EPPP Random Quiz
Overall, research has shown that individuals who are well acculturated show the least stress and the best overall adjustment compared to...
...those who assimilate and to those who refuse to adapt to the dominant culture altogether.
Difference between "common" and "classic" migraines
While "common migraines" do not involve prodromal symptoms, "classic migraines" (found in about 30% of migraine sufferers) include visual auras and sensory disturbances (e.g., hemiparesis). Migraines are much more common in females.
Helms
White racial identity Model (stages reflect different levels of cognitive effective complexity and race-related experience)
Scores on the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC-IV) include
a full scale IQ four composite or index scores (verbal comprehension, perceptual reasoning, working memory, and processing speed).
Conversion- primary or secondary gain
conversion - primary gain, can be secondary gain
Operant Conditioning
treat insomnia, overeating
OCD
treat with what meds - antidepressants including Clomipramine (Anafranil), which is a tricyclic, or Prozac, which is an SSRI.
Elavil, Anafranil, Tofranil
tricyclic antidepressants
DBT
trt includes - -phone consultations -to work on reducing self-injurious and parasuicidal behavior. -to work on reducing therapy-interfering behaviors. - to attend all sessions within reason and remain in therapy for a specified period of time (e.g., one year). -therapist consultation -Mindfullness group skills training (usually focusing on the four skills of core mindfulness, interpersonal effectiveness, emotion modulation, and distress tolerance)
Oppositional defiant disorder
diagnosed in the presence of a recurrent pattern of negativistic, defiant and disobedient behaviors toward authority figures. Deliberate defiance or disregard of rules, frequent loss of temper, anger and vindictiveness, and frequent arguments with adults are all symptoms of oppositional defiant disorder.
Schizophrenia, Undifferentiated Type.
diagnosed when there are two or more symptoms that include some combination of delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, disorganized or catatonic behavior, and negative symptoms, yet the criteria for Paranoid, Disorganized, or Catatonic Type are not met.
Teachers
differences in student interactions based on gender differnces - Teachers pay more attention to boys than girls at all levels of education, from preschool through college. They also give boys more opportunities to talk. Feedback to boys tend to be useful and oriented toward content and achievement (e.g., praise, correction, criticism), whereas feedback to girls tends to be superficial, often focused on the appearance of the work, not its content.
The often-cited tragic death of Kitty Genovese in New York City lends support to the concept of:
diffusion of responsibility and "bystander apathy
Secondary Prevention
focuses on early identification and prompt treatment (IN A CRISIS) of a disorder with the goal of stopping relatively mild disorders from becoming more serious and prolonged, and thereby reducing prevalence by shortening a disorder's duration. Here, the goal is to prevent the development of chronic anxiety (e.g. PTSD as a result of witnessing the incident).
Cross stage 2- event leads to interest in developing black identity
encounter
Conduct Disorder
essential feature is behavior that violates the basic rights of others and societal norms, such as aggression toward people and animals, destruction of property, or theft.
Tertiary prevention
focuses on reducing the residual effects of a disability or minimizing further negative consequences of an established, serious disorder, for example vocational rehabilitation and day treatment centers for schizophrenics.
House's path-goal theory
focuses on the leader increasing personal payoffs for subordinates by making the paths to payoffs easier and by reducing the roadblocks.
theory of mind
false-belief experiment - to determine if a child has developed a sense of the independence of others' minds to the point that she can imagine that people can have other (false) beliefs about the world than what she has. - ability to correctly answer the false-belief experiment normally develops around the age of four (have an understanding of how beliefs are formed and that people's beliefs can differ from reality (the reality that the ball is now in the red box))
A method of evaluation in which the rater must choose between two seemingly equally desirable choices.
forced choice
A comparative method of employee evaluation in which people are ranked to fit a given distribution.
forced distribution
Are likert scales that involve rating each employee on a variety of job dimensions
graphic rating
Counterconditioning (reciprocal inhibition)
two incompatible responses cannot be experienced at the same time, but rather that the stronger response will dominate or inhibit the weaker The focus of treatment is to weaken a maladaptive response by strengthening an incompatible or antagonistic response.
According to classical test theory, test scores usually differ from true scores. The most likely explanation for this phenomenon is:
nonsystematic error - According to classical test theory, total variance in scores is equal to true variance (reliability) and error variance. In equation form, this is expressed as X = T + E.
When variables are "orthogonal" they are ___with each other. When they are "oblique" they are ___.
not correlated; correlated - These terms are more commonly used to describe the types of rotations available in factor analysis. An orthogonal rotation results in uncorrelated factors whereas an oblique rotation results in correlated factors.
The diathesis-stress model
posits that mental illness results from the combination of nature and nurture. Nature is the person's biological/genetic vulnerability (diathesis), while nurture refers to the person's life experiences (e.g., stress). The diathesis-stress model is frequently used to explain the development of Schizophrenia.
A ten-year-old repeatedly awakens from sleep with a loud scream, and shows signs of fear and autonomic arousal. She is confused and disoriented, and unresponsive to others. Later, however, she does not remember the episode. These episodes are most likely occurring during _______ sleep, and are consistent with a diagnosis of _________.
stage 4, sleep terror disorder. Sleep terror disorder, a parasomnia, occurs during stage 4 sleep, typically in the first third of the night when such deep sleep predominates. - Nightmare disorder involves repeated awakening from sleep with detailed recall of frightening dreams. On awakening, the person is alert and oriented, in contrast to the confusion and disorientation seen in sleep terror disorder. Nightmare disorder occurs during REM sleep, most often later in the night, which is when REM sleep predominates.
The preamble of APA's Ethics Code describes two goals:
"The welfare of and protection of the individuals and groups with whom psychologists work;" and, "The education of members, students, and the public regarding ethical standards of the discipline."
A person who has been diagnosed with terminal cancer asks, "Why me?" According to Kubler-Ross, this is characteristic of which emotional stage? (DABDA)
"Why me?" is characteristic of the stage of anger, in which the person is questioning why he or she has to be the one to die. - Denial is characterized by disbelief (e.g., "Not me" or "It's not possible"). In the depression phase , the person experiences despair and hopelessness. In the bargaining phase (Response 3), the person tries to make deals in order to not have to go through the inevitable (e.g., "If I can beat this, I'll be nicer to my family and friends").
Beck's cogntive triad of depression
(1) a negative view of the self as defective and inadequate (2) a tendency to experience the world as negative, interpret events negatively, and expect failure and punishment; (3) the expectation of continued hardship or a negative appraisal of the future.
Researchers such as Garmezy and Rutter have studied risk and protective factors in development. In designing interventions to reduce the impact of risk factors on development, one should keep in mind that:
**there is a positive correlation between number of risk factors and developmental psychopathology.
Quality control circles
*The goal of quality control circles (QCCs) is to improve the finished product and level of production. **The method of QCCs involves increasing workers' responsibility for their work, as well as increasing their participation in decisions affecting the nature of the work. ***QCCs typically affect only the organizational unit, and not the organization as a whole. QCCs consists of 7-10 employees from the same department
Kinesics vs proxemics
- Kinesics describes body movements, such as facial expressions, gestures, physical contact, etc. - proxemics refers to the perception and use of personal space (e.g., how far one needs to stand from others when speaking to them).
Symptoms of delirium include
- a change in cognitive abilities (e.g., the inability to recognize familiar people), perceptual disturbances (e.g., hallucinations), as well as a disturbance (clouding) of consciousness, in which the person is less aware of the environment. - These symptoms have rapid onset, and are brief and fluctuating. Delirium is most common in the elderly and children, due to post-operative states, as well as infections, metabolic disorders (hypoglycemia, renal disease, etc.), and intoxication/withdrawal.
Factors that would determine whether this is client abandonment include
- availability of other clinical resources, - current status of the patient - provision of appropriate pretermination counseling.
Interpersonal Therapy (IPT)
- form of brief therapy (12 - 16 sessions), which was developed for treating depression. - The focus in IPT is on current relationships because it is believed that interpersonal problems are commonly associated with acute depression. - IPT is frequently combined with antidepressant medication. - IPT focuses on current conflicts
SSRI
- do not cause anticholinergic side effectsCommon - side effects of the SSRIs include headaches, nervousness, restlessness, insomnia, gastrointestinal distress, and sexual dysfunction.
homoscedasity
- there is equal variance among all the groups.
According to the James-Lange Theory, one first has an autonomic or physiological reaction, and then an interpretation of this physiological reaction, which becomes the emotional reaction. In other words, physiological changes cause emotions (e.g., "I'm trembling so I must be afraid.").
...
The Canon-Bard Theory of Emotions, which states that upon perceiving an event, we experience a physiological reaction and an emotional reaction at the same time. This theory states that when an event is encountered, messages are sent simultaneously to the hypothalamus (responsible for physiologically arousing the body) and to the limbic system (causing the subjective experience of fear). For example, upon encountering a bear, one feels fear (emotional reaction), and rapid heart-beat and trembling (physical reaction) simultaneously.
...
In order to perform a Chi-square, there must be: 1. independent observations. 2. random assignment. 3. normally distributed data. 4. homoscedasticity.
1 Chi Square- non-paramtric, nominal data - homoscedasicity and normal distribution = only parametric tests
An inverted U relationship can be interpreted with which of the following coefficients? 1. Eta. 2. Pearson r. 3. Biserial. 4. Tetrachoric.
1 Eta is the coefficient of choice for a curvilinear relationship. The pearson r (Response 2) is used to assess the strength and direction of a linear relationship between two continuous (interval/ratio) variables. The biserial coefficient (Response 3) is appropriate for assessing the relationship between a continuous variable and an artificially dichotomous variable. The tetrachoric coefficient (Response 4) is used to look at the correlation between two dichotomous variables.
When there is greater concern about obtaining false negatives than false positives, one would choose to: 1. lower the predictor cutoff. 2. raise the predictor cutoff. 3. lower the criterion cutoff. 4. raise the criterion cutoff.
1 False negatives occur when a score falls below the predictor cutoff (i.e., is labeled "negative") but above the criterion cutoff; thus, it is a false negative. To remedy the situation, one should lower the predictor cutoff so that it is easier to be labeled a positive. In the real world, we often cannot change criterion cutoffs (Responses 3 & 4). For example, if a lab test for pregnancy gave us false negatives could we change the criterion and make pregnant woman non-pregnant? So, even though raising the criterion cutoff would also reduce false negatives, Response 1 is the better answer.
1. elderly persons do better on tasks of recognition than recall. 2. elderly persons exhibit declines in short-term memory. 3. elderly persons perform better on ecological tasks of memory than tasks presented in memory labs. 4. elderly persons perform better on memory tasks involving biographical information.
