EMT Final
Which of the following descriptions BEST defines the term pathogen? a. An organism that causes infection and disease b. A study of the origins of infection and disease c. A medication with a harmful effect d. An immunity developed after an exposure
a. An organism that causes infection and disease CORRECT. Pathogens are organisms that cause infection, such as viruses and bacteria.
What is the distinction between anatomy and physiology? a. Anatomy is the study of body structures, and physiology is the study of body function. b. Anatomy is the study of physical body structures, whereas physiology is the study of emotions and behavior. c. The terms are synonymous. d. Anatomy is the study of body components and systems, and physiology is the study of injuries and disease processes.
a. Anatomy is the study of body structures, and physiology is the study of body function. CORRECT. Anatomy is the study of body structures, organs and systems, and physiology is the study of the actions of those organs and systems.
If the EMT is in doubt as to whether a patient in cardiac arrest should be resuscitated, which of the following is the best decision? a. Begin resuscitative measures. b. Have the patient's family put their wishes in writing. c. Withhold resuscitative measures. d. Consult with the patient's physician.
a. Begin resuscitative measures. CORRECT. It's always best to err on the side of providing care.
Which of the following is a component of patient advocacy? a. Building rapport with the patient during transport to the hospital b. Providing oxygen to a patient that is short of breath c. Granting patient wishes and not reporting spousal abuse to the authorities d. Immobilizing the neck of a patient with a possible spinal injury
a. Building rapport with the patient during transport to the hospital CORRECT. Building rapport with the patient is a critical component of advocacy. Without it, the EMT won't be able to know the patient's needs or challenges enough to effectively speak on their behalf
What system produces chemicals called hormones that help to regulate many body activities and functions? a. Endocrine system b. Lymphatic system c. Respiratory system d. Digestive system
a. Endocrine system CORRECT. The endocrine system produces chemicals called hormones that help to regulate many body activities and functions.
Which type of consent must be used by the EMT when seeking to treat a mentally competent adult? a. Expressed consent b. Implied consent c. Conscious consent d. Unconditional consent
a. Expressed consent CORRECT. Expressed consent, which must be obtained from all patients who are physically and mentally able to give it, can only be given by adults who are of legal age and mentally competent to make a rational decision in regard to their medical well-being.
You respond to a middle school for a 12-year-old male patient who has been hit by a car. You get consent to treat the patient from the school principal. What concept allows the principal to speak for the parents? a. In loco parentis b. Healthcare proxy c. Informed consent d. Res ipsa loquitur
a. In loco parentis CORRECT. Care may be given to a minor without direct consent from a parent or guardian if authorized by a child care provider or school authority who is acting in loco parentis (in place of the parent).
What is the strongest and most muscular part of the heart? a. Left ventricle b. Right atrium c. Left atrium d. Right ventricle
a. Left ventricle CORRECT. The left ventricle is the most muscular and strongest part of the heart.
You have just worked a cardiac arrest call on a 48-year-old father of three. Despite your best efforts, the patient died in the emergency department. As you are getting your ambulance in service, the patient's wife rushes out of the emergency department. She finds you and begins screaming at you that her husband's death is your fault. She blames you for not getting on the scene fast enough, taking too long at the house, and not shocking her husband back to life like she has seen on television. What response should you have to her anger? a. Listen empathetically to all of her complaints and let her know she can contact you for any additional assistance. b. Reassure her that you did everything you could and that everything will be okay. c. Recognize that she is in the denial stage of grief and interrupt her hysterical behavior pattern by getting her attention and helping her calm down. d. Correct her misconceptions and remind her that television shows are fiction, so she will not sue you in the future.
a. Listen empathetically to all of her complaints and let her know she can contact you for any additional assistance.
Which of the following is the primary responsibility of the EMT? a. Maintain personal health and safety b. Provide emergency care c. Protect and stabilize the patient d. Communicate with other responders on the scene
a. Maintain personal health and safety CORRECT. It is not possible to help a patient if you are not physically capable or are injured while performing your job, so your first responsibility is to keep yourself healthy and safe.
What is the primary reason for an EMT to use specific and proper medical terminology? a. Medical communication needs to be exact and consistent. b. People may think that an EMT is not intelligent or professional unless she uses medical terms. c. EMS providers can't bill for services unless the correct terminology is used in all documentation. d. It will make patients and family members trust in the EMT's abilities more.
a. Medical communication needs to be exact and consistent. CORRECT. Communication about medical assessment and care needs to be clear-cut and exact so that everyone involved in the process understands. Whether describing a patient over the radio for medical direction or documenting findings in a prehospital care report, being specific matters. Proper medical terminology allows a precision that common terms may not permit.
You respond to the report of an unconscious female patient. You can acquire important medical information about the patient through which of the following? a. Medical identification device b. Driver's license c. On-call Medical Director d. Medical history identifier
a. Medical identification device CORRECT. A patient may wear a medical identification device to alert EMTs and other health care professionals that she has a particular medical condition.
