an AICD when delivered to the patient. The EMT will always feel the shock, but it is not very painful. It depends on the AICD model as to whether or not the EMT can feel the shock.

The EMT cannot feel the shock of an AICD when delivered to the patient.

When seeking expert advice on how to proceed at a hazardous materials incident, which of the following information is important to provide?

The amount of the substance involved

The bite is located on the posterior aspect of the calf just distal to the knee.

What is Muscle Tone?

The control of the muscles that form the airway (required by a patent airway)

A patient having a sickle cell crisis often will complain of joint pain. What is the explanation for this complaint?

The joint pain is the result of a vaso-occlusive component of the disease.

Regarding ambulance warning devices, which of the following statements is NOT true? Four-way flashers should not be used as emergency lights. The large lights on the outermost corners of the ambulance box should blink alternately. In most states it is illegal to drive at night with only one headlight. The use of strobes is controversial. pg. 1001

The large lights on the outermost corners of the ambulance box should blink alternately.

Which of the following describes why fast respiration may decrease minute volume?

The lungs may not have the time to fill and exchange gas

What is the head-lift, chin-tilt maneuver?

The maneuver used to align the airway and provide for the passage of air when no trauma or injury is suspected

What is the jaw-thrust maneuver?

The maneuver used to open the airway of a patient with suspected trauma/spine injuries

Which of the following considerations should be determined when conducting a scene size-up of a single vehicle collision involving a rollover?

The mechanism of injury

Which of the following BEST describes inadequate breathing?

The minute volume is less than normal

With regard to anatomical locations, which of the following is NOT true?

The mouth is proximal to the nose.

Diffusion

The movement of gases from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle collision involving a small pickup truck that struck the rear of a moving tractor-trailer. The driver of the tractor-trailer is walking around and complains of neck pain. The driver of the pickup truck is conscious, but cannot exit the vehicle because the door is stuck and the steering wheel is displaced onto his lap. The passenger of the pickup truck is sitting upright in the passenger seat, is unconscious, but has radial pulses. Access to the passenger is not obstructed. A fourth patient, who was sitting in the pickup truck bed, is found about ten feet away and responds to commands appropriately. Assuming your ambulance is the only emergency vehicle on the scene currently, which of the following patients should be packaged for transport first by the next arriving ambulance?

The passenger in the pickup truck's front seat

What does Gurgling indicate?

The patient has liquid in their airway

You're an off-duty EMT who encounters a patient sitting behind the wheel of a vehicle that ran off the road along an isolated county road. It appears the patient was unrestrained, or not wearing a seat belt, and struck the steering wheel with his chest. On assessment, you notice a paradoxical motion to the patient's chest on inspiration and expiration. When you radio for dispatch of an ambulance, which of the following pieces of information would you be sure to include?

The patient may have a flail chest.

Which of the following statements concerning a concussion is true? It is a bruising of the brain tissue. The patient may not have any symptoms of the injury. It is accompanied by recurrent episodes of unconsciousness. All of the above

The patient may not have any symptoms of the injury.

Your patient is a 55-year-old male who was found in the parking lot behind a tavern. He states that he was assaulted and robbed by three individuals. He is complaining of being "hit in the face and kicked and punched in his ribs and stomach." Your examination reveals contusions and swelling around both eyes, bleeding from the nose, a laceration of his upper lip, and multiple contusions of the chest, abdomen, and flanks. Which of the following should cause the greatest concern regarding the prehospital care of this patient?

The possibility of a pneumothorax

Which of the following is a true statement regarding the skin's status in the case of a closed chest injury?

The skin is not penetrated.

Which of the following is a true statement regarding the skin's status in the case of a closed chest injury?

The skin is not penetrated.

What is the Laryngopharynx?

The structures surrounding the entrance to the trachea

When transporting patients from the scene of a mass-casualty incident, who should be responsible for contacting the receiving hospital?

