EPPP Study Guide

A predictor that is highly sensitive for identifying the presence of a disorder would most likely result in:

-A high number of false positives -A predictor that is highly sensitive will more likely identify the presence of a characteristic; that is, it will result in more positives (true and false). This may be desirable when the risk of not detecting a problem is high. For example, in the detection of cancer, a blood test that results in a high number of false positives is preferable to one that has many false negatives. A positive test result can then be verified by another method, for example, a biopsy. Measurement error (A) is the part of test scores which is due to random factors. Type II error (B) is an error made when an experimenter erroneously accepts the null hypothesis.

If data points are widely scattered around a regression line, it would indicate

-A low correlation coefficient. -Simply put, a lot of variance around the regression line indicates that the correlation isn't too high. Be careful not to confuse this with the idea of heteroscedasticity. This term means that the scatter is uneven at different points of the continuum. For instance, there might be high variability around the regression line at low x (predictor) values, and low variability around the line at high x values. In other words, heteroscedasticity refers to a differential level of scatter, not high scatter.

Which of the following is most likely to be the correlation of the IQ scores of two sisters?

-.50 -The correlation of IQ scores for siblings reared together is about .50. For siblings reared apart, the correlation drops to approximately .25 (Response 2). The correlation for identical twins is about .75 (Response 4). The correlation of IQ scores of parent and child is between .40 and .45.

The correlation for IQ scores for identical twins reared together is:

-.85 -A genetic contribution to IQ has been supported by correlations between IQ scores of genetically similar individuals. For example, the correlation for identical twins reared together being .85, .65 for identical twins reared apart, .45 for biological siblings reared together is .45 and a correlation of .22 for biological siblings reared apart (Bouchard and Gue, 1981).

The upper and lower limits of the standard error of measurement for a test with a mean of 80 and standard deviation of 10 are:

-0 to 10 -There is no error in measurement and the standard error of measurement equals zero when the reliability coefficient of a test is equal to +1.0 (the highest reliability coefficient possible). The standard error of measurement equals the standard deviation of the test scores when the test's reliability coefficient is equal to 0 (the lowest possible). It is helpful to know the formula for the standard error of measurement: the standard error of measurement equals the standard deviation times the square root of one minus the reliability coefficient, when answering this type of question.

What value is preferred for the average item difficulty level in order to maximize the size of a test's reliability coefficient?

-0.5 -The item difficulty index ranges from 0 to 1, and it indicates the number of examinees who answered the item correctly. Items with a moderate difficulty level, typically 0.5, are preferred because it helps to maximize the test's reliability.

Predictors of depression in children

-A number of variables predicted the onset of depression by age 6, including child history of anxiety disorders, child temperamental low inhibitory control, poor peer functioning, parental history of mood, anxiety, and substance use disorders, early and recent stressful life events, and less parental education. -Predictors of the onset of depression in early childhood tend to be similar to those identified in older youth and adults, and support the feasibility of identifying children in greatest need for early intervention -These children were more likely to have a family history of mood disorders, greater cortisol reactivity to laboratory stress, and significant impairment compared to non-depressed peers, and also had a high rate of recurrence over a two-year follow-up -In a large birth cohort, Najman and colleagues (2005) found that low socioeconomic status, maternal health problems in pregnancy, marital instability and conflict, maternal anxiety, poor child health, and less positive maternal attitudes toward caregiving, generally assessed six months after childbirth, predicted children's depressive symptoms at age 5. Côté et al. (2009) reported that difficult temperament, maternal history of major depressive disorder (MDD), family dysfunction, and low parental self-efficacy assessed when the child was six months old predicted a high and increasing trajectory of internalizing symptoms from ages 1½-5. In a sample of 3-6 year-old children, Luby and colleagues (Luby, Belden, & Spitznagel, 2006) reported that family history of mood disorders and number of stressful life events predicted depressive symptoms six months later.

Test-retest reliability would be the most appropriate type of reliability for:

-A test measuring an enduring trait -Test-retest reliability is appropriate when a test is measuring something that should be stable over time, such as an enduring trait. Results on tests that measure states (Response 2), such as hunger or autonomic arousal (Response 4), should change to reflect the subject's changing state, therefore test-retest would be inappropriate and would underestimate reliability. Test-retest is usually inappropriate for tests of intelligence (Response 3) because of practice effects, i.e., the subject's score on the second administration may be inflated due to the effect of having already attempted all the items.

An individual characterized by a history of marital problems, substance abuse, delinquency or exhibiting acting out behaviors is most likely to score highest on which MMPI-2 clinical scales?

-4 and 9 -The 4-9/9-4 code (highest scores on Scales 4 and 9) is associated with acting out behaviors and is characteristic of people with a history of marital problems, alcohol and drug abuse, delinquency, and sex offenses. Clinical Scale 4 is the Psychopathic Deviate scale and Clinical Scale 9 is the Hypomania scale. Scale 5 is the Masculinity/Femininity scale, an example of which would be the 4-5/5-4 code associated with denial of homosexual impulses or behaviors. Clinical Scale 6 is the Paranoia scale; Clinical Scale 7 is the Psychasthenia scale and the codes 4-6/6-4 and 7-9/9-7 are associated with dysphoria and anhedonia. Scale 0 is the Social Introversion scale. Code 9-0/0-9 is associated with egocentrism and grandiosity.

A test has a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10. Assuming a normal distribution, to eliminate the bottom 15% of the scorers, you would want to remove those who scored below:

-40 -This question requires you to have knowledge of the normal distribution. If you select your cutoff at one standard deviation below the mean (40) you would be removing approximately 15% of the scorers (exactly 15.87%). If you selected 37.5 (Response 2), which is 1.25 standard deviations below the mean, you would be eliminating exactly 10.56% of your sample. When you are asked for either the top or bottom 15% of scorers, select the value that corresponds exactly to one standard deviation above or below the mean, respectively.

If you administer a measure of global job satisfaction to employees at the Acme Corporation, you would expect to find the highest levels of satisfaction among workers aged:

-50 to 55. -The relationship between age and satisfaction actually depends on what aspect of satisfaction you're measuring. However, the question refers to global satisfaction, and the research has found that higher levels of global job satisfaction are associated with older age and vice versa.

Recent research on psychotherapy outcome indicates:

-50% improve after eight sessions, and 75% improve after 26 sessions.

An examinee obtains a score of 70 on a test that has a mean of 80, a standard deviation of 15, and a standard error of measurement of 5. The 95% confidence interval for the examinee's score is:

-60-80 -Confidence interval indicates the range within which an examinees' true score is likely to fall, given his or her obtained score. The standard error of measurement indicates how much error an individual test score can be expected to have and is used to construct confidence intervals. To calculate the 68% confidence interval, add and subtract one standard error of measurement to the obtained score. To calculate the 95% confidence interval, add and subtract two standard errors of measurement to the obtained score. Two standard errors of measurement in this case equal 10. We're told that the examinee's obtained score is 70. 70 + 10 results in a confidence interval of 80 to100. In other words, we can be 95% confident that the examinee's true score falls within 60 and 80.

Ms. Ann Examinee receives a score of 82 on a math test. If the standard error of measurement for the test is 5, we can be 95% confident that her true score falls between:

-72 and 92 -This question requires the straightforward construction of a confidence interval. A 95% confidence interval is defined as plus or minus two standard errors of measurement (SEM) around the obtained score. In this case, the obtained score is 82, the SEM is 5, so two SEMs would be 10. The confidence interval would therefore be 72 to 92. A 68% confidence interval is plus or minus 1 SEM, in this case 77 to 87 (Response 1). A 99% confidence interval is plus or minus 3 SEMs, in this case 67 to 97 (Response 4).

If, in a normally-shaped distribution, the mean is 100 and the standard error of measurement is 10, what would the 68% confidence interval be for an examinee who receives a score of 95

-85 to 105 -The standard error of measurement indicates how much error an individual test score can be expected to have. A confidence interval indicates the range within which an examinees' true score is likely to fall, given his or her obtained score. To calculate the 68% confidence interval we simply add and subtract one standard error of measurement to the obtained score. Choice D is incorrect because although the reliability coefficient is needed to calculate a standard error of measurement, in this case, we are provided with the standard error.

Which of the following designs is least likely to be threatened by history?

-ABAB -History is defined as a coincidentally occurring event that is not part of treatment, which influences outcome. The threat of history is best taken care of by an ABAB design in which the person is first measured over time during a baseline phase (A), then treatment is implemented and the person is once again measured repeatedly during the intervention (B). Treatment is then removed, and the person is measured at baseline again (A). Finally, treatment is implemented once again and the person is measured repeatedly (B). Since measurements of treatment effect are obtained at two different times, this design controls for the possibility that some of the treatment effect was confounded by a historical event. In the other three designs, treatment is only implemented at one point in time and there is no control group. One would not be able to tease out whether changes were caused by treatment or some coincidentally occurring event. For example, in an AB design (Response 1), baseline (A) is followed by treatment (B). Similarly, in a one group pre-posttest design (Response 4), the same group of people is assessed once before and once after treatment. A time series (Response 3) usually involves a group that is measured at several points before and after treatment, however, treatment only occurs once. It therefore remains unclear if the observed effects are due to treatment or history. Note that "time series" is often used to refer in a more general (and confusing) way to any single-subject design, including AB and ABAB.

According to recent research, the compressed workweek has the least impact on:

-Absenteeism -A meta-analysis by Baltes and colleagues found that the compressed workweek (increasing the number of hours per day and decreasing the number of days worked in a given work period) did not have a strong impact on absenteeism or objective measures of job performance. However, compressed workweek schedules were found to have positive effects on supervisor ratings of employee performance, employee overall job satisfaction, and employee satisfaction with the work schedule [B. B. Baltes et al., (1999). Flexible and compressed workweek schedules: A meta-analysis of their effects on work, Journal of Applied Psychology, 84(4), 496-513]. Earlier conclusions about the effects of the four-day (compressed) workweek have not been completely consistent with the findings from this meta-analysis.

As you start to take this practice test you say to yourself, "My heart is racing. I must be very nervous." This kind of thinking supports:

-According to the James-Lange theory, emotions result from perceiving bodily reactions or responses. In this case, you perceived your bodily reaction (heart racing) and concluded you must be very anxious. The Cannon-Bard theory proposes that emotions and bodily reactions occur simultaneously. When an event is perceived (e.g., taking the exam), messages are sent at the same time to the hypothalamus, which arouses the body, and to the limbic system, which causes the subjective experience of anxiety (Response 1). Schacter's Two-Factor theory proposes that emotion results from both internal information (hypothalamus and limbic system) and external information (the context). According to this theory you would be experiencing physiological arousal (racing heart), and would then look to the environment (the licensing exam) to help you label the emotion as anxiety, rather than, for example excitement (Response 3). Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome is a model or response to severe stress consisting of three stages: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion.

The validity coefficient of a new job selection test is 0. 25. This test would most likely be useful when:

-A. there are many applicants for few job openings -This question is referring to a test's incremental validity. Incremental validity is the increase in decision-making accuracy resulting from the use of a particular predictor. Three factors influence the incremental validity of a test: 1) the base rate, or the percentage of correct hiring decisions made when the test is not used; 2) the test's validity coefficient; and 3) the selection ratio, or the ratio of job openings to total applicants (for instance, if 100 people are applying for 5 positions, the selection ratio is 5/100, or .05). Incremental validity is greatest when the base rate is moderate, the validity coefficient is high, and the selection ratio is low. The Taylor-Russell tables can be used to determine a test's incremental validity, given specific values for the base rate, validity coefficient, and selection ratio. We can eliminate Choices A and B because a moderate base rate maximizes the usefulness of a selection test more than a low or high base rate does. Contrary to Choice D, a low selection ratio (many applicants for few job openings) is better than a high selection ratio.

Emotional valence and memory encoding

According to past studies in memory of emotional images, the valence activates selective attention, whereas arousal is elicited by stimulus motivational qualities engaging attentional resources that contribute to memory encoding.

Medications used to treat symptoms of Parkinson's Disease block the effects of:

-Acetycholine -Remember that Parkinson's is characterized by insufficient amounts of dopamine; thus, medical treatment seeks to increase dopamine, not block it. Another treatment strategy is to block acetylcholine receptors to help restore the normal balance between dopamine and acetylcholine. In Parkinson's, the loss of dopamine results in a relative excess of acetylcholine. Medications aim to restore the balance by increasing dopamine and/or blocking acetylcholine receptors

Learning disabilities are defined by discrepancies between

-Achievement and aptitude. -In the words of the DSM-IV, "Learning Disorders are diagnosed when the individual's achievement on individually standardized tests in reading, mathematics, or written expression is substantially below that expected for age, schooling, and level of intelligence." In other words, they involve a discrepancy between what the person has achieved and what would be expected given the person's potential to achieve, or aptitude.

Of the following, the best way to reduce rater errors such as the halo and leniency biases would be:

-Adequate training of raters. -A number of special types of rating scales designed to reduce rater bias (such as the forced-choice and the Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales) have been derived, and, in fact, there is some research to show that they are effective in doing so. However, no rating scale will be effective unless raters are trained adequately in its use. Indeed, research shows that relevant training can minimize some rating errors -- specifically, the halo effect, constant error such as the leniency or strictness bias, and contrast effects. The operative word here is "relevant": unless training focuses on matters such as the multi-dimensionality of work performance, objective recording of behavior, and rating people in terms of actual job requirements, training the raters won't work.

As compared to girls of the same age, boys who experience a parental divorce are considerably more likely to display:

-Aggression in peer relationships. -Though studies on the effects of parental divorce on children have shown that it increases the risks for many types of problems, a commonly cited finding is that boys are more likely than girls to experience externalizing problems, such as aggression and other difficulties in peer relations, whereas girls are more likely than boys to experience internalizing problems, such as depression.

A factorial design, unlike a two group design:

-Allows more independent variables to be studied -In a two group design, one group is exposed to a treatment and another, control group, is not exposed or gets a different treatment. The results of both groups are tested in order to compare the effects of treatment. A factorial design is a design with more than one independent variable. In this design, the independent variables are simultaneously investigated to determine the independent and interactive influence they have on the dependent variable. The effect of each independent variable on the dependent variable (c.) is called a main effect and in a factorial design there are as many main effects as there are independent variables. An interaction effect between two or more independent variables occurs when the effect that one independent variable has on the dependent variable depends on the level of the other independent variable. At least three levels must be used to predict a curvilinear relationship (d.).

Kluver-Bucy Syndrome is associated with damage to the:

-Amygdala -Kluver-Bucy Syndrome is associated with lesions in the amygdala and characterized by reduced fear and aggression, increased acquiescence, and hypersexuality. Damage to the amygdala, which normally attaches emotional significance to information received from the senses, can also produce a lack of emotional response to stimuli. You may have considered response "C" since the septum inhibits emotionality; however, animal research on this structure indicates lesions produce hyper-emotionality and vicious behavior, known as "septal-rage syndrome." The hippocampus is associated more with memory than emotion and the thalamus functions as the central relay for all sensory information to and from the cortex except olfaction.

Research indicates that emotional arousal during an event increases the strength of long-term memory for the event. The brain structure apparently responsible for this effect is the:

-Amygdala -The amygdala is an almond-shaped group of neurons that sits deep within the medial temporal lobes of the brain. It is part of the limbic system and plays a key role in the processing and memory of emotional information. It also plays a role in motivation, and specifically in learning based on reward and punishment. Research has shown that emotional arousal following an event increases the subsequent memory for that event, and that the amygdala is involved in mediating the effects of emotions on memory.

A young man is in a car accident and apparently receives some brain injury. Two days later, the man has a 10 a.m. appointment with a neurologist to evaluate the extent of his injury. Later that same day, the young man encounters the neurologist in a coffee shop but doesn't recall the neurologist, their meeting, or the evaluation. The young man is apparently suffering from

-Anterograde amnesia. -In this situation, the patient seems to be having trouble forming new memories. This is referred to as anterograde amnesia. Paraprosopia (answer A) involves visual hallucinations of terrifying faces; prosopagnosia (answer B) is the inability to recognize familiar faces.

Premature ejaculation is most effectively treated with which of the following medications?

An estimated 30 to 40 percent of the male population is affected by premature ejaculation (PE), which is categorized into two types based on onset of the problem. The most common form is primary premature ejaculation, with symptoms having been present throughout adulthood. Secondary premature ejaculation begins during adulthood in a man who hasn't experienced the problem before and is sometimes associated with a neurological disorder. The most frequently used therapy for PE are SSRIs and some tricyclic antidepressants as it is well-established they often induce a variable delay in the ejaculatory reflex by increasing central serotoninergic transmission. Fluoxetine (Prozac) is the best choice because it is the only SSRI listed. The only other antidepressant choice in this question is bupropion (Welbutrin), which is an atypical antidepressant known for not causing the same sexual side effects as the SSRIs. In fact, there is some evidence that bupropion increases sexual responsiveness.

Differences between boys and girls in social interaction style

-Are most apparent in same gender interactions. -Research has shown that two general differences exist between the genders in interaction style among children: boys are more active and aggressive in their play than girls, and girls are more vocal and nurturant in their play than boys. These differences begin to emerge at about the age of three years old. Boys' social behavior is more likely to include physical and verbal aggression, insults, and teasing, whereas the behavior of girls is more likely to involve grooming, offering compliments to peers, and other signs of nurturance. Additionally, girls are more likely to spend time indoors and interact in smaller groups than boys. These differences are most apparent in same gender interactions, primarily because, until they are teenagers, boys and girls tend to play in same gender pairs and groups.

If a speaker with moderate to low credibility presents a well-stated argument in favor of a particular position, he can expect the greatest attitude change

-As time passes -The effectiveness of persuasive communication depends on numerous factors. One important factor is the credibility of the communicator. Individuals who are perceived as trustworthy and possessing expertise are credible, and such communicators can induce attitude change in an audience even when there is a large discrepancy between the audience's initial position and the communicator's argument. However, research shows that the effectiveness of well-presented communication from a source low in credibility tends to increase over time, because people tend to remember the message but forget the source. This phenomenon is known as the "sleeper effect". The other choices all present factors likely to decrease the effectiveness of an argument from a source low in credibility. Message recipients who are very ego-involved in a particular issue are less-likely to change their opinion about that issue than those who are less ego-involved. And as noted already, individuals who are low in credibility are unlikely to induce opinion change when there is a large discrepancy between the communicator's and the audience's position. Finally, messages that arouse a moderate amount of fear are associated with greater attitude change than messages than induce very little or very high fear.

The consultant's role in client-centered case consultation is to:

-Assess one of the consultee's clients and advise the consultee of the best treatment approach for the specific client. -Client-centered case consultation focuses on a specific client and the consultant advises the consultee in regard to the best course of action in working with the client. The consultant gathers information about the client and then makes recommendations to the consultee regarding a treatment plan or course of action. The consultant may directly assess the client but does not administer treatment (response "D"). Responses "A" and "B"describe consultee-centered consultation, which focuses on the skills, knowledge, and ability of the consultee.