You respond to the scene of a two-vehicle T-bone vehicle collision. The driver's side door is smashed shut and will not open. The front passenger door will open. The front passenger is stable and complaining of severe head and neck pain. You suspect that he has a potential spinal injury. The driver is unresponsive, in critical condition, and has gurgling respirations. You should extricate the passenger by which technique? a. Move the patient out of the car as quickly as possible, in the direction of the long axis of the body. b. Move the patient as quickly as possible so he can get to a hospital before paralysis sets in. c. Take extra care to protect the passenger's neck with a KED board or short spine board because of the injury. d. Carefully move the patient using full c-spine precautions.
a. Move the patient out of the car as quickly as possible, in the direction of the long axis of the body. CORRECT. When an emergency move is performed, a complication is the possible aggravation of a spinal injury. Therefore, the patient should be moved in the direction of the long axis of the body to minimize potential complications.
What is a simple step EMTs can perform to help prevent the spread of flu in the prehospital environment? a. Place a surgical mask on suspected flu patients. b. Notify the CDC and local health department of flu cases. c. Encourage patients to get their H1N1 antivirals early in the flu season. d. Transport all patients with coughs to negative pressure rooms.
a. Place a surgical mask on suspected flu patients.
What is the bone on the thumb side of the forearm? a. Radius b. Fibula c. Acromion d. Ulna
a. Radius CORRECT. The radius is the lateral bone of the forearm. It is always aligned with the thumb.
Which three "Rs" are essential for the EMT to practice when reacting to danger? a. Retreat, radio, reevaluate b. Ricochet, recover, re-entry c. Remember, respect, respond d. Realize, react, reassess
a. Retreat, radio, reevaluate CORRECT. The three Rs of reacting to danger are retreat, radio, and reevaluate.
Which of the following refers to the care that would be expected to be provided by an EMT with similar training when caring for a patient in a similar situation? a. Standard of practice b. Professional standards c. Protocols and standing orders d. Scope of practice
a. Standard of practice CORRECT. The term standards of practice refers to the care that would be expected to be provided by an EMT with similar training when caring for a patient in a similar situation.
Which of the following parts of the nervous system is responsible for the "fight or flight" response experienced in response to a stressor? a. Sympathetic nervous system b. Peripheral nervous system c. Parasympathetic nervous system d. Central nervous system
a. Sympathetic nervous system CORRECT. When exposed to stressors, the sympathetic nervous system increases its activity in what is known as the "fight-or-flight" syndrome.
The term body mechanics describes the proper use of your body to lift without injury. What are the three considerations to review before any lift? a. The object, your limitations, and communication b. Environment, physical limitations, and communication c. Equipment, patient injury, and communication d. The object, patient injury, and communication
a. The object, your limitations, and communication CORRECT. Body mechanics refers to the proper use of the body to prevent injury and to facilitate lifting and moving. The object to be lifted, the limitations of the lifters, and effective communication should all be considered before the move
In which of the following situations should an EMT withhold resuscitative measures from a patient in cardiac arrest? a. The patient's caregiver presents a DNR order signed by the patient and his physician. b. The EMT's religious beliefs permit withholding resuscitation, and the caregiver presents documentation of the patient's wishes. c. All of these d. Family members request that nothing be done.
a. The patient's caregiver presents a DNR order signed by the patient and his physician. CORRECT. A properly signed Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order is a legal directive to withhold defined resuscitative efforts.
The CDC recommends using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer in all except which of the following situation(s)? a. The provider's hands come into contact with fecal matter. b. The provider is not vaccinated against hepatitis B. c. The patient has a respiratory illness. d. The patient has a bloodborne communicable disease.
a. The provider's hands come into contact with fecal matter.
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the modern emergency medical services (EMS) system? a. To have trained personnel respond quickly and provide emergency care on the scene, during transport, and at the hospital b. To have trained personnel understand the limitations of their training and "do no harm," while providing prompt transport to the hospital c. To have trained personnel knowledgeable in all aspects of prehospital care d. To have trained personnel capable of assessing and caring for injured and ill patients on the scene
a. To have trained personnel respond quickly and provide emergency care on the scene, during transport, and at the hospital
Upon arrival at the hospital, the EMT advises hospital personnel of the patient's condition, observations from the scene, treatment rendered, and other pertinent data to assure continuity of care. This process is known as which of the following? a. Transfer of care b. Definitive care c. End of tour d. Breach of duty
a. Transfer of care CORRECT. Providing the receiving hospital staff with information on the patient's condition, observations of the scene, and other pertinent data so that there will be continuity of care is part of the transfer of care process.
Which of the following is another name for an ambulance cot? a. Wheeled ambulance stretcher b. Reeve's stretcher c. Stair chair d. Scoop stretcher
a. Wheeled ambulance stretcher CORRECT. Commonly referred to simply as the stretcher, cot, or litter, wheeled ambulance stretchers are found in the back of every ambulance.
You respond to a 35-year-old male patient who fell 50 feet from a bluff. Your authority to provide emergency care is an extension of the Medical Director's license to practice medicine. You are acting as a(n) ________ of the Medical Director. a. designated agent b. extension c. employee d. subordinate
a. designated agent CORRECT. An EMT at a basic or advanced level is operating as a designated agent of the Medical Director.