The transportation officer

You are on an ambulance responding to a mass-casualty incident at a shopping mall on a warm Saturday afternoon. En route, you listen to the incident commander broadcast information to dispatch and all inbound units about 20 patients complaining of respiratory difficulty and a burning sensation in their eyes. Your suspicions of a potential terrorist incident are the result of:

The type of event.

Which of the following is required in the management of all open soft-tissue injuries?

The use of Standard Precautions by the EMT

Which of the following is required in the management of all open soft-tissue injuries?

The use of Standard Precautions by the EMT

Which of the following observations may the EMT use to rule out a spinal injury in a trauma patient? Patient is able to walk at the scene. There is a lack of mechanism of injury. There is a lack of numbness and paralysis of the extremities. Patient denies pain in his spine.

There is a lack of mechanism of injury.

You respond to a nursing home to find an elderly patient with a pulse of 100, blood pressure of 100/60, respiratory rate of 12, and cool, pale skin. Which of the following describes this set of vital signs?

They will serve as a basis of comparison for later vital signs.

You are called to a garden center where four shoppers have collapsed after a section of shelving fell and dumped hazardous products on the floor. When you arrive on the scene, you should:

Think hazmat, secure the scene by limiting access, isolate the possible contaminated from the noncontaminated, and request hazmat response.

To which of the following sections of the spine are the ribs attached? Thoracic Sacral Cervical Lumbar

Thoracic

Which of the following structures BEST describes the makeup of the torso?

Thorax and abdomen

What is the largest bone of the lower leg?

Tibia

Three methods for minimizing exposure to harmful incidents are:

Time, decontamination, and shielding.

Which of the following is a reason that the vehicle doors are removed to extricate the patient rather than pulling the patient through an open window?

To allow for proper spinal immobilization

Which of the following BEST describes why it is important for the EMT to understand the extrication process?

To anticipate any dangerous steps in the extrication process

What is the purpose of a tracheostomy in an ill patient? To assist the patient with sleeping To assist the patient with waste removal To assist the patient with breathing To assist the patient with feedings

To assist the patient with breathing

To have a backup system in the event of failure of the primary system

Which of the following is a purpose for carrying sterilized aluminum foil on an ambulance? Answer To control major arterial bleeding To keep a newborn warm To care for amputated parts None of the above

To keep a newborn warm

Which of the following is the correct sequence for securing the straps on a long spine board? Legs, torso, head Head, torso, legs Torso, legs, head Head, legs, torso

Torso, legs, head

Which of the following types of bandages should NOT be used by the EMT providing wound care?

Tourniquet

Which of the following types of bandages should NOT be used by the EMT providing wound care?

Tourniquet

Which of the following is an unreliable sign for determining the presence of a tension pneumothorax?

Trachea that shifts to the side opposite the injury

Which of the following is an unreliable sign for determining the presence of a tension pneumothorax?

Trachea that shifts to the side opposite the injury

Which fluid level should be checked while the engine is running? Brake Transmission Power steering Oil

Transmission

You are stabilizing a patient who has just been stabbed in the chest to the right of the mediastinum. After placing the patient on supplemental oxygen, his shortness of breath resolves. You also cover the wound with an occlusive dressing. The patient is asymptomatic at the time you're making the decision to transport. Which of the following BEST encapsulates the correct strategy for transport?

Transport the patient emergently because of the high index of suspicion for a serious injury.

Who is the person that is in charge of tracking the patient's final destination?

Transportation officer

Your patient was working on a car when it fell off the jack and trapped him between the tire and ground. His face is very blue and his eyes are bloodshot. Which of the following has the patient most likely suffered?

Traumatic asphyxia

Which of the following measures is NOT appropriate for a patient with a significant isolated head injury? Treat for shock by elevating the foot of the backboard. Keep the patient from becoming overheated. Try to keep the patient from being agitated. Control bleeding from head wounds.

Treat for shock by elevating the foot of the backboard.

Which of the following methods should the EMT use first to attempt to access a patient in a vehicle while awaiting arrival of a rescue crew?