1 It is hypothesized that memory problems in the elderly are due more to problems with retrieval than with encoding. In other words, the elderly can register information, but have difficulty with free recall, or bringing up the information from their memory banks. Giving them cues, such as on recognition tasks, can help them to remember the information. Short-term memory tends to remain intact in the elderly (Response 2). Response 3 is an accurate statement, however, it does not address the question. Response 4 is also a correct statement, yet it too does not answer the question. Instead, it states that the elderly can retrieve information from long-term memory, and it does not address the issue of retrieval versus encoding. Note that typically the elderly experience difficulty with retrieval and learning of new information.
When would the administration of Ritalin to a child with ADHD be contraindicated? 1. If tics are present. 2. If the child has a learning disorder. 3. If the child has conduct problems. 4. If the child has comorbid depression.
1 Ritalin would not be the drug of choice for a child with ADHD who also has tics. Because Ritalin is a stimulant, it may exacerbate the tics. Tics are typically treated with a sedating type of medication, such as Haldol.
A 72-year-old client with long-standing, uncontrolled hypertension recently experienced a stroke, with resulting weakness of her left hand and arm. The client would probably also demonstrate: 1. left visual field damage and visuospatial deficits. 2. right visual field damage and visuospatial deficits. 3. left visual field damage and language deficits. 4. right visual field damage and language deficits.
1 The weakness in the left arm and hand would indicate damage to the right hemisphere, since each side of the body is controlled by the opposite hemisphere. Damage to the right hemisphere would affect functioning on the left side of the body, therefore this person can be expected to have deficits in the left visual field, as well as deficits in visuospatial abilities (the latter function is also controlled by the right hemisphere). Response 2 is only partially correct; the person would have visuospatial deficits, but not right visual field damage. Language deficits (Responses 3 and 4) would be expected with damage to the left hemisphere, not the right.
Best neuroimaging technique for: 1) localize the source of a seizure 2)determine brain structure and degree of pathology 3)diagnose tumors, blood clots, multiple sclerosis 4)regional cerebral blood flow, glucose metabolism, neural activity 5) brains metabolic activity
1) EEG
delirium dx criteria
1) disturbance in consciousness (reduced awareness, atten shifts, distractibility) 2) cognitive changes (memory impairment, disorientation language impairment) and/or perceptual abnormalities (illusions and hallucinations)
In Exner's Rorschach Comprehensive System (RCS), responses are scored on __, ___, and ___
1) content, 2) Form quality refers to how accurately the responses relate to the form of the inkblot. 3) Developmental quality refers to the degree of integration of the response.
The concordance rate for dizygotic twins for bipolar disorder and major depression is
20 to 25%
Postpartum depression occurs in about _____ of new mothers.
10-15% - involves severe anxiety, irritability, insomnia, disinterest in the infant, guilt, suicidal ideation, poor concentration, as well as weepiness and sadness.
Beta-blockers, such as Inderal (propranolol), are commonly prescribed for blood pressure and heart problems. All of the following are common side effects except: 1. nightmares. 2. loss of appetite. 3. tiredness. 4. impotence.
2 Although beta-blockers are generally well tolerated, they can cause a variety of side effects. They can cause sexual dysfunction, with up to 10% of male patients developing impotence (Response 4) on certain beta-blockers. They can also cause dizziness, drowsiness (Response 3), shortness of breath, angina, cold hands and feet, difficulty sleeping, and nightmares (Response 1). Less common side effects include depression, anxiety, and thought disturbances.
Which of the following designs is least likely to be threatened by history? 1. AB. 2. ABAB. 3. Time series. 4. One group pre-post.
2 History is defined as a coincidentally occurring event that is not part of treatment, which influences outcome. The threat of history is best taken care of by an ABAB design in which the person is first measured over time during a baseline phase (A), then treatment is implemented and the person is once again measured repeatedly during the intervention (B). Treatment is then removed, and the person is measured at baseline again (A). Finally, treatment is implemented once again and the person is measured repeatedly (B). Since measurements of treatment effect are obtained at two different times, this design controls for the possibility that some of the treatment effect was confounded by a historical event. In the other three designs, treatment is only implemented at one point in time and there is no control group. One would not be able to tease out whether changes were caused by treatment or some coincidentally occurring event. For example, in an AB design (Response 1), baseline (A) is followed by treatment (B). Similarly, in a one group pre-posttest design (Response 4), the same group of people is assessed once before and once after treatment. A time series (Response 3) usually involves a group that is measured at several points before and after treatment, however, treatment only occurs once. It therefore remains unclear if the observed effects are due to treatment or history. Note that "time series" is often used to refer in a more general (and confusing) way to any single-subject design, including AB and ABAB.
A researcher is interested in how well IQ predicts success in high school (high school GPA). She selects a random sample of 8th graders. The standard error of measurement is: 1. the average amount of error in predicting each subject's high school GPA. 2. the average amount of error in calculating each subject's IQ score. 3. the average amount of error in the group's mean IQ score. 4. the average amount of spread in the group's IQ scores.
2 The standard error of measurement is the average amount of error in each person's IQ score, as measured by the IQ test. The average amount of error in prediction (Response 1) describes the standard error of the estimate. The average amount of error in the group's mean (Response 3), in relation to the population mean, is the standard error of the mean. The average amount of spread of IQ scores (Response 4) is the standard deviation of the IQ scores.
Of the following, the medication least implicated in causing anticholinergic side effects is: 1. amitriptyline. 2. sertraline. 3. imipramine. 4. clomipramine.
2 While all the medications listed are antidepressants, Zoloft (sertraline) is the only SSRI (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor). The SSRIs do not cause anticholingeric side effects such as dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, decreased memory. Elavil (amitriptyline), Tofranil (imipramine) and Anafranil (clomipramine) are all tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs). Tricyclics tend to cause severe anticholinergic side effects.
All of the following treatments contain elements of counterconditioning except: 1. assertiveness training. 2. flooding with response prevention. 3. sensate focus. 4. aversion therapy.
2 assertivenss is incompatible response with shyness sexual pleasure is incompatible with anxiety electric shock is incompatible with conditioned pleasure response
You are a psychologist who specializes in working with children and adolescents. You are referred a 16-year-old boy who is diagnosed with an Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD). While you studied extensively about ASDs in graduate school, you have not treated a client with this disorder. To behave ethically you: 1. could treat this adolescent while securing consultation. 2. could treat this adolescent while securing supervision. 3. could treat this adolescent while securing additional training. 4. must refer this adolescent out.
2 consultation- only a one time meeting already have training
A psychologist is asked to go into an assisted living community and redesign it to enhance interaction among residents. This is an example of: 1. primary prevention. 2. secondary prevention. 3. tertiary prevention. 4. preventative intervention.
3 According to principles of community psychology, prevention can be classified into three levels. Primary prevention (Response 1) is aimed at preventing the onset of a disease or disorder, thereby reducing its incidence (e.g., vaccinations). Secondary prevention (Response 2) focuses on early identification and prompt treatment of an illness or disorder that already exists, with the goal of improving or curing the illness/disorder (e.g., mammograms). Finally, tertiary prevention (Response 3, the correct answer) focuses on reducing the residual effects or optimizing functioning of patients with a chronic condition or disorder (e.g., AA, day treatment centers). In this scenario, the goal is to optimize functioning by reducing the isolation of the residents in the assisted living community.
A patient at high risk for suicide states that he plans to quit therapy because it is not helping. Your most ethical course of action would be to: 1. provide pretermination counseling. 2. negotiate a no-suicide contract before termination. 3. discuss the patient's views and needs, encouraging the patient to receive appropriate treatment. 4. encourage the patient to remain in treatment with you until the suicidal crisis passes.
3 APA Ethics Code (2002) actually mandates the termination of a therapy relationship when "the patient or client no longer needs the service, is not benefiting, or is being harmed.
16. Dr. Z. is referred a patient by a managed care company for a brief evaluation. Due to contract constraints, the patient is referred out for treatment after the evaluation. The treating therapist meets with Dr. Z. and pays Dr. Z. a fee. In this case, the fee is: 1. unethical, because fees should not be based on referrals. 2. ethical, as long as this is a one-time arrangement. 3. ethical, as long as the fee is based on the consultation. 4. ethical, because the psychologist performed the evaluation.
3 According to the Ethics Code, any fee splitting between a psychologist and another professional should be based on services provided (e.g., consultative, administrative or other), and not the referral itself. Here, the fee would be ethical only if it were based on a consultation with Dr. Z.
In ten trials in which no auditory stimulus is presented, a subject reports hearing something on one of the trials. This can best be described as: 1. 10% false alarms, 90% hits. 2. 10% misses, 90% correct rejections. 3. 10% false alarms, 90% correct rejections. 4. 10% misses, 90% hits.
3 Answering this question becomes much easier when we translate it into familiar terms. "False alarm" means false positive (e.g., it's a false alarm if you think someone has HIV but he doesn't); "hit" means true positive; "miss" means false negative (e.g., it's a miss if you think someone is HIV- when she's actually HIV+); and "correct rejection" means true negative. In this example, the subject has had nine true negatives and one false positive, or 90% correct rejections and 10% false alarms.
The most likely medical explanation for trembling, sweating, weight loss, nausea, restlessness, and dizziness, would be: 1. Cushing's disease. 2. hypothyroidism. 3. Grave's disease. 4. withdrawal from opioids.
3 Hyperthyroidism (the most common form being Grave's Disease) is characterized by the symptoms listed as well as agitated depression, insomnia, and impaired memory and judgment. Patients with Cushing's Syndrome (Response 1), which involves excessive corticosteroids, experience agitated depression, irritability, emotional lability, memory and concentration problems, and adiposity (swelling and fattening). Hypothyroidism (Response 2) results in weight gain, sluggishness, fatigue, and impaired memory and intellect. Withdrawal from opioids (Response 4) is characterized by flu-like symptoms including muscle aches, diarrhea, nausea and vomiting, fever, insomnia, and dysphoric mood.
Which of the following statements typifies a person's reaction to an event according to two-factor theory? 1. The person experiences autonomic arousal, and then has an emotional reaction. (your response) 2. The person experiences autonomic arousal and an emotional reaction to the event simultaneously. 3 The person experiences autonomic arousal, then cognitively interprets the arousal, and then experiences an emotion. 4. The person experiences autonomic arousal, then experiences an emotion, and then cognitively interprets the emotion.
3 Schacter's Two-Factor Theory of Emotion states that after perceiving an event, we initially have a physical or autonomic reaction, we then cognitively appraise the situation, and then experience an emotion. Essentially, we look to external rather than internal cues to differentiate and label our emotions. For example, a person experiences palpitations and sweating; if, upon cognitive evaluation, the person realizes that she is having this reaction to a surprise party, she feels excitement. However, if she cognitively appraises the situation and realizes that there is an intruder in the home, she experiences fear.
A child has a history of engaging in driven, repetitive, nonfunctional behaviors, such as body rocking and self-hitting. These symptoms are most characteristic of: 1. autistic disorder. 2. chronic motor tic disorder. 3. stereotypic movement disorder. 4. obsessive-compulsive disorder.