SIDS prevention

Back to sleep. ... Keep the crib as bare as possible. ... Don't overheat your baby. ... Have your baby sleep in in your room. ... Breast-feed your baby, if possible. ... Don't use baby monitors and other commercial devices that claim to reduce the risk of SIDS . ... Offer a pacifier. ... Immunize your baby.

____________________________ is a basic concept of the organizational development strategy of process consultation.

-Attitude change follows behavior change -Process consultation centers on distinguishing and changing obvious behaviors that disrupt the normal social processes of a job. A distinctive feature of process consultation is its assertion that behavior change is the main concern and precedes attitude change.

Which of the following statements is most consistent with Lewin's field theory?

-Behavior is a function of the relationship between the person and the environment. -According the Lewin's field theory, behavior is a function of the relationship between a person and his or her environment. Lewin used the following formula to express this relationship: B = f(P,E) where B is behavior, P is the person, and E is the environment. Choice "A" is the opposite of Lewin's prediction. That is, when faced with an approach-approach conflict, the selected choice becomes more attractive while the other choice becomes less attractive. "Life space" is also a central concept in field theory but refers to everything in a person's psychological environment - not the collective unconscious.

Damage to the striate cortex in the occipital lobe, is most likely to result in:

-Blindness -The striate cortex, located in the occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex, is the primary receptive area for visual impulses and handling of visual processing. It is also sometimes called the visual projection area.

CT

Computed tomography (CT) scanning builds up a picture of the brain based on the differential absorption of X-rays. During a CT scan the subject lies on a table that slides in and out of a hollow, cylindrical apparatus. An x-ray source rides on a ring around the inside of the tube, with its beam aimed at the subjects head. After passing through the head, the beam is sampled by one of the many detectors that line the machine's circumference. Images made using x-rays depend on the absorption of the beam by the tissue it passes through. Bone and hard tissue absorb x-rays well, air and water absorb very little and soft tissue is somewhere in between. Thus, CT scans reveal the gross features of the brain but do not resolve its structure well.

Smoking Cessation Anti-Depressant

Bupropion

Delerium

Delirium is a temporary state of confusion and disorientation that typically develops quickly, within hours to a couple of days. This is referred to as an acute or abrupt onset. Symptoms usually fluctuate, and often include reduced awareness of surroundings and events, perceptual distortions, such as delusions and hallucinations, confused and sometimes loud and belligerent speech, disorganized thought processes that can produce bizarre behavior, and fluctuating level of consciousness. Symptoms usually worsen late in the day, which is known as sundowning. Delirium can last hours or even weeks until the cause is determined and treated. Delirium is a descriptive syndrome, or a condition, as it has many causes. It is basically a medical condition that has resulted in a toxic state in the brain. Because it represents an acute and severe disturbance of brain functioning, it is considered a medical emergency requiring immediate attention. It can be caused by high fever, infections, medications, dehydration, toxins in the system (such as alcohol), and severe constipation or a fecal infection. It can be worsened by unfamiliar surroundings or people.

During a research study the participants are able to guess the research hypothesis, causing them to behave differently than they would under normal conditions. This phenomenon is due to:

Demand Characteristics

Dementia

Dementia is a descriptive umbrella term for the long term loss of mental functions, such as memory, thinking and reasoning, caused by various forms of brain damage and diseases. The common underlying element is damage to and loss of brain cells. This damage and loss severely affect the person's ability to use good judgment, make sound decisions, communicate needs, and carry out activities of daily living. It can affect language skills, recognition, perception, personality, emotional responses, and social behavior. Some common symptoms of dementia include confusion about the date or time of day, repeatedly asking the same questions, inability to follow directions, getting lost or disoriented in familiar places, lack of recognition or confusion about familiar people, difficulty with routine tasks such as paying the bills, personality changes, neglect of personal safety, hygiene, and nutrition, and difficulty with coordination or balance.

EEG (Functional)

Electroencephalography (EEG) is the measurement of the electrical activity of the brain by recording from electrodes placed on the scalp. The resulting traces are known as an electroencephalogram (EEG) and represent an electrical signal from a large number of neurons. EEGs are frequently used in experimentation because the process is non-invasive to the research subject. The EEG is capable of detecting changes in electrical activity in the brain on a millisecond-level. It is one of the few techniques available that has such high temporal resolution.

All of the following are examples of a rater bias:

-Central tendency bias, contrast effect, & severity error. -

Eysenck's 1952 study on psychotherapy outcome

-Challenged the effectiveness of most psychotherapy treatments E-ysenck, in his 1952 study, found that 64% of patients in eclectic therapy and 44% of psychoanalytic patients improved versus a 72% improvement rate for untreated patients. His methodology and findings have been criticized for decades following his report and most studies since then have found psychotherapy to be superior to no treatment. Choice "A" is one of the conclusions of Smith and Glass' (1978) meta-analysis. Choice "B" was not one of Eysenck's conclusions, and it is also contrary to a finding of Consumer Report's 1995 study which failed to find a relationship between therapist level of training and outcome. Choice "D" is partly correct, in that many other outcome studies did follow Eysenck's study; however, most of these have contradicted his findings. Indeed, even Eysenck modified his conclusion in 1985 by indicating that at least one therapy, behavior therapy, is superior to placebo or no treatment.

Kohlberg's theory of moral development is based on the assumption that progress through his hypothesized stages is related to:

-Changes in social perspective. -Kohlberg believed that the three levels of moral reasoning reflect different levels of cognitive development, which encompasses changes in social perspective-taking. At the conventional level, the person views an individual as a member of society and bases his/her moral judgments on that conceptualization.

If a behavior reaches the criterion level for each phase, treatment is considered to be effective in which of the following designs?

-Changing criterion -The changing criterion design is a type of single case design that consists of a series of phases in which a different behavioral criterion is set for each phase. If the behavior reaches the criterion level for each phase, the treatment is considered to be effective. The multiple baseline (a.) sequentially applies a treatment across subjects, settings, or behaviors in a single case design. The Solomon four-group design (c.) is utilized to assess the pretesting effects on the internal and external validity of a study. Partial counterbalancing is used when the number of participants does not permit a completely counterbalanced design. Latin square (d.) design, a type of partial counterbalancing, administers all levels of an independent variable to all subjects but the order of administration varies between subjects or subgroups of subjects.

Choosing a correlation coefficient is based on factors such as the variables scale of measurement and the shape of the relationship between them. When measuring the relationship between two continuous variables when the relationship between them is nonlinear, which of the following is used?

Eta is the appropriate correlation coefficient to use when both variables are measured on an interval or ratio scale and the relationship between the predictor (the X variable) and the criterion (the Y variable) is curvilinear. Rho (sometimes referred to as the Spearman rank-order correlation coefficient) is appropriate when both variables are measured as ranks. The phi (c.) coefficient is used when both variables are true (natural) dichotomies. When both variables are measured on an ordinal scale, Kendall's tau (d.) is appropriate.

fMRI (Functional)

Functional magnetic resonance imaging, or fMRI, is a technique for measuring brain activity. It works by detecting the changes in blood oxygenation and flow that occur in response to neural activity - when a brain area is more active it consumes more oxygen and to meet this increased demand blood flow increases to the active area. fMRI can be used to produce activation maps showing which parts of the brain are involved in a particular mental process.

What are the three forms of job committment?

Factor analysis has shown that job commitment has three forms. Affective commitment (a.) refers to the employee's psychological attitudes toward the organization; continuance commitment (b.) refers to the costs of leaving the company and normative commitment (d.) is the employee's perceived obligation to stay with the company. Continuance commitment is least related to job satisfaction and other job-related attitudes and more to practical considerations.

There is currently no treatment that prevents or stops cognitive deterioration, however medications are available that can alleviate symptoms temporarily. Currently available drugs to treat dementia, particularly AD, target which of the following?

-Cholinergic system -Cholinergic refers to synaptic transmission that is mediated by the release of acetylcholine. Acetylcholine (a cholinergic neurotransmitter) was the first to be implicated in Alzheimer's and appears to be the neurotransmitter most involved, especially in early memory and attention deficits. However, serotonin, norepinephrine, and glutamate also seem to be involved but may be more important for symptoms that appear in the later stages of the disorder. Five drugs have been approved for the treatment of Alzheimer's disease: donepezil (Aricept), rivastigmine (Exelon), galantamine (Razadyne, formerly Reminyl), tacrine (Cognex), and memantine (Namenda). Donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine, and tacrine belong to a class of drugs called acetylcholine esterase inhibitors that raise the levels of acetylcholine in the brain by blocking an enzyme that destroys acetylcholine. Tacrine is associated with severe liver problems so it is rarely used. These medications appear to temporarily improve or stabilize cognitive symptoms and memory problems for about 30 -50% of individuals with mild to moderate Alzheimer's disease. Unlike the others, Memantine is used to treat symptoms of moderate to severe Alzheimer's disease. Memantine works by blocking glutamate, an excitotoxin, from attaching to NMDA receptors in the brain. Research indicates excitotoxins such as glutamate may cause some of the neuron degeneration that occurs with Alzheimer's disease.

You are conducting a study to examine the differences in reaction time between elderly people and young people. Subjects are asked to view stimuli on a computer screen and to press a lever every time they see certain target stimuli. Your results indicate that younger people respond faster than older people, and you conclude that reaction time is faster for younger people. Your conclusion is faulty because of

-Cohort effects. -The study described here is an example of a cross-sectional design, in which two or more different age groups are compared to determine whether aging has an effect on a particular dependent variable. A problem with cross-sectional designs is cohort effects. This refers to differences between the groups in experience rather than age that could be accounting for differences between them on the dependent variable. Cohort effects seem like a particularly plausible explanation for the results here, since it's likely that young people have more experience with computers than older people.

Meta-analysis involves:

-Combining the results of studies into an effect size. -Meta-analysis is a statistical procedure that is used to look at "average" outcome over a broad range of studies (e.g., whether psychotherapy is more effective than no treatment). Meta-analysis involves selecting relevant studies and combining the results to calculate an effect size. Before conducting a meta-analysis, certain criteria are established for the studies to be included in the analysis (e.g., based on the type of design of the study, or how each study was conducted) (Response C). Meta-analysis, however, does not assign any greater weight to studies that are of better quality (Response A). Also, meta-analysis does not reanalyze the original data from each study (Response B), but simply combines the results of the studies into an effect size.

Anticholinergic effects include all of the following

-Constipation, blurred vision, dizziness -Anticholinergic (side) effects occur as a result of interference with acetylcholine in the brain and peripheral nervous system. Tricyclic antidepressants and antipsychotics often have anticholinergic effects which include dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, dizziness, urinary retention, tachycardia, and confusion.

Discriminant and convergent validity are classified as examples of:

-Construct Validity -There are many ways to assess the validity of a test. If we correlate our test with another test that is supposed to measure the same thing, we'll expect the two to have a high correlation; if they do, the tests will be said to have convergent validity. If our test has a low correlation with other tests measuring something our test is not supposed to measure, it will be said to have discriminant (or divergent) validity. Convergent and divergent validity are both types of construct validity.

Cluster analysis would most likely be used to:

-Construct a "taxonomy" of criminal personality types. -The purpose of cluster analysis is to place objects into categories. More technically, the technique is designed to help one develop a taxonomy, or classification system of variables. The results of a cluster analysis indicate which variables cluster together into categories. The technique is sometimes used to divide a population of individuals into subtypes.

According to Prochaska and DiClemente's Stages of Change Model, a patient is most likely to experience ambivalence about change during the stage of:

-Contemplation -According to Prochaska and DiClemente's Transtheoretical Model of Behavior Change, people progress through a series of stages in making changes in their behavior. This model has been used in the treatment of addictive behaviors such as smoking and drinking, eating disorders and weight management, as well as for promoting health related behaviors. The five stages of change are precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance. In precontemplation (Response 1), the person is in denial of any problems, and has no intention to change his behavior at the present time. In contemplation (Response 2), the person becomes aware that a problem exists, and feels ambivalent about change. While the person is contemplating, or thinking about, making changes, he has not taken action and has not yet made a commitment to change. In preparation (Response 3), the person is more committed to making changes. The person has created a detailed plan for change, and perceives greater benefits than barriers to change. In action (Response 4), the person is modifying her or his behavior and experiences in order to overcome the problem. This is the stage that involves the most overt behavioral changes. In maintenance, the last stage, the person takes steps to prevent relapse and maintain the gains made during the previous stage of action.

When scores on the MMPI scales 1 and 3 are higher than on scale 2, this pattern is referred to as a:

-Conversion V -A conversion V pattern on the MMPI-2 occurs when the scale 2 (depression) score is significantly lower than scores on scales 1 (hypochondriasis) and 3 (hysteria). This pattern is characteristic of individuals with a tendency to somaticize psychological problems, have chronic pain with an organic etiology, has conversion disorder or other somatoform disorder. In the defensive profile (a.) pattern, the F scale score is significantly lower than scores on the L and K scales and indicates an attempt to present in a favorable light. In the psychotic V, or paranoid valley, (d.) pattern, the scale 7 score is significantly lower than scores on scales 6 and 8. In the passive-aggressive V (b.) pattern, the scale 5 score is significantly lower than scores on scales 4 and 6.

Which of the following situations does not constitute an exception to confidentiality?

-Court-ordered treatment -Feedback for correct: In court-ordered treatment, the patient is entitled to a confidential relationship, even though referred by the court. The therapist must obtain a signed release of information in order to inform the court of any aspects of the patient's treatment. All three other responses involve exceptions to confidentiality. The results of a court-appointed evaluation (Response 2) are disclosed to the court without a release of information from the patient. Although the patient doesn't have to consent to the release of information, he must be informed that the results will be shared. Confidentiality may be breached in order to make a child abuse report (Response 3), and it is also frequently breached in order to initiate an involuntary hospitalization.

.___________________ may result in a job performance measure having low validity, even though it is reliable.

-Criterion deficiency -Criterion deficiency refers to what is missed or deficient in the criterion used. For example, if typing speed is used as the sole criterion for determining successful job performance by a secretary, it would be a deficient criterion, since typing speed is only one of several skills needed to be a successful secretary. Differential validity ("A") refers to a test which has significantly different validity coefficients for different subgroups. Criterion contamination ("B") occurs when a rater's knowledge of an employee's performance on a predictor biases how the employee is rated on a criterion.

The reliability statistic that can be interpreted as the average of all possible split-half coefficients is

-Cronbach's coefficient alpha. -According to classical test theory, the reliability of a test indicates the degree to which examinees' scores are free from error and reflect their "true" test score. Reliability is typically measured by obtaining the correlation between scores on the same test, such as by having examinees take then retake the test and correlating both sets of scores (test-retest reliability) or by dividing the test in half and correlating scores on both halves (split-half reliability). Cronbach's alpha, like split-half reliability, is categorized as an internal consistency reliability coefficient. Its calculation is based on the average of all inter-item correlations, which are correlations between responses on two individual items. Mathematically, Cronbach's alpha works out to the average of all possible split-half correlations (there are many possible split-half correlations because there are many different ways of splitting the test in half). Regarding the other choices, the Spearman-Brown formula is used to estimate the effects of lengthening a test on its reliability coefficient. Longer tests are typically more reliable. The Spearman-Brown formula is commonly used to adjust the split-half coefficient to estimate what reliability would have been if the halved tests had as many items as the full test. The chi-square test is used to test predictions about observed versus expected frequency distributions of nominal, or categorical, data; for example, if you flip a coin 100 times, you can use the chi-square test to determine if the distribution of heads versus tails outcomes falls into the expected range or if there is evidence that the coin toss was "fixed." And the point-biserial correlation coefficient is used to correlate dichotomously scaled variables with interval or ratio data; for example, it can be used to correlate responses on test items scored as correct or incorrect with scores on the test as a whole.

A colleague of yours is interested in studying the effects of aging on IQ scores. He consults with you for some ideas regarding how to proceed with this research. Which of the following types of research designs would you recommend?

-Cross Sequential -The colleague is interested in conducting developmental research, in which the effects of development (e.g., aging) on a dependent variable (in this case, IQ scores) are investigated. Longitudinal, cross-sectional, and cross-sequential are all types of developmental research designs. Of these, cross-sequential research is the strongest from a scientific point of view. Cross-sequential research is a combination of cross-sectional and longitudinal research. In cross-sequential research, as in cross-sectional research, subjects are divided into age groups (e.g., young, middle-aged, and old). And, as in longitudinal research, subjects are assessed repeatedly on the dependent variable over time. Because cross-sequential research combines the methodology of the two strategies, it is not associated with the limitations of one or the other.

The predictor cut-off score of a selection test is lowered. How will this impact successful hiring

-Decrease the probability of true positives: -The term "positive" refers to individuals selected or hired and "negative" to those who are not. "True" refers to a correct decision and "false" refers to an incorrect decision. When a predictor cutoff is lowered, more people are selected overall, or there are more positives. Since the predictor criterion is lower there are more true and false positives. Therefore, the probability that those hired will be successful (true positives) decreases and the probability of unsuccessful hiring (false positives) increases.

In an attempt to increase motivation among employees, a company begins to pay employees based on their output. This will most likely result in:

-Decreased job dissatisfaction and increased quantity of work. -If a person's pay is based on output, his or her output is likely to increase, but the quality of work will not necessarily increase. This makes sense -- if you are working so fast in order to produce more so that you can get paid more, the quality of your work is likely to suffer. In addition, increased pay is likely to decrease job dissatisfaction, as predicted by Herzberg's two-factor theory.

If an examinee correctly guesses the answers to a test, the reliability coefficient:

-Decreases -One of the factors that affect the reliability coefficient is guessing. Guessing correctly decreases the reliability coefficient. Answers A, B, and D are not true in regards to the reliability coefficient.

Which of the following would most likely improve the quality of decision making in a group?

-Decreasing the cohesiveness of the group. -Groupthink is an intensive tendency to seek agreement among members of the group which often results in poor decision-making. You should be familiar with the factors which contribute to groupthink, which include high cohesiveness, homogeneous backgrounds and values, and a strong, directive leader. Since increasing cohesiveness increases the pressure to conform, it is likely that decreasing the cohesiveness of a group should decrease the pressure to conform. In some circumstances, seeking consensus or unanimity can actually improve decision-making; however, it often becomes detrimental when the drive for consensus prevents full consideration of alternative decisions

factor analysis

-Conducted to identify the minimum number of common factors required to account for intercorrelation among set of tests, subtests, or test items. -Factor loading are correlation coefficients that indicate degree of association between each test and factor -Communality indicates common variance or amount of variability in test scores due to factors that test shares in common with other tests included in analysis.

Journal reviewers who show strong bias against manuscripts that report results contrary to their theoretical perspective are demonstrating:

-Confirmatory bias -"Confirmatory bias" or "confirmation bias" is the tendency to seek, interpret, and create information that verifies our existing beliefs. Self-serving bias (A) is the tendency to attribute one's successes to internal factors and one's failures to external factors. The fundamental attribution bias or error (C) refers to the tendency to overestimate dispositional (personality) factors and underestimate situational factors in explaining a person's behavior. Self verification theory (D) proposes that people seek confirmation of their self-concept.

