EMT test

15. A radio that is simplex transmits and receives on how many frequencies? 4 frequencies 1 frequency 10 frequencies All frequencies

Correct Answer is: 1 frequency Rationale: Only 1. That is why it's called simple.

You and your partner Bob arrive on scene to a report of a man that has been hit by a falling tree. He is conscious and opens his eyes when you talk to him, then he closes them. He is confused as to what happened to him. He obeys your command to wiggle his toes. This man has a GCS of what?

Correct Answer is: 13 Rationale: Eye opening to voice gets the patient 3 points, confused verbal responses net 4 points, and obeying the command to wiggle toes gets 6 points, for a total of 13.

After a long shift, EMT Huerta and Paramedic Yamaka are transporting an intoxicated man who was beat up at a party. The patient is cussing EMT Huerta for putting the oxygen mask on him when Paramedic Yamaka says, "Listen drunk, if you don't shut up I am going to knock you out!" This patient could make a case for ______________________ against Yamaka. Assault and battery Assault Battery Abuse

Correct Answer is: Assault Rationale: Assault is creating fear of injury in a person which Yamaka has done here. Battery would involve the actual physical touching of the patient, which Yamaka did not do.

You are assessing an 83 year old woman who has COPD and CHF. She is sitting upright in her chair and appears to understand that you are an EMT here to help her. You should? Never break eye contact Call the patient something endearing like honey Be honest with the patient about her conditions Stand in front of her to facilitate communication

Correct Answer is: Be honest with the patient about her conditions Rationale: You want to make eye contact and address the person by Mr. or Mrs. Rather than terms of endearment like "honey" or "dear". You should try to be at eye level or slightly below for best communication.

You are called to a daycare where a 3 year old boy is reportedly unconscious after choking on a plastic toy. You arrive to find the child lying supine on the floor with the caregiver attempting to give artificial ventilations. "I can't get any air in!", she says. With a quick inspection of the mouth, you can partially see a deeply lodged object near the glottis. What should you do now?

Correct Answer is: Begin chest compressions in an attempt to dislodge the object. Check airway regularly. Rationale: If your patient is unconscious as a result of an FBAO, you should begin chest compressions after verifying an occluded airway. Chest compression will increase the intrathoracic pressure as much or more than abdominal thrusts and will be more likely to dislodge the object in the unconscious patient. Regularly inspect the mouth for the dislodged object during compressions and attempt ventilation if possible.

You are on scene of an ice skating accident where your patient has completely dislocated her knee. She has no distal pulses and her leg is pale. She is in extreme pain, so you should? Call medical control immediately for stabilization instructions Splint the knee in place and transport code yellow Take traction on the foot until you hear a pop Ask her to straighten her leg so you can splint it

Correct Answer is: Call medical control immediately for stabilization instructions Rationale: With no distal pulses you will need to contact medical control on how to proceed unless manipulation is within your local scope of practice. Splinting the extremity may be called for but transporting low priority would be inappropriate.

You have just drawn blood from a woman who protested the whole time telling you to stop. You have just? Committed assault Committed battery Got to draw blood from some patients About had it with her

Correct Answer is: Committed battery Rationale: You have just committed battery. You were requested to stop doing a procedure which involved touching the patient but you did not stop.

CISD stands for ______________. Computed incident scene distance Cavitation, evisceration, swelling, deformity. Cardiological ischemic stroke disorder Critical incident stress debriefing

Correct Answer is: Critical incident stress debriefing Rationale: Used after stressful calls to better deal with the stress involved.

What is the purpose of disinfectant? Destroy germs on non living objects Destroy germs in open wounds Eliminate germs on the skin before setting an IV Clean door handles of the ambulance

Correct Answer is: Destroy germs on non living objects Rationale: Disinfectants are for killing germs on non living things. Antiseptics are for destroying or stopping the growth of germs on living tissue.

Which type of diabetic emergency generally has a gradual onset?

Correct Answer is: Diabetic coma Rationale: Diabetic coma has a gradual onset, and occurs over a period of hours or days. Hypoglycemia or insulin shock can occur in minutes or hours.