3 Stereotypic movement disorder is characterized by motor behavior that is repetitive and nonfunctional. This diagnosis is made only if the repetitive behaviors cannot be accounted for by another diagnosis, such as OCD or a tic disorder. While repetitive movements are present in autistic disorder (Response 1), other symptoms must be present in order for the diagnosis to be made, such as impairment in social interactions and communication, and a restricted repertoire of behavior. In stereotypic movement disorder, the movements tend to be driven or intentional, whereas in tic disorders (Response 2), the tics have a more involuntary quality. Common examples of motor tics include eye blinking, touching, squatting and retracing steps. In obsessive-compulsive disorder (Response 4), the compulsions are more complex and ritualistic, and are performed in response to obsessions or rules, for the purpose of reducing distress. By contrast, in stereotypic movement disorder, the behaviors are non-functional.
187. An elementary school student has just learned the colors of the rainbow with the acronym ROY G BIV. This is an example of which memory enhancing strategy? 1. The method of loci. 2. The pegword system. 3. Word association. 4. Substitute word syste
3 Word association involves forming words or sentences with the first letter of the items being memorized (acronyms), or making up stories that connect the items together. The method of loci (Response 1) involves first forming a mental image of a walk through a certain physical location, such as a house. The person then forms a visual image of the words on a list, putting each in a specific place as he or she mentally walks through the house. For example, a person trying to recall a list of grocery items may initially picture bacon on the front door, bread in the kitchen, and meat in the dining room. The pegword system (Response 2) involves first memorizing a set of ten visual images that can later be pegs on which to hang ideas, e.g., one is bun, two is shoe, three is tree. Then the person associates each image with what is to be remembered. For example, if the person is trying to remember a list of grocery items, he may associate soda with hamburger buns, or talcum powder with shoe, etc. In the substitute word technique (Response 4), the person breaks down the word to be remembered into parts, and substitutes words that are more familiar and can be visualized. For example, a person who wants to memorize the word catabolize would break it into cat, a ball, eyes, and then form a visual image of these words.
Which of the following is true about the capacity of working memory? 1. It can hold a limited amount of information for an unlimited time. (your response) 2. It can hold an unlimited amount of information for a limited time. 3. It can hold an unlimited amount of information for an unlimited time. 4. It can hold a limited amount of information for a limited time.
4 Working memory, also known as short-term memory (STM), is very limited in both capacity and duration. Short-term memory can hold 7 + 2 items for the duration of up to 30 seconds. Sensory memory (iconic and echoic memory) can hold significantly more information than STM but there are still definite limits to its capacity. The duration of sensory memory is very short, holding visual images for half of a second and auditory images for up to four seconds. Long-term memory can hold an unlimited amount of information for an unlimited time (Response 3).
Postpartum blues occurs in about _____ of new mothers.
50-80% - short-lived - involve crying, irritability, poor sleep, weeping and a sense of emotional vulnerability. Typically, postpartum blues begin in the first week after birth, and last no longer than a few weeks after birth. Postpartum psychosis occurs in less than 1% of new mothers
A researcher correlates income with education and obtains a correlation of .90. When she correlates income with life satisfaction the correlation is .30. It would be most accurate to say that the amount of shared variability in the first correlation is about how many times greater than the shared variability in the second correlation?
9 times - To calculate the answer, you would first need to find the amount of shared (or explained or accounted for) variability for each correlation. To obtain the shared variability in a correlation, you simply square the correlation coefficient (this is frequently called the coefficient of determination). For the first correlation, .92 = .81; for the second correlation, .32 = .09. The shared variability in the first correlation is therefore 9 times greater than the second. (9 x .09 = .81).
A culturally encapsulated therapist: 1. is mindful and sensitive to race/culture. 2. disregards race/culture. 3. generalizes based on race/culture. 4. typically treats patients who share the same cultural background with the therapist.
A culturally encapsulated therapist is someone who tends to make inappropriate generalizations about a particular group of clients based on race or culture (Response 3). More specifically, the therapist makes narrow assumptions about reality, is insensitive to cultural variations among individuals, disregards evidence disconfirming the superiority of the dominant culture, resorts to technique-oriented strategies and short-term solutions, and judges others according to the encapsulated therapist's self-reference criteria. This is contrasted with culturally competent therapists (Response 1), who are aware of their own cultural values as well as the culture of their patients, and work to acquire the skills and knowledge to provide appropriate and effective treatment.
A therapist asks the members of a psychotherapy group to refrain from asking questions of others and to speak only about themselves. The group members comply with this request. This scenario is an example of: 1. a group norm. 2. a group task. 3. a group expectation. 4. social facilitation.
A group norm is a standard of behavior that group members follow. It can be formally initiated by a leader or it can informally emerge from the members' behavior. A group task (Response 2) is a specific assignment given to a group. Some types of group tasks include conjunctive, disjunctive, and additive. Group expectation (Response 3) is an informally used term that means just what it sounds like, either the expectations that a group has or the expectations that others have for the group. Social facilitation (Response 4) refers to the tendency to perform better on simple, over-learned tasks when one is in the presence of others
A researcher who wants to include the smallest number of predictors in a stepwise multiple regression would be best advised to: 1. include similar predictors. 2. make sure the predictors are moderately correlated with the criterion. 3. use the correction for attenuation formula. (your response) 4. replicate the study on a different sample.
A multiple regression equation uses two or more variables (independent variables or predictors) to predict one continuous variable (dependent variable or criterion). A step-wise regression does so with no a priori hypotheses about which variables account for the most variance. (A hierarchical regression, in contrast, is conducted consistent with a proposed theory). A step-wise regression statistically determines which variable accounts for the most variance and then enters it into the equation. Replicating the study would help you find the smallest number of predictors. For example, a stepwise regression on an initial sample might produce ten variables that appear to be good predictors. Actually, however, some of those predictors were only successful by chance. Replicating the study on a second sample would remove such predictors and thereby reduce the overall number of predictor variables. You could also approach this question through a process of elimination. Including similar predictors (Response 1) would give rise to multicollinearity, which is a serious problem in regression equations. Our predictions are best when the predictor variables have as low a correlation as possible with each other. While having the predictors moderately correlated with the criterion is a good thing in a regression equation, in and of itself it will not help us reduce the number of predictors (Response 2). The correction for attenuation formula (Response 3) isn't used in multiple regression equations. It is used to estimate how much more valid a test would be if the predictor test and criterion were perfectly reliable.
What would be the likely outcome of successfully negotiating Erikson's stage that corresponds to late adulthood? 1. A concern for others. 2. The capacity to form loving relationships. 3. A sense of wisdom. 4. A sense of competence.
A sense of wisdom is the favorable outcome for the stage of integrity versus despair (late adulthood). Middle adulthood corresponds to Erikson's stage of generativity versus stagnation, and a desirable outcome for this stage would be the capacity to care for others and to give to future generations (Response 1). The capacity to form intimate relationships (Response 2) describes the successful outcome for the stage of intimacy versus isolation (early adulthood). Competence (Response 4) occurs when the stage of industry versus inferiority (ages 6 - 12) is successfully negotiated.
Two programs designed to improve academic achievement are compared by measuring students at the beginning, middle and end of the school year. The statistic of choice is a: 1. t-test. 2. one-way ANOVA. 3. factorial ANOVA. 4. split-plot ANOVA.
A t-test (Response 1) is only appropriate when there is only one IV, and only two groups are being compared. A one-way ANOVA (Response 2) can't be used when there are two IVs. A factorial ANOVA (Response 3) means that there is more than one IV, all the IVs are between-groups variables, and the data are independent - This experiment is a mixed design, consisting of two IVs. One variable is the repeated measures variable of time because the same subjects are being measured more than once (beginning, middle, and end of school year). The data collected on this variable are correlated. The other variable is a between-groups variable of program (e.g., Program 1 versus Program 2) where the data collected are independent..
Based on Herzberg's two-factor theory, which of the following interventions would be most effective in terms of reducing boredom and increasing motivation in a group of factory workers? 1. Increasing salary. 2. Vertically expanding job responsibilities. 3. Horizontally expanding job responsibilities. 4. Implementing job enlargement.
A vertical expansion of responsibilities, or giving someone higher-level duties, describes job enrichment. Job enrichment increases employees' autonomy, authority and freedom, which are all upper-level needs. According to Herzberg, motivation increases when upper-level needs are met. Overall, job enrichment tends to result in increased satisfaction and performance, decreased turnover and decreased absenteeism. Job enlargement (Response 4) involves simply expanding the variety of tasks without increasing responsibility. Horizontal expansion of responsibilities (Response 3) describes job enlargement. Pay (Response 1) is believed to be a hygiene factor (lower-level need) in Herzberg's theory. Lower-level needs result in dissatisfaction when they are not met, but they are not believed to increase satisfaction or motivation when they are met. Certainly, increasing pay would have no impact on reducing boredom.
Schizo concordance rates A -dizygotic (fraternal) B - monozyygotic (identical) C -prevelance in general population
A. 10-15% B. 50% C. 1%
ADHD affects about how many children:
According to the DSM-IV-TR, Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder is estimated to affect between 3% and 7% of school-age children,
At what age would separation from the mother be most difficult for a child? 1. 0- 4 months. 2. 5 - 10 months. 3. 10 - 16 months. 4. 16 - 24 months
According to the psychoanalytic developmental theorist Margaret Mahler, the first month constitutes an autistic phase (a speculation which has not, incidentally, been supported by further research), and months 2-4 constitute the symbiotic phase. The process of separation-individuation then begins at around 4-5 months, with four subphases: a) differentiation (5-10 months) which includes stranger anxiety; b) practicing (10-16 months) which includes separation anxiety -- and hence would be the age for greatest problems during a separation; c) rapprochement (16-24 months); and d) consolidation and object constancy (24 to 36 months). If you did not know Mahler's stages, you could have tried to guess using your own first-hand experiences with children.
According to Piaget, when a child is not able to see that there is the same amount of water when it is poured from a container of one shape into a container of a different shape, he is in the pre-operational state. This is a consequence of: 1. irreversibility. (correct answer) 2. centration. (your response) 3. conservation. 4. phenomenalistic causality
According to Piaget's Stage Theory, one of the characteristics of the pre-operational stage is irreversibility (Response 1) which refers to the inability to mentally undo something. In this case, the water was poured into a different container in front of the child, who was then unable to think back to the initial stage of the action. Centration (Response 2) is another aspect of the pre-operational stage and refers to the tendency to focus on only one aspect when observing a stimulus. In this situation, centration is also occurring, when the child focuses only on the level of the water. Nevertheless, irreversibility is the better answer because the key difficulty the child experiences in this scenario is the inability to think back to the initial situation. Phenomenalistic causality (Response 4) is also associated with the pre-operational stage and involves a sense of magical thinking where events that co-occur in time are thought to be causally connected. Conservation (Response 3) is the ability to recognize that objects conserve their characteristics regardless of a change in shape or form, a development associated with the concrete operational stage. In this scenario the child is unable to conserve.