Of the five personality dimensions listed below, the one most consistently associated with job success is

-Conscientiousness -The personality dimensions here, along with neuroticism, make up the traits identified by the Five-Factor model of personality. These are dimensions of personality identified by factor analyses that have been confirmed across different cultures. They can be remembered by using the acronym OCEAN or CANOE. Of the five dimensions, conscientiousness--the tendency to show self-discipline, act dutifully, and aim for achievement--has been shown to be most consistently related to different measures of job performance and success. For instance, in one study, conscientiousness was demonstrated to have significant correlations with measures of job proficiency, training proficiency, and performance data in personnel records.

Jose scored 75 on his final exam. The test scores were normally distributed, with a mean of 60 and a standard deviation of 15. Jose's score would be in which of the following percentile ranges?

In a normal distribution, 1. 0 is 34 percentile points above the mean of 50. Jose's standard score is (75-60)/15 or 1. 0, putting his score at the 84th percentile.

For a diagnosis of Bulimia Nervosa, a person must have a history of binge eating and

Inappropriate compensatory behavior for at least three months.

APOE e4

Increases risk for Alzheimer's and causes earlier onset for disease.

Obesity & Bulimia

Indeed, 40% of bariatric surgery candidates with comorbid binge eating disorder had a mood or anxiety disorder, with some participants having both a mood and an anxiety disorder [21]. Similarly, gastric bypass surgery candidates with binge eating disorder had more disordered eating attitudes and behaviors, as well as worse physical, emotional and social quality of life, than gastric bypass surgery candidates without binge eating disorder [22]. Not only is binge eating in individuals with obesity associated with poor mental health and poor quality of life, but binge eating can also hinder weight loss in individuals with morbid obesity. For instance, a systematic review found that individuals submitted to bariatric surgery that had clinically significant binge eating before and after the surgery had worse weight loss outcomes than those without pre-surgical binge eating, or than those who stopped binge eating after the surgery [23]. The occurrence of obesity in individuals with eating disorders is also associated with greater mental health complications. For instance, individuals with eating disorders that had had obesity at any stage in their lives had higher eating disorder severity and greater general psychopathology than those with eating disorders that had never had obesity [16]. Finally, obesity with comorbid binge eating can be functionally detrimental.

Of the following, the most common cause for mental retardation is:

-Embryonic Problems -The most common cause of mental retardation is alterations during the embryonic stage of development, which corresponds to the period from conception to 8 weeks. Problems during the embryonic stage account for 30% of the cases of mental retardation, and include chromosomal changes (e.g., Down's Syndrome) or damage due to toxins (e.g., maternal alcohol consumption or infections). Perinatal problems (Response 1) account for 10% of cases of mental retardation, and include fetal malnutrition, hypoxia, trauma, and viral infections. The perinatal period is from 1 pound of weight (in utero) to one month after birth. Birth problems (Response 4) occur during the perinatal period, and therefore account for less than 10% of the cases of mental retardation. Heredity (Response 2) accounts for 5% of the cases of mental retardation, and includes genetic abnormalities and chromosomal aberrations.

You are hired as a consultant by a large corporation. You evaluate the company and come up with a list of interventions that you believe would increase the company's profitability. To encourage employees to accept these changes, you assemble them in a large meeting hall and give a speech explaining how your proposed changes will benefit the company and, by extension, the employees. Which of the following strategies for increasing acceptance to change are you using?

-Empirical-rational -This question refers to a framework that identifies three general strategies to bring about change in an organization: empirical-rational, power-coercive, and normative-reeducative. Empirical-rational strategies are based on the assumption that people are basically rational and, if they have all relevant information about a situation, will act in accord with their self-interest. Thus, a proposed change will be adopted if the proposer can rationally justify the change and show that it will benefit the members of the organization. The consultant in this question is explaining how the proposed changes will advance the self-interest of the employees; thus, he is adopting an empirical-rational approach.

In the multitrait-multimethod matrix, a low heterotrait-heteromethod coefficient would indicate:

-High divergent validity -Use of a multitrait-multimethod matrix is one method of assessing a test's construct validity. The matrix contains correlations among different tests that measure both the same and different traits using similar and different methodologies. The heterotrait-heteromethod coefficient, one of the correlation coefficients that would appear on this matrix, reflects the correlation between two tests that measure different (hetero) traits using different (hetero) methods. An example might be the correlation between vocabulary subtest scores on the WAIS-III for intelligence and scores on the Beck Depression Inventory for depression. Since these measures presumably measure different constructs, the correlation coefficient should be low, indicating high divergent or discriminant validity.

The error inherent in the best fit regression line is called the standard error of the:

-Estimate -The standard error of estimate tells us how far we can expect to be off when making predictions based on a regression (prediction) equation. It's a way to assess how well the equation "fits" the data. Try to keep the term "standard error of the estimate" in a box in your mind labeled "correlation coefficient" since, the higher the correlation coefficient, the lower the error of estimate. The other errors relate to different situations. The standard error of the mean tells us how closely our sample mean approximates the population mean. Keep this one in a box in your mind labeled "experiments and samples." The standard error of measurement tells us how accurately an obtained score on a test estimates someone's true score on that test, if a true score were ever possible to obtain. So keep this one in a box labeled "reliability of a test." And the fourth choice, standard error of the coefficient is a foil. There is no such thing.

The eta correlation ratio would be used to:

-Estimate the strength of a nonlinear relationship. -There are a number of different types of correlation coefficients. The most common is the Pearson r, which is used to measure the relationship between two quantitative variables assumed to be related in a linear way. When a nonlinear relationship is assumed, the eta coefficient can be used instead. A linear relationship is one where as the value of one variable increases the other increases (positive correlation), or where as the value of one variable increases the other decreases (negative correlation). For example, the correlation between height and weight will be positive and linear; the correlation between income and health problems will be negative and linear. In a nonlinear relationship, variables are related but not in this linear fashion. An example would be a depression drug that has no effect at low dose, decreases symptoms at moderate doses, and increases symptoms at very high doses. Here there would be a non-linear relationship between dosage and depression level. Regarding the other choices, the phi coefficient can be used to measure the correlation between two dichotomous variables (i.e., variables that can take one of two values). The point-biserial coefficient is used to measure the correlation between a dichotomous variable and a quantitative variable. And Spearman's rho is used to measure the correlations between two sets of ranked data.

Which of the following best describes confidence intervals use?

-Estimate true scores from obtained scores -Confidence intervals allow us to determine the range within which an examinee's true score on a test is likely to fall, given his or her obtained score. The standard error of measurement (b.) is used to construct confidence intervals, not the other way around.

The ratio of Major Depressive Disorder in females to males is approximately

-Estimates of the female to male Major Depression rate range from 2:1 to 3:1. Thus, 2.5:1 is the best answer to this question

An inverted U relationship can be interpreted with which of the following coefficients?

-Eta -Eta is the coefficient of choice for a curvilinear relationship. The pearson r (Response B) is used to assess the strength and direction of a linear relationship between two continuous (interval/ratio) variables. The biserial coefficient (Response C) is appropriate for assessing the relationship between a continuous variable and an artificially dichotomous variable. The tetrachoric coefficient (Response D) is used to look at the correlation between two dichotomous variables.

Starvation in Anorexia is believed to be precipitated by:

-High levels of serotonin. -High levels of serotonin have been linked to both appetite suppression and anxiety while low levels have been linked to depression and appear to contribute to binge eating. Research by Kaye et al (1997) proposes that anxiety is caused by high levels of serotonin and individuals with Anorexia temporarily relieve anxiety through starvation which reduces tryptophan, which then reduces the level of serotonin. The lowered serotonin fosters a sense of calm and personal control. Inversely, low levels of serotonin are believed to precipitate binge eating in Bulimia as sweets and carbohydrates increase serotonin and elevate mood. (See: Kaye W.H., Weltzin T.E. Serotonin activity in anorexia and bulimia nervosa: relationship to the modulation of feeding and mood. Journal of Clinical Psychiatry, 1991; 52:41-58. and Kaye W.H. Serotonin function in eating disorders. Biological Psychiatry, 1997: 42:56. )

According to Hersey and Blanchard (1974), a "telling" leader is most effective when employees are low in both ability and willingness to assume responsibility. A telling leadership style is characterized by a

-High task and low relationship orientation. -The different leadership styles defined by Hersey and Blanchard involve different combinations of task and relationship orientation. A high task, low relationship orientation defines the telling leadership style. Answer A is a delegating leader; B is a participating leader, and C is a selling leader.

Which of the following is most correlated with "successful aging?"

-Higher level of activity -Successful aging is most associated with a high activity level.

With respect to productivity, cohesive groups are associated with:

-Higher levels of productivity for the group only when management is supportive. -High group cohesiveness has positive and negative consequences. In terms of productivity, the relationship between group cohesiveness and group productivity is affected by several moderator variables. One of which is management supportiveness. High management support is associated with high levels of productivity for cohesive groups, while management hostility is associated with low productivity for cohesive groups. (See: A. Tziner and Y. Vardi, Effects of command style and group cohesiveness on the performance effectiveness of self-selected tank crews, Journal of Applied Psychology, 1982, 67, 769-775. )

The nonverbal measure of intelligence developed specifically for deaf and hearing-impaired children is:

-Hiskey-Nebraska The Hiskey-Nebraska Test of Learning Aptitude has 12 subtests and was specifically developed and standardized for deaf and hearing impaired children between the ages of 3 and 16. The other response choices are also non-verbal tests of intelligence. The Leiter International Performance Scale (a.) is appropriate for children with reading or speaking problems between the ages of 2 and 18. The Columbia Mental Maturity Scale (b.) yields IQ scores for children ages 3 years 6 months through 9 years 11 months and is also appropriate for children with speaking or reading difficulties as well as with sensorimotor disorders. The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (c.) can be used with ages 2 years 6 months through adulthood and is appropriate for children with expressive language disorders and a limited expressive vocabulary but not hearing problems.

An individual with apperceptive visual agnosia would have difficulty:

-Identifying an object from an atypical view -Visual agnosia refers to the inability to recognize familiar objects by sight. The type of visual agnosia described in this question is referred to as apperceptive agnosia and involves an inability to recognize familiar objects, especially in low-light conditions, when there are many shadows, when objects overlap, or from an atypical view.

According to Erikson, a child who is transitioning from elementary to junior high school is most likely beginning to deal with the psychosocial task of:

-Identity -This child is likely to be in early adolescence, and Erikson describes the psychosocial challenge of adolescence (12 - 18 years) as identity versus role confusion. If all has gone well, a child entering junior high will already have mastered the stage of industry versus inferiority (Response 3), which occurs when a child is between six and twelve years of age. The stage of autonomy (Response 1) versus shame and doubt occurs when the child is between the ages of one and three. Intimacy (Response 4) versus isolation is the challenge of young adulthood (18 - 35 years).

The director at the training agency, where you are a supervisor, has promised two new interns that they will have plenty of testing experience as part of their training. In order to meet quota, you are under a great deal of pressure to bill many hours. One intern has a great deal of previous testing experience and the other intern has very little. The majority of the testing cases are given to the more experienced intern, and as a result this intern is given the majority of your time and attention. This situation is:

-Ethical -There is no indication that the more experienced intern is being exploited (response "C") and while the interns are not receiving an equal number of testing opportunities, the situation is not unethical solely because the less experienced intern is getting fewer testing cases and/or attention. The director stated the interns would have "plenty of testing experience," not necessarily an equal amount of testing cases, time, or attention. Additionally, the definition of plenty is relative to the individual intern, their previous education, training, and experience. Another relative term in the question to consider is "majority." It would be unethical to have the intern with very little testing experience perform more than his/her current level of competency (Standard 2.05(2): Delegation of Work to Others). Note: this intern is receiving test cases, time, and attention - just not the "majority" of cases and attention.

Dr. Z is referred a patient by a managed care company for a brief evaluation. Due to contract constraints, after the evaluation, the patient is referred out for treatment. The treating therapist meets with Dr. Z and pays Dr. Z a fee. In this case, the fee is:

-Ethical, as long as the fee is based on the consultation. -According to the Ethics Code, any fee splitting between a psychologist and another professional should be based on services provided (e.g., consultative, administrative or other), and not the referral itself. Here, the fee would be ethical only if it were based on a consultation with Dr. Z.

The second stage of Alzheimer's Dementia is characterized by:

-Inability to perform complex tasks -Alzheimer's Disease is often categorized into 3 stages. In Stage 1, which lasts 2-4 years, short-term memory loss begins. Patients in this stage frequently complain about forgetting where they placed things. In Stage 2, which lasts 2-10 years, there is further memory impairment (mostly explicit rather than implicit) and they begin having difficulty performing complex tasks, such as balancing a checkbook or going grocery shopping. They may get lost in familiar places and become apathetic. In the final stage -- Stage 3 -- which lasts 1-3 years, there is serious impairment in most areas. During Stage 3 they may lose the ability to speak and become unable to recognize family, friends, or even themselves. They lose all capacity to care for themselves and have difficulty walking, are incontinent, and are ultimately bedridden and often die of an opportunistic respiratory infection

Once a behavior has been established through operant conditioning, the behavior would most likely ________________ immediately following the removal of the reinforcer.

-Increase -In operant extinction, removal of a reinforcer does not result in an immediate decrease of the behavior. In fact, what occurs initially is a temporary increase in behavior, which is known as a "response burst."

You see a client for eight sessions for short-term therapy for depression following an accident at work that left him unable to work. A year later, the client's attorney contacts you and asks you to testify on the client's behalf in his lawsuit against the employer. In this case, you should

-Explain that you will be only able to testify as and clarify the role of a fact witness. -According to the APA's Ethical Standards, when asked to provide service at the request of a third party "psychologists attempt to clarify at the outset of the service the nature of the relationship with all individuals or organizations involved." In this question, you need to understand the role of psychologists in forensic settings to know how to explain the nature of your service to this client. In these settings, a psychologist can serve as either an expert or a fact witness. An expert witness is someone who has superior knowledge about a particular psychological issue in a legal case based on her training or experience, and offers that opinion if permitted or asked to do so by the court. A fact witness, on the other hand, is one who testifies about facts relevant to the case; when a psychologist testifies as a fact witness, it would be because he has treated a client and the events or disclosures that occurred in the treatment are relevant to the case. The roles of expert witness and fact witness are contradictory in numerous ways; for instance, an expert witness's client is an attorney, whereas a treating psychologist's client is the patient. Therefore, psychologists should not serve as both fact and expert witnesses in the same case. Additionally, the attorney's request to testify "on behalf of the client" requires clarification; this could be interpreted to mean that your primary role would be to advocate for the client as opposed to testifying truthfully. For these reasons, of the choices listed, the best answer is to explain that you only can testify as a fact witness and to clarify your role as such.

According to the American Psychological Association's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct, which of the following statements is most accurate regarding "fee splitting" between a psychologist and other professionals?

-Fee splitting is permissible if it is based on services provided. -The APA Ethics Code explicitly prohibits fee splitting between professionals when it is based on referrals, e.g., a referral source receives 5% of a patient's on-going fees (Response 4). The Ethics Code does not prohibit it in all circumstances (Response 1), however, specifically allowing it when it is based "on services provided." For example, a psychologist and a psychological assistant may engage in fee splitting based on provision of supervision, office space, etc. There is no explicit provision that fee splitting be "fair and non-exploitative" (Response 3), although that certainly is the spirit of the code.

Eagly et al.'s (2003) meta-analysis of transformational, transactional, and laissez-faire leadership styles comparing women and men found:

-Female leaders engaged in more of the contingent reward behaviors than male leaders. -The results of meta-analyses suggest that there are slight but statistically significant overall differences between men and women in leadership style. The results of Eagly et al's meta-analysis of transformational, transactional, and laissez-faire leadership styles indicate female leaders were more transformational than male leaders, however they also engaged in more of the contingent reward behaviors - a component of transactional leadership. Male leaders were found to be more likely to manifest other aspects of transactional leadership, such as active and passive management by exception, and laissez-faire leadership. The implications of these results are positive for female leadership as it supports other research that has found the aspects of leadership style on which women exceeded men relate positively to leaders' effectiveness, while the aspects on which men exceeded women have null or negative relations to effectiveness. (See: Eagly, A. H., Johannesen-Schmidt, M. C., & van Engen, M. (2003). Transformational, transactional, and laissez-faire leadership styles: A meta-analysis comparing women and men. Psychological Bulletin, 129, 569-591. )

During which period of prenatal development is vulnerability to the effects of teratogenic agents greatest?

-First 8 weeks. -The embryo is most vulnerable to the effects of teratogenic agents during the first eight weeks, when basic structures are being formed. The term teratogen refers to any agent that can cause birth defects. Examples include medications, viruses, or radiation.

According to Rollins and Feldman, marital satisfaction across the lifespan:

-Follows a U-shaped pattern of gradually decreasing satisfaction over the first decade then gradually increasing over time. -Rollins and Feldman (1970) found marital satisfaction tends to be greatest at the beginning and at the end of the family life cycle, in other words, a U-shaped relationship between length of marriage and satisfaction. The arrival of children or adolescents in the family was associated with increased dissatisfaction, but children leaving home and being of retirement age were associated with increased satisfaction. However, more recent evidence suggests that, on average, marital satisfaction may not follow a U-shaped pattern but instead decreases markedly over the first ten years and then drops more gradually over time (See: Glenn, N. D. (1998). The course of marital success and failure in five American 10-year marriage cohorts. Journal of Marriage and the Family, 60, 569-576. Vaillant, C. O., & Vaillant, G. E. (1993). Is the U-curve of marital satisfaction an illusion? A 40-year study of marriage. Journal of Marriage and the Family, 55, 230-239. )

In a study of the effects of psychiatric symptoms on work performance, it was found that hallucinations and insomnia were orthogonal. One can therefore conclude that:

-Hallucinations and insomnia were not correlated -When variables are "orthogonal" they are not correlated with each other. When they are "oblique" they are correlated. These terms are more commonly used to describe the types of rotations available in factor analysis. An orthogonal rotation results in uncorrelated factors whereas an oblique rotation results in correlated factors. Multicollinearity (Response D) occurs when predictors are highly correlated with each other, which is the opposite of what is occurring here.

The research has shown that, in the treatment of nicotine dependence, adding a behavioral intervention to nicotine replacement therapy:

-Has little additional effect in terms of short-term abstinence but does improve long-term abstinence. -This question is difficult since the research on this issue has been inconsistent. However, there is evidence that a combined treatment (behavioral intervention plus nicotine replacement therapy) is best, especially in terms of long-term abstinence (abstinence for six months or more). See, for example, R. C. Klesges et al., Smoking cessation: A successful behavioral/pharmacologic interface, Clinical Psychology Review, 1996, 16(6), 479-496.