In relation to anatomy, the term topography means: a. external landmarks of body structures. b. the study of the skin. c. key elements of the central nervous system. d. blood pressure fluctuations.
a. external landmarks of body structures. CORRECT. One of the ways to find organs or body structures is through topography, or external landmarks, such as notches or bumps.
The inside of a person's thigh is also known as its ________ aspect. a. medial b. lateral c. axillary d. inferior
a. medial CORRECT. A part of the body that is toward the midline is described as medial.
Your 79-year-old female patient appears to show all signs and symptoms of a stroke. Her level of consciousness has rapidly deteriorated, she is now unconscious, and she can no longer control her own airway. While you intervene to manage her airway, the best position in which to keep fluid or vomitus from occluding her airway would be the: a. recovery position. b. Trendelenburg position. c. prone position. d. Fowler position.
a. recovery position. CORRECT. The recovery position, also known as the lateral recumbent position, is the preferred position for any unconscious nontrauma patient because it is a position in which fluids and vomitus can drain from the mouth and be less likely to be aspirated into the lungs.
A written authorization for an EMS provider to perform a particular skill in a specific situation is a(n): a. standing order. b. on-line protocol. c. standard of care. d. direct medical order.
a. standing order. CORRECT. A standing order is a policy or protocol issued by a Medical Director that authorizes EMTs and others to perform particular skills in certain situations.
Which of the following BEST describes the location of the mid-axillary line? a. A line drawn diagonally from the outer end of the clavicle to the navel b. A line from the center of the armpit, extending vertically down the side of the chest c. A line drawn vertically from the xiphoid process to the pubic bone d. A line drawn horizontally from one armpit to the other, across the front of the body
b. A line from the center of the armpit, extending vertically down the side of the chest CORRECT. A line drawn vertically from the middle of the armpit to the ankle is called the mid-axillary line.
Which of the following BEST describes the medical condition of shock? a. Delayed capillary refill b. A state of inadequate tissue perfusion c. An extreme emotional reaction to a stressful event d. Hypotension
b. A state of inadequate tissue perfusion CORRECT. Hypoperfusion, commonly called shock, means that there is inadequate circulation of blood through one or more organs or structures.
Which of the following situations BEST illustrates the act of abandonment by the EMT? a. An EMT begins care of a patient, then turns the patient over to a paramedic. b. An EMT transports a patient to the emergency department, leaves the patient in the waiting room, but does not advise the ED staff. c. The EMT resuscitates a patient who has a DNR order signed by his physician. d. An EMT who is off-duty sees a motor vehicle collision with probable injuries but does not stop to help.
b. An EMT transports a patient to the emergency department, leaves the patient in the waiting room, but does not advise the ED staff. CORRECT. Transporting a patient to a hospital and then leaving prior to properly turning over the patient's care to the staff would be considered abandonment.
Which of the following describes the midline of the body? a. The intersection of two imaginary lines crossing at the umbilicus b. An imaginary line dividing the body into equal right and left halves c. An imaginary line dividing the body into a top and bottom portion d. An imaginary line dividing the body into a front and a back portion
b. An imaginary line dividing the body into equal right and left halves CORRECT. The midline is an imaginary line splitting the body into equal right and left halves.
In which of the following locations is the femoral pulse palpated? a. On the medial side of the ankle, posterior to the tibia b. At the groin c. Behind the knee d. On the medial side of the upper arm
b. At the groin CORRECT. The femoral arteries run through each leg; their pulsing can be best palpated at the crease between the abdomen and groin.
You and your partner arrive on the scene of a 400-pound patient lying in bed. He complains of nausea and vomiting for the past 3 days. When he tries to sit up, he gets very dizzy and has a syncopal episode. Realizing that he cannot assist you in getting on the stretcher, you decide to do which of the following? a. Place the patient on a backboard to provide better gripping points to move the patient. b. Call for additional manpower to move the patient. c. Use the power lift technique to carefully and safely lift the patient to the stretcher. d. Use the patient's sheets to slide him over to the stretcher.
b. Call for additional manpower to move the patient. CORRECT. For the safety of the EMTs and the patient, additional manpower is required.
Your patient is a 10-year-old boy who suffered a possible fractured arm while rollerblading at a friend's house. Which of the following is the BEST way to obtain consent for treatment? a. Act on implied consent. b. Call the patient's mother at work. c. Get consent from the patient's 15-year-old sister, who is at the scene. d. Allow the patient to consent as an emancipated minor.
b. Call the patient's mother at work. CORRECT. Since the injury is not life-threatening, it would be appropriate to take the time to contact a parent or guardian to seek approval for care.
Which of the following is a personality trait required of EMTs? a. Awareness of problems with color vision b. Control of personal habits c. Ability to dominate the patient d. Ability to lift and carry 125 pounds
b. Control of personal habits CORRECT. To reduce the chances of providing improper care or causing patient discomfort, EMTs should be able to control their personal habits appropriately.