A person believes that Friday the 13th is an unlucky day because she got very sick once on Friday the 13th. The best explanation for this phenomenon is: 1. irrational beliefs. 2. respondent conditioning. 3. instrumental conditioning 4. a psychotic process.
Although this is rather irrational thinking (Response 1), what would best explain this phenomenon would be pairing Friday the 13th (an initially neutral stimulus) with an aversive unconditioned stimulus (getting sick). This is a classical conditioning phenomenon, also called respondent conditioning. Instrumental conditioning (Response 3) is another name for operant conditioning
Helms stage 6- internalizes "whiteness" without racist beliefs and practices; values cross-racial interactions
Autonomy
due to damage in the frontal lobe (Brodmann's area 44).
Broca aphasia
In which of the following circumstances would it be problematic to use a chi square? 1. When looking for differences between groups. 2. When the data are ordinal. 3. When repeated observations are made. 4. When there is more than one independent variable.
Chi square is a non-parametric test of differences (Response 1), used when data are nominal, or categorical. Although there are specific non-parametric tests for ordinal data (e.g., Mann-Whitney), the chi square can accommodate ordinal data (Response 2). When there is more than one independent variable, the multiple sample chi square is run (Response 4). One of the main assumptions of the chi square is independence of observations, thus, a chi square cannot be run when repeated observations are made (e.g., data are collected pre and post).
Agranulocytosis is associated with which medication
Clozapine (Clozaril), a novel antipsychotic - Agranulocytosis is a potentially lethal side effect that results in a sudden drop in the granulocyte count, usually occurring within hours to 12 weeks of initial administration, and manifesting as a sore throat and high fever.
Minority Identity Development Model
Conformity - prefers dominant group over own Dissonance - has conflicting attitudes toward own and dominant group Resistance/immersion - prefers own group and rejects dominant group Introspection - concern about inflexible attitudes toward own and other group Integrative awareness - pride in own group, accepts/rejects cultural values based on examination, multicutural perspective
"Yes, the items are the same as on the licensing exam."
Content valididty
Cri du Chat
Cri-du-Chat (cat's cry) syndrome is a non-inherited condition caused by a chromosomal deletion. Cri-du-Chat is characterized by mental retardation and delayed development, distinctive facial features, small head size, low birth weight, and weak muscle tone in infancy. Some children can also have a heart defect. The disorder is so named because of the high-pitched cry, resembling that of a cat, which infants with the condition often exhibit.
You are involved in your company's assessment center, and are responsible for evaluating managerial level employees for promotion. You are also responsible for the quarterly performance appraisals of management level employees. A potential problem in this situation is: 1. the halo effect. 2. a recency effect. 3. criterion contamination. 4. a central tendency bias.
Criterion contamination occurs when the criterion is subjectively scored, and the rater has knowledge of the employees' predictor scores. In this case, you are aware of how employees performed in the assessment center (a predictor of future managerial success) and then rate them on the criterion (quarterly performance appraisals). When criterion contamination occurs, scores on the criterion are influenced by one's knowledge of predictor scores. For example, those employees who did well in the assessment center are given higher quarterly appraisals than those who did poorly. Criterion contamination results in a spuriously high criterion-related validity coefficient. The halo effect involves generalizing from one characteristic of the person (e.g., she is attractive) to other aspects (e.g., she performs well at work) (Response 1). Recency biases occur when evaluations cover an extended period of time (e.g., one year) and the evaluator is most influenced by recent performance (e.g., within the last month or two). Quarterly evaluations would actually reduce the likelihood of a recency effect (Response 2). A central tendency bias occurs when a rater tends to rate all employees as about average (Response 4).
Kuder-Richardson resembles...
Cronbach's coefficient alpha. There are a variety of measures of inter-rater reliability including Pearson r, percentage agreement, Kappa, and Yule's Y (Response 1). The Spearman-Brown prophecy formula is used to estimate reliability if the number of items is decreased or increased (Response 2). When split-half reliability is used, the test is treated as though it were two separate tests with half as many items. Spearman-Brown is therefore needed to correct for the decreased number of items. The coefficient of stability (Response 3) is another name for the test-retest reliability coefficient.
Pre-encounter
Cross stage 1- race not important; may have racist views of own group
Black Racial (nigrescence) identity
Cross; development is related to exposure to racial oppression
Helms stage 2-increased awareness of racial differences; leads to conflicts
Disintegration
The major defense mechanism thought to underlie phobias is
Displacement -problematic feelings are being displaced from their true source onto a neutral object (e.g., fear of one's own sexual impulses onto snakes resulting in a snake phobia).
A significant symptomatic difference between Caffeine Intoxication and anxiety
Diuresis. - caffeine's diuretic properties cause increased urination (diuresis), while increased urination is not a symptom of anxiety.
The most well-known disorder caused by chromosomal addition is
Down's Syndrome (Trisomy 21) caused by an extra chromosome 21 from either the egg or sperm cell. Down's Syndrome is also not inherited.
Schizo brain abnormalities
Enlarged lateral and third ventricles.
Habituation is distinguished from extinction in that:
Extinction is brought about when a person is repeatedly exposed to the CS without the US being present. - Habituation involves repeated exposure to a US until the US no longer elicits a UR. For example, a person habituates to living in a noisy neighborhood, and no longer wakes up during the night when cars honk or loud music is played.
Flashbulb traumatic memories -accuracy
Flashbulb memories, the vivid memories of highly significant or traumatic events, are often nevertheless highly inaccurate - Elizabeth Loftus demonstrated that college students were often wrong about when and where they had learned of the Challenger accident, despite a high degree of confidence in the memory
Contact
Helms stage 1 - lack of racial awareness about self and others
Howard's meta-analytic studies of psychotherapy outcome have found that by the end of six months of treatment ____ percent of client's are measurably improved: 1. 25. 2. 50. 3. 75. 4. 90.
Howard et al (1986) found that 50% of patients were measurable improved by the end of the eighth session (Response 2), and that 75% of patients were measurably improved by the end of six months.
Single subject designs involve an approach that can be described as: 1. ipsative. 2. idiographic. 3. normative. 4. nomothetic.
Idiographic is the term used to describe single subject approaches while nomothetic (Response 4) describes group approaches. Normative data (Response 3) refer to data that can be compared both within and across subjects. Ipsative data (Response 1), results from a forced-choice format. It can only describe relative strengths or interests within a subject and cannot be used for comparisons across subjects.
A person earns "idiosyncrasy credits" by: 1. being "likeably eccentric." 2. initially conforming to group norms. 3. reciprocally tolerating idiosyncrasy in colleagues. 4. voicing his or her opinion in a consistent, logical manner.
Idiosyncrasy credits refer to a group's tolerance of an individual's disregard for group norms. They can be earned by initially conforming to the group norms (Response 2). Response 4 refers to the manner in which a minority group member can behave in order to maximize the chances of his or her opinion being accepted by the majority.
The correlation between IQ scores and academic performance is: 1. greater in elementary and high school, and smaller in college and graduate school. 2. smaller in elementary and high school and greater in college and graduate school. (your response) 3. relatively stable across different levels of schooling. 4. close to 0.0.
If you did not know the answer to this question, you could have guessed it right by applying the concept of restriction of range (which crops up frequently in one form or another on the exam). Correlation (along with reliability and validity) is always lower when the range is restricted for one or both variables. In this question, elementary and high schools include just about everyone, but college and graduate school restrict the range to include only the brighter students; so we would expect higher correlations between elementary and high school students on any variable than we would between college and graduate students on the same variable.
Cross stage 3-identity is very salient; begins to develop black identity
Immersion-Emerson
Helms stage 5-replaces racist myths with accurate information; explores possibility of non-racist white identity
Immersion-Emerson
How does BARS evaluate employees
In BARS, or behaviorally anchored rating scales (Response 1), behavioral anchors based on critical incidents are used to evaluate a person's performance.
What does the research indicate about risk factors in development? 1. Girls are more vulnerable to risk factors in their early years, while boys are more vulnerable in their later years. 2. Boys and girls are both more vulnerable to risk factors in childhood, as compared to adolescence. 3. Boys tend to be more resilient and less vulnerable to risk factors. 4. Girls tend to have a broader repertoire of coping abilities than boys.
In general, girls appear to possess a wider range of coping skills than boys, especially in forming relationships (ruling out Response 3). Overall, boys appear more vulnerable to risk factors from the prenatal period to about age ten, while girls grow more vulnerable to risk factors during their teens (ruling out Responses 1 and 2).
Your expertise is sought to help address theme-interference problems. You would most likely provide: 1. client-centered case consultation. 2. consultee-centered case consultation. 3. consultee-centered administrative consultation. •4. program-centered administrative consultation.
In providing consultation, theme-interference problems are problems that the supervisee (or consultee) is experiencing, that can affect patients' progress. Thus, the type of consultation needed in this instance is consultee-centered case consultation.
Testing-of-limits:
In testing-of-limits, a test is first administered to a student using the standard test administration procedure. After completing the test, subtests are given again to the student with steps to facilitate performance (e.g., additional cues or structure are provided, time limits are eliminated). Testing-of-limits is done when an evaluator want to gain additional qualitative or descriptive information about an examinee. Implementation of testing-of-limits should be hypothesis driven (i.e., there should be a reason for it). For example, if there is concern that time constraints are significantly affecting an examinee's scores, allowing extra time to complete Block Design items could help ferret that out. Or, to help clarify the cause of poor Arithmetic performance, one might repeat some items while giving the examinee a pencil and paper. Experts in psychological assessment (e.g., Sattler) strongly advise that testing-of-limits take place only after the entire test has been completed.
Delirium trt
In treating delirium, it is important to attempt to reorient the patient.
Taylor-Russell scales
Incremental validity, base rate, and selection ratio - These scales analyze the amount of improvement in selection decisions that result from using a particular predictor test as opposed to no test at all.
The concept of instrumental learning was introduced by: 1. Thorndike. (correct answer) 2. Pavlov. 3. Tolman. 4. Kohler. (your response)
Instrumental learning is another term for operant conditioning and is associated with Thorndike and Skinner. Thorndike developed the law of effect, which basically proposes that people repeat behaviors that have positive consequences (what Skinner would call positive reinforcement). Initially, he also proposed that negative consequences (what Skinner termed punishment) decreased behavior but he later revised the law of effect, proposing that negative consequences may or may not decrease behavior. Pavlov (Response 2) is known for classical conditioning, Tolman (Response 3) for latent learning, and Kohler (Response 4) for insight learning.
An African American experiences an incident of racism. Under which condition is he or she most likely to feel depressed? Least likey to cause depression? 1. External responsibility, external control. 2. External responsibility, internal control. 3 Internal responsibility, external control. (correct answer) 4. Internal responsibility, internal control.