Criterion contamination would have the effect of:

-Increasing the validity coefficient of a job selection test. -Criterion contamination can occur when ratings are used as the criterion measure in a predictive equation. If the rater knows the ratees' scores on the predictor, the rating process can be contaminated. For instance, let's say IQ is used as a predictor of job performance. If the rater of job performance knows that an employee has an IQ of 150, the rater may judge the employee's job performance high simply because he knows the employee is very intelligent. This is criterion contamination, and it results in a spuriously high validity coefficient. Here, for instance, the IQ test will look like a very good predictor of job performance; however, if the raters had not known the ratees' IQs beforehand, the IQ test may not have turned out to be such a great predictor at all.

Recent literature comparing leadership and management has identified several similarities and differences. Which of the following set of characteristics is more critical for today's leaders than for managers?

-Independent, innovative, and flexible. -A topic of recent interest in the I/O literature is the difference between leaders and managers. Characteristics that are considered particularly important for leaders include: visionary, creative, flexible, inspiring, courageous, and independent. See G. Capowski, Anatomy of a leader: Where are the leaders of tomorrow?, Management Review, 1994, p. 2

Infant intelligence tests are most valid as predictors of future performance for

-Infants who score very low. -Overall, infant intelligence tests such as the Bayley Scales of Infant Development are poor predictors of adult and even childhood intelligence (though this does not mean they have absolutely no correlation with future performance, as stated by choice "D"). However, they are better predictors for babies who score very low. For this reason, many experts believe that they are most useful as screening devices to identify babies at risk for future developmental delays or problems.

In dynamic assessment, "testing the limits":

-Is done after the entire test has been administered under standardized procedures -The term "dynamic assessment" refers to a variety of procedures involving departure from standardized test administration in order to obtain additional information about an examinee. It is done after the test has been administered using standardized procedures. It is usually used in the assessment of individuals with learning disabilities or mental retardation. Testing the limits involves providing cues to see how many are needed to generate successful performance: The more cues required, the more severe the learning disability.

An organization is considering different selection techniques and comparing the respective predictive validity of each. The validity of structured interviews as predictors of performance:

-Is increased when the interview is used in combination with a measure of general mental ability -Summarizing the predictive validity of interviews and other selection techniques in a meta-analysis of the research, Schmidt and Hunter (1998) report measures of general mental ability are the most valid predictors across different jobs (a.). For structured and unstructured interviews, they note corrected validity coefficients of .51 and .38, respectively (b.). When an interview is combined with another selection procedure, especially a general mental ability test, the predictive validity of interviews is increased [The validity and utility of selection measures in personnel psychology: Practical and theoretical implications of 85 years of research findings, Psychological Bulletin, 124(2), 262-274].

Functional nocturnal enuresis

-Is not associated with any particular stage of sleep. -If the wetting is associated with a physical cause, then it is not diagnosed as "functional" enuresis. This disorder is not associated with dreaming REM-sleep as one might expect. It actually is not significantly correlated with any particular sleep stage, although it is most likely to occur during the first third of the night. And, while it is less common in older than in younger children, it does exist in older children and adolescents.

Which of the following statements best describes the benefit of a realistic job preview?

-It increases longevity of employment. --- A realistic job preview is used for prospective job applicants. It involves providing accurate information about both positive and negative aspects of the job in order to reduce overly optimistic or unrealistic expectations. A job preview is typically accomplished through written literature, films or videos, or having the prospective employee perform a work sample. The most significant benefit of a realistic job preview is a reduction in turnover, as applicants have been exposed to various aspects of the job before being hired. They therefore have a better idea as to whether or not the job will fit their skills, interests, etc. Response A does describe one benefit of a realistic job preview. A realistic job preview will reduce misconceptions about the job, but reduction in turnover is the more significant benefit. Realistic job previews are not just used to select managers (Response B). One method of selecting managers is the assessment center. Response D describes job rotation.

"Claiming excess virtue" accompanies which of the following MMPI-2 validity scales?

-L -The L scale was designed to detect a deliberate attempt by an examinee to present oneself positively. High L scale scores indicate an unwillingness to even admit minor shortcomings and a deliberate attempt to present oneself in a very favorable way. When an individual is more formally educated, intelligent and/or from higher social classes, they tend to score lower on the L scale.

Which of the following refers to an acceptance by members of stigmatized races of negative messages about their own abilities and intrinsic worth?

Internalized racism

Reminiscence Therapy

Reminiscence therapy is a treatment that uses all the senses — sight, touch, taste, smell and sound — to help individuals with dementia remember events, people and places from their past lives. As part of the therapy, care partners may use objects in various activities to help individuals with recall of memories. Components of reminiscence therapy can include simple activities, such as conversation, as well as more advanced clinical therapies to help bring memories from the distant past into present awareness. Storytelling about past events can help individuals with dementia feel less isolated and more connected to the present, experts say.

Malnutrition and the brain

Results in decrease in brain volume, number of neurons, synapses, dendrites, and reactive zones. Hippocampus and Cerebellum are permanently affected. Fetal Insults from month 3 on can result in anencephaly, meningocele, and neural tube defects. Fetal insults from month 5 on can result in mental retardation, Down syndrome, and Autism.

Post-divorce adjustment

The findings indicated that social relationships during the post-divorce period are associated with higher levels of positive adjustment and lower levels of maladjustment. In particular, network relationships are important in promoting positive adjustment, while specific relationships are important for buffering against maladjustment. This has specific implications for therapists' work with divorcing clients and for the conducting of future research.

NIRS (Functional)

Near infrared spectroscopy is an optical technique for measuring blood oxygenation in the brain. It works by shining light in the near infrared part of the spectrum (700-900nm) through the skull and detecting how much the remerging light is attenuated. How much the light is attenuated depends on blood oxygenation and thus NIRS can provide an indirect measure of brain activity.

All of the following are norm-referenced scores:

Norm-referenced scores indicate how well an individual performed on a test compared to others in the norm group. A pass or fail score achieved by one individual does not indicate how many others passed or failed. Pass/fail is a criterion-referenced score, which indicates if an individual knows the exam content or not, but does not measure performance relative to other examinees. The other three responses are norm-referenced scores. A grade-equivalent score (b.) permits a test user to compare an individual's exam performance to others in different grade levels. A T-score (c.) is a type of standard score, or norm-referenced scores indicating how a test-taker performed in terms of standard deviation units from the mean score of the norm group. A percentile rank (d.) shows the percent of individuals in the norm group who scored lower.

The four main stages of neural development are:

Proliferation, migration, differentiation, myelination

Depression, Tricyclic Antidepressants, and MAO Inhibitors

The term came into use in the late 1950s when psychiatrists noticed that for some depressed patients, tricyclic antidepressants were not effective but MAOIs (at that time the only alternative) were. These patients seem to have certain other characteristics in common. -The response to MAOIs suggests a distinct biology, because these drugs — isocarboxazid (Marplan), phenylzine (Nardil), and tranylcypromine (Parnate) — have a unique mechanism of action: They inhibit the activity of an enzyme that breaks down the neurotransmitters norepinephrine and serotonin. But when the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors were introduced, they proved to be as effective as MAOIs in most cases. Some studies now suggest that an individual's depressive symptoms are often not consistent but change from one episode to the next. A patient might have atypical symptoms in one episode and completely different ones in the next episode — the same illness taking different forms at different times.

A psychologist devises a test to detect eating disorders among adolescents. She is concerned that the test is not able to detect less severe cases of the disorder. What can the psychologist do to increase the sensitivity of this test?

-Lower the predictor cutoff. -Here, the psychologist is concerned about the test's ability to accurately diagnose eating disorders. If the test is not sensitive, it may incorrectly classify those with less severe eating disorders as not having the disorder (false negatives). In order to remedy this situation, the psychologist can lower the predictor cutoff (the cutoff score on the test). Raising the predictor cutoff (Response 2) would actually increase the number of false negatives, making it harder to detect eating disorders. Although increasing the criterion cutoff (Responses 3 and 4) could theoretically reduce the number of false negatives, the criterion cutoff cannot in fact be changed; that is, the researcher cannot change whether someone has an eating disorder or not.

If you want to measure whether a weight training program resulted in significant changes in weight and strength for a sample of body builders, the best test to use is:

-MANOVA -When you have two dependent variables (weight and strength), you would need a test that can handle two Dvs. Among the four choices here, only the MANOVA can do that. Some people get stuck because they think the MANOVA requires more than one IV, but that's not the case. The requirement is that there is at least one IV and more than one DV.

Which of these studies would be considered most unethical today?

-MIlgram's -This is a different twist on a previous question but the answer is still Milgram's study. You may feel a different study is more unethical, but the Ethical Standards are specifically pertinent to Milgram's study. This study involved deception and no debriefing about that deception. Ethical Standard 8. 07 (Deception in Research) addresses this, indicating that: "(a) Psychologists do not conduct a study involving deception unless they have determined that the use of deceptive techniques is justified by the study's significant prospective scientific, educational, or applied value and that effective nondeceptive alternative procedures are not feasible. (b) Psychologists do not deceive prospective participants about research that is reasonably expected to cause physical pain or severe emotional distress. (c) Psychologists explain any deception that is an integral feature of the design and conduct of an experiment to participants as early as is feasible, preferably at the conclusion of their participation, but no later than at the conclusion of the data collection, and permit participants to withdraw their data."

Severe maternal malnutrition during the third trimester is correlated with a number of intellectual, social, and motor deficits in children. Which of the following statements regarding the physiological correlates of these deficits is most true?

-Maternal malnutrition in the third trimester seems to have its most severe negative impact on the developing brain. -Severe prenatal malnutrition is likely to have differential effects, depending on when in pregnancy it occurs. In the first trimester, it can result in congenital malformations and spontaneous abortion. In the third trimester (as well as in the first 3-6 months after birth), it is most likely to have a negative effect on the central nervous system -- specifically, the brain. Studies have suggested that these children often have an abnormally low number of brain cells and brain weight. The specific behavioral consequences may include apathy, unresponsiveness to environmental stimulation, irritability, an abnormally high-pitched cry, intellectual deficits, and lags in motor development.

In any organized setting of more than a few people, paired-comparisons is the preferred rating system when the goal is to:

-Maximally differentiate among the people in the organization. -The paired comparison technique involves comparing each person to every other person in the organization in reference to one or more variables such as productivity. It is a time-consuming and expensive process but results in highly precise and differentiated evaluations of each person in the group evaluated.

Differential prediction is one of the causes of test unfairness and occurs when:

-Members of one group obtain lower scores on a selection test than members of another group, but the difference in scores is not reflected in their scores on measures of job performance. -As described in the Federal Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection, differential prediction is a potential cause of test unfairness. Differential prediction occurs when the use of scores on a selection test systematically over- or under-predict the job performance of members of one group as compared to members of another group. Criterion contamination occurs when a rater's knowledge of ratees' performance on the predictor biases his/her ratings of ratees' performance on the criterion (b.). Differential validity, also a possible cause of adverse impact, occurs when a predictor's validity coefficient differs for different groups (c.). When a test has differential validity (d.), there is a slope bias. Slope bias refers to differences in the slope of the regression line.

________ Matrix is used to systematically organize data collected when assessing tests convergent and discriminant validity.

-Multitrait-multimethod -Is a table of correlation coefficients and provides info about degree of association between two or more traits that have been assessed using 2 or more methods. When correlations between different methods measuring same trait are larger than correlations between the same and different methods measuring different traits, matrix provides evidence of tests convergent and discriminant validity. -4 types: Monotrait-monomethod coefficients (same trait-same method) indicate correlation between a measure and itself. Should be large in order for matrix to provide useful info. Monotrait-heteromethod coefficients (same trait-different methods) indicate the correlation between different measures of the same trait. When large, provide evidence of convergent validity. Heterotrait-monomethod coefficients (different traits-same method): show correlations between different traits being measured by same methods. When small, indicates test has discriminant validity. Heterotrait-heteromethod coefficients (different traits-different methods): indicate the correlation between different traits being measured by different methods. When small provide evidence of discriminant validity.

The assertion that language is natural and similarities in grammar are present in many different languages is associated with which theory of language acquisition?

-Nativist -According to the nativist view of language acquisition, a biological aspect is responsible for language development. The behaviorist (a.) theory focuses on the role of classical and operant conditioning on language. The interactionist (b.) theory suggests a link between the environmental and biological factors in the process of acquiring language. According to Searle's Speech Act (c.) theory (1969), an individual is doing one of five things when talking: asserting, directing, commiserating, expressing and declaring. Searle's five illocutionary/perlocutionary points include: assertives, which are statements that may be viewed as true or false because they strive to describe a state of affairs in the world; directives, which are statements that attempt to make the other person's actions fit the propositional content; commissives are statements which commit the speaker to a course of action as described by the propositional content; expressives are statements that express the "sincerity condition of the speech act"; and declaratives are statements that attempt to change the world by "representing it as having been changed." (See: Searle, J. R. (1969), Speech Acts. An Essay in the Philosophy of Language. Cambridge.)

Chronic pain treatment with tricyclic antidepressants is most effective for:

-Neuropathic pain and headaches -Chronic pain research estimates 50-90% of patients can be expected to achieve at least 50% pain relief with antidepressants, with others achieving less pain relief. Tricyclic antidepressants, such as amitriptyline (Elavil), have been found to be most effective particularly if the pain is neuropathic (pain in a numb area, burning or shooting pain) or one of the headache syndromes. SSRI antidepressants have also been found to be effective at preventing headaches, including migraines, but are considered less effective. It is theorized these medications may reduce migraines by affecting the level of serotonin and other brain chemicals. Individuals do not have to have depression to take and benefit from these drugs. A therapeutic trial of antidepressants may follow the failure of conventional analgesics or be used in addition to conventional analgesics. This can be particularly effective in cancer patients who have pain at multiple pain sites, some nociceptive and some neuropathic. (See: McQuay, H. J., Tramer, M., Nye, B.A., Carroll, D., Wiffen, P. J., Moore, R. A. (2000). A systematic review of antidepressants in neuropathic pain. Pain. 1996, 68(2-3), 217-227. and Barkin, R.L., Fawcett, J. (2000). The management challenges of chronic pain: the role of antidepressants. American Journal of Therapy, 7(1),31-47.)A) neuropathic pain and headaches

The Treatment of Depression Collaborative Research Program (TDCRP), conducted by the National Institute of Mental Health, compared Cognitive Therapy, antidepressant medication, pill placebo, and interpersonal psychotherapy treatments in depressed outpatients. The results of this study found:

-No difference in observed outcome between cognitive therapy and antidepressant medications (ADMs) for mild to moderate depression. -Findings of the NIMH's TDCRP research project indicate no differences in outcome were observed between CT and ADM among all patients. In other words, overall, cognitive therapy (CT) and antidepressant medication are about equally effective in the treatment of depression. In a secondary analysis of more severely depressed patients, however, ADM outcomes were superior to both cognitive therapy and placebo. Antidepressant medications (ADMs) are the most widely used treatment for major depressive disorder (MDD) in the United States and evidence supports the efficacy of ADMs, particularly among more severely depressed patients, as first-line therapy for patients with moderate to severe MDD. (See: DeRubeis, R.J., Hollon, S.D., Amsterdam, J.D., Shelton, R.C., Young, P.R., Salomon, R.M., O'Reardon, J.P., Lovett, M.L., Gladis, M.M., Brown, L.L., & Gallop,R. (2005) Cognitive Therapy vs Medications in the Treatment of Moderate to Severe Depression. Archives of General Psychiatry.62(4):409-416. )

A psychologist is impressed by an innovative treatment technique presented at a psychological conference. Although it is still an experimental treatment, the psychologist wants to start using it in his practice immediately. An ethical psychologist would:

-Obtain a client's informed consent, discuss with the client the experimental nature of the treatment and the availability of alternative treatments. -Experimental treatments are not prohibited in the Ethics Code however psychologists need to be cautious in determining how to use them. According to Ethical Standard 8.02(b), "Psychologists conducting intervention research involving the use of experimental treatments clarify to participants at the outset of the research (1) the experimental nature of the treatment; (2) the services that will or will not be available to the control group(s) if appropriate; (3) the means by which assignment to treatment and control groups will be made; (4) available treatment alternatives if an individual does not wish to participate in the research or wishes to withdraw once a study has begun; and (5) compensation for or monetary costs of participating including, if appropriate, whether reimbursement from the participant or a third-party payer will be sought."

Which of the following is a criterion-based score?

-Percentage -A criterion-based or criterion-referenced score describes how a person did in relationship to some external criterion. Percentage correct tells us exactly how well the person did on the test, or how much of the criterion was mastered. By contrast, norm-referenced scores only give us information on how a person did relative to other test takers; they say nothing about how much of the criterion was mastered. Percentile ranks (Response 1), standard scores (Response 3) and IQ scores (Response 4) are all norm-referenced scores.

If a student scored between 1 and 2 standard deviations above the mean in a normal distribution of scores, you could conclude that the student's:

-Percentile rank is between 84 and 98 -If a score falls between 1 and 2 standard deviations in a normal distribution we can readily conclude that it's T score is between 60 and 70 and it's z-score is between 1 and 2 (since z-scores are stated in standard deviation units). We can, therefore, eliminate choices "A" and "B." To determine percentile ranks you can do a simple calculation if you know the areas under a normal curve. Remember that 50% of all scores in a normal distribution fall below the mean and 50% fall above the mean. And 68% of scores fall within +/- 1 SD of the mean. If you divide 68% by 2, you get 34% (the percentage of scores that fall between 0 and +1 SD). If you then add that 34% to the 50% that fall below the mean, you get a percentile rank of 84. Thus, the 84 percentile score is equivalent to 1 SD above the mean. The same calculation is used for determining the percentile rank at 2 standard deviations. Since 95% of all scores fall within +/- 2 SD, we divide 95% by 2 which equals 47. 5 and add that to the 50% which falls below the mean, which totals 97. 5 (rounded off = 98). Thus, the percentile rank is between 84 and 98.

A patient with Alzheimer's disease would be likely to obtain the lowest scores on which of the following factor indexes on the WAIS-III?

-Perceptual organization and processing speed -Patients with Alzheimer's disease do more poorly than "normals" on the WAIS-III, and they tend to obtain higher scores on the Verbal subtests than on the Performance subtests. The Verbal Comprehension and Working Memory factor indexes consist of verbal subtests only, while the Perceptual Organization and Processing Speed factor indexes are comprised of performance subtests, which explains why their performance is likely to be poorer on the latter two indexes. See, for example, The Psychological Corporation, WAIS-III and WMS-III Technical Manual, 1997, San Antonio, TX.

In the multitrait-multimethod matrix, a large heterotrait-monomethod coefficient would indicate

-Low divergent validity. -Use of a multitrait-multimethod matrix is one method of assessing a test's construct validity. The matrix contains correlations among different tests that measure both the same and different traits using similar and different methodologies. The heterotrait-monomethod coefficient, one of the correlation coefficients that would appear on this matrix, reflects the correlation between two tests that measure different traits using similar methods. An example might be the correlation between a test of depression based on self-report data and a test of anxiety also based on self-report data. If a test has good divergent validity, this correlation would be low. Divergent validity is the degree to which a test has a low correlation with other tests that do not measure the same construct. Using the above example, a test of depression would have poor divergent validity if it had a high correlation with other tests that purportedly measure different traits, such as anxiety. This would be evidence that the depression test is measuring traits that are unrelated to depression.