The cardiac muscle receives its supply of oxygenated blood by which of the following mechanisms? a. Coronary veins that branch off the pulmonary vein as it returns oxygenated blood to the heart b. Coronary arteries that branch off the aorta c. None of these d. Absorption of oxygen from the blood returning from the lungs
b. Coronary arteries that branch off the aorta CORRECT. The heart muscle has its own blood supply through the coronary artery system.
Which hormone helps the body control stress, regulate metabolism, and influence an immune response? a. Serotonin b. Cortisol c. Epinephrine d. Immunoglobulin
b. Cortisol CORRECT. Cortisol is the hormone that influences metabolism and immune response, and is critical to the body's ability to adapt to and cope with stress.
What BEST defines the evaluation of the patient's condition in order to provide emergency care? a. Patient advocacy b. Patient assessment c. Patient access d. Medical intervention
b. Patient assessment CORRECT. Patient assessment is used to find out enough about what is wrong with your patient to be able to provide the appropriate emergency care.
Which of the following BEST describes a list of steps the EMT should perform while assessing and managing emergency medical situations? a. Standard operating procedures b. Protocols c. On-line medical direction d. Standing orders
b. Protocols CORRECT. Protocols, which are developed by an agency's Medical Director, are lists of steps for assessment and interventions to be performed in different situations.
What vessel carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs? a. Aorta b. Pulmonary artery c. Venae cavae d. Pulmonary veins
b. Pulmonary artery CORRECT. When the right ventricle contracts, it pumps this blood out to the lungs via the pulmonary artery.
Which of the following is the correct position of an EMT's feet when lifting? a. Two feet apart b. Shoulder-width apart c. As wide apart as possible d. As close together as possible
b. Shoulder-width apart CORRECT. Feet should be on a firm, level surface and positioned shoulder-width apart.
Which of the following organs functions as a reservoir for blood that can be used in case of blood loss? a. Heart b. Spleen c. Liver d. Thyroid gland
b. Spleen CORRECT. The spleen is a reservoir for reserves of blood.
You and your newly hired EMT partner arrive on the scene of a bicycle collision at the local community park. One cyclist stands by and says that she has no injuries. The other is lying on his side on the bike path, guarding his ribs and holding the lower part of his left leg. Your partner kneels next to the man, introduces herself, and asks, "Can you ambulate?" The patient looks up, confused and in obvious pain. "Can you ambulate? You know...walk?" Your partner says, a little louder. After transporting the patient, you discuss the call with your partner and suggest that she avoid using medical terms unnecessarily when talking with patients. She seems insulted and says, "Why?" What would you say? a. You should say that you are an experienced EMT and since she is new, she should just take your advice and apply it. b. Tell her that the point of communicating with patients and other providers is so there is clear understanding; using medical terms when not necessary can cause confusion. c. Tell her that the general public isn't smart enough to understand medical terminology and that all communication must be "dumbed down" when talking to patients. d. Explain that using large words and medical terms can be seen as being egotistical, which can alienate both patients and other providers.
b. Tell her that the point of communicating with patients and other providers is so there is clear understanding; using medical terms when not necessary can cause confusion. CORRECT. Occasionally complex terms used in messages can cause confusion even among trained health care professionals. If there is a potential for ambiguity or if the person you are speaking to may not understand medically-specific terms, do not be reluctant to revert to clearer terms.
An off-duty EMT is driving down the road when she sees a major vehicle accident. There are no Emergency Medical Responders on the scene yet. There are only Good Samaritans. The EMT is late for a doctor's appointment so she decides that she will not stop and help. The driver of the vehicle dies before help arrives. One of the Good Samaritans notices her EMT license plates and writes them down as she passes by. The Good Samaritan is angry that the EMT did not stop and help and tries to get the EMT fired for not helping. Which of the following statements is true? a. The EMT is negligent because the patient died. b. The EMT is not negligent because she did not have a duty to act. c. The EMT is negligent for not stopping and helping. d. The EMT is not negligent because she had a doctor's appointment.
b. The EMT is not negligent because she did not have a duty to act. CORRECT. An EMT who is not on-duty generally will not have a duty to act, therefore negligence cannot be proven.
Why is it important for EMTs to participate in quality improvement programs? a. To identify problem employees and create a corrective action plan b. To identify problems and develop a plan to prevent their recurrence c. To ensure that individuals making false calls for EMS are prosecuted d. To ensure adequate personnel are available for emergencies
b. To identify problems and develop a plan to prevent their recurrence CORRECT. EMS quality improvement programs consist of continuous self-review with the purpose of identifying aspects of the system that require improvement. Once a problem is identified, a plan is developed and implemented to prevent further occurrences of the same problem. It is critical that EMTs participate in this process because they usually have the best visibility to challenges within the system and can provide valuable insight into how to improve.