When obtaining history from an angry or hostile patient, special challenges may exist. Which of the following are of least concern to the provider while obtaining history? Anger is often directed toward the caregiver Do not get angry in return Anger or hostility is natural Do not use calming techniques

Correct Answer is: Do not use calming techniques Rationale: When obtaining history from an angry or hostile patient, special challenges may exist, the provider should be cognizant of all of the following: Understand

Which of the following is not a Sensitive Topic that may have to be dealt with during history taking? Eating disorders Alcohol and drugs Physical abuse Sexual history

Correct Answer is: Eating disorders Rationale: Sensitive Topics that EMTs may have to deal with include: Alcohol and drugs, physical abuse or violence, sexual history, and special challenges. Eating disorders are not generally considered a sensitive topic by nature but may be when dealing with a bulimic patient.

What is the name of the guidebook utilized by first responders during the initial phase of a dangerous goods/hazardous materials incident? Placard Recognition Guidebook Initial Response Haz-Mat Guidebook :Department of Homeland Security Guide for Mitigating Initial Hazardous Material Incident Operations :Emergency Response Guidebook

Correct Answer is: Emergency Response Guidebook Rationale: An emergency response guidebook (ERG) is well known in the fire and EMS services and is the initial guidebook for determining how to mitigate hazards associated with haz-mat incidents.

All of the following are specific EMT-Administered medications except: Aspirin Oral glucose Epinephrine Oxygen

Correct Answer is: Epinephrine Rationale: Aspirin, oral glucose, and oxygen are EMT-Administered medications. Epinephrine is an EMT-assisted medication.

Your unit has been called to an unconscious patient lying on the side of a rural road. The reporting party was a passing motorist who called, stating that there were 3 or 4 other people who appeared to be attending the person. Your unit arrives to find an elderly female lying on her left side and a group of what appears to be family members standing around her. You kneel to take her pulse when one of the men says "Our religion does not permit outside medical attention. We will take care of her." What would be the best choice of action? -Express your concern for the woman and make an attempt to convince them that you can provide a higher level of care than they can -Make the people at the scene demonstrate their association with the woman through proper identification -Move to a safe distance from the scene and call for law enforcement backup so you can treat the woman -Respect the religious beliefs and leave the scene

Correct Answer is: Express your concern for the woman and make an attempt to convince them that you can provide a higher level of care than they can Rationale: Making a concerned attempt to give assistance would be the best choice of action, though you obviously do not want to push it. Requiring identification or calling law enforcement right off will only delay treatment and likely escalate the situation. While you certainly want to respect any religious beliefs, you cannot just leave the scene without knowing what the ailing woman's true wishes are with regard to being treated. If the people were not standing around her you would treat based on implied consent.

General assessment of a sickle cell crisis includes all of the following except:

Correct Answer is: Extremities Rationale: The general assessment of a sickle cell crisis includes: Level of consciousness, skin, visual disturbances, gastrointestinal, skeletal, cardiorespiratory, and genitourinary.

The ideal method for moving a patient to a backboard is using which of the following techniques? Four person log roll Three person log roll Two person log roll Four person lift

Correct Answer is: Four person log roll Rationale: The four person log roll is the recommended method for moving a patient to a backboard.

You have been called to the scene of a gang shooting and your ambulance is staged a safe distance away. Dispatch tells you that the reporting party has confirmed that the shooter is gone and there are multiple victims. What should you do? Get confirmation that law enforcement is on scene and that it is safe for you to proceed Ask how many victims there are and call for additional resources based on the answer Request law enforcement backup and proceed to the scene with caution Ask how many victims there are and proceed to the scene

Correct Answer is: Get confirmation that law enforcement is on scene and that it is safe for you to proceed Rationale: You would need to get confirmation from law enforcement personnel ON SCENE, that this scene is safe. The reporting party is not a good source to rely upon for your safety. They could even be the shooter.