Members of a cohesive group, as compared to members of a non-cohesive group, are more likely to have:

-Lower absenteeism -Group cohesiveness has been associated with less absenteeism and turnover and, in some situations, greater productivity. You should have been able to eliminate "C" (better decision-making) if you recalled the research on groupthink, which is characterized, in part, by high group cohesiveness, and is associated with poorer quality decisions.

To best reduce the likelihood that a persuasive message will change a person's mind, the person should be provided with which of the following before hearing the persuasive message?

This question is referring to the notion of inoculation, which was derived from the medical usage of the term where it refers to exposing people to a weak form of a virus so that they are resistant to the virus in the future. In terms of resistance to persuasion, inoculation here refers to exposing a person to a weak argument against one's current position.

Bivariate Technique: (Coefficient) Biserial

Variable 1: Artificial Dichotomy (Ex: Company climate - favorable or unfavorable) Variable 2: Interval or Ratio (Ex: Yearly sales in dollars)

Bivariate Technique: (Coefficient) ETA (nonlinear relationships)

Variable 1: Interval or ratio (ex: level of anx - GSR) Variable 2: Interval or ratio (ex: performance on memorization task)

Bivariate Technique: (Coefficient) Pearson Product Moment (r)

Variable 1: Interval or ratio (ex: produce knowledge test scores) Variable 2: Interval or ratio (ex: yearly sales in dollars)

Bivariate Technique: (Coefficient) Contingency

Variable 1: Nominal (ex: DSM Dx) Variable 2: Nominal (ex: past hospitalization - Y or N)

Bivariate Technique: (Coefficient) Spearman rank order (rho)

Variable 1: Rank-Ordered (ex: rank in high school class) Variable 2: Rank-Ordered (ex: rank in terms of SAT score)

Bivariate Technique: (Coefficient) Point Biserial

Variable 1: True Dichotomy (ex: sex - M or F) Variable 2: Interval or Ratio (ex: yearly sales in dollars)

Bivariate Technique: (Coefficient) Tetrachoric

Variable 1: artificial dichotomy (ex: company climate - favorable or unfavorable) Variable 2: artificial dichotomy (ex: sales success - successful or unsuccessful)

Bivariate Technique: (Coefficient) Phi

Variable 1: true dichotomy (ex: sex - M or F) Variable 2: true dichotomy (ex: reading preference - fiction or non-fiction)

Typical Antipsychotics

chlorpromazine (Thorazine) Fluphenazine (Prolixin) thioridazine (Mellaril) haloperidol (Haldol) thiothixene (Navane) loxapine (Loxitane) perphenazine (Trilafon) trifluoperazine (Stelazine)

Atypical Antipsychotics

clozapine (Clozaril) risperidone (Risperdal) olanzapine (Zyprexa) quetiapine (Seroquel) ziprasidone (Geodon) aripiprazole (Abilify) paliperidone (Invega)

Alzheimer's medications

donepezil (Aricept) galantamine (Razadyne) rivastigmine (Exelon)

Expectancy (VIE) Theory

i) Employee will work hard if: (1) Believes that high effort lead to successful task performance (high expectancy) (2) Believes that successful performance will lead to rewards (high instrumentality) (3) Views rewards as desirable (positive valence) ii) Employees motivation is multiplicative function of expectancy, instrumentality, and valence iii) Useful for predicting job satisfaction, occupational choice and job effort but predictions limited b/c workers have insufficient info or behave in irrational ways.

Learning Disorder

i) When person's achievement on standardized test in reading, math, or written expression is below (2+ standard deviations b/w achievement and IQ) that expected for age, schooling, and level or IQ and discrepancy cannot be explained by sensory deficit

One potential advantage of nonparametric statistical tests over parametric tests is that the former

-Require fewer assumptions about the population data. -Both parametric and nonparametric tests are used in statistical hypothesis testing. In both, sample data is collected and analysis is run to see if the data supports a research hypothesis. Parametric tests make assumptions about the underlying population data (e.g., that data is normally distributed) and also are typically used to estimate population parameters. For instance, given a statistic from a sample of subjects, parametric tests typically indicate the probability that the statistic falls within a certain range in the underlying population. By contrast, nonparametric tests do not make assumptions about and do not attempt to estimate population parameters. Another advantage of nonparametric tests is they can be used to test hypotheses about ranked data or non-numerical categorical data. However, when the assumptions required to use them are met, parametric tests provide more accurate and precise results than nonparametric tests.

Tumors, head injuries, viral infection, vascular or other neurological disorders that damage the medial temporal region of the brain affect:

-Retrograde and anterograde memory -Neurological disorders that damage the medial temporal region can cause organic amnesia. In organic amnesia, anterograde amnesia (an impaired ability to form new permanent memories) is often the outstanding cognitive impairment, though retrograde amnesia (impairment of memory for events that occurred before the onset of amnesia) can also occur. Despite the severe impairment in new learning ability, general intellectual or language abilities and short-term memory are generally intact.

A graduate student is conducting intelligence testing on ten subjects. Prior to the testing, the graduate student chooses five subjects at random, and tells each of them she believes he or she is gifted. These examinees perform significantly better overall than examinees who are not given this information. This is an example of:

-Rosenthal Effect -This scenario describes the Rosenthal effect, otherwise known as the self-fulfilling prophecy. It is analogous to experimenter expectancy, in that expectations are communicated to subjects about how they should perform, and these expectations do, in fact, influence the examinees' performance. The Zeigarnik effect (Response 1) refers to the tendency for people to return to unfinished activities, striving for closure to obtain a sense of completion. The Hawthorne effect (Response 2) refers to the tendency for people to improve their performance when they are aware they are being studied or observed. The halo effect (Response 4) is a bias that occurs when a person generalizes from one aspect of a person (e.g., the person is attractive) to other aspects (e.g., the person is smart).

A split-brain patient is shown a picture of an object to his left visual field then told to pick the object out from behind a screen. Which of the following will the patient will be able to do?

-Pick the object with only his left hand. -The visual information about the object crosses in the patient's optic chiasm and ends up in the right hemisphere so when the person is asked to pick out the object he will be able to correctly pick out the object because touch information from the left hand crosses over to the right hemisphere.

Which of the following statements about psychopathology across the lifespan is least accurate?

-Problems begin in adulthood. -Epidemiological studies of adults have shown that many patients first develop their disorder during adolescence. Generally, disorders do appear to persist or progress across the life cycle (Responses 1 & 2). Mental disorders (e.g., depression) can be expressed differently at different ages (Response 4).

One advantage of standard scores as compared to percentile ranks is that standard scores

-Provide more meaningful information about differences between examinees' test scores. -One disadvantage of percentile ranks is that a given distance between two percentile ranks does not necessarily reflect the same distance between the examinees' raw scores. Specifically, percentile ranks tend to overestimate raw score differences in the middle of the score distribution and underestimate raw score differences at the end of the distribution. Let's take an example: Say that Examinee A has a percentile rank score of 93, Examinee B has a percentile rank score of 96, Examinee C has a percentile rank score of 50, and Examinee D has a percentile rank score of 53. If you're just looking at percentile ranks, you might assume that the score difference between Examinee A and B is equivalent to the score difference between Examinee C and D. However, because examinees A and B scored at the extreme high end of the distribution, their raw score difference will be greater than that between examinees C and D, who scored in the middle of the distribution. Choices A and B are true of both standard scores and percentile ranks, while choice D is true of neither. -Choices A and B are true of both standard scores and percentile ranks: A) allow you to determine the relative standing of examinees who take the same test. B) set cutoff scores above which a given percentage of examinees will score.

A number of books in the popular press have been written regarding the relationship between psychological factors and cancer. Which of the following statements best reflects the outcome of scientific studies of this issue?

-Psychological factors are not related to the onset of cancer but are related to the success of recovery from it. -A number of theories regarding the relationship between psychological factors and the onset of cancer have been proposed. For instance, some authors have proposed that the "Type C" personality, typically described as a cooperative, unassertive patient who suppresses anger and complies with external authorities, is at a higher risk for cancer. However, most research shows that psychological factors and stressful events have a small or no effect on cancer incidence. By contrast, psychological factors do appear to be related to recovery from cancer. For instance, psychological treatments combining support and training in self-hypnosis are associated with higher survival rates and improved quality of life in cancer patients.

If you find that your job selection measure yields too many "false positives," what could you do to correct the problem?

-Raise the predictor cutoff score and/or lower the criterion cutoff score -On a job selection test, a "false positive" is someone who is identified by the test as successful but who does not turn out to be successful, as measured by a performance criterion. If you raise the selection test cutoff score, you will reduce false positives, since, by making it harder to "pass" the test, you will be ensuring that the people who do pass are more qualified and therefore more likely to be successful. By lowering the criterion score, what you are in effect doing is making your definition of success more lax. It therefore becomes easier to be considered successful, and many of the people who were false positives will now be considered true positives.

When a therapist shifts the perspective of looking at an individual's behavior from an intrapersonal to an interpersonal definition of the individual's problem, the therapist is:

-Reframing -Reframing is a technique of family therapy, especially structural and strategic, that involves redefining a problem behavior in order to get the family to see it in a new light with the purpose being to increase the family's compliance with treatment. For example, a therapist may tell parents that their child who often "talks back" is expressing a need for love and insecurity rather than anger and disrespect. Reframing the situation may then increase the parents' willingness to change their own behavior, rather than focusing only on the child, or identified patient. Relabeling (a.), involves substituting a benign label for a pathological label a family attaches to a problem in order to change the meaning. Schema restructuring (c.) is the kind of learning that involves fundamental changes in the nature of the schema itself. Cognitive restructuring (d.), involves replacing maladaptive thought patterns with constructive and adaptive thoughts and beliefs

Relationship between reliability and validity

-Reliability always places ceiling on validity. -When test has low reliability, it cannot have high degree of content, construct, or criterion-related validity -High reliability does not guarantee validity -Reliability is necessary, but not sufficient for validity

What is the least helpful suggestion you can give to parents when they are going through a divorce or marital conflict?

-Remarry as soon as possible. -Research has identified a number of factors associated with poorer adjustment in children whose parents divorce. For instance, rapid remarriage of one or both parents is predictive of poorer adjustment. The other suggestions are likely to be helpful (or at worst, benign): exposure to parental conflict, parental continuance of an unhappy marriage, and failure to allow children to establish a relationship with the noncustodial parent are all factors associated with poorer long-term adjustment in children of divorce.

Howard et al.'s (1993) phase model of psychotherapy includes:

-Remoralization, remediation, & rehabilition. -The phase model of psychotherapy, an extension of the dose-response model of treatment response, was first proposed by Howard et al. in 1993 and is a client stage model that outlines a progressive, 3-stage sequence of change. The first phase, remoralization, focuses on the client's subjective well-being and occurs during the first few sessions. The second phase, remediation, focuses on symptom reduction and generally occurs between the 5th and 15th sessions. The third and final phase is rehabilitation which focuses on life functioning gains and emerges more gradually. According to this model, effective courses of treatment are initially characterized by a restored subjective sense of well-being then, as a function of this improvement, the client may benefit from interventions to provide symptom reduction or relief (e.g., decrease difficulty concentrating or sleep disruption) and finally, is able to either resume their former level of role functioning (e.g., doing well at work) or initiate new roles (e.g., obtaining a new job).

Wernicke's, Broca's and conduction aphasia share which of the following difficulties?

-Repeating what is said Difficulty repeating words just spoken and recalling the name of familiar objects are characteristic of all three disorders. Conduction aphasia is due to damage to the nerve fibers that connect Broca's to Wernicke's area and the most typical result is difficulty repeating what one has heard. Wernicke's, or receptive aphasia, primarily affects comprehension which results in impairment in spoken and written language, and anomia or problems recalling words. Broca's aphasia is characterized by difficulty expressing language, including difficulty repeating what is said

The most accurate statement regarding the relationship between mental illness and socioeconomic status (SES) is:

-SES and mental illness are negatively correlated. -Not surprisingly, socioeconomic status is negatively correlated with mental illness. In other words, higher SES is associated with less mental illness, and lower SES is associated higher levels of mental illness. It has not been proven that low SES causes poor mental health (Response 3), though some do contend this. Others contend the reverse: poor mental health causes "downward drift."

A person, in anticipation of failure, develops explanations and behavioral reactions to minimize ability deficits as possible attributions for the failure. This process is referred to as:

-Self handicapping -People engage in self-handicapping strategies in order to avoid an internal attribution for failure. When a person anticipates failure, explanations and behavioral reactions are developed that minimize ability deficits as possible attributions for the failure. Self-fulfilling prophecy (a.) refers to a prediction made about some future behavior or event that modifies interactions so as to produce what is expected. Self-perception theory (c.) is the idea that people observe themselves in order to figure out the reasons they act as they do; people infer what their internal states are by perceiving how they are acting in a given situation. Self-serving bias (d.) refers to a class of attributional biases in which people tend to take credit for their successes and deny responsibility for their failures.

Severing the corpus callosum will have the greatest impact on which of the following?

-Sensory Systems -Recalling the studies on split-brain patients would have helped you answer this question. Remember that these patients had trouble verbally identifying stimuli received by sensory systems on the left side because those signals were received by the right hemisphere and not "shared with" the left hemisphere

Someone advocating an emic rather than an etic approach to cross-cultural psychology would argue that the study of a culture:

-Should be undertaken from within the culture itself. -The emic/etic distinction was first made by an anthropologist named Pike in 1954 and has since been applied to cross-cultural psychology. The etic approach to the study of a culture involves studying it from the outside, using universally accepted means of investigation. The emic approach, by contrast, involves studying the culture from the inside and trying see it as its own members do.

Which of the following methods of sampling would be best to ensure that specific ethnic or racial groups are not underrepresented?

-Stratified -Stratified random sampling involves dividing a population into subsets, or strata, and then randomly selecting research participants from each stratum. For example, to ensure that African Americans, Hispanics, and Asians are properly represented in a study, a researcher would divide the target population into these groups, then randomly select participants from each group. Selection would ensure that the proportion of the study's research participants in each group reflected that group's representation in the underlying population. Regarding the other choices, cluster sampling involves randomly selecting naturally occurring groups (clusters) in the population and then selecting participants from within the selected clusters. For example, in a study of inpatients, a researcher might first randomly select hospitals and then select only patients from the selected hospitals. This differs from stratified random sampling in that in cluster sampling, the groups are randomly selected, whereas in stratified sampling, individuals within targeted groups are randomly selected. In systematic sampling, every nth (e.g., every 10th) member of a target population is selected. In matched sampling, research subjects are matched on a characteristic that researchers believe may exert an extraneous effect on results, and then members of each matched group are randomly divided into groups. For example, if researchers believe intelligence may affect the results of a study, subjects of equal intelligence would be matched and then randomly assigned to research groups.

Seizures that involve half of the body are most likely to be:

-Simple Partial -Feedback: There are two broad categories of seizures: partial and generalized. Partial seizures include simple partial and complex partial seizures; generalized seizures include grand mal (tonic clonic) and petit mal (absence) seizures. In simple partial seizures there are electrical abnormalities in a focal area of the brain only. The size of the affected area can be as small as the thumb, and as large as half the body (Response 1). The patient usually remains conscious during the seizure and can later describe it in detail. Complex partial seizures usually begin with a few minutes of disorientation (the aura), followed by staggering, purposeless movements, and aimless wandering. Consciousness is frequently impaired. In contrast with partial seizures, generalized seizures occur when electrical abnormalities exist throughout the brain. Grand mal seizures (Response 4), also known as tonic-clonic seizures (Response 2), are dramatic seizures that involve convulsions throughout the body. Petit mal (absence seizures) begin with a brief change in level of consciousness, followed by blinking or rolling of the eyes, a blank stare, and slight mouth movements (Response 3), which do not usually include unusual movements.

Communication networks in which information passes along a chain of command are associated with:

-Simple job tasks -Centralized communication networks, where all communication passes through one position or person, have been shown to be more efficient when tasks are mundane and simple. Formal communication networks where information moves between many positions or people (decentralized communication networks) work best with complex and/or collaborative job tasks. Research indicates decentralized networks also result in more individual satisfaction.

A person repeatedly awakens from sleep in a state of fear, disorientation, and unresponsiveness to others. The person later can barely recall the episode at all. The most likely diagnosis for this person is

-Sleep Terror Disorder. -Sleep Terror Disorder is characterized by repeated episodes of awakening in fear, often with a scream of panic. The person displays evidence of fear and autonomic arousal, and responds poorly or not all to the efforts of others to offer comfort. At the time, the person does not remember any dream in detail and cannot recall the entire episode later on. Regarding the other choices, Nightmare Disorder involves repeated awakenings with detailed recall of frightening dreams, often with a recurrence of the same or similar themes. Unlike a person with Sleep Terror Disorder, a person with Nightmare Disorder quickly becomes alert and oriented after awakening. Narcolepsy is characterized by brief sleep and sudden sleep attacks during the period of the person's normal waking; either or both cataplexy (sudden loss of muscle tone) and hypnagogic or hypnopompic hallucinations must be present. Depersonalization Disorder involves a lasting or recurrent feeling that the person is detached from, or is an outside observer of, one's own mental processes or body, as if in a dream.

Meta-analysis was first used in psychological research by

-Smith and Glass -Gene Glass coined the term "meta-analysis" in 1976 and Smith and Glass first used the technique in their psychotherapy outcome studies in 1977. A prior version of the technique was actually developed by Karl Pearson in 1904 (who is better known for his correlation coefficient); however, it was Smith & Glass' classic study which modified and popularized the technique. The benefit of meta-analysis is that it allows researchers to statistically compare the results of several independent studies to yield a single effect size indicating the magnitude of an independent variable's effect.

The tendency of sports teams to win more often when they are playing on their home court is referred to as the "home advantage." This phenomenon is best explained by:

-Social support from fans -The home advantage in team sports has generated various explanations; however, it most consistently has been linked to a supportive home audience. (See: B. Schwartz and S. F. Barsky, The home advantage, Social Forces, 1977, 55, 641-661; and K. S. Courneya and A. V. Carron, The home advantage in sports competitions: A literature review, Journal of Sport & Exercise Psychology, 1992, 14, 13-27.)

An aggressive child was probably:

-Spanked often and inconsistently -According to Jerry Patterson and his colleagues, aggressive behavior often develops from the parent's style of parenting; an aggressive child's parent used lots of directives combined with inconsistent harsh physical punishment.

Which of the following descriptive words for tests are most opposite in nature?

-Speed and power -Pure speed tests and pure power tests are opposite ends of a continuum. A speed test is one with a strict time limit and easy items that most or all examinees are expected to answer correctly. Speed tests measure examinees' response speed. A power test is one with no or a generous time limit but with items ranging from easy to very difficult (usually ordered from least to most difficult). Power tests measure level of content mastered.