Try all of the vehicle's doors to see if they will open.

Which of the following serious health problems is related to homelessness? Liver disease Heart disease Tuberculosis Hypertension

Tuberculosis

You are on the scene of a vehicle collision involving a downed power line. You are walking in an area you feel is a safe distance from the line and begin to feel a tingling sensation in your feet. Which of the following would be a proper method of ensuring your safety while exiting the area?

Turn 180 degrees to the direction you are walking and shuffle away from the danger area.

Children use ____ as much oxygen as adults

Twice; hypoxia will occur more rapidly in a child

Which of the following personal protective items must be used by EMS personnel caring for patients in a hazardous materials emergency?

Tyvek or other chemical impermeable coveralls

What is one of the most common diseases to affect the renal and urinary system?

UTIs

You are on the scene of a riot following a decision in a controversial court case. A large group of people have set fire to vehicles, broken windows, and assaulted people in the area. Which of the following would be the BEST method of incident command?

Unified command

When several agencies work independently but cooperatively, rather than one agency exercising control over the others, this is called:

Unified command.

You are in charge of your department's personnel at the scene of a mass-casualty incident. As the incident progresses, you request additional resources and a neighboring department assists you. As part of this department's response, a battalion chief responds to oversee operations. At the command post, you and the battalion chief work together to manage the incident. This cooperative management effort is known as:

Unified command.

The maxillae form which of the following structures? Lower jaw Upper jaw Cheek bones Forehead

Upper jaw

Which of the following are desirable characteristics of the "safe or cold zone" in a hazardous materials incident?

Upwind, on the same level as the spill

Use a bag-valve mask with supplemental oxygen

When attempting to extinguish a fire inside the passenger compartment, it is important to:

Use the extinguishing agent sparingly to avoid creating a cloud of powder.

Automatic transport ventilator (ATV)

Used to provide + pressure ventilations to a patient in respiratory arrest Can adjust ventilation rate & volume Good for one rescuer to use when prolonged ventilation is necessary

Which of the following is the MOST common type of rescue across the United States?

Vehicle rescue

A patient uses a home ventilator connected to his tracheostomy tube to breathe. Which of the following is the correct procedure to use when moving this patient to the ambulance? Ventilate the patient's tracheostomy tube via a connected bag-valve mask at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator. Do nothing; there is no need to ventilate the patient between the house and the ambulance. Ventilate the patient with mouth-to-mask ventilations at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator. Ventilate the patient's nose and mouth with a bag-valve mask at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator.

Ventilate the patient's tracheostomy tube via a connected bag-valve mask at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator.

A 21-year-old patient presents with labored breathing and audible wheezes, heart rate of 124, respiration 36; he has significantly altered mentation. What is the best treatment for this patient?

Ventilate with a bag-valve mask with high oxygen or FROPVD.

V/Q match

Ventilation-perfusion match with respiratory & cardiovascular system

What oxygen delivery device can provide precise concentrations of oxygen?

Venturi mask

Which of the following is a type of chemical weapon?

Vesicants

Dangerous organisms that grow inside of living cells and reproduce are known as:

Viruses

When responding to a multiple-casualty incident, staging refers to which of the following?

Waiting in a designated location until called upon by the designated sector officer

Warm the patient's hands and try again.

Where is the decon corridor located where patients, personnel, and equipment are econtaminated?

Warm zone

You are at the scene of a vehicle collision on an interstate highway. There are two cars involved and both are out of the lanes against the median wall. As an EMS provider, what is your primary safety concern?

Watching for distracted drivers who are driving past the scene

Disaster plans are a predefined set of instructions that should be written to address the events that are conceivable for a particular location and which other three parts?

Well publicized, realistic, and rehearsed

What's the difference between sickle cell anemia and sickle cell trait?

What is the difference between sickle cell anemia and sickle cell trait?

Pyelonephritis

When an infection in the bladder ascends up the ureter and into the kidneys. Patients usually have unilateral flank pain

When should the EMT consider humidifying oxygen for a patient?