Internal responsibility, external control. "It's my fault, and there's nothing I can do about it." In this position, the person experience all the blame and guilt, but feels powerless to change the situation. - External responsibility, internal control "It's society fault, but there's something I can do about it." This position both protects self-esteem and enhances self-efficacy.
The frequency of sex in later life is most highly correlated with: 1. availability of partners. 2. previous sex history. 3. age. 4. physical health.
It is estimated that 70% of men and 20% of women over age 60 are sexually active. Sexually activity is usually limited by the absence of an available partner. Studies have demonstrated that sex drive does not decrease as men and women age, and, in fact, may sometimes increase. For men, physiological changes associated with aging include a longer time for erection to occur, decreased penile turgidity, and ejaculatory seepage. For women, changes include decreased vaginal lubrication due to lower estrogen levels. There is also a significant relationship between how active one's sex life was in early adulthood with how active it is in older age (Response 2).
When discussing results
It is more appropriate to talk about the confidence interval or the range that the child's IQ falls in, as well as to provide information about the significance of the scores. When discussing results, it is important to address any limitations of the test, strengths and weaknesses of the child, as well as recommendations that emerge from the results of the testing
The circadian clock is located in the hypothalamus and is responsible for sleep-wake patterns. The circadian clock is the: 1. pineal gland 2. suprachiasmic nucleus 3. substantia nigra 4. reticular activating system (RAS)
It is the cluster of nerves called the suprachiasmic nucleus (SCN) that functions as the circadian clock. Sleep-wake patterns run on 24-hour cycles with two natural daily peak times for sleeping, at mid-day and at night. The SCN signals the pineal gland to produce melatonin, which in turn causes a drop in body temperature and sleepiness (Response 1). The substantia nigra, specifically loss of cells in this area, has been implicated in Parkinson's disease (Response 3). While the reticular activating system (RAS) filters incoming sensory information, and can activate a person into a state of alert wakefulness, it is not responsible for sleep-wake patterns (Response 4). You may have been able to eliminate this choice if you had remembered that the RAS consists of a set of cells in the medulla, pons, hypothalamus, and thalamus.
Scores from non-parallel measures can be equated through the use of: 1. classical test theory. 2. empirical criterion keying. 3. item response theory. 4. ipsative measures.
Item response theory (IRT), also termed latent trait theory, is used to calculate to what extent a specific item on a test correlates with an underlying construct. Put differently, item response theory looks at a subject's performance on a test item as representing the degree to which the subject has a latent trait. For example, correctly answering a difficult statistics question would indicate a subject is high in the latent trait of "statistics ability." It can be used, therefore, to compare a subject's performance on two measures that have different types or number of items, or are scored differently. IRT is used to develop individually tailored "adaptive" tests, in which an answer to one question in a domain area determines whether another question in that area will be asked. Such tests end up having the fewest number of items necessary to assess a subject's performance. Classical test theory (Response 1) views an individual's test score as being the sum of true score variability and error score variability (X = T + E). In empirical criterion keying (Response 2), which was used in the development of the original MMPI, items are chosen based on their ability to discriminate group membership. In other words, a specific item on the MMPI was only kept on the Schizophrenia scale if people without Schizophrenia and people with Schizophrenia answered it differently. Ipsative measures (Response 4) yield only information on an individual, without any information about how that individual compares to others. For example, an ipsative measure might show that Mr. Smith likes gardening more than cooking, but doesn't tell us whether he likes gardening more or less than the average person does.
an anti-Parkinsonian medication?
L-Dopa
Which of the following is incorrectly matched? 1. Melanie Klein: focus on the impact of social relations and cultural factors in determining personality. 2. Alfred Adler: disturbance is viewed as a result of a faulty life-style involving a struggle for power. 3. Anna Freud: focus on capacities for integration and adaptation and what is interfering with these processes. 4. C. G. Jung: views neurosis not as an illness but as striving toward psychological maturity.
Melanie Klein is an Object Relations theorist, and treatment focus is on recognizing and modifying the impact of problematic early object-relationships. Social relations are a key aspect of this theory, but cultural factors are not. The focus on both social and cultural factors is more characteristic of the neo-Freudians (e.g., Sullivan, Horney), who view psychological disturbance as the result of faulty learning and as consisting of a characterologically maladaptive style of interacting with the environment. Adlerian therapy deals with faulty life-styles that involve a struggle for power (Response 2) as a means of compensating for feelings of inferiority. A focus on capacities for integration and adaptation (Response 3) is characteristic of Ego Psychology (e.g., Anna Freud, Heinz Hartmann). Response 4 describes Jungian therapy. Jung believed that neurosis represents the struggle of people to free themselves from the interference of the archetypes, interference that otherwise impedes progress toward personality integration and fulfillment of potential.
Which of the following medications should never be prescribed for someone with Alcohol Dependence? 1. Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors. 2. Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors. 3. Neuroleptics. 4. Opiates. (your response)
Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs) and alcohol can make a lethal combination. Because many beers and wine contain tyramine, even just one drink can sometimes induce a hypertensive crisis in a patient on MAOIs. It is generally safe to prescribe SSRIs (Response 2) as well as neuroleptics/antipsychotics (Response 3) to people with alcohol problems. While prescription opiates or painkillers such as morphine and codeine (Response 4) are generally contraindicated for patients with Alcohol Dependence due to the high addiction potential, there are still clinical situations (e.g., post-surgery) when opiates are prescribed.
Tension headaches
Muscle contraction headachescommonly known as tension headaches, are bilateral in location, and are characterized by a dull and steady tightness or pressure around the head, with pain of mild to moderate intensity.
The most accurate statement regarding the relationship between mental illness and socioeconomic status (SES) is: 1. SES and mental illness are positively correlated. 2. SES and mental illness are negatively correlated. 3. low SES has been shown to cause poorer mental health. 4. more rigorous studies have demonstrated that the supposed correlation between mental illness and SES was an artifact of poor research design.
Not surprisingly, socioeconomic status is negatively correlated with mental illness. In other words, higher SES is associated with less mental illness, and lower SES is associated higher levels of mental illness. It has not been proven that low SES causes poor mental health (Response 3), though some do contend this. Others contend the reverse: poor mental health causes "downward drift."
Prozac has been used to treat
OCD and eating disorders in particular, bulimia.
In the avoidance paradigm
One can "avoid" punishment altogether if the subject emits the desired behavior in time.
Classical conditioning: the US is withheld
Operant: reinforcement withheld
Cybernetic theory & Family therapy (deviation-amplifying loop)- Positive vs negative feedback loops
Positive - amplifies good or bad deviation in the family
Positive skew vs negative skew: mean, median, mode
Positive - high at the beginning (largest = mean, median. mode) Negative - High at the end (largest = mode, median, mean)
People are most likely to accurately remember a sentence if they are required to use their: 1. sensory memory. 2. primary memory. 3. working memory. 4. long-term memory.
Primary - People are most likely to accurately repeat sentences if the delay is less than 30 seconds; in other words, if they are relying on their short-term memory. Short-term memory is subtyped as either primary memory or working memory. Primary memory is like a passive holding tank for small amounts of information that do not require manipulation. Thus, repeating a sentence verbatim involves primary memory. - Working memory not only holds information but manipulates it (e.g., repeating digits in reverse order). - Sensory memory is largely accurate but very short-lived (up to a couple of seconds) and involves transforming incoming data into visual (iconic) or auditory (echoic) images that can only be very briefly remembered. - Long-term memory is prone to distortions.
Primary Prevention
Primary prevention focuses on attempts to prevent the onset or occurrence of a disorder, and thereby reduce its incidence. Examples include alcohol and drug education, Head Start, or vaccinations.
defense mechanism thought to underlie paranoia
Projection - denying one's own feelings and thoughts and believing that another person feels them (e.g., believing that someone else is sexually attracted to you resulting in delusional disorder, erotomanic type)
Helms stage 4- begins to question racist views
Psuedo-Independence
Age related sleep declines
REM (dreaming; paradoxical sleep,stage 4) slow-wave sleep total sleep time
key distinguishing factor between a true-experimental and quasi-experimental design
Random assignment
An assumption common to both parametric and nonparametric statistics is
Random selection (or random sampling)
A person is able to recite a poem from memory that he heard at a poetry reading two hours ago. This is an example of which type of memory? 1. Remote memory. 2. Working memory. 3. Implicit memory. (your response) 4. Recent memory.
Recent memory is an aspect of long-term memory that lasts for up to two weeks. Information recalled after two hours is stored in long-term memory. - Remote memory typically refers to memory of information stored for two weeks or more. Working memory, another name for short-term memory , stores information for only a short duration of up to 30 seconds. Implicit memory, also called procedural memory, involves the recollection of skills and physical operations, such as procedures that can be remembered automatically without conscious awareness (e.g., riding a bicycle).
Who views depression and its concomitant low rate of behavior (e.g., lack of involvement in activities) as a result of negative self-evaluations, lack of self-reinforcement and high rates of self-punishment.
Rehm
Helms stage 3-conflicts resolved by adopting racists views of white superiority and minority inferiority
Reintegration
Ethics
Release test data; what does it include - raw and scaled scores, responses to questions, and notes taken during the assessment.
Preadolescent sibling relationships are characterized by: 1. competitiveness/hostility. 2. aggressiveness/passivity. 3. loyalty/friendship. 4. conflict/friendship.
Research into sibling relationships in preadolescence indicates that these relationships are characterized by periods of both conflict and friendship (Response 4). Conflict is theorized to be the result of less emotional inhibition with one's sibling, which leads to more overt presentations of hostility. However, sibling preadolescent relationships also include periods of calm and friendship, which tend to occur in the presence of other family members while engaging in shared activities.
Which brain structures play a key role in aggression?
Research on aggression in both humans and animals has implicated both the amygdala (part of the limbic system) and hypothalamus along with the prefrontal cortex
A patient who experiences mild head trauma is most likely to show deficits in:
Retrograde amnesia is common following mild head trauma. This amnesia is usually for events just prior to the trauma, or recent memory.
Malignering- primary or secondary gain
Secondary gain focus
Some theorists divide long-term memory into recent memory, which lasts around two weeks, and remote memory, which lasts two years or more.
Sensory memory involves transforming sensory input into the type of data that can be understood, and storing the information as a visual or auditory image.
Dissociative identity disorder can most likely be attributed to
Severe, chronic abuse during childhood is thought to contribute to the development of dissociative identity disorder (DID). DID involves two or more distinct identities or personality states with a failure to integrate aspects of identity, memory, and consciousness.
Which of the following theories of attraction focuses on costs and benefits? 1. Similarity. 2. Reciprocity. 3. Social exchange. 4. Matching.