When the mean is subtracted from a score and then divided by the standard deviation, the result is:

-Standard Score -You may have recognized that this question is providing the formula for z-scores. To answer the question, you need to know that z-scores are one type of standard score. All standard scores utilize the mean and standard deviation and provide information about the relative status of a score in a distribution. Other standard scores include t-scores (Response 2), and IQ scores. A t-score has a mean of 50, and a standard deviation of 10. Percentile ranks (Response 3) indicates what percentage of the distribution falls below a given score. The standard error of measurement (Response 4) is related to the reliability of a test and is used to construct confidence intervals.

The exam score and the ______________ are necessary to calculate the 68% confidence interval for an examinee's obtained test score.

-Standard error of measurement -Adding and subtracting one standard error of measurement to and from the examinee's obtained test score yields a 68% confidence interval. The standard error of measurement (calculated from the test's standard deviation and reliability coefficient) is needed to determine a confidence interval around an obtained test score. While the standard deviation (a.) is needed to calculate the standard error of measurement, it cannot be used to determine a confidence interval by itself and the standard error of estimate (c.) is used to construct a confidence interval around a predicted criterion score.

The usefulness of a job selection test is increased to the degree that

-The base rate is moderate and the selection ratio is low. -In a job selection test, usefulness refers to the degree to which the test helps you hire successful candidates. Job selection tests are useful to the degree that the correlation between test scores and job performance is high, the base rate is moderate, and the selection ratio is low. The base rate refers to the percentage of people in the population who are able to perform the job successfully. To understand why you'd want a moderate base rate, think about the extreme cases: a base rate of 100% or 0%. A 100% base rate means that everyone can do the job successfully; a 0% base rate mean that no one can. In both cases, a job selection test is useless because you don't need it to distinguish between good and bad candidates. A base rate of 50% means that half of the population can do the job successfully and a selection test therefore becomes more useful in distinguishing between acceptable and unacceptable applicants. The selection ratio refers to the proportion of available jobs relative to applicants. For example, if 100 people apply for 10 openings, the selection ratio would be 10%. With a small selection ratio, you are only selecting the very top scorers on the test, and assuming the test has a reasonable correlation with job performance, these top scorers are more likely to succeed on the job. Note that the smaller the selection ratio, the higher the number of false negatives, which are people who fail the test but would have succeeded on the job. But this is more of a problem for candidates than it is for businesses that use the test; the latter will still end up with more successful candidates the lower the selection ratio.

According to the Elaboration Likelihood Model, a persuasive message processed via the peripheral rather than the central route is most likely to be successful when:

-The communicator is of high status -According to the Elaboration Likelihood Model, there are two routes of communication: a central route and a peripheral route. A listener is most susceptible to persuasion via the peripheral route when the communicator is appealing (e.g., is of high status), the listener is uninvolved with the message or is distracted, and/or the message appeals to fear.

Common biases that reduce rater accuracy when assessing job performance include

-The leniency and strictness biases. -Rater biases include the strictness, leniency, central tendency, and halo biases. The other phenomenons listed in the responses are problems in other areas than performance ratings.

Which of the following tests is appropriate for examining experimental outcome that is non-linear?

-Trend analysis is used to analyze non-linear experimental data. For example, if the dose of medication is the IV (e.g., 5 mg, 10 mg, 15 mg, 20 mg) and symptoms of depression is the DV, you might find that increasing the dose by 5 mg at small dosages decreases depressive symptoms slightly, increasing the dose by 5 mg at moderate dosages decreases depressive symptoms significantly, and increasing the dose by 5 mg at high dosages doesn't decrease depressive symptoms at all. If you hadn't heard of trend analysis, you might have been able to answer this question through a process of elimination. Eta and Pearson r (Responses 1 & 3) are correlational tests, and cannot be used when research is looking at differences between groups. Multiple regression (Response 2) is a test of prediction.

With a diagnosis of Schizophrenia, the risk of the same diagnosis for a monozygotic twin is how many times greater than the risk for a dizygotic twin?

-Two and a half times -This is one of those questions that seems to be a favorite of the EPPP. The risk for an identical (monozygotic) twin to be diagnosed is about 46% and for fraternal (dizygotic) twins it is about 17%. You have to be able to do the basic math here, and realize that 46 is about two and a half times 17, and thus is the "closest" to correct. This question is also a good example of how the exam takes a straightforward finding and muddies the water with it.

A researcher studying the effects of two different psychotherapies in the treatment of depression conducts a statistical test, finds the mean score on a test of depression for one of the therapy groups is significantly lower than that of the mean score for the other group, and rejects the null hypothesis that the two therapies do not differ in effectiveness. In reality, in the underlying population, the mean scores of patients after undergoing each type of therapy are equal. The researcher has made which of the following errors?

-Type I -To answer this question, it helps to understand some basic features of statistical hypothesis tests. First, they use samples from populations to test hypotheses about entire populations. For this reason, the conclusions they arrive at are probabilistic--since the entire population is not included in the study, there is always a chance that conclusions reached about the entire population will be erroneous. There are ways, such as increasing sample size, to reduce the probability of error, but there is no way to be 100% certain that obtained results from a sample hold true for an entire population. Second, they test the probability that the null hypothesis, or the probability of no effect, is true. For example, in the study described by the question, a statistical hypothesis test would provide the probability that means are actually equal in the population, given the obtained differences in sample means. Put another way, the test would yield the probability that the two samples were drawn from the same population. There are two types of erroneous conclusions about populations that statistical tests can yield. One would be to reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is in fact true. In other words this type of error would be to conclude that population means are different when in fact they are the same, or to conclude that a treatment has an effect on a dependent variable when in fact it does not. This type of error, which is exemplified in the question, is called a Type I error. The other type of error, retaining a false null hypothesis, or concluding that a treatment does not have an effect in the underlying population when in fact it does, is called a Type II error.

A client has experienced extreme fatigue, loss of appetite, and stomach pains for the past eight months. Despite numerous medical tests, no physical explanation for his symptoms can be found. The most likely diagnosis is:

-Undifferentiated Somatoform Disorder. -The presence of physical symptoms that cannot be fully explained by a medical condition is indicative of a Somatoform Disorder. Because the man has only three symptoms and the symptoms have persisted for over six months, the appropriate diagnosis is Undifferentiated Somatoform Disorder. (Somatoform Disorder NOS would be the correct diagnosis when symptoms have lasted less than six months).

Which of the following would be least useful as a method for management development?

-Vestibule training -Management development is a growing field in organizational psychology. A number of techniques are used to train (develop) managers including job rotation, coaching, mentoring, and even Outward Bound, which fosters trust and cooperation. Vestibule training involves the use of procedures or an environment similar to the actual job and is used for such jobs as bank tellers, clerks, and typists.

Which of the following models of leadership provides a "decision tree" to help a leader determine whether an autocratic, consultative, or consensual decision-making approach is best given the nature of the work situation?

-Vroom and Yetton's normative model -You may have been able to answer this one through the process of elimination if you knew that the models described by Fiedler, Hersey and Blanchard, and House don't include a decision-tree, which is provided by the Vroom and Yetton model.

Which statement is most true about validity?

-Validity is never higher than the square root of the reliability coefficient. -A test's reliability sets an upper limit on its criterion-related validity. Specifically, a test's validity coefficient can never be higher than the square root of its reliability coefficient. In practice, a validity coefficient will never be that high, but, theoretically, that's the upper limit

The rotation of factors can be either orthogonal or oblique in factor analysis. An oblique rotation would be chosen when the:

-Variables included in the analysis are correlated. -An oblique rotation is used when the variables included in the analysis are considered to be correlated. When the variables included in the analysis are believed to be uncorrelated (c.), an orthogonal rotation is used. Response choice "a." describes semi-partial correlation and "b." describes partial correlation.

Low LPC leaders, according to contingency theory of leadership, are most effective when relationships with subordinates are:

-Very good or very poor -Fiedler's Contingency (LPC) theory proposes that a leader's effectiveness is determined by a combination of the leader's style and the characteristics of the situation, including the leader-subordinate relations. Fiedler described a leader's style by scores on his Least Preferred Coworker (LPC) Scale and believed that leadership style cannot be changed. Rather, a leader's is determined by the match between the leader's style and the demands of the situation. A high LPC or relationship motivated leader describes his least preferred coworker in positive terms and is primarily person-centered. Whereas, a low LPC or task motivated leader describes his least preferred coworker in negative terms and is more task-oriented. Low LPC leaders are most effective in either "very favorable" or "very unfavorable" situations, in which favorableness refers to amount of control. High LPC leaders are most effective in moderately favorable situations

If shown a word, a patient who has suffered brain damage only reads the right half of the word; she fails to eat the food on the left side of their plate and if asked to copy a picture, she only copies the right half. This patient seems to be suffering from:

-Unilateral neglect syndrome. -Unilateral neglect syndrome is a disorder in which patients seem unable to detect or respond to stimuli in regions of space contralateral to the damaged cerebral hemisphere. Some people may deny ownership of their contalateral limb and also neglect parts of their own body in the early stages. Neglect can be in the visual, auditory, tactile, and olfactory modalities, although the most commonly involve visuo-spatial neglect. Left neglect occurs following damage to the right hemisphere of the brain, in particular the right parietal lobe and, as in this question, it is associated with a failure to orient or respond to stimuli on the left side. Left neglect after right hemisphere damage is more frequent, severe, and long-lasting than right neglect after left hemisphere damage. Left neglect is also a significant negative prognostic factor after brain damage and is associated with poor performance on several recovery measures. Hemispherectomy (d.) involves cutting the connections one cerebral hemisphere from the rest of the brain to control seizures in the hemisphere. Hemispherectomy, or functional hemispherctomy, is considered only for individuals, usually children, who have severe epilepsy with seizures arising from only one side of the brain and is performed only if that hemisphere is already functioning very poorly due to prior injury and continued seizure activity. As a result of the procedure, over 75% of patients experience complete or nearly complete seizure control.

According the Social Exchange Theory of attraction, whether or not a person is attracted to another person depends mostly on

-The perceived costs and benefits of the relationship. -According to Social Exchange Theory, the level of satisfaction from and attraction to a particular relationship with another person derives from the perceived costs and benefits of the relationship. People seek relationships where their personal and social costs are minimal and their rewards and benefits are maximized. In analyzing these costs and benefits, people consider the outcomes available from a current relationship, or one currently under consideration, and compare those outcomes to those that can be obtained from an alternative relationship. The theory assumes that people accurately and rationally perceive the costs and benefits of current relationships and their alternatives, though research has suggested that this often is not the case.

A person who takes the MMPI-2 obtains a score of 62 on the depression scale. This means that

-The person's score is 1.2 standard deviation units above the mean. -A T-score is a standardized score, which means that it indicates how many standard deviation units a given raw score is above or below the mean. The T-score distribution has a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10. This means that a score of 62 -- 12 T-score points above the mean -- is 1.2 standard deviations above the mean, since 10 X 1.2 is 12.

Which of the following best describes universality of the transactional-transformational leadership theory?

-Universality has been observed in a wide range of organizations and cultures -Research indicates the transactional-transformational leadership paradigm transcends organizational and national boundaries. The same relationships and conception of phenomena can be observed in a wide range of cultures and organizations. Studies of organizations such as business, education, the military, the government, and the private sector have provided evidence supporting universality across a variety of organizations. The applicability of the paradigm has also received evidence of wide support internationally in most continents. Unusual attributes of the organizations or cultures have been indicated as the source of exceptions to the universality of the leadership paradigm. (See: Bass, Bernard M. (1997). Does the transactional-transformational leadership paradigm transcend organizational and national boundaries? American Psychologist, 52(2),130-139.)

A manager assumes that his employees need constant supervision and detailed guidelines in order to perform their jobs well. What management style does this reflect?

-Theory X -McGregor's (1960) Theory X and Theory Y management theories reflect the key differences between the scientific management and human relations administrative models. Managers adopting a scientific management model assume that workers are motivated primarily by financial self-interest (i.e., pay is the most effective motivator); that job demands must match workers' skills; and that workers need detailed guidelines and constant supervision because they are incapable of regulating themselves or assuming responsibility on their own. Theory X is similar to scientific management: Theory X managers believe that workers dislike work and avoid it whenever possible; therefore, workers must be directed and controlled.

The belief that workers have just enough self motivation to show up at work, punch the time clock, and do only the minimum necessary to get the job done best exemplifies which theory?

-Theory X -McGregor's (1960) Theory X and Theory Y management theories reflect the key differences between the scientific management and human relations administrative models. The scientific management model assumes workers are primarily motivated by financial self-interest or pay; job demands must match workers' skills; and workers need constant supervision and detailed guidelines as they are incapable of self-regulating or assuming personal responsibility. Theory X is similar to scientific management in that Theory X managers believe that workers dislike work and avoid it whenever possible, thus workers must be directed and controlled. Theory X advises managers to be very strict, closely monitor employee performance, diligently enforce policies and procedures, and carefully match employees to jobs. A military drill sergeant would be an example of this approach to management. In contrast, Theory Y's (c.) management approach is based on the assumptions that workers are not naturally passive or lazy, they enjoy autonomy, and are willing to accept responsibility. Theory Y advises managers to smile, to treat workers with respect, to bend some of the rules to get the job done, and to be easy-going in their management styles. While Theory X and Y talk about workers from the perspective of how to manage them, Theory Z (d.) examines how workers contribute and proposes that workers naturally wish to cooperate and are loyal to the organization. McClelland's three needs, or Learned, theory (a.) proposes individuals learn needs from their culture and when one of these needs is strong in an individual, then it has the potential to motivate behavior that leads to its satisfaction. The theory's three primary needs are: the need for affiliation (n Aff), which is a desire to establish social relationships with others; the need for power (n Pow), or a desire to control one's environment and influence others; and the need for achievement (n Ach) or a desire to take responsibility, set challenging goals, and obtain performance feedback.

The person who holds privilege in court-ordered treatment is:

-This question is a bit tricky; it requires that you know the difference between evaluations or assessments for the court, as opposed to court-ordered therapy. When a therapist performs evaluations on behest of the court, the client has no privilege and must be informed of the lack of confidentiality at the outset. By contrast, in court-ordered therapy (e.g., for spousal abuse), the client is the holder of privilege and is typically entitled to complete confidentiality. Note that Responses 3 and 4 are virtually identical, indicating that neither is likely to be the correct answer (i.e., they can't both be right).

Fifty subjects are given a boring book to read, and are then asked to say they liked the book when they speak to a confederate posing as a book reviewer. Half of the people (Group A) are paid $5 to tell the lie, and the other half of the people (Group B) are paid $50. What will happen when the subjects are asked to report their true reactions to the book?

-This question is about Festinger's cognitive dissonance theory. According to this theory, people experience dissonance when they hold conflicting cognitions, or when they behave in a manner which conflicts with existing cognitions. In order to resolve this unpleasant feeling of dissonance, people change their cognitions. Here, those paid $5 experience dissonance between their attitude (the book is boring) and their behavior (lying for a mere $5); they therefore feel discomfort and change their attitude to reduce the discomfort. By contrast, those paid $50 experience much less dissonance between their attitude (the book is boring) and their behavior (it's worth $50 to lie); they therefore have no incentive to change their cognitions.

During the first of structural family therapy's three steps, which of the following techniques is most useful?

-Tracking and mimesis -Structural family therapy entails three overlapping steps: joining, evaluating/diagnosing, and restructuring. Joining is the initial step in structural family therapy. Tracking (identifying and using the family's values, life themes, etc.) and mimesis (adopting the family's behavioral and affective style) are methods used to join the family system. Constructing a family map (a.) is a technique used for the structural diagnosis of the family. Relabeling and reframing (b.) are restructuring techniques. Enactment (c.) is used to facilitate diagnosis and restructuring of the family.

The best way to increase the intra-rater reliability of a test that is subjectively scored would be to:

-Train raters to pay very close attention to the scoring of the test. -Note that this question is asking about intra-rater reliability, not inter-rater reliability. The prefix "intra" means the same thing it means in other contexts (e.g., intra-psychic): inside or internal. Thus, the question is asking you how to increase the internal consistency of a rating instrument. Of the choices listed, the only one which makes sense is to train the raters to pay more attention to what they are doing. If they pay closer attention, they are less likely to score the test inconsistently. Incidentally, mutually exclusive and exhaustive rating categories (choice C) are useful for increasing the inter-rater reliability of a test.

In Piaget's concrete operational stage the child is able to conserve due to the development of reversibility and decentration. Other achievements of this stage are:

-Transitivity -Other achievements of the concrete operational stage are transitivity, or the ability to mentally sort objects; and hierarchical classification--the ability to sort object into classes and subclasses based on similarities and differences among groups. Deferred imitation and object permanence are achievements of the sensorimotor stage. Deferred imitation is the ability to imitate an observed act at a later point in time. Object permanence is the understanding that objects continue to exist even when they are not there. Finally, propositional thought (C) is developed in the Formal Operational Stage. It is the ability to evaluate the logical validity of verbal assertions without having to use real-world circumstances.

A high LPC leader

-Treats his least favorite worker well -Fiedler's Contingency Theory proposed that in terms of a leader's style and the favorableness of a situation, the latter was determined by the degree to which the leader could control and influence their subordinate. Fiedler described a leader's style by his or her scores on his Least Preferred Coworker Scale. A high LPC leader describes their least preferred coworker in positive terms and these leaders are primarily relationship oriented. Note that the question talks about how a leader "treats" their worker rather than how they "describe" the worker.. While these are not exactly the same concepts, the EPPP will take these type of liberties so this is an example of choosing an answer that is in the "ballpark".

The hallmark motor triad of Parkinson's disease includes:

-Tremor, rigidity, and slowness of movement -Parkinson's disease (PD) belongs to a group of conditions called motor system disorders, which are the result of the loss of dopamine-producing brain cells. PD ordinarily affects people over the age of 50 with early symptoms being subtle and occurring gradually. A definitive diagnosis of PD is based on neuropathological findings of Lewy bodies and degeneration and loss of pigmented neurons of the substantia nigra. The hallmark clinical signs of PD are its motor triad: 1) tremor; 2) rigidity; and 3) slowness or absence of movement. While festination, a manner of walking with an involuntary acceleration of gait, as if trying to catch up with one's displaced centre of gravity, is often experienced by individuals with PD, it isn't considered one of the primary motor hallmark signs.

A T score of 70 would be equivalent to:

-a score at about the 98th percentile rank. -Recall that T scores, z scores and percentiles are all norm referenced scores that tell us about a person's relative standing or ranking in a group. These scores can also be compared to one another. The mean of T scores is 50, and the standard deviation is 10. A T score of 70 is two standard deviations above the mean, which corresponds to the 98th percentile rank. A z score of +1 (Response 1), which is one SD above the mean, is equivalent to a T score of 60 and a percentile rank of 84. A raw score (Response 3) is a criterion-referenced score, and gives no indication of the person's relative ranking.

When a worker enjoys the type of work that he does, one would most likely expect to see:

-decreased tardiness and missed days. -The research has shown that there is a moderate negative relationship between satisfaction and absenteeism and turnover (-.40); that is, when satisfaction is high, absenteeism is low. In this question, the worker enjoys his work, or is satisfied with it, therefore, you can expect that he will be absent or late less often. Work quantity and quality (Responses 1 and 2) are measures of work performance. The relationship between satisfaction and performance is weak (.17) and smaller than that between satisfaction and absenteeism and tardiness. Even though a worker who is happy with his job may indeed have good peer relationships (Response 4), improved peer relationships is not the variable most strongly correlated with job satisfaction.