Which of the following would be considered unethical for a First Responder? Giving a patient a business card for a lawyer Talking to a patient about religion Disclose one's affection for a coworker Making sure a patient who has no insurance goes to the hospital

Correct Answer is: Giving a patient a business card for a lawyer Rationale: Soliciting business for a lawyer is unethical.

When assessing appearance and behavior during a complete neurological exam, attention should be focused on all of the following except:

Correct Answer is: Hyper responsiveness When assessing appearance and behavior during a complete neurological exam attention should be focused on the following findings: is the patient alert, does the patient respond to verbal stimuli, does the patient respond to painful stimuli, or is the patient unresponsive.

Of the following, which one is not considered a special challenge that may complicate a provider's ability to obtain an accurate and thorough history? Visually impaired patient Hypertensive patient Silent patient Patient with confusing behavior

Correct Answer is: Hypertensive patient Rationale:All of the following are special challenges that may complicate a provider's ability to obtain an accurate and thorough history: Silent patient, overly talkative patient, patient with multiple symptoms, anxious patient, angry and hostile patient, intoxicated patient, depressed patient, patient with confusing behavior or history, patient with limited cognitive abilities, EMT-patient language barrier, patient with hearing problem, patient with visual impairment, family and friend involvement.

Which of the following is NOT a type of consent? Improvised Involuntary Informed Expressed

Correct Answer is: Improvised Rationale: Improvised is not a type of consent. The other 3, along with Implied consent, are the 4 correct types.

Which type of poison is likely to cause a scene to be hazardous? Inhaled Ingested Rat poison Inhaled

Correct Answer is: Inhaled Rationale: Generally, a poison that is inhaled or taken in from the air would be the one putting the EMT in danger. While the others are poisons and dangerous, they are not likely to be a problem at the scene, as compared to an inhalant. If you suspect that it was an inhalation poisoning, your best course of action may be to back out and ensure that the scene is safe for you to proceed back in.

Which of the following environmental situations should not be considered when planning how to manage a scene? Weather Toxins or gases Unstable conditions Law enforcement personnel

Correct Answer is: Law enforcement personnel Rationale: Environmental considerations that impact scene management include: Weather or extreme temperatures, toxins or gases, secondary collapse and falls, and unstable conditions. Law enforcement personnel are assets on scene and don't require environmental consideration.

When treating a patient, it is often necessary to use communication techniques that help you uncover more information. Which of the following is one of those communication techniques? Silence Staring Applauding None of the above

Correct Answer is: None of the above Rationale: None of the answers are communication techniques.

It is your duty as an EMT to diagnose a diabetic condition as: Hypoglycemic Hyperglycemic Serious None of the above

Correct Answer is: None of the above Rationale: You need to manage airway, breathing, and circulation, and transport in a safe and expedient manner. It is not your job to diagnose.

Within the kinematics of trauma, blunt trauma types of collisions include all of the following except:

Correct Answer is: Organs colliding outside body Rationale: Within Kinematics of Trauma, the types of collision in blunt trauma includes: Car with another object, patient colliding with part of the car, and organs colliding inside the body.

Which of the following factors does not impact the current health status of a patient? Past medications Diet Tobacco use Alcohol or drug use

Correct Answer is: Past medications Rationale: Factors impacting the current health status of a patient include: Tobacco use, allergies, use of alcohol, drugs, and other related substances, and diet.

All of the following are transport considerations with brain trauma except:

Correct Answer is: Patients must have air medical transport Rationale: Transport considerations with brain trauma include: Head trauma with impaired airway or ventilation, open wounds, abnormal vital signs, or patients who do not respond to painful stimuli may need rapid extrication; head trauma patients must be transported to appropriate trauma centers; may deteriorate rapidly and may need air medical transport; adequate airway, ventilation, and oxygenation are critical to the outcome; patients frequently vomit - keep suction available; and they frequently have seizures.

When dealing with a responsive patient who is producing stridor, all of the following could be the cause of the stridor except: Trauma Pneumonia Swelling Foreign body

Correct Answer is: Pneumonia Stridor in a responsive patient may be due to: swelling, trauma, or a foreign body, narrowing the airway around the larynx.