You are dispatched to the staging area of a terrorist-related chemical exposure. The incident commander asks you to stand by while hazmat personnel bring patients to the cold zone. As an EMT on-board an ambulance, what statement BEST describes your role? a. Transport patients to be decontaminated. b. Transport decontaminated patients. c. Triage patients to be decontaminated. d. Coordinate hazmat response
b. Transport decontaminated patients.
What is the inferior-most portion of the sternum? a. Manubrium b. Xiphoid process c. Body d. Sternal notch
b. Xiphoid process CORRECT. The inferior portion of the sternum is called the xiphoid process.
Which of the following incidents is the EMT legally required to report to law enforcement? a. You suspect the wife of the patient you are treating for chest pain has been smoking marijuana. b. Your patient has facial and head injuries and states that her husband beat her with a telephone receiver. c. Your patient is an 18-year-old college student who has been consuming large amounts of alcohol at a fraternity party. d. Your patient is a 12-year-old male who fell from his bicycle, breaking his left arm, and tells you his parents are at work.
b. Your patient has facial and head injuries and states that her husband beat her with a telephone receiver. CORRECT. Many states require EMTs and other health care professionals to report suspected child, elder, or domestic abuse to law enforcement.
Physiology is the study of: a. exercise and nutrition. b. body systems. c. muscles and movement. d. body structures.
b. body systems. CORRECT. Physiology is the study of body systems.
The two major portions of the skull are the: a. manubrium and mandible. b. cranium and face. c. frontal bone and ilium. d. atlas and axis.
b. cranium and face. CORRECT. The two major portions of the skull are the cranium and the face.
Post-traumatic stress disorder may be described as a(n): a. cumulative stress reaction. b. delayed stress reaction. c. acute stress reaction. d. severe stress reaction.
b. delayed stress reaction. CORRECT. A delayed stress reaction, also known as posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), has signs and symptoms that may not become evident until days, months, or even years later.
The wrist is ________ to the elbow. a. inferior b. distal c. dorsal d. medial
b. distal CORRECT. The wrist is distal to the elbow; further from the torso and nearer the free end of the extremity.
All of the following are ways that an EMT can increase both physical and mental well-being, except: a. spending more time relaxing with friends and family. b. drinking caffeine instead of alcohol. c. following a regular walking regimen. d. eating more carbohydrates.
b. drinking caffeine instead of alcohol. CORRECT. Both caffeine and alcohol can increase stress and anxiety, as well as disturb sleep patterns
The abdominal quadrants include all of the following except the: a. left lower. b. right medial. c. left upper. d. right upper.
b. right medial. CORRECT. There is no right medial abdominal quadrant.
An EMT should consider wearing protective eyewear when caring for which of these patients? a. A trauma patient who is covered in dirt, rocks, and other foreign debris b. A patient who was sprayed with mace by police during arrest c. A patient who is actively coughing d. A patient with a difficult-to-visualize scalp laceration
c. A patient who is actively coughing CORRECT. Eye protection prevents splashing, spattering, or spraying fluids (such as from a cough) from entering the body through the mucous membranes of the eyes.
Which of the following BEST describes a person who speaks up on behalf of the patient and supports his cause? a. Representative b. Assistant c. Advocate d. Guardian
c. Advocate CORRECT. EMTs should be advocates for their patients, speaking up for them and supporting them in getting appropriate care.
Sharing information about a patient's medical history with your neighbor after you hear a call on a radio scanner would constitute which of the following? a. Libel b. Slander c. Breach of confidentiality d. Violation of patient privacy
c. Breach of confidentiality CORRECT. Any information that an EMT obtains about a patient's condition, history, or treatment is considered confidential; a signed patient release is required before the information can be shared.
What condition of immediate concern results from a loss of red blood cells due to hemorrhage? a. Decreased production of carbon dioxide b. Decreased ability to fight infection c. Decreased oxygen delivery to the tissues d. Decrease in pulse rate
c. Decreased oxygen delivery to the tissues CORRECT. Since red blood cells supply oxygen to the tissues, any significant loss of these cells can reduce oxygenation in the body.
What is the minimum level of certification required of ambulance personnel responsible for direct patient care? a. Advanced EMT b. Emergency Ambulance Driver c. Emergency Medical Technician d. Emergency Medical Responder
c. Emergency Medical Technician
Which of the following pathogens can live in dried blood for days and should be a major concern for EMS providers even while cleaning contaminated equipment? a. Tuberculosis b. AIDS c. Hepatitis B d. Hepatitis A
c. Hepatitis B CORRECT. Hepatitis B has been found to live for many days in dried blood spills, posing a risk of transmission long after many other viruses would have died.
You are on the scene of an "unknown medical" call. The patient is a 26-year-old, 250-pound male patient who suddenly becomes violently angry. Everything you say to the patient only makes him angrier. Offended by your questions, he screams that he is going to "cut your tongue out" and hurries into the kitchen. What should you do? a. Tackle the patient before he can get a kitchen knife to stab you. b. Radio for police and relay to dispatch important scene information until they arrive. c. Leave immediately to a safe area and then call for police assistance. d. Radio for police and then calmly walk out of the house, being sure to take all of your medical equipment.
c. Leave immediately to a safe area and then call for police assistance. CORRECT. The EMT should leave immediately, call for assistance, and not re-enter the scene until it has been made safe by law enforcement.