Performance generally:

-decreases in the presence of others if the desired behavior is not well-learned. -Social facilitation can explain the apparently contradictory results between subjects whose performance increases in the presence of others versus those whose performance decreases. The theory is as follows: The presence of others will increase motivation; therefore, if the behavior is well-learned, increased motivation will lead to increased performance. If the behavior is not well-learned, however, the presence of others will lead to heightened arousal, which will interfere with the person's ability to concentrate on the task at hand.

A job evaluation is conducted in order to:

-determine the worth of a job. -A job evaluation is a process for determining the financial worth of a job to an organization. Keep in mind that a job evaluation is different from a performance evaluation (Response 4). Response 1 describes job analysis, a process that analyzes the tasks and operations performed on a job, as well as the training and education needed for the job. Out of a job analysis, one can also devise and validate measures of job performance (Response 3).

According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, job context factors have an effect on:

-dissatisfaction but not satisfaction. -Herzberg's two-factor or motivator-hygiene theory proposes that there are different sources of satisfaction and dissatisfaction in the workplace. He divides needs into upper and lower level needs. Lower level needs, also called hygiene factors or dissatisfiers, relate to job context, such as pay, working conditions, and supervision. They result in dissatisfaction when they are not adequate, but do not produce satisfaction. Upper level needs, called motivators or satisfiers, relate to job content and include needs for achievement, responsibility, and opportunity. It is thought that meeting these needs increases satisfaction and motivation, but failing to meet these needs does not result in dissatisfaction.

Holland's investigative type is least similar to which other one of his types?

-enterprising -Holland's theory categorizes individuals based on their resemblance to six personality types: realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional (you can remember the sequence as "RIASEC"). The personality types reflect a person's primary interest, or an environment's primary characteristic; for example, the investigative type enjoys working alone and solving complex problems; likes dealing with ideas more than people or things and has math or scientific abilities. There is overlap between the types, with some overlapping more than others. For example, the investigative type is more similar to the realistic and artistic (a.), and less similar to the enterprising, conventional (b.) and social (d.) types.

A linear relationship is an assumption of all of the following, except:

-eta -Eta is a correlational coefficient used for non-linear, or curvilinear, relationships. Structural modeling (response "A"), a variety of techniques based on correlations between multiple variables, regression analysis (response "B"), a method used to estimate the value of one variable based on the value of another variable, and Pearson r (response "C"), all assume a linear relationship between variables.

You have an initial therapy consultation with a patient who has Borderline Personality Disorder. You decide you do not want to treat this patient. Your decision is:

-ethical, provided you make a referral to another competent person or agency. -You are not ethically required to treat every patient you meet (Response 1). In fact, if for any reason your personal feelings interfere with your ability to treat a patient, you have an ethical obligation to refer the patient out. It would often be clinically contraindicated to explain to patients the exact reason for the referral (Response 3). As long as a patient is not at immediate risk and you provide appropriate referrals, referring a patient out does not constitute client abandonment (Response 2).

Employee creativity is impacted by personal and contextual characteristics. Creativity is diminished by:

-expecting a critical evaluation of work -Research investigating the impact of personal and contextual characteristics on the creativity of employees indicates increasing the physical distance between workers (a.), providing supportive supervision (d.), and being informed evaluations will be developmental rather than judgmental has a positive effect on employee creativity. The expectation that one's work will be critically evaluated tends to diminish creativity. Of the five personality factors, openness to experience (c.) has been most strongly related to creativity. [See: Shalley, C., Zhou, J., & Oldham, G. (2004). The effects of personal and contextual effects on creativity: Where should we go from here?, Journal of Management, 30(6), 933-958.]

-In conducting an ABAB design, the researcher would be concerned with:

-failure of DV to return to baseline. -An ABAB design is a type of single subject design in which the person is first measured over time during a baseline phase (A), then treatment is implemented and the person is once again measured repeatedly during the intervention phase (B). Treatment is then removed, and the person is measured at baseline again (A). Finally, treatment is implemented again and the person is repeatedly measured (B). ABAB designs offer good control over history and maturation (Response 1). Regression and diffusion (Response 2) are not of concern here. A key problem with an ABAB design is the possibility that the outcome measure may fail to return to baseline once the person has been exposed to the first part of treatment.

A researcher might choose to raise the cutoff to reduce the number of:

-false positives -This question is a bit tricky because it does not specify whether the "cutoff" being referred to is the criterion cutoff or the predictor cutoff. In the real world, the criterion cutoff is often impossible to change (e.g., pregnant/not pregnant, drop out/stay in school). The question therefore is referring to the predictor cutoff. Raising the predictor cutoff means that it is harder to qualify as a "positive." When the number of scores identified as "positive" are reduced, there will be both fewer false positives and fewer true positives. It is very unlikely that the researcher is intending to decrease true positives (Response 3), since true positives are desirable. An example may make things clearer: A test to predict work success uses a predictor cutoff of 75 and is administered to 100 subjects. Fifty subjects get above 75 and are labeled "positives," i.e., they are predicted to be successful in the work place. Of these 50, only 30 are actually evaluated as successful by their supervisors (i.e., the criterion). Thus there are 30 true positives and 20 false positives. If the cutoff were raised to 85, only 25 subjects would be labeled "positives." Of these, perhaps 20 would end up being successful. Thus there would be 20 true positives and 5 false positives. The number of false positives would be reduced by 15.

According to Erik Erikson, adolescents who successfully resolve the identity vs. identity confusion psychosocial conflict will exhibit:

-fidelity -Adolescents who are successful in resolving the identity vs. identity confusion stage conflict, results in the virtue Erikson called "fidelity". Fidelity refers to loyalty, although not blind loyalty, to society's standards. On the other hand, those who are unsuccessful in resolving the identity vs. identity confusion stage experience either the extreme of "fanaticism" or "repudiation." Fanaticism (c.) occurs when the person becomes overzealous in identification to a particular role to the point that he or she is intolerant of others. Repudiation (a.) is the other maladaptive tendency in which the adolescent compensates for a lack of identity by fusing with a group that eagerly provides its members with details of an identity: religious cults, military organizations, or hate groups. The adolescent repudiates his or her membership in the world of adults.

Prenatal alcohol exposure is most likely to adversely affect the fetus during the:

-first trimester -Drinking alcohol anytime during pregnancy can have adverse effects on the fetus. However, alcohol consumption during the first trimester is more likely to cause structural and anatomical defects, characteristic of fetal alcohol syndrome. Consumption during the second and third trimesters is more likely to result in growth restriction and functional impairment. (Health Canada, population and public health branch, Canadian perinatal surveillance system: Alcohol and pregnancy, 1998, retrieved from http://www.hc-sc.gc.ca/hpb/lcdc/brch/factshts/alcprg_e.html).

As opposed to a transactional leader, a transformational leader is more likely to:

-focus on empowering workers through inspiration and charisma. -Transactional leaders are more traditional leaders. They focus on the transactions or social exchanges between supervisor and worker. For example, they reward or punish worker behavior (Response 1). Troubleshooting (Response 2) and allowing autonomy (Response 3) would also be consistent with transactional leaders. Transformational leaders, by contrast, focus on creating a vision, inspiring, and motivating workers.

A company that creates an overall ranking of its employees based on a variety of performance outcome measures and fires the employees in the bottom 10 percent of these rankings is using a(n) ______________ method of employee evaluation.

-forced distribution -In a forced distribution, or forced ranking, system of personnel evaluation, employees are basically ranked against each other. The method requires managers to distribute ratings into pre-specified performance distributions or rankings (e.g., 1 out of 100, top 10%), etc. Regarding the other choices, the forced choice methodology basically involves using a multiple choice scale to evaluate employees on a variety of dimensions; the rater must select one statement from a set (two or more) of statements that best describes the employee. BARS stands for Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales. These are constructed by doing a job analysis to identify critical incidents, or specific behaviors that are associated with good or poor performance. Using such as scale, a rater would choose the behavior most characteristic of the employee being evaluated. Finally, the method the question describes is not illegal as long it is applied fairly, and in fact describes the method of employee evaluation that Jack Welch implemented at GE in the 1980s and has been adopted by many other firms.

A man reports that he is dissatisfied with his low-level job on an assembly line. He says that money is the only reason he is doing his work. According to Herzberg, what would be the best way to increase this person's job motivation?

-give him more responsibility -According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, need satisfiers can be divided into two types: hygiene factors and motivators. The absence of hygiene factors (e.g., money, security) results in dissatisfaction; however, their presence does not lead to satisfaction. By contrast, the presence of motivators (e.g., responsibility, power, self-esteem) results in satisfaction; however, their absence does not lead to dissatisfaction. Therefore, to increase a worker's motivation, one would have to add factors such as responsibility to his or her job. Increased money or security will reduce any dissatisfaction, but will not increase motivation or satisfaction.

Tonic-clonic seizures are associated with:

-grand mal seizures -A tonic-clonic convulsion refers to a seizure in which there is a tonic stage (characterized by continuous tension or contraction) followed by a clonic stage (rapid involuntary alternate muscular contractions and relaxation). Tonic clonic seizures occur during one type of generalized seizure, the grand mal seizures. A second form of generalized seizure is the petit mal seizure, also referred to as absence seizure (Response 1). Petit mal seizures occur most frequently in children. Lasting from 1 to 10 seconds, these seizures begin with a brief change in level of consciousness, followed by blinking or rolling of the eyes, a blank stare, and slight mouth movements. Posture is retained and pre-seizure activity is returned to without difficulty. Partial seizures include the Jacksonian seizure (Response 4), characterized by an initially localized motor seizure, with a spread of abnormal activity to adjacent brain areas, and complex partial seizures (Response 3), which are frequently preceded by an aura, and usually include purposeless behavior (e.g., aimless wandering), lip smacking, and unintelligible speech.

During a court-mandated evaluation, the patient:

-has the right to information about limits of confidentiality. -When an evaluation is court-mandated, the patient must be informed of the lack of confidentiality. Confidentiality (Response 2) is not granted to the patient, and the patient no longer has privilege (Response 1). Evaluations used for purposes of evaluating a plea of not guilty by reason of insanity (Response 4) are only one reason for court-mandated assessment. Court evaluations may address many other issues such as competence to stand trial or diminished capacity.

Most studies of correlates of industrial accidents indicate that the strongest association is with

-human error. -As you can imagine, what people do (or don't do) is the leading cause of industrial accidents. Not paying attention, daydreaming, not fixing the machine correctly, not training properly, etc., all can lead to accidents. It follows that to correct this problem one would want people trained better and one would want an environment in which attention is paid to possible accident-causing conditions.

A 65-year-old college professor is referred for evaluation by his physician. His presenting problem includes difficulties in concentration and attention, as well as forgetfulness. Both he and his wife fear he has Alzheimer's Disease. If he is actually suffering from a pseudodementia, his presentation would most likely include:

-improvements in cognitive abilities and memory after treatment. -Pseudodementia is the term used to describe cognitive impairments that mimic dementia but are actually due to depression. Depressive symptoms, especially in the elderly, frequently resemble mild cognitive dysfunction: slower processing speed, difficulties in concentration and attention, psychomotor retardation, and social withdrawal. If this man is suffering from pseudodementia, one would expect to see improvements in his cognitive abilities and memory after the depression has lifted. With a true dementia, one commonly sees a decline in cognitive abilities over time. An insidious onset and gradual decline are associated with Dementia of the Alzheimer's Type (Response 1). Reversibility of symptoms and clouding of consciousness are symptoms of Delirium (Response 3). Low levels of acetylcholine are associated with Dementia of the Alzheimer's Type and not with pseudodementia (Response 4).

A patient with right hemisphere damage is most likely to respond to jokes with which of the following reactions?

-indifference or exaggerated jocularity -The two hemispheres appear to have different functions in terms of emotions - the left hemisphere governs positive emotions, while the right hemisphere governs negative ones. Consequently, damage to the right hemisphere can produce apathy or undue cheerfulness, which may be reflected in the individual's response to humor.

Of the following, which is designed most explicitly to assist an investigator in deciding how much confidence to put in a particular finding based on data?

-inferential statistics -Inferential statistics are used to make inferences from data in a study to more general conditions. For example, determining the probability that an observed difference between groups is dependable or happened by chance. Most of the major inferential statistics come from a general family of statistical models known as the General Linear Model which includes the t-test, Analysis of Variance (ANOVA), Analysis of Covariance (ANCOVA), regression analysis, and many of the multivariate methods like factor analysis, multidimensional scaling, cluster analysis, and discriminant function analysis. Descriptive statistics (a.) simply to describe what the data is and/or what it shows in a study. Correlation coefficient (c.) is a statistical measure of the interdependence of two or more random variables wherein the value indicates how much of a change in one variable is explained by a change in another. Central tendency is the center or middle of a distribution and three most common measures of central tendency (d.) are the mean, the median, and the mode.

Prior to puberty the incidence of Major Depressive Disorder

-is about equal for boys and girls -The incidence of Major Depressive Disorder in adult females compared to adult males is 2:1. This gender difference becomes evident in mid-adolescence. Prior to puberty the incidence of Major Depressive Disorder is about equal for boys and girls.

Recent research on sex reassignment surgery outcomes, following surgery, indicates gender dysphoria:

-is no longer experienced by a majority of individuals -Studies of individuals who have undergone sex reassignment surgery have found the vast majority no longer expressed gender dysphoria and were psychologically, socially and sexually functioning well following surgery. Smith et al. (2005) found, post-operatively, female-to-male and homosexual transsexuals functioned better in many respects than male-to-female and non-homosexual transsexuals and non-homosexual individuals with greater psychopathology and body dissatisfaction reported the worst post-operative outcomes. (See: Smith, Y.L., Van Goozen, S.H., Kuiper, A.J., Cohen-Kettenis, P.T. (2005). Sex reassignment: Outcomes and predictors of treatment for adolescent and adult transsexuals, Psychological Medicine, 35(1), 89-99. )

Research on differential validity of predictor tests has suggested that it

-is rare -A predictor test has differential validity when it is a valid predictor of outcome for one subgroup of examinees, but invalid or significantly less valid for another group. For example, if a test designed to predict college success predicted the success of whites fairly accurately, but provided little or no predictive information for African-American examinees, the test would have differential validity. Validity generalization studies have suggested that differential validity rarely occurs. Differential validity is not the same as differential prediction, which is a greater concern these days than differential validity. In technical terms, differential prediction means that the regression line (either is slope or its y-intercept) is different for different subgroups. In less technical terms, it means that given scores on a predictor test are associated with different outcomes for different subgroups. In differential prediction, a test can be equally valid for two subgroups, but the actual outcome or criterion scores are different for a given result on the predictor. Research on differential prediction also suggests that it is rare, though not as rare as differential validity, and some research shows that when it does occur, it tends to favor minority groups over majority groups.

Which of the following would be used to determine the probability that examinees of different ability levels are able to answer a particular test item correctly?

-item characteristic curve -Item characteristic curves (ICCs), which are associated with item response theory, are graphs that depict individual test items in terms of the percentage of individuals in different ability groups who answered the item correctly. For example, an ICC for an individual test item might show that 80% of people in the highest ability group, 40% of people in the middle ability group, and 5% of people in the lowest ability group answered the item correctly. Although costly to derive, ICCs provide much information about individual test items, including their difficulty, discriminability, and probability that the item will be guessed correctly.

The patient's right to keep therapy information from being disclosed during a court proceeding is termed:

-legal privilege. -Privilege, or testimonial privilege, is the patient's right to keep confidential communications from being disclosed in a legal proceeding. Confidentiality (Response 1) is a broader legal and ethical term and refers to the patient's right to have communications kept within the bounds of the patient-therapist relationship, not to be revealed to a third party (anyone outside the therapy relationship). Clinical privileging (Response 3) refers to the process through which individuals are credentialed within institutions to provide specific patient care services. The right to privacy (Response 4), found in the U. S. Constitution, is the right that prevents others, especially the government, from interfering with our lives.

On which of the following WAIS-III subtests would you expect an elderly person to evidence the most decline?

-letter number sequencing -The classic aging pattern is that crystallized (school-related) abilities are maintained through old age, while fluid (novel problem-solving) skills peak in adolescence and then decline throughout adulthood. This is reflected by the overall trend on the WAIS-III (as with the WAIS-R): Verbal IQ is maintained across most of the adult life span, while Performance IQ peaks early and then declines rapidly and steadily across the life span. This question was asking specifically about the pattern of decline for Arithmetic, Vocabulary, Letter-Number Sequencing and Digit Span, all verbal subtests on the WAIS-III. Vocabulary (Response B), along with Similarities and Information, loads on the Verbal Comprehension factor. These subtests show the least amount of decline, because they are pure measures of crystallized abilities. Arithmetic, Letter-Number Sequencing, and Digit Span load on the Working Memory Factor. It has been hypothesized that all three Working Memory subtests should show some declines, albeit not as much as any of the performance subtests. The research, however, has indicated that Letter-Number Sequencing declines most rapidly with aging, followed by Digit Span. Contrary to expectations, Arithmetic holds steady with aging.

-The current trend in organizations is toward:

-multidimensional organizational structure and decreasing centralization. -Centralized communication networks (Responses 1 and 2) are like a wheel or a chain, with one person in the middle who gets all the information. In decentralized communication networks, all members communicate with one another. Overall, the management trend is toward more decentralization. There are four common organizational structures: 1) traditional, also known as hierarchical, is the typical bureaucracy; 2) project, is centered on specific products or services; 3) team, is centered on work teams or groups that report to upper level managers; and 4) multidimensional, which involves more than one type of structure (e.g., both traditional and team). Overall, the trend is away from traditional organizational structure and toward broadly sharing authority and decision-making power.

The kappa statistic is used to evaluate reliability when data are:

-nominal or ordinal (discontinuous) -The kappa statistic is used to evaluate inter-rater reliability, or the consistency of ratings assigned by two raters, when data are nominal or ordinal. Interval and ratio data is sometimes referred to by the term metric.

On the MMPI-2, a low K indicates:

-openness -The K scale on the MMPI measures guardedness or defensiveness. Based on the elevation on the K scale, a certain number of points are added to some of the clinical scales to correct for degree of guardedness. A low score on scale K suggests openness, while a high score on scale K indicates guardedness (Response 2). A high score on the F scale, which reflects infrequently endorsed items, could indicate malingering (Response 3) or random responding (Responses 4).

The "temporal lobe personality" is characterized by:

-paranoia and argumentativeness -The term "temporal lobe personality" refers to a pattern of personality disturbances seen in people with lesions to the temporal lobe. Signs include an emphasis on trivial aspects of daily life, pedantic speech, perseveration of speech, paranoia, preoccupation with theological or philosophical issues, argumentativeness, and occasional aggressive outbursts. Temporal lobe lesions can be caused by a number of conditions such as stroke, brain tumors, or head trauma; in addition, signs of this personality syndrome are sometimes present in patients with temporal lobe epilepsy.