When the oxygen will be administered over a long period of time

At which point may manual stabilization of the cervical spine be terminated? Only when directed to do so by medical control When the patient is secured to a long backboard After a short immobilization device has been applied After a cervical collar has been applied

When the patient is secured to a long backboard

When does respiratory distress change to respiratory failure?

When the respiratory challenge continues, the systems cannot keep up with the demand, and skin color and mental status change.

What is the Nasopharynx?

Where the nasal passages join the pharynx

What is the Oropharynx?

Where the oral cavity joins the pharynx

Which of the following does NOT have an impact on the behavior of a chemical in a mass-casualty incident?

Whether it was an intentional or accidental exposure

Bag-valve mask (BVM)

Without spine injury: like CPR class With spine injury, jaw thrust position with thumbs sealing mask Use with supplementary oxygen at 15 L/min

Which of the following is NOT used to calculate a patient's GCS? Eye movement Verbal response Work of breathing Motor response

Work of breathing

Which of the following is the easiest way for an EMT to communicate with a patient with drastic hearing loss? Slow down your speech so that the patient can read your lips. Write your questions using paper and pen. Use a TDD/TYY telephone. Speak loudly and directly into the patient's ear.

Write your questions using paper and pen.

What is the inferiormost portion of the sternum?

Xiphoid process

Can you use a BVM over a stoma?

Yes, if using suction simulatneously

Which of the following is the first concern when you are caring for a patient who has been in a vehicle collision?

Your own safety

Clotting factors are

a group of proteins that are produced in the liver and released into the bloodstream and are activated when damage occurs to the lining of a damaged blood vessel

If a patient won't use a nonrebreather mask, your next best option is

a nasal cannula

When heading back to quarters, on what should you place your emphasis? Documentation Beginning to reorganize the ambulance A safe return Refueling the ambulance for the next call Pg. 997

a safe return

A fistula is

a surgical procedure that connects arterial and venous blood flow

Unlike normal respirations, labored breathing usually involves use of

accessory muscles

Restlessness & confusion indicate

acute hypoxia

The most common complication of ESRD patients on peritoneal dialysis is

acute peritonitis

Nonrebreather mask or nasal cannula used

adequate breathing

The amount of air moved into and out of the alveoli in one minute is called the

alveolar ventilation

Sickle cell anemia (SCA) is

an inherited disease in which patients have a genetic defect in their hemoglobin that results in an abnormal structure of red blood cells

Pay attention to ____ when ventilating an intubated patient

any change in resistance

aortic dissection.

apply a bulky dressing over the section.

Your patient is a 65-year-old male with a history of COPD. He is sitting up and complaining of a severe shortness of breath. You should

apply a nonrebreather mask giving 15 L/m of oxygen

One of the most effective and widely available drugs to prevent the aggregation of platelets is

aspirin

Medications carried on the ambulance should include all of the following EXCEPT:

atrophine

You are treating a patient who has taken too much of her pain-relieving narcotic. She is breathing very slowly with minimal chest rise. The BEST device to administer oxygen to this patient would be the

bag-mask device with supplemental oxygen

Very fast respiratory rates may decrease minute volume not primarily because of rate, but

because the faster rate can affect the tidal volume

begin chest compressions.

You are treating a patient with paradoxical motion on the left side of the chest. He is breathing shallow at a rate of 4 breaths per minute. You should:

begin positive pressure ventilation.

Requirements for a helicopter landing zone include: marking it by a flare in a downwind position. being clear of wires, towers, people, and loose objects. an area of 50 x 50 feet, with less than an 8-degree slope. all of the above.

being clear of wires, towers, people, and loose objects.