Social Exchange Theory states that people are concerned with the costs and benefits of being in a relationship. Each person considers the rewards from the interaction as well as the costs incurred in the interaction. When costs outweigh rewards, social attraction declines. Additionally, the person making a relationship choice is most likely to select a partner with the most favorable reward/cost ratio as compared with other available partners. Similarity hypothesis (Response 1) states that people similar in social background and values tend to form intimate relationships. Reciprocity theory (Response 2) asserts that people tend to like others who like them. Matching hypothesis (Response 4) posits that people of approximately equal physical attractiveness are likely to select each othe
standard error of the measurement is
the average amount of error or spread of scores obtained on any given test
A researcher wants to test her model of remarriage. What statistical technique should she use if her model includes multiple pathways involving multiple predictors and multiple criterion variables? 1. Structural equation modeling. 2. Hierarchical multiple regression. 3. MANOVA. 4. Trend analysis.
Structural equation modeling (one type is known as LISREL) enables researchers to make inferences about causation. It can be used to test out many different causal pathways, involving multiple predictor and criterion variables. MANOVA (Response 3) involves one or more independent variables with at least two dependent variables; it is a test of group differences and would be inappropriate for testing a causal model. Similarly, trend analysis (Response 4) is also a test of group differences, used when the outcome data is non-linear. Although hierarchical multiple regressions (Response 2) are used to test theories, they can only include one criterion variable and do not test multiple pathways.
People suffering from amnesia commonly experience impairment in all of the following cognitive functions except: 1. immediate memory. 2. anterograde memory. 3. long-term memory. (your response) 4. source memory.
Studies have indicated that immediate memory, which is another name for sensory memory, tends to remain intact in amnesia. All the other types of memory listed can be impaired in amnesia. Anterograde memory (Response 2) refers to the ability to remember new information. Source memory (Response 4) refers to the ability to remember the context in which material was learned.
Which of the following is most correlated with "successful aging?" 1. Higher socioeconomic status. 2. More familial support. 3. Higher level of activity. 4. Religious faith.
Successful aging is most associated with a high activity level.
health belief model
The Health Belief Model is a theory about the use of health care services. The model uses a number of variables to predict who will use health care services, including perception of vulnerability to illness, cost of treatment, benefits of seeking treatment, seriousness of the illness, motivation to maintain health, and the factors that led to considering the risks. The Health Belief Model asserts that people's beliefs about their own health are an important determinant of how they engage in health-related behaviors. If they believe that they can exert control over their own health, then they are more likely to engage in healthy habits such as exercise and good nutrition, and to decrease harmful behaviors, such as overeating, smoking, etc.
trt for premature ejaculation
The SSRIs (e.g., Paxil, Prozac, and Zoloft) and the tricyclic antidepressant Anafranil (clomipramine) are used to treat premature ejaculation - Non-pharmacological treatments of premature ejaculation include the squeeze technique and the stop-start technique developed by Masters and Johnson.
What is the most significant problem in using a series of t-tests to analyze a data set? 1. Experiment-wise error (Type I error). 2. Difficulty distinguishing between interaction and main effects. 3. Low power (1 Beta). 4. Violating assumptions for the use of parametric tests. - 12
The advantage of the analysis of variance tests (ANOVA) over multiple t-tests is that they reduce Type I error. Type I error is additive, so the more tests that are run, the larger Type I error becomes. For example, if three t-tests are used, each with alpha set at .05, the overall level of error for the experiment (i.e., experiment-wise error) would be .15 (.05 + .05 + .05). In contrast, if an ANOVA with three groups is used and alpha is set at .05, the overall level of error for the experiment remains at .05. The issue of main and interaction effects (Response 2) applies only to factorial ANOVAs (two-way ANOVAs and above). Response 3 is the opposite of what's true; power increases as alpha increases. Response 4 is not related to the problem of running multiple t-tests.
In an escape paradigm
The aversive stimulus cannot be avoided; however, one can get the aversive stimulus to stop by emitting the desired behavior. For example, the animal is shocked and can get the shock to stop by pressing a lever.
The concordance rate for identical twins for Bipolar I Disorder is about: 1. 10%. 2. 25%. 3. 50%. 4. 75%.
The concordance rate for identical twins with Bipolar Disorder ranges from about 75% - 80%. Keep in mind that Bipolar I Disorder is among the most heavily genetically loaded disorders.
The APA Ethics Code permits educational programs to require personal disclosure by students under any one of three conditions
The first is if the program has stated that requirement clearly in its admission and program materials Second, disclosure may be required when a student's problems seem to be posing a threat to the student or others Finally, the Ethics Code permits disclosure to be required by an educational program when it is needed to evaluate or help students whose personal problems seem to be preventing them from performing competently
What does the Ethics Code say with regard to sexual relationships with former therapy clients, and therapy with former sexual partners?
The former may be permissible, while the latter is absolutely prohibited.
A key distinguishing feature in bringing about classical versus operant extinction is
The nature of what is being withheld
symptoms of postconcussion syndrome
The most common are fatigue, sleep problems, headache, and dizziness (vertigo); other symptoms include irritability or unprovoked aggression, anxiety, depression or labile mood, personality changes, and apathy.
A test developer of EPPP practice tests is told by licensure candidates that the content of the practice tests does not accurately reflect the types of questions that appear on the licensing exam itself, and that these tests therefore lack validity. The test developer retorts that scores on the practice tests do tend to reflect scores on the EPPP. The test developer is arguing for: What would be examples of each 1. content validity. 2. concurrent validity. 3. construct validity. 4. face validity.
The test developer is arguing that his practice tests (the predictor) are correlated with a criterion measure (the licensing exam) that is concurrent, hence we are looking at concurrent validity
All of the following are commonly treated using principles of reciprocal inhibition except: 1. specific phobias. 2. smoking. 3. paraphilias. 4. agoraphobia.
The treatment of choice for agoraphobia is flooding, which is based on the principle of extinction; the person confronts the feared situation (CS) until it no longer triggers an anxiety response. Reciprocal inhibition underlies counterconditioning, which states that two incompatible responses (e.g., fear and relaxation) cannot occur at the same time. Specific phobias (Response 1) are commonly treated with systematic desensitization, a form of counterconditioning, although treatments for specific phobias that involve direct exposure (e.g., flooding) are superior. Smoking (Response 2) and paraphilias (Response 3) are treated with aversive conditioning, also a form of counterconditioning.
When running an ANOVA, a pooled error term is justified when: 1. sample size is unequal. 2. variance is equal. 3. all cells have the same number of subjects. 4. homoscedasticity is violated.
This is a difficult question, requiring an advanced understanding of statistics. It is best to simply know that a pooled error term is used when there is homogeneity of variance (i.e., the variance is equal). When variance is not equal, a separate error term should be used. Homoscedasticity also refers to equal variance. If it were violated (Response 4), the variance would not be equal and a pooled error term could not be used. A mnemonic here might be: when things are equal, they can be pooled together; when unequal, they must be treated separately. Sample size (Response 1) and the number of subjects per cell (Response 3) are not the determining factors in the use of a pooled error term.
The overall risk of psychopathology can be determined by adding up the specific risk factors present, and calculating an adversity index.
This procedure is based on the theory that most people can cope with a small number of risk factors, however, as risk factors increase, individuals begin to show signs of disturbance.
You are the owner of a restaurant and want to make the atmosphere more appealing by adding soft lights and warm colors. If you do so, this will probably have the effect of: 1. causing normal weight people to become thinner. 2. causing overweight people to become more overweight. 3. causing normal weight people to become more overweight. (my response) 4. causing overweight people to become thinner.
This question is addressing the role of external cues in overeating and obesity. In this situation, making the atmosphere most appealing would have the effect of causing overweight people, who are more susceptible to external cues, to eat more and therefore become more overweight.
The shape of a z-score distribution: 1. is normal. 2. is skewed. 3. is flat (rectangular). 4. cannot be determined, since insufficient information has been given.
To answer this question, you need to keep in mind that the shape of a Z-score distribution is identical to (or follows) the shape of the raw score distribution. Since the shape of the raw score distribution is not given in this example, the best answer is Response 4. Flat or rectangular (Response 3) would be correct if the question asked about the shape of the distribution of percentile ranks.
Two predictor tests are developed. The first has a validity coefficient of .5, and the second a validity coefficient of .7. The amount of shared variability with the criterion is approximately how many times greater in the second test as compared with the first?
To calculate the amount of shared or explained variability with a validity coefficient (or any Pearson r correlation), you must square the correlation coefficient. The first validity coefficient is .5, and .52 = .25. The second validity coefficient is .7, and .72 = .49. This question is asking how many times greater .49 is than .25, which is approximately 2.0 times greater.
A manager has decided to perform a utility analysis in his department in order to measure: 1. the costs versus the benefits of implementing a training program. 2. the improvement in productivity from implementing a training program. 3. the cost-effectiveness of each of several different training programs. 4. employee performance.
Utility analysis is a quantitative research method that measures the effectiveness of an intervention in the workplace in terms of the dollar value of the benefits generated. This dollar value is determined based on the improvement in worker productivity. Response 1 refers to a cost-benefit analysis in which the costs and benefits of a new project or training program are compared. Response 3 describes a cost-effectiveness analysis which is a technique for selecting among competing options, for example, selecting among several different training programs based on what gives the greatest return for the least amount of money.
You meet with a private tutor for extra help in passing the EPPP. During the session, about every five minutes your tutor tells you that you seem to be making good progress. Which schedule of reinforcement is the tutor following?
Variable interval
The term "vicarious learning" is most closely associated with whom? 1. Skinner. 2. Watson. 3. Ellis. 4. Bandura.
Vicarious learning means that we can learn by watching and imitating others, and by anticipating future reinforcement. This notion is associated with Bandura's model of observational learning. Bandura's theory is usually called Social Learning Theory or Social Cognitive Behaviorism. Skinner (Response 1) is associated with operant or instrumental learning, Watson (Response 2) with classical conditioning, and Ellis (Response 4) with Rational-Emotive Therapy (RET).
A client presents with speech that is rambling and incoherent. Her most likely diagnosis is: 1. Alzheimer's disease. 2. Korsakoff's syndrome. 3. Broca's aphasia. 4. Wernicke's aphasia.
Wernicke's aphasia
damage in the superior temporal gyrus (Brodmann's area 22)
Wernicke aphasia
The range of the standard error of estimate is
When a test is a perfect predictor (validity = 1.0), the standard error of estimate is 0.0, or, in other words, the test has no error in prediction.......when a test has no ability to predict (validity = 0.0), the value of the standard error of estimate is equal to the standard deviation of the criterion (SDy)
When deception is used in research: 1. the researcher must inform subjects of the purpose of the study afterwards. 2. the researcher must obtain consent from subjects if they are at high risk. 3. it isn't possible to get consent beforehand, but subjects must be debriefed afterwards. 4. consent isn't required if subjects are at minimal risk.