You are treating an unconscious patient who does not have a possibility of spinal injury and who is breathing adequately. Which of the following is the BEST position for transporting the patient? a. Supine b. Semi-Fowler position c. Recovery position d. Fowler position
c. Recovery position CORRECT. Unresponsive patients with no suspected spine injury should be placed in the recovery position.
What is a positive, healthy way to help deal with stress? a. Adding workload to a busy regular schedule b. Drinking alcohol to "unwind" c. Regular physical exercise d. Caffeine to "get up and go"
c. Regular physical exercise CORRECT. Developing a more healthful lifestyle through diet and exercise is a positive way to deal with stress.
Which of the following BEST describes the anatomic position? a. Standing, facing forward, with arms raised above the head b. Standing in profile with the hands on the hips c. Standing, facing forward, with arms at the side, palms forward d. Supine with arms crossed over the chest and knees slightly bent
c. Standing, facing forward, with arms at the side, palms forward CORRECT. The anatomic position is the body standing erect, facing the observer, with arms down at the sides and the palms of the hands facing forward.
Which of the following groups is credited with developing the earliest documented emergency medical service? a. The Spanish b. The Egyptians c. The French d. The Mayans
c. The French CORRECT. The earliest documented emergency medical service was in 1790 when the French began transporting wounded soldiers from the scenes of battle to waiting physicians.
A postal worker has been attacked by a dog during her mail delivery route. The patient is a 54-year-old female with several dog bites on her lower extremities and left arm. The worst of these bites is located on the back of her right leg just above the ankle. How can you explain the location of this injury using anatomical landmarks? a. The bite is located on the anterior aspect of the calf just proximal to the knee. b. The bite is located on the anterior aspect of the calf just distal to the knee. c. The bite is located on the posterior aspect of the calf distal to the knee. d. The bite is located on the posterior aspect of the calf just proximal to the knee.
c. The bite is located on the posterior aspect of the calf distal to the knee. CORRECT. Since the dog bite is on the back of the leg or calf, it is on the posterior aspect of the leg. Since it is below the knee, use the term distal to describe an injury that is distant or away from the knee.
In which of the following situations is it legal to share information about treatment you provided to a patient? a. You are asked by a coworker who knows the patient. b. The patient's lawyer requests the information over the phone. c. The triage nurse at the emergency department asks about the care you provided to the patient. d. The patient gives verbal consent to release information to a friend.
c. The triage nurse at the emergency department asks about the care you provided to the patient. CORRECT. It is legal to share patient information with the staff who will be caring for her at the hospital.
Why should an EMT avoid the use of acronyms and abbreviations when communicating? a. The medical acronyms and abbreviations used by prehospital care providers and hospital staff are different. b. They should only be avoided in verbal communications, where they can be misunderstood; they are expected in written patient care reports. c. There is a chance that they can lead to errors in continued care for the patient. d. Using acronyms and abbreviations is considered unprofessional.
c. There is a chance that they can lead to errors in continued care for the patient. CORRECT. Research has shown that the use of acronyms and abbreviations is a common cause of medical errors.
In 1966 the National Highway Safety Act charged which of the following agencies with the development of emergency medical service standards? a. U.S. Department of Homeland Security b. U.S. Department of Health Services c. U.S. Department of Transportation d. U.S. Department of the Interior
c. U.S. Department of Transportation CORRECT. In 1966 the National Highway Safety Act charged the United States Department of Transportation (DOT) with developing EMS standards and assisting the states to upgrade the quality of their prehospital emergency care.
To check the distal pulse of a patient with an injury to the forearm, the EMT would check for a pulse in which location? a. Armpit b. Upper arm c. Wrist d. Throat
c. Wrist CORRECT. The wrist is distal to the elbow.
For the last few days, your regular EMT partner has been having trouble sleeping, has been on edge, and has trouble concentrating on his job during EMS calls. Luckily, your call volume has been low with no serious calls since the infant cardiac arrest you both worked last month. You ask him if anything is bothering him and he states he is fine in every way. He states that he has been going to the bars lately to relax and invites you to come along for some drinks after work. Choose the best answer for this situation. a. Your partner is suffering from a cumulative stress reaction. This is a natural response and he should be fine in a few days. b. Your partner is suffering from post-traumatic stress disorder and you should go to the bar with him to provide moral support and talk with him. c. Your partner is suffering from a delayed stress reaction and you should recommend that he seek professional counseling. d. Your partner is suffering from acute stress reaction and you should recommend to him that he seek professional counseling.
c. Your partner is suffering from a delayed stress reaction and you should recommend that he seek professional counseling. CORRECT. EMTs suffering from any type of stress reaction where they are having difficulty coping should seek professional counseling.