When evaluating the priority of patient care, the Primary Assessment includes all of the following except: Potentially unstable Unstable Potentially stable Stable

Correct Answer is: Potentially stable Rationale: When evaluating the priority of patient care, the Primary Assessment includes: Stable, potentially unstable, and unstable.

Another term for offline medical direction is? Required care DOT care handbook Protocols Standard of practice

Correct Answer is: Protocols Rationale: Protocols are offline direction written by the medical director is: Protocols

EMT Maloney is moving from an ambulance service in one state to a new ambulance service in another state. His new unit will accept his state license as an EMT. This is an example of? Multiple licensure Probationary acceptance Reciprocity National Certification

Correct Answer is: Reciprocity Rationale: Reciprocity is the exchange of licensure or privileges, in this case from state to state.

What position is preferred when transporting a person who is unconscious from a non trauma emergency? Trendelenburg Prone Recovery Supine

Correct Answer is: Recovery Rationale: This makes any vomiting and fluid drainage that may occur easier to deal with and it's safer for the patient as it helps prevent aspiration.

During secondary assessment of the chest, attention should be focused on all of the following except:

Correct Answer is: Rigidity Rationale: During secondary assessment of the chest, attention should be focused on: Pain, equal rise and fall, guarding, breath sounds, retractions, scars, medication patches, and medical devices. Rigidity is not a finding associated with the chest.

Axial structures include the _________________ and _______________.

Correct Answer is: Skull; vertebral column Rationale: Axial structures include the skull, thoracic cage, and the vertebral column. The axial skeleton is the foundation on which arms and legs are hung and runs in a straight line from the head to the pelvis.

When responding to a chest pain call at a fertilizer plant, you notice an NFPA 704M placard. This placard is a square (broken into quadrants) that is tilted up onto a corner (diamond). What does the white quadrant represent? Health hazards Specific hazard Reactivity Flammability

Correct Answer is: Specific hazard (special information) Rationale: There are four different colors associated with this placard. Blue represents health hazards, red represents fire hazards, yellow represents reactivity, and the white quadrant has special information or shows another specific hazard.

You are applying a traction splinting device to a patient who has rolled his four wheeler and has an obvious fracture of the left femur. Choose which order of splint application is correct Stabilize the leg with mechanical traction, check PMS, secure splint, and transport Stabilize the leg, take manual traction of the leg, check PMS, and apply splinting device Strap the splint to the leg, take mechanical traction of the leg, secure it to backboard, and transport Measure the splint, take manual traction, secure the straps, then secure to a backboard

Correct Answer is: Stabilize the leg, take manual traction of the leg, check PMS, and apply splinting device Rationale: Stabilize, manual traction, and checking PMS with applying the splinting device is the only answer in a possibly correct order.

Medical directors have the responsibility of establishing? Control of the scene Standing protocols Care systems A good rapport with the patient

Correct Answer is: Standing protocols Rationale: Standing protocols are defined by medical direction to assist in various situations where communication is not necessary.

You and your partner Lucille have just requested air transportation for a critical trauma patient. The landing zone is on a slight decline so after the helicopter lands you should approach it from? The downhill side The front The back The uphill side

Correct Answer is: The downhill side Rationale: Approaching from the downhill side of the helicopter is the safest route.

A woman who has had 3 other children is in active labor. She tells you that she is having severe lower back pain. The most likely cause is..?

Correct Answer is: The fetus is presenting posteriorly and is putting pressure on her spine Rationale: A fetus who is setting posterior in the uterus may put pressure on the spine of the mother causing her to have what is known as back labor.

An EMS unit should communicate with dispatch in all of the following instances except: To acknowledge initial call To request additional resources To report inclement weather Arrival at hospital

Correct Answer is: To report inclement weather Rationale: The reporting of weather conditions is a misuse of EMS communications. The only time this might be appropriate is if road conditions warrant documenting a decreased response time, or so that dispatch can alert other responders to hazards due to the weather along the route to the scene. Weather reporting in general is to be avoided.