When deception is used in research, the deception must be explained to participants as early as is feasible, preferably at the conclusion of their participation, but no later than at the conclusion of the research. Keep in mind that even if deception is involved, consent from subjects must be obtained before they participate in the research.
After conducting a two-way ANOVA, you determine significant differences have been found. You are most likely to conclude: 1. there are main effects and there may or may not be interaction effects. 2. there are interaction effects and there may or may not be main effects. 3. there can be any combination of main effects and interactions. 4. there are probably neither main effects nor interaction effects because the results may be due to chance.
When you conduct a two-way ANOVA, you calculate three F ratios, and therefore there are three possibilities for significance. There are two possible main effects (for Variable A and Variable B), and a possible interaction effect. The important point is that when you get significance in a two-way ANOVA, it can be any combination of main effects and interactions. For example, it's possible that there would be only one main effect. It's equally possible that there would be a significant interaction effect and no main effects, or even that there would be two significant main effects and a significant interaction. Note that one of the advantages of a two-way ANOVA over two separate one-way ANOVAs is the possibility of detecting the interaction effect.
Wernicke's aphasia -symptoms
a disorder of language comprehension damage in the superior temporal gyrus (Brodmann's area 22) fluent yet incoherent, rambling speech; it can be mistaken for psychosis.
What can be said about a Kappa coefficient of .90?
a measure of interrater reliability. Kappa of .90 suggests a high degree of consistency among the ratings of the various raters.
congruence bias
a person only directly tests a hypothesis and does not indirectly test the hypothesis. For example, to fully test the hypothesis that Aries is the accurate astrological description, the person would need to see both how closely she resembles Aries (directly test the hypothesis) as well as see that she does not resemble any other astrological sign (indirectly test the hypothesis).
"banding" in personnel selection
a process whereby a range of scores obtained by numerous applicants on a test is essentially considered to be the same score. For example, on a test of mechanical aptitude, scores between 91 - 100 are considered to be equivalent for selection purposes.
redintegration (memory)
a type of remembering that occurs when something (e.g., a smell) unlocks a rapid chain of memories
Migraine headaches
a type of vascular headache, are characterized by unilateral pain (pain on only one side of the head), that is pulsating, of moderate to severe intensity, aggravated by routine physical activity, and associated with nausea, photophobia (light sensitivity) and phonophobia (sensitivity to noise). The pain tends to be located in the frontal and temporal areas.
According to the inoculation model of persuasion, in order to help a group resist persuasion on a position, one should present what type of argument (weak/strong vs similar/opposing)
a weak argument in the opposite direction. - The inoculation model proposes that people can build resistance to persuasion by being presented with mild arguments opposed to their position, and then being given refutations for those arguments.
involved in Addison's and Cushing's disease
adrenal cortex
Factors associated with lower SES, such as poverty and lower levels of industrialization influence the prevalence rates of diseases
affecting the brain, and may increase the rate of dementia, delirium, and other specific cognitive syndromes in persons of lower SES (Response 4).
Covert sensitization
another name for aversive counterconditioning, and involves pairing an aversive CS with a pleasurable CS in imagination (e.g., imagining oneself smoking and developing lung cancer).
Gilligans theory of moral development
argues that Kolhbergs theory is more applicable to males than females. Her "ethics of care" stage model was based on research with females and emphasized concerns about care, compassion, and responsibility - took gender differences into consideration; more sensitive to individual differences
Kelley's model (Consistency, consensus, and distinctiveness)
behaviors that are low in distinctiveness and consensus but high in consistency lead to internal attributions.
For immigrants, psychiatric problems tend to peak...
between one year and three years after arrival into the new culture
The number of risk factors has been more consistently found to correlate with psychopathology than the severity of risk factors. Males and females differ in terms of their resilience to risk factors:
boys appear more vulnerable to risk factors from the prenatal period to about age 10, while girls grow more vulnerable to risk factors during their teens. Also, girls generally appear to possess a wider range of coping skills than boys. Protective and risk factors continue to remain significant with increasing age
Schizophrenia, Disorganized Type.
characterized by all of the following: disorganized speech, disorganized behavior, and flat or inappropriate affect.
ANCOVA
combines standard analysis of variance (ANOVA) with the technique of partial correlation - It allows the effects of an extraneous or moderator variable to be statistically removed ("partialed out").
Compared to the general population, Chinese Americans are less likely to:
commit suicide.
Disadvantage of decentralized network
communication can be slow and cumbersome
normative vs informational conformity
conformity occurs when people comply with the majority's standards for acceptable behavior because they want to be liked. occurs when members perceive themselves as similar to the majority, when they are in cohesive groups, or when there is a fear of rejection. Normative conformity results in public compliance, but not in private acceptance. - the tendency for people to conform to the majority decision because they want to perceive reality correctly. most likely to occur when the task is difficult and ambiguous. It is least likely to occur when the task is relatively simple because then the person feels confident that reality is being perceived accurately.
If he addressed the issue of how well his practice tests (or the licensing exam for that matter) measure a hypothesized underlying trait, such as minimum competence.
construct validdity
You work very hard and long hours. Nevertheless, your salary is less than a coworker who socializes much of the day and never works overtime. According to equity theory, you would be most likely to:
decrease work effort or ask for raise
A PET scan of the brain of someone with schizophrenia would show:
decreased metabolic rates in the frontal lobes. - decreased activity in the frontal lobes. If you consider the deficits involved in this disorder, such as difficulty with executive functioning, poor attention and concentration, concrete thinking, poor judgment and insight, you will recognize that these are functions of the frontal lobes. Therefore, PET scans would show that this area is less active in schizophrenia.
The essential feature of separation anxiety disorder is
excessive anxiety concerning separation from home or from primary attachment figures, lasting for a period of at least four weeks. - can develops after divorce
research on the impact of sociocultural factors on the prevalence and presentation of psychopathology
found a definite relationship between social class and mental illness. Neurosis was found to be more prevalent among higher SES groups while psychosis was more prevalent among lower SES groups.
Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership approach includes
four leadership styles: selling, telling, participating, and delegating. The optimal style is dependent on the employee's readiness to perform
research findings of the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMSA) examining the prescribing patterns for psychotropic medications (e.g., antidepressants, stimulants, etc.)
from August 2006 through July 2007. In that one year, of the 472 million prescriptions written for psychotropic medications 59% were written by general practitioners (e.g., internists, pediatricians, etc.).
3) CT0 x-ray
gives horizantal images of brain
Schizophrenia, Residual Type.
had at least one episode of schizophrenia, but now there is an absence of prominent delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, and disorganized or catatonic behavior, while there are still some negative symptoms (e.g., poor motivation), or milder forms of the positive symptoms described above (e.g., suspiciousness, eccentric behavior).
Ex
have to eat at kitch table = eating is controlled by the stimuli of the kitchen table and it is hoped, for example, that lying in bed watching T.V. will cease being a stimulus for snacking.
According to Rehm's self-control model of depression, depression results from
high rates of self-punishment and low rates of self-reinforcement. - attempts to integrate behavioral and cognitive theories by proposing that reinforcement can be self-generated rather than derived from external sources.
Research on immigration and psychopathology
higher rates of psychiatric hospitalization in the U.S. for immigrant groups, especially young men.
The color red is paired with a loud noise over several trials. The color red is then paired with a tone. Afterwards, the color red is again paired with the loud noise. This is an example of:
higher-order conditioning, in which a neutral stimulus (the color red) is deliberately paired with a US (the loud noise). Once the neutral stimulus begins to elicit a response, it is said to become a CS, and it is then paired with a second neutral stimulus (the tone). In order to keep the higher-order conditioning in effect, the first neutral stimulus (the color red) will usually be again paired with the US at some point.
Damage to which lobe is most likely to result in apraxia, left-right confusion and a disturbance of body image?
houses the somatosensory cortex and processes sensations of pain and heat, as well as proprioception (the ability to sense position, location, and movement of body)
The Spearman Brown formula calculates __
how much more reliable a test would be if it were longer; thus it corrects for the decrease in number of items that occurs when a test is split in half
Dementia symtpoms
impairment in short-term memory or long-term memory, as well as one of the following four conditions: aphasia (speech impairment), apraxia (inability to carry out tasks), agnosia (inability to recognize familiar stimuli), or disturbance in executive functioning (problems in planning, organizing, sequencing, abstracting). - Dementia significantly interferes with work and social activities, and involves a decline from previous levels of functioning. Symptoms of dementia are generally permanent and progressive.
The presence of incoherence and loose associations is most suggestive of: 1. Schizophrenia, Catatonic Type. 2. Schizophrenia, Disorganized Type. 3. Schizophrenia, Paranoid Type. 4. Delusional Disorder.
incoherence and loose associations are typical of Schizophrenia, Disorganized Type, while catatonic stupor, rigidity, or unusual posturing are typical of Schizophrenia, Catatonic Type (Response 1). Schizophrenia, Paranoid Type (Response 3), is characterized by systematized delusions or frequent auditory hallucinations related to a single theme. Delusional Disorder (Response 4) is a psychotic disorder that involves non-bizarre delusions and no previous history of active phase schizophrenic symptoms.
Expectancy tables
indicate the likelihood (expressed in terms of percentages or proportions) that given a test taker's score on a predictor, he/she will score within a given interval on the criterion.
Cross stage 4 - becomes pro-black/non racist, or bi/multiculturalist
internalization
Flashbulb memories
involve memories of distinct, significant events that are usually (but not always) of a traumatic nature. These memories evoke strong emotional reactions at the time of being encoded, therefore they involve vivid details and are remembered for a long period of time.
basal ganglia
involved in the initiation and control of movement; Huntington's disease and Parkinson's disease (the latter being due more specifically to loss of cells in the substantia nigra).
Schizophrenia, Paranoid Type.
involves preoccupation with one or more delusions or auditory hallucinations. The woman in this question, while suspicious, is not exhibiting delusions or hallucinations.
Procedural Memory
involves the recollection of skills, physical operations, and procedures that can be remembered automatically without conscious awareness (e.g., riding a bike). Procedural memories are not stored with respect to specific times or places
One of the most notable findings in cross-cultural studies of depression
is the significant variation in the symptom presentation
multitrait-multimethod matrix
it establishes construct validity by establishing convergent validity (i.e., the test correlates with other instruments that purport to measure the same construct) and discriminant validity (i.e., the test does not correlate with instruments that purport to measure different constructs).
REM vs deep sleep
later in the night vs first third of the night
The most severe side effect of Lithium Carbonate
lithium toxicity, which is potentially fatal and is always a medical emergency. Lithium toxicity may initially mimic the flu and can include vomiting, abdominal pain, severe diarrhea, severe tremor, ataxia, coma, seizures, confusion, and irregular heart beat.
medium/high correlations = convergent
low correlations = discriminant
Kuder-Richardson is a
measure of test reliability. Specifically, it measures internal consistency by analyzing all possible split-halves of a test.