The MOST common complications of hemodialysis include

bleeding from the needle puncture site and infection

Complications of SCA are generally attributed to

blockages caused by the sludging of the RBCs in the body's small blood vessels

The pathophysiology of ________ is one in which the pericardial sac fills with blood to the point where the chambers of the heart no longer fill adequately, usually secondary to trauma.

cardiac tamponade

Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are

caused by bacteria and usually limited to the bladder. Can be serious, especially in older people, if bacteria spread into the bloodstream

In addition to patient-care equipment, equipment for the transfer of the patient that should be carried on the ambulance includes a:

child safety seat.

Diabetes is a common cause of

chronic renal failure

The mechanism of injury in which a patient's chest has struck an immovable object, such as a steering wheel, may most accurately be described as a(n):

compression injury.

A childbirth kit should include all of the following items EXCEPT:

constriction bands.

2 types of peritoneal dialysis

continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) continuous cycler-assisted peritoneal dialysis (CCPD)

When a person inhales, the diaphragm _____ and the intercostal muscles _____

contracts; contracts

Your patient has an open abdominal wound with intestines protruding. You should:

cover the organs with moist sterile dressings.

You have covered an open chest wound with your gloved hand and the patient's breathing has improved. In order to free your hand to provide further care, you should:

cover the wound with an occlusive dressing.

The two major portions of the skull are the:

cranium and face

Hypoxia is indicated by

cyanosis - blue/gray color to the skin

You are palpating the abdomen of a motor vehicle collision patient when you feel a pulsing mass. You should:

defer further abdominal palpation.

Mouth-mask artificial ventilation is not recommended because it

does not ensure adequate protection for the rescuer from the patient's body fluids

To be a safe ambulance operator you must do all of the following EXCEPT: drive with a restricted license. perform under stress. be mentally fit. be physically fit.

drive with a restricted license.

Most serious complication is when patients

fail to be dialyzed

Hemostatic dressings

help cause clotting

The body can tolerate high levels of _______ for longer periods of time than it will tolerate ________

hypercapnia; hypoxia

Two chronic medical conditions that dialysis patients frequently have in addition to kidney failure are ________ and ________.

hypertension; diabetes

Which of the following is optional equipment? Flashlights Infant oxygen masks Disinfectant solution Lubricating jelly

infant oxygen masks

The medications that transplant patients need to take for the rest of their lives to prevent organ rejection also often lead to high susceptibility of

infection

Your dialysis patient presents with fever and weakness. You should suspect

infection

Venturi masks are designed to mix oxygen with

inhaled air

The movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide across the cell membranes from the capillaries is called

internal respiration

Common signs and symptoms following an injury to a hollow abdominal organ include:

irritation and peritonitis.

Exhalation takes slightly longer than inhalation because

it is a passive process

The proper procedure for opening the airway of an unresponsive trauma patient is: head-tilt without chin-lift. jaw-thrust maneuver. Sellick's maneuver. head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver.

jaw-thrust maneuver.

keep newborn warm

End-stage renal disease (ESRD) is when

kidneys can no longer provide adequate filtration and fluid balance to sustain life. Patients require dialysis to survive

Assessing a patient's spontaneous ventilations is BEST done by

looking closely for a chest rise

Only ventilate a child enough to

make the chest rise

The inside of a person's thigh is also known as its ________ aspect.

medial

Chronic anemia

occurs over time and patients appear more pale than normal and often complain of fatigue & shortness of breath

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EMT EVERYTHING PT. 2

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Quiz questions

Quiz 7

ENT Chapter 9

Chapter 2 ISOM 210

Biology CH 14: DNA and the Gene - Synthesis and Repair

Lifting and Moving Patients

Aging and the Elderly Quiz

303 Hinkle PrepU Chapter 59: Assessment and Management of Patients with Male Reproductive Disorders

Chapter 16

Chapter 53: Caring for Clients with Disorders of the Female Reproductive System

exit

Chapter 6- The Baroque Era

Final Multiple choice (HW 10)

Multi-Domain Operation O140 (Quiz 2)

Marketing 310 Final

Social Studies Quiz Review

MIcro Exam 2

Chemistry II - Chemical Equilibrium

NMNC 4335

ATI: Respiratory Med/Surg