An EMT is confronted by an armed gunman who is threatening to kill the EMT and his partner. An elevation in the EMT's heart rate and blood pressure occurs in which stage of the body's response to stress? a. Exhaustion stage b. Response stage c. Resistance stage d. Alarm reaction stage
d. Alarm reaction stage CORRECT. During the alarm reaction stage of stress, pupil dilation, heart rate increases, and bronchial passage dilation are all common.
What are the two most easily injured portions of the spine? a. Lumbar and sacral b. Sacral and coccygeal c. Cervical and thoracic d. Cervical and lumbar
d. Cervical and lumbar CORRECT. The cervical spine can be easily injured due to the size and weight of the head, and lumbar spine is hurt more often because it is unsupported by other parts of the skeleton.
For a patient without a possibility of spinal injury, which of the following carries should be used to move him from a bed to a stretcher? a. Direct-ground lift b. Firefighter's carry c. Extremity lift d. Draw-sheet method
d. Draw-sheet method CORRECT. The draw-sheet method is used when a patient with no suspected spine injury must be moved from a bed to a stretcher.
A patient with bilateral femur fractures would have which of the following? a. A femur fracture occurring with little or no trauma b. A femur fracture in which the bone ends have punctured the muscle and skin of the thigh c. Two fractures in the same femur d. Fractures of both femurs
d. Fractures of both femurs CORRECT. Bilateral means "on both sides"; bilateral femur fractures means that both femurs have been fractured.
You are on the scene with a 72-year-old male patient with chest pain. The patient is complaining of shortness of breath but also refuses to go to the hospital, even after multiple attempts urging him to go. Which of the following should you do next? a. Stay with the patient until he loses consciousness. b. Inform the patient that he is having a "heart attack" and must be taken to the hospital for evaluation. c. Contact medical direction for orders to restrain the patient. d. Fully inform the patient about his situation and the implications of refusing care.
d. Fully inform the patient about his situation and the implications of refusing care. CORRECT. Although competent adult patients generally have the right to refuse care, it is the EMT's responsibility to fully inform the patient of the situation and the potential consequences of refusing care.
What are the minimum Standard Precautions an EMT should take when transporting a patient infected with Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS)? a. Gloves and N-95 mask b. Gloves, N-95 mask, and goggles c. Gloves d. Gloves, N-95 mask, goggles, and gown
d. Gloves, N-95 mask, goggles, and gown CORRECT. Protection against MERS and other respiratory infections in a patient-care setting includes frequent hand washing and the use of gloves, gowns, eye protection, and an N-95 respirator.
Your patient is a 40-year-old known diabetic who was found unconscious at work by a coworker. What type of consent allows you to treat this patient? a. Expressed consent b. Consent for mentally incompetent adults c. Consent for treatment of minor emergencies d. Implied consent
d. Implied consent CORRECT. Implied consent is assumed when a patient is unconscious or otherwise incapacitated.
Failure of the liver would result in which of the following? a. Inability to secrete insulin b. None of these c. Inability to filter out old and damaged blood cells d. Inability to detoxify harmful substances in the bloodstream
d. Inability to detoxify harmful substances in the bloodstream CORRECT. The liver detoxifies harmful substances from the blood, stores sugar, and assists in the production of blood products.
What should you NOT do when using a stair chair? a. Lean forward from the hips. b. Flex your knees. c. Keep your back straight. d. Lean forward from the waist.
d. Lean forward from the waist. CORRECT. When using a stair chair, the EMTs should keep their backs straight, flex their knees, and lean forward from the hips, not the waist.
When discussing left and right in terms of anatomic locations, what do they refer to? a. What left and right refer to anatomically is dependent on the patient's positioning when care is provided. b. Whoever is speaking about the anatomic location determines left and right orientation. c. Anatomic left and right refer to the provider's left and right orientation when facing a patient in the anatomic position. d. Left and right from the patient's perspective
d. Left and right from the patient's perspective CORRECT. The directions left and right always refer to the patient's left and right.
While documenting a call, you add a false statement that was made about a local doctor. This could constitute which of the following? a. Degradation of character b. Slander c. HIPAA violation d. Libel
d. Libel CORRECT. Making a written statement that could injure another person's reputation is known as libel.
Who assumes the ultimate responsibility for patient care rendered by the EMT? a. EMT b. EMS supervisor c. Director of quality assurance d. Medical Director
d. Medical Director CORRECT. The Medical Director of an EMS agency or service is ultimately responsible for all patient care because the EMTs work under the Medical Director's license.
During an emergency move, which of the following techniques should be used, whenever possible, to minimize the possibility of further aggravating a possible spinal injury? a. Roll the patient over. b. Move the patient sideways, alternating between moving the shoulders, then the hips. c. Pull the patient from the feet, not the shoulders. d. Move the patient in the direction of the long axis of the body.
d. Move the patient in the direction of the long axis of the body. CORRECT. To minimize or prevent aggravation of spinal injury, move the patient in the direction of the long axis of the body when possible.
What two components are directly related to aerobic metabolism? a. Exercise and water b. Electrolytes and carbohydrates c. Carbolic acid and air d. Oxygen and glucose
d. Oxygen and glucose CORRECT. When oxygen is present, glucose is converted in a process called aerobic metabolism.