Alternate-forms (parallel-forms) reliability involves
measuring the same subjects on similar tests at different points in time.
Symtpoms of hypertensive crisis
meds that cause it - headache, stiff neck, sweating, nausea, and vomiting - Phenelzine (Nardil) (Response 3) is an MAOI. MAOIs should not be mixed with foods high in tyramine
controls our most basic functions of respiration, cardiovascular activity, sleep, and consciousness
medualla along with pons
the theory of schematic memory (someone robbed while at a restaurant)
memory for events is structured according to mental schemas, which affect what information is selected to be remembered. Here, the essential schema would be the robbery, not the ordinary experience of eating in a restaurant Memories for events can also be altered and elaborated upon in order to fit the schema (e.g., the appearance of a robber is remembered as more menacing than it was actually experienced at the time).
Research on aversive conditioning for paraphilias has found that it is:
moderately effective, but it has a high recidivism rate - The problem with aversive conditioning for paraphilias is that despite initial modest success, it has a high recidivism rate, i.e., treated patients eventually return to the paraphilic behavior.
While you are driving, a child on a bicycle darts in front of you. You immediately slam on your brakes. A few minutes later, you feel your heart begin to pound. This phenomenon can best be explained by:
motor reactions (i.e., the somatic nervous system) occur more quickly than automatic stress reactions like a pounding heart (i.e., the autonomic nervous system -- which includes both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems).
In flooding with response prevention
no incompatible experience is being provided. The person is merely being "flooded" with a feared stimulus while being prevented from escaping.
Contrast Effect
occurs when a judge's rating of a particular subject is influenced by the prior subject. In this example, Operator C appears to be less polite than Operator A but receives a higher rating, probably because Operator C's moderate politeness seems so much more polite compared to Operator B's rudeness
Halo Effect
occurs when a rating is influenced by an irrelevant aspect of the subject.
Multicollinearity
occurs when predictors are highly correlated with each other, which is the opposite of what is occurring here.
what is the difference in how classical versus operant conditioning is brought about
one involves pairing, the other reinforcement.
extinction
one involves spontaneous recovery, the other a response burst. - classical conditioning, operant conditioning
When attempting to ascertain the reliability of a speeded test, the best estimate would be:
parallel forms. - Because all the items on speeded tests are generally easy, measures of internal consistency, of which split-half, is one example, will tend to overestimate reliability.
Ethics code on bartering
permissible as long as it is not clinically contraindicated and not exploitative
Social loafing- how to increase and decrease it
people contribute less to a task when they are part of a group than when they are working alone; - increases when contribution is anonymous and not subject to evaluation - make each person's contribution public
David Elkind
personal fable vs imaginary audience - adolescents' beliefs that they are special and that the rules do not apply to them. This thinking leads to a sense of invulnerability and readiness to engage in obviously dangerous behavior. The adolescent feels people are as concerned with their appearance or behavior as they are
In classical conditioning, extinction is brought about by ___, while in operant by ____
presenting the conditioned stimulus (CS) without the unconditioned stimulus (US), while in operant conditioning, extinction is brought about by withholding reinforcement.
self-fulfilling prophesy
process whereby people's expectations influence their behavior and the resulting outcomes.
Overcorrection is classified as a method of...
punishment involving restitution or reparation, as well as physical guidance. It is most commonly used to decrease inappropriate behaviors. Restitution refers to having the person make up for an inappropriate behavior, e.g., if an adolescent makes a mess in her room, she is required to clean her room and maybe even other rooms in the house. Physical guidance may be necessary to help the person complete the different steps of the task.
Stimulus control
putting a behavior under the control of only certain stimuli.
Elements of overcorrection include
restitution or reparation, as well as physical guidance
Use of representation (piaget)
sensori-motor period - the ability to maintain a mental image of something even when not present - By two years old, a child certainly holds a mental picture of "mommy" and "Barney" even when mommy and Barney are not present.
split brain
sensory experiences - the left side of the body (e.g., an object placed in the left hand) are always processed by the right hemisphere, whereas, sensory experiences on the right side of the body (e.g., an image flashed in the right visual fields) are always processed by the left hemisphere.
Ethics phrase "most unusual circumstances" refers to_
sexual relationships with former therapy clients may be permitted
A researcher is interested in whether there are differences between four different teaching styles for students of three different SES levels. The F ratio for teaching style (A) = 4.7*. The F ratio for SES (B) = 1.7. The F ratio for the Interaction (AxB) = .9. *= p < .05. It is safe to conclude that:
significant differences for teaching style were found.
In developing a test designed to measure the trait of perseverance, to optimize Cronbach's alpha one would ideally develop items that are _______, and utilize subjects that are _________:
similar in content, different in temperament. - Cronbach's alpha is a measure of internal consistency. It would be highest when the items on the test are consistent or similar in content. The Cronbach's alpha, like all correlation coefficients, is highest when the range of values is unrestricted and wide. So, the more widely varying the subjects are in temperament, the higher would be the Cronbach's alpha. Put another way, reliability is highest when test items are homogenous and test takers are heterogeneous (on the variable being measured).
When discussing the results of psychological tests it is generally inadvisable to discuss ____, and more appropriate to discuss
specific test scores (e.g., IQ scores)
Defense mechanism
splitting - keeping separate the positive and negative attributes of the self or someone else (e.g., the child has the internal mental representation of a "good mommy" and a "bad mommy" and cannot integrate that there is one "mommy" who does good and bad things).
According to the recent research on blended families, the most problematic relationship is usually between:
stepmothers and stepdaughters, especially when the stepdaughters are in their teens. Overall, the stepmother generally has the most difficult role in blended families.
In most instances of Specific Phobia, when exposed to the feared stimulus (e.g., the snake or airplane), the individual experiences prolonged activation of the ___, but in Specific phobia, blood injection injury type ___
sympathetic nervous system - blood pressure and heart rate rise when exposed to the feared stimulus
Facticious - primary or secondary gain
symptoms are intentionally faked - can't be primary gain
Broca's aphasia
symtpoms - It produces "broken speech," speech that is slow and ungrammatical with missing words.
Caffeine Intoxication and Anxiety Disorders such as Panic Disorder and Generalized Anxiety Disorder share a number of common symptoms including
tachycardia (a fast beating heart) (Response 1), gastrointestinal or stomach distress (Response 3), flushing of the face (Response 4), and feelings of restlessness, nervousness, trembling or shaking.
structure that regulate sexual, aggressive, and emotional behavior
temporal lobes - which is connected to structures of the limbic system
confirmation bias
tendency to only look at confirmatory evidence while ignoring contradictory evidence.
What plays a more important role in the rate of acculturation, with children and teenagers acculturating more quickly than adults. This differing rate of acculturation often results in a clash of cultural values between the generations.
the age of family members
The standard error of the estimate is
the average amount of error in estimating or predicting from the predictor (X) to the criterion (Y).
The standard error of the mean refers to
the average amount of error or spread in a hypothetical sampling distribution of means. - It provides the basis for hypothesis testing and determining the region of rejection and acceptance of the null hypothesis.
When workers with varying levels of ability undergo the same training program, the most likely result is that:
the best improve, the worst don't really improve- may even widen their gap in ability
According to Piaget, constructivism refers to
the child's ability to gain new knowledge by interacting with objects and events in the environment - According to constructivism, a person develops new knowledge based on a foundation of previous learning, and by interacting with objects and events in the environment. When applied to schooling, constructivists place emphasis on the student, rather than the teacher. The teacher is a facilitator who assists students to construct their own conceptualizations and solutions to problems.
However, in people with Specific Phobia, Blood-Injection-Injury Type, when confronted with the object of the phobia (e.g. when blood is being drawn for a medical procedure).. What will happen?
the initial rise in sympathetic activation is followed by a sudden drop in sympathetic activation (Response 1); blood pressure and heart rate drop and fainting may occur because the heart doesn't pump sufficient oxygen to the brain. Specific Phobia, Blood-Injection-Injury Type usually starts in childhood and commonly runs in families.
According to developmental theorists who have studied temperament, such as Thomas and Chess:
the most important influence on developmental outcome is the goodness-of-fit between the infant and environment. - 40% of all infants had easy temperaments, 10% had difficult temperaments, 15% were slow to warm up, and 35% were not classifiable into one of the categories
Two of the factors that affect reliability are
the number of items and subject heterogeneity. - increases as the number of items increases and when subjects are more heterogeneous, or less homogeneous, because this results in an unrestricted range of scores that are then correlated.
Deindividuation refers to
the process of suspending one's private self-identity and adopting the identity of the group, with decreased self-awareness and self-regulation (e.g., being a part of a mob).
Undifferentiated Somatoform Disorder
there are one or more physical complaints that either cannot be explained by medical findings or are in excess of what would be expected for an established medical condition. The symptoms of this disorder can therefore be quite diverse. However, the DSM-IV lists the most common symptoms as chronic fatigue, loss of appetite, gastrointestinal symptoms, or genitourinary symptoms.
often considered the master endocrine gland and is involved in metabolism.
thyroid gland
Edwin, a four-year-old boy, often throws a tantrum when he does not get his way. His parents consult with a psychologist who tells them to have Edwin sit on the stairs by himself for ten minutes when he begins to throw a tantrum. This psychologist is recommending that the parents use:
time out examples are - negative punishment - the removal of all opportunities for reinforcement for a specific amount of time after the occurrence of an undesirable behavior, in order to reduce or eliminate that behavior.
Concurrent validity
type of criterion-related validity and occurs when a test correlates well with a concurrent criterion (e.g., a diagnostic test of correlates with current clinical diagnosis).
A Jungian would consider that part of the personal and collective unconscious that is projected out to be: 1. a defense. 2. transference. 3. a symptom. 4. discomfort with the shadow aspect of personality.
ungians view transference as a projection of the personal and collective unconscious. For example, one may initially experience one's therapist as a "godlike" figure (or archetype). Projection is not seen as a defense (Response 1), a symptom (Response 3), or reflecting discomfort with one's shadow (Response 4).
2) MRI
uses radio waves
The correction for attenuation informs us how much:
validity could increase by increasing reliability - When two variables (the predictor and criterion) are correlated, their respective standard errors of measurement lower criterion-related validity as compared with what it would have been had the two measures been perfectly reliable. We say that the degree of correlation between the predictor and criterion has been attenuated (lessened). The correction for attenuation is a formula that tells us how much better our validity would be if our predictor and criterion had been perfectly reliable.
Incompetence to stand trial
what happens to the person after that? - The law dictates that a person who is deemed incompetent to stand trial must receive psychiatric treatment (typically either inpatient psychiatric treatment or psychiatric treatment while in county jail) aimed specifically at enabling the person to stand trial with as little delay as possible. Once the psychiatric staff believes the defendant has become competent, the court will hold a hearing. If the defendant is found competent, the court will then order the defendant's release if the defendant is in an inpatient psychiatric treatment facility, and set a date for trial.