4. When dealing with an agitated delirium patient, all of the following are correct means of establishing rapport except:

Correct Answer is: Trying to distract the patient from his problems When dealing with an agitated delirium patient, the correct means of establishing rapport include: Utilizing therapeutic interviewing techniques, avoiding threatening actions, statements and questions, and approaching slowly and purposefully. Developing a good rapport is critical with these patients, whoever has the best rapport and is capable of treating the patient on scene should treat these patients. Sometimes it will be you, other times it will be your partner.

It is 11 pm on a Friday night. You and your partner Bob are responding to a multiple vehicle collision at a busy intersection. When you arrive on scene the safest place to park the ambulance is facing the oncoming lane of traffic. This would require that you do what? :Turn on the parking, driving, and emergency lights in the ambulance so that oncoming cars do not hit the ambulance Have Bob stay with the ambulance and do a rapid triage on the patients Place road flares at least 50 feet in front of the ambulance Turn your headlights off, unless they are needed to illuminate the scene

Correct Answer is: Turn your headlights off, unless they are needed to illuminate the scene Rationale: Having your driving lights on, facing oncoming traffic, could possibly impair the vision of the oncoming driver. You should only leave these lights on in this situation if they are needed for illuminating the scene. Road flares are being used less and less with the danger of fire.

Which method of questioning should be used to determine the chief complaint? Use general, open-ended questions Use questions that can be answered with yes or no Use questions that can have multiple answers Use specific, closed-ended questions

Correct Answer is: Use general, open-ended questions Rationale: When determining the chief complaint, us general, open-ended questions. This allows the patient to formulate his/her response as best they can or as they can most accurately describe.

During an emergency call there are multiple ways to spread infectious diseases back and forth between patients and ambulances. Which of the following choices is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infectious diseases? Wearing an N95 mask and gloves during all patient contact Putting a mask on patients who are coughing Spraying all surfaces in the ambulance with disinfectant Washing your hands with soap and water

Correct Answer is: Washing your hands with soap and water Rationale: Hand washing is the best thing you can do to prevent the spread of germs and other infectious substances. It is by far the single most important thing you can do to keep from cross contaminating.

In the mnemonic OPQRST, P = Provocation, palliative, and positioning. Provocation and palliative respectively mean: ________________________ and _________________________. What makes it hurt and what makes it worse How to make it better and how to relieve pain What makes it worse and how it started What makes it worse and what makes it better

Correct Answer is: What makes it worse and what makes it better Rationale: In the mnemonic OPQRST, P = Provocation, palliative, and positioning. Provocation and palliative respectively mean: What makes it worse and what makes it better.

During secondary assessment, all of the following are aspects of monitoring the pulse that should be addressed except: auscultation strength rate rhythm

Correct Answer is: auscultation Rationale: During secondary assessment, all of the following are aspects of monitoring the pulse that should be addressed: Rate, rhythm, regularity (adjust timing for irregularity), strength, and location.

The radio you carry on your person is ______________. 1-5 watts 25-50 watts 75-100 watts 120-200 watts

Correct Answer: 1-5 watts Rationale: Hand held radios are generally 1-5 watts.

Which of the following law types may apply to an EMT? Criminal law Civil law Common law All of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above Rationale: Along with Administrative and Legislative all may apply to the EMT.

What will not be included in the history of the present illness? Associated signs Onset Radiation Applying oxygen

Correct Answer: Applying oxygen Rationale: The history of the present illness may include: Location; onset; provocation, palliative, and positioning; quality; radiation; severity; time; associated signs and symptoms; pertinent negative(s); and for trauma patients, determining the mechanism of injury.

You have arrived on the scene of a possible stroke victim, your scene safety and standard precautions should include all of the following except: Emotional detachment Rapid transport Pulse oximetry ABCs/position

Correct Answer: Emotional detachment Rationale: Upon arrival on the scene of a possible stroke victim, scene safety and standard precaution should include: ABCs/position, oxygen/suction, pulse oximetry, emotional support, and rapid transport. Generally it's not appropriate to exhibit emotional detachment on scene. Emotional support is an important aspect of pre-hospital care.