A clot cannot form without which of the following blood components? a. Plasma b. Corpuscles c. White blood cells d. Platelets
d. Platelets CORRECT. When platelets are activated, they release chemical clotting factors needed to form blood clots.
What has the modern emergency medical services (EMS) system been developed to provide? a. Prompt emergency response b. Safe emergency transportation c. Trained medical personnel d. Prehospital care
d. Prehospital care CORRECT. In 1966 the National Highway Safety Act charged the United States Department of Transportation (DOT) with assisting the states in upgrading the quality of their prehospital emergency care.
The administration of oxygen and the application of spinal immobilization is part of which of the following for the EMT? a. None of these b. Duty to act c. Standard of care d. Scope of practice
d. Scope of practice CORRECT. The authorization to administer oxygen or immobilize a patient with suspected spinal injury could fall within an EMT's scope of practice.
You and your new EMT partner arrive first on the scene of a single car rollover on the shoulder of a busy highway. You pull off in a safe location and just as you stop the ambulance, your partner throws the passenger door open, steps out of the truck, and begins jogging through the scattered debris toward the overturned car. You shout for him to stop and he looks back at you, but then continues to the vehicle and begins assessing the driver. Later, as you are restocking in the ambulance bay of the local trauma center your partner tells you that he thinks you acted unprofessionally by shouting at him. What is the best way to respond? a. An EMT should never hurry to assist a patient. b. The On-Duty Supervisor should be called. c. New EMTs should expect partners to yell at them occasionally. d. Shouting was an attempt to protect the EMT from a potentially unsafe scene.
d. Shouting was an attempt to protect the EMT from a potentially unsafe scene. CORRECT. Quickly entering a dangerous scene without taking proper precautions will create additional risks. A professional EMT should always be concerned about the safety of everyone on scene; not just themselves and the patients, but other responders as well. In this case, shouting at the EMT was an appropriate attempt to prevent him from entering an unsafe situation.
What type of muscles control the size of the bronchioles in the lungs? a. Voluntary b. Striated c. Skeletal d. Smooth
d. Smooth CORRECT. Smooth muscles, which activate involuntarily, are found in the lungs and blood vessels.
Which of the following is NOT required to prove a claim of negligence against an EMT? a. The EMT had a duty to act. b. The EMT failed to act according to the standard of care. c. Proximate causation existed. d. The patient was in fear of bodily harm at the time of the incident.
d. The patient was in fear of bodily harm at the time of the incident. CORRECT. There is no need for the patient to have feared bodily harm in order for negligence to have occurred.
What causes the "seesaw" breathing pattern of young children? a. The size of their tongues in proportion to their mouths. b. The pronounced inward curvature at the bottom of the ribcage. c. The cricoid cartilage and trachea are both more flexible than in adults, making breathing more difficult. d. They rely more on the diaphragm during breathing difficulty.
d. They rely more on the diaphragm during breathing difficulty. CORRECT. The chest wall of a child is softer and more flexible, so infants and children tend to rely more on the diaphragm when they are having breathing difficulty. This causes the visible "seesaw" breathing pattern in which the chest and abdomen alternate movement.
With regard to medical terminology, a prefix is: a. a modifier that indicates if a term is singular or plural. b. the combination of any two or more whole words. c. the foundation of a word or term. d. added to the beginnings of roots or words to modify or qualify their meaning.
d. added to the beginnings of roots or words to modify or qualify their meaning. CORRECT. Prefixes are added to the beginnings of roots or words to modify or qualify their meaning.
An artery is a blood vessel that only: a. returns blood to the heart. b. carries oxygenated blood. c. carries deoxygenated blood. d. carries blood away from the heart.
d. carries blood away from the heart. CORRECT. Arteries always carry blood away from the heart.
When lifting a patient, a basic principle is to: a. extend your arms to maximize your lift. b. rush your lift to minimize your lift time. c. lift with your lower back. d. know your lifting limits.
d. know your lifting limits. CORRECT. It is important for the EMT to know their own - and their partner's - physical limits.
Urgent moves are required when: a. rapid transport is necessary. b. there are no life threats and conditions are stable. c. an emergency move is not possible. d. performed for treatment of life threats along with precautions for spinal injuries.
d. performed for treatment of life threats along with precautions for spinal injuries. CORRECT. Urgent moves are required when the patient must be moved quickly for treatment of an immediate threat to life, but with precautions for spinal injury when necessary.
The pressure against the walls of the blood vessels as blood is ejected from the heart and circulates through the body is the ________ blood pressure. a. mean arterial b. diastolic c. central venous d. systolic
d. systolic CORRECT. Each time the left ventricle of the heart contracts, it forces blood out into circulation. The pressure created in the arteries by this blood is called the systolic blood pressure.
A child's ________ takes up proportionally more space in the pharynx than does an adult's. a. epiglottis b. cricoid cartilage c. trachea d. tongue
d. tongue CORRECT. An adult's tongue is proportionally smaller in the pharynx than that of a child.