Research on group performance has examined the effects of the heterogeneity of group members in terms of personality, gender, experience, and so on. Overall, these studies have found that heterogeneity is

-positively related to creativity and decision-making effectiveness. -Most of the research on group heterogeneity has focused on its impact on creativity and problem-solving and has found it to have beneficial effects on both.

._________________ is used to study the cognitive processes that occur during the performance of tasks or solution of problems.

-protocol analysis -Protocol analysis, or the "think aloud" technique, is the only technique listed that is useful for obtaining information on cognitive processes. Protocol analysis assumes that subjects instructed to verbalize their thoughts in a manner that doesn't alter the sequence of thoughts mediating the completion of a task, can think-aloud without any systematic changes to their thought process and can therefore be accepted as valid data on thinking. A functional analysis (b.) is used to identify the functions of a behavior - i.e., the antecedents and consequences that maintain the behavior. Both sampling responses are behavioral observation techniques with event sampling (c.) useful when a behavior of interest occurs infrequently and situation sampling (d.) when observing a behavior in a variety of situations.

The most persistent adverse effect of ECT on memory is

-retrograde amnesia -Shortly after ECT, most patients have gaps in their memory for events that occurred close in time to the course of ECT, but the amnesia may extend back several months or years. Retrograde amnesia usually improves during the first few months after ECT

Disinhibition, indifference, and jocularity are most likely caused by damage to the:

-right frontal lobe -Disinhibition/impulsiveness, happy indifference, and jocularity frequently result from damage to the right frontal lobe. Damage to the left frontal lobe (B) most often results in reduced speech, depression, and apathy.

-Indifference and apathy are the likely consequences of lesions in the:

-right hemisphere of the cerebral cortex. -Indifference and apathy are the likely consequences of lesions in certain areas in the right hemisphere of the cerebral cortex. Lesions or damage to the thalamus, hippocampus or prefrontal cortex (a.) have been linked to memory loss. Damage to the dominant temporal lobe (b.), including the Wernicke's area, causes receptive aphasia. The hypothalamus is associated with regulating the release of hormones from the pituitary and other endocrine glands, maintaining the body's homeostasis, and mediating aggressive responses. In particular, lesions in the medial hypothalamus (d.) have been associated with outbursts of rage and aggressive behavior (See: Swaab, D.F. (2003). The human hypothalamus: Basic and human aspects, Elsevier Health Sciences, Amsterdam.)

-Since you put in a tremendous amount of work, you decide to publish your dissertation as a journal article. You remember that your chairperson was a significant source of both moral and practical support, helping you with the data analysis, the literature review, and the summary of results. According to the Ethics Code, your chair should receive:

-second authorship. -Keep in mind when a dissertation is later published as a research article, the graduate student should almost always get first authorship (Response 1). The question here addresses how the chairperson should be recognized, and given the significance of the contributions, the chair warrants a second authorship. Minor contributions to research should be acknowledged in a footnote or introductory statement (Responses 3 and 4).

Studies investigating the social cognition correlates of aggression in children suggest that the cognitive biases of these children tend to create a

-self-fulfilling prophecy effect. -Research by N. R. Crick and K. A. Dodge (A review and reformulation of social information-processing mechanisms in children's social adjustment, Psychological Bulletin, 1994, 115,74-101), for example, found that aggressive children often misinterpret the ambiguous or prosocial behaviors of peers as hostile in intent and respond in aggressive ways. The peers then respond negatively, thereby, creating a self-fulfilling prophecy effect.

Krumbholtz's Social Learning Theory of career development and decision-making emphasizes

-self-observation and world-view generalizations -Krumbholtz's social learning theory views learned experiences as the most important factors in career choice and preference, though it does acknowledge the role of other factors such as innate abilities and environmental events. According to the theory, generalizations about one's self and the world, called self-observation generalizations and world-view generalizations respectively, play a direct role in career choice. For example, the self-observation generalization that one is very good at logical reasoning, and the world-view generalization that jobs in computer programming will pay more than other jobs in the future might lead one to pursue a career in computer programming. Regarding the other choices, lifespan developmental stage is correlated to career behavior in Donald Super's theory of vocational choice, and John Holland developed a personality typology which links career choice and personality type. Outcome expectations could certainly be an example of a self-observation and world-view generalization, but the first choice is better because it names specific theoretical constructs associated with Krumbholtz's theory.

Excessive variability in a behavior over time can make it difficult to obtain accurate information about the effects of an intervention on that behavior. Such variability poses the biggest threat for which of the following research designs?

-single-subject -In a single-subject research design, the target behavior is measured at regular intervals throughout the baseline and treatment phases. If the behavior changes often in strength, intensity, or frequency, it would be difficult to obtain a clear baseline reading or to determine if the intervention is having the desired effect.

The concept that individuals will work harder when alone than when in a group is called:

-social loafing -The question describes social loafing. The theory of social facilitation suggests the mere presence of others facilitates (enhances) performance. More specifically, if the dominant response is the right one, then the presence of others will enhance performance and when the dominant response is incorrect, the presence of others results in social inhibition.

An important decision when utilizing the multiple hurdles approach in personnel selection is:

-Which order to administer the predictors. -Multiple hurdles approach requires applicants to score above a specific level or pass several measures one at a time. The usefulness of the multiple hurdles technique is maximized by administering the predictors in a logical order (e.g., from least to most difficult or least to most expensive).

The statement, "We feel sorry because we cry, angry because we strike, afraid because we tremble" is associated with:

-William James. -This statement was made by William James in 1890, and is the underlying premise of the James-Lange theory of emotion. According to this theory, a person perceives an event (sees a bear), the body reacts (the person runs away), and then the person interprets the bodily changes as a specific emotion (so I must be afraid). By contrast, the Cannon-Bard Theory (Response 2) proposes that during perception of an emotion-provoking stimulus (seeing a bear), the thalamus sends simultaneous signals to the body (allowing the person to run) and the cortex (producing the emotion of fear). Therefore, the body's response is not a necessary or even a major factor in emotion. Schacter's two-factor theory of emotion (Response 3) attributes emotion to two factors: physical arousal and a cognitive labeling of the arousal. He proposes that people look to external rather than internal cues to differentiate and label emotions. For example, if someone cries at a wedding, he interprets the emotion as joy; if the same person cries at a funeral, he interprets the emotion as sadness. Maslow (Response 4) did not develop a theory of emotions.

Which of the following is true about work samples as a selection technique?

-Work samples of verbal skills have less validity than work samples of motor skills -Work samples provide standardized, job-like conditions to measure work behavior. They are used as a selection technique, as an indicator of individuals likely to benefit from training, and as a means of reducing turnover through a job preview. Research indicates that work samples are generally good predictors of job performance; however, work samples of motor skills have more validity than work samples of verbal skills. Additionally, work samples are less likely to discriminate against individuals from different groups and are acceptable to applicants.

-The ability to hold onto small amounts of information while performing various cognitive tasks is a function of:

-Working memory, a form of short-term memory, is involved with the temporary storage of information in the context of performing a goal-directed task. The digits backward portion of the Digit Span subtest of the WAIS-III requires working memory. Explicit memory (Response 1), also known as declarative memory, involves conscious recollection of information or knowledge. Implicit memory (Response 2), or procedural memory, describes the recollection of skills and physical operations that can be remembered without conscious effort. Episodic memory (Response 4) refers to the capacity to recall autobiographical events.

All of the following statements about comorbidity of mental disorders in adulthood are true except:

1. comorbidity helps to account for high prevalence rates of many mental disorders. • 2. comorbidity may result from the fact that one disorder develops as a complication of another. • 3. Mood Disorders, Anxiety Disorders, and Schizophrenia are frequently comorbid with Alcohol Abuse or Dependence. • 4. disorders that are comorbid have distinct etiologies, pathogenetic mechanisms, and outcomes. Feedback: Comorbid disorders do not necessarily have distinct etiologies, pathogenetic mechanisms, or outcomes. All of the other statements are true.

All of the following statements are true except:

1. validity refers to the extent to which a test is measuring what it was intended to measure. 2. reliability is the extent to which results can be reproduced. 3. reliability does not necessarily limit validity. 4. reliability does not necessarily ensure validity. Feedback: The statement that is incorrect is "reliability does not necessarily limit validity." Reliability does set a ceiling on validity, such that a test that is unreliable can never be valid. However, a test can be perfectly reliable and have no validity whatsoever, so that having reliability doesn't ensure validity (Response 4). Response 1 is an accurate definition of validity, and Response 2 is an accurate definition of reliability

How long must data be held onto for?

3 years at a minimum. Some universities require 5.

The APA's Record Keeping Guidelines (2007) suggest complete records be retained for

7 Years

Behavioral assessments are useful for determining behavioral:

A behavioral assessment identifies "contingencies," which is a term for the antecedents of and consequences that maintain the behavior one is planning to alter. While a behavioral assessment may be undertaken to determine the best behavioral treatment, it may also be done for research purposes with no goal of offering treatment, or to see if a previous treatment was effective. Behavioral contingencies is more inclusive than consequences (response "B") or interventions (response "D"), and therefore the correct answer

What is the difference between point Biserial and Biserial correlation?

A point-biserial and biserial correlation is used to correlate a dichotomy with an interval scaled variable. The difference is that the point-biserial correlation is used when the dichotomous variable is a true or discrete dichotomy and the biserial correlation is used with an artificial dichotomy. Dichotomous variables can be either a discrete/true dichotomy or a continuous/artificial one. Examples of discrete dichotomies are male vs female, dead vs alive. There is no underlying continuum between the groups. Continuous or artificial dichotomies are those which we assume there to be an underlying continuum but we assign individuals to a category based on some arbitrary criterion. Examples of this artificial dichotomy are pass vs fail (based on some cutoff score on a test) or short vs tall (based on some arbitrary height). A point-biserial and biserial correlation is used to correlate a dichotomy with an interval scaled variable. The difference is that the point-biserial correlation is used when the dichotomous variable is a true or discrete dichotomy and the biserial correlation is used with an artificial dichotomy.

A member of which of the following groups is most likely to be admitted to an inpatient mental health facility?

A) never married men B) divorced/separated men C) married men D) never married women The Correct Answer is "A" Of the groups listed, never married men have the highest rates of admission to inpatient mental health facilities regardless of the type of facility (state/county versus private). The other groups listed have similar rates; but, if you have to choose the group with the lowest rate, the best answer is never married women (answer D).

Treatment interventions for enuresis include the bell and pad approach and the use of the tricyclic antidepressant Tofranil (imipramine). Currently:

-the bell and pad is preferred because there is a higher rate of relapse associated with Tofranil (imipramine). -While Tofranil (imipramine) may bring about successful resolution of the problem more quickly than the bell and pad method, there are also higher relapse rates associated with it. The enuretic child who takes Tofranil (imipramine) does not learn any behavioral control over the problem, and thus, when treatment is terminated, the problem commonly comes back. By contrast, the bell and pad method involves active learning (through operant conditioning), and is associated with lower rates of relapse. Taking a pill is actually much easier than the bell and pad technique (ruling out Response 1). The concern with Tofranil (imipramine) is not for its adverse side effects (Response 3). In fact, the reason for taking Tofranil (imipramine) is because of its anticholinergic side effects that include urinary retention.

Common biases that reduce rater accuracy when assessing job performance include

-the leniency and strictness biases. -Rater biases include the strictness, leniency, central tendency, and halo biases. The other phenomenons listed in the responses are problems in other areas than performance ratings.

A patient's score on scale F of the MMPI-2 is not elevated. This suggests that:

-the patient is not endorsing many infrequently endorsed items. -The F scale on the MMPI-2 is one of three validity scales. It is comprised of items that are infrequently endorsed. When it is elevated, it is indicative of emotional turmoil, potential malingering (Response 3), mental confusion, or a cry for help. The K scale measures defensiveness. A low score on the validity scale K would indicate that the patient is not responding in a defensive manner (Response 1). A high K indicates guardedness (Response 4).

A political columnist notes that female candidates for office who sharply criticize their opponents are often criticized for being aggressive and mean whereas male candidates who do the same are often praised for their honesty and courage. This observation, if true to at least some degree, reflects

-the prescriptive aspect of gender stereotypes -In the literature on gender stereotypes, a distinction is often made between the descriptive and prescriptive aspects of gender stereotypes. Descriptive stereotypes are those that involve generalizations about what women are; prescriptive stereotypes involve generalizations about what women should be. A criticism of a woman for engaging in the exact same behavior as a man for the exact same purpose is a prescriptive stereotype, because it implies that the woman should be acting differently just because she is a woman.

The tendency to make dispositional attributions to an entire group of people is referred to as:

-ultimate attribution error -The ultimate attribution error refers to attributional biases that occur at the group level. The tendency to assume that whole groups of people have similar dispositions may be based on stereotypes or limited evidence and occur to protect a group in which one belongs. Self-serving bias (a.) is the tendency to take credit for our successes and to blame situational factors for our failures. Fundamental attribution error (b.) is the tendency to explain others' behavior in terms of internal disposition, (e.g., personality traits, abilities, motives, etc.) as opposed to external situational factors. This bias occurs when situational factors are underestimated and dispositional factors are overestimated in understanding the behavior of others. The actor-observer effect (d.) is the tendency to overestimate situational factors and underestimate dispositional factors regarding one's own behaviors and to underestimate situational factors and overestimate dispositional factors in others.

If a left hemisphere language dominant split-brain patient views something in her left visual field she will be:

-unable to say what she saw but able to point to it with her left hand -If something is viewed in the right visual field, information about what is seen travels to the left hemisphere and, if asked what was seen, the patient has no problem identifying or naming it. In this question however, something was seen in the left visual field so the information would end up in the right hemisphere. If the patient is asked what she saw she won't be able to say, as the information is received in the right hemisphere, but she will be able to point to or pick out what was seen with her left hand because touch information from the left hand crosses over to the right hemisphere. Note that even after pointing out what was seen and if it is in the person's hand, the person will still not be able to say what it is because the right hemisphere typically cannot verbalize or "talk."

A person with agnosia is unable to identify a familiar object by sight but does identify it when it is placed in her hand. This is most likely due to

-visual "not knowing." -The type of visual agnosia described in this question is referred to as apperceptive agnosia and involves an inability to recognize familiar objects, especially in low-light conditions, when there are many shadows, when objects overlap, etc.

The right hemisphere plays an important role in:

-visuospatial neglect -The right hemisphere is involved with perceptual, visuospatial, artistic, musical, and intuitive activities. The left hemisphere is involved with language (Response 1), as well as with being rational, analytical, logical (Response 2), and abstract (Response 3).

Alzheimer's disease

a progressive and irreversible brain disorder characterized by gradual deterioration of memory, reasoning, language, and, finally, physical functioning. Dementia is a general term for a decline in mental ability severe enough to interfere with daily life. Alzheimer's is the most common cause of dementia. Alzheimer's is a specific disease. Dementia is not.

Second authorship on a paper would be least appropriate in which of the following situations?

(A) The person performed data analysis and interpretation. (B) The person contributed to the development of the underlying concepts and structure of the project. (C) The person was involved in data collection. (D) The person was involved in developing the design of the study and selecting subjects. C is correct -- Of all the choices, data collection is the least significant contribution, e.g., a person could hire someone to hand out questionnaires to subjects as a means of gathering data. Developing the underlying concepts (Response B) and the design of the study (Response D), as well as data analysis and interpretation (Response A), are much more significant contributions, that could warrant second authorship.

A baby whose mother used cocaine during pregnancy will most likely:

-Be difficult to comfort when upset -Exposure to cocaine during prenatal development often causes oversensitivity to stimulation, excessive irritability, and retarded growth. These babies are easily agitated and difficult to soothe.

According to the APA's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct (2002), psychologists who seek to practice in forensic settings must:

-Become reasonably familiar with the judicial rules governing their roles. -Although Response 4 sounds plausible, it's too vague. Response 3 directly states the relevant provision of APA's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct (2002): psychologists who participate in forensic activities should ensure that they are "reasonably familiar with the judicial or administrative rules governing their roles." There is no requirement to complete a training program in forensic psychology (Response 1). To act as an expert witness in a court proceeding, a psychologist must be recognized by the court as an expert witness (Response 2).

A test measuring verbal fluency is administered to 250 college students, and a split-half reliability coefficient is obtained. If the same test instead had been administered to 250 students aged 12-21, the obtained reliability coefficient probably would have

-Been higher. -One factor that affects any correlation coefficient, including a reliability coefficient, is the range of scores. If the range of scores is restricted on either or both sets of scores, the correlation coefficient will be lowered. The two sets of scores involved in a split-half reliability coefficient are scores obtained by the same group of individuals on two different halves on the test. Originally, the test was administered to only college students. In the second scenario, the test was administered to a broader range of students.

Several members of a homeowners association are talking at a party when a few express their frustration about new rules and the association's new supervisor. By the end of the party, all the group members agree that the supervisor is difficult and unqualified. This is an example of:

-Group polarization -Group polarization is the tendency of individuals who start off with similar views to end up with a more extreme position after group discussion. Negative framing (a.) refers to presenting a problem in negative terms. Social loafing (b.) refers to decreased individual productivity that occurs when the size of the work group increases. Social facilitation (d.) refers to improved performance on tasks due to the presence of other people.

An educational psychologist has data on 12 different variables collected from students in the graduating high school class of the preceding year, including high school GPA, SAT scores, teacher ratings, and various tests of motivation and personality. She is interested in using these measures to predict success in college. In this instance, the psychologist would use stepwise multiple regression in order to:

-Determine the optimal set of measures to use. -Stepwise multiple regression is a variation of multiple regression. In multiple regression, one develops an equation that uses two or more predictor variables to predict scores on a criterion (outcome) variable. Stepwise multiple regression involves starting with a large set of predictors and reducing them to a smaller set that provides significant predictive value without providing overlapping information. Specifically, the goal is to get predictors that have high enough correlations with the criterion and low enough correlations with each to be included. If predictors have high correlations with each other, they are basically providing overlapping information and there is no point in including them. The two variations of this technique are forward stepwise multiple regression and backwards stepwise multiple regression. In forward stepwise multiple regression, you choose the predictor with the highest correlation with the criterion, you add one predictor at a time, and then run a significance test to see if the added predictor significantly increases the combined predictive value of the overall equation. The process stops when an added predictor fails to significantly increase predictive value. In backwards stepwise regression, you start with all predictors, and remove predictors, starting with the one that is least correlated with the criterion. This process ends when removal of a predictor causes a significant decrease in the ability of the equation to predict values on the criterion.

A set of past graduate students is divided into two groups by a doctorate admissions committee. One group consists of students who finished the program in five years or less, the other consists of those who did not. Based on undergraduate grade point average and GRE score, which of the following could be used to predict successful completion of the graduate program?

-Discriminant function analysis -Discriminant function analysis (DA) is used to determine which continuous variables discriminate between two or more naturally occurring groups, or provide insights into how each predictor (e.g., grades, GRE score