Your unit arrives on scene to an MVA involving a semi truck and sports car. The semi is jack knifed in the road and the sports car has crashed into the side. You see a hazardous materials placard on the side of the trailer showing a square (broken into quadrants) that is tilted up onto a corner (diamond), with different colors in each quadrant. What does a red quadrant represent? Reactivity Specific hazard (special information) Health hazards Flammability

Correct Answer: Flammability Rationale: This is the NFPA 704M placard. Blue represents health hazards, red represents fire hazards, yellow represents reactivity, and the white quadrant has special information or shows another specific hazard.

With regard to radio waves, cycles per second refers to? Frequency Clarity Refraction Duplicity

Correct Answer: Frequency Rationale: The cycles per second is the frequency that is being operated on.

Transporting a patient in the Fowler position would indicate that the patient? Has required restraints as a result of his/her actions in the ambulance Is in a critical health crisis and you are forcing as much blood to the heart as possible Is nauseated and may need to vomit Has his/her head and chest elevated with knees slightly bent and supported

Correct Answer: Has his/her head and chest elevated with knees slightly bent and supported Rationale: Fowler is usually a position of comfort for a stable person who is not in shock. It is close to a normal sitting position.

Standards of Care can be established by all of the following except: Personal customs Laws and statutes Local customs Professional organizations

Correct Answer: Personal customs Rationale: Organizations and entities that establish Standards of Care include local customs, laws and statutes, professional organizations, states, and textbooks. Personal customs do not play a role in creating Standards of Care.

During a rapid trauma assessment you would be? Select the three answer options that are correct. Palpating Auscultating Inspecting Subluxating Inspecting Repudiating

Correct Answers are:Palpating, Auscultating, Inspecting Rationale: Palpating, auscultating and inspecting are all techniques for finding out what medical or trauma related emergency may exist. Tribation it a social platform for athletics, subluxing is the partial dislocation of a joint and repudiating means refusing to accept something.

You arrive at an MVC on a busy interstate just outside of the city. One tractor trailer is involved and is lying on its side. A green cloud is venting from the trailer on which you notice a green placard with the number two. What is most likely on board the trailer? Gases Poison and poison inhalation hazard Explosives Corrosives

Correct: Gases Rationale: If you are the first unit on scene, you should know how to use an Emergency Response Guidebook to mitigate this situation. Hazardous materials warning labels are as follows: class 1-explosives, class 2-gases, class 3-flammable and combustible liquids, class 4-flammable solid-spontaneously combustible-dangerous when wet, class 5-oxidizer and organic peroxide, class 6-poison and poison inhalation hazard, class 7-radioactive, class 8-corrosive, class 9-miscellaneous.

You have just arrived at the scene to find a 27-year-old female complaining of anxiety and breathing difficulties. Which of the following questions would be most appropriate to ask first?

What is your name? Rationale: When performing patient assessment, the first thing, after your scene size-up, is to do the primary survey (also called primary assessment). The first step of the primary survey is to form a general impression, followed by level of consciousness, then Airway, Breathing, and Circulatory status, and finally identify life threats during that process. While all of those questions are proper to ask at some point during an assessment, the best choice is to ask the patient her name first. This is critical information because it allows you to know who you are interacting with. It also helps to determine a general impression of the patient according to their proper or improper response, and then determine airway status. This sets the stage for the rest of your assessment. You should always introduce yourself and ask for your patient's name at the beginning of your assessment. The other questions come during the history taking part of your assessment.

In the realm of the EMS provider, applied ethics is: The manner in which principles of ethics are incorporated into interpersonal relationships. The manner in which principles of ethics are incorporated into personal conduct. The manner in which principles of ethics are incorporated into legal conduct. The manner in which principles of ethics are incorporated into professional conduct.

Your Answer: The manner in which principles of ethics are incorporated into professional conduct. Rationale: Applied ethics is the application of ethics to professional conduct. An EMS provider is expected to conduct himself/herself in a manner consistent with the standards of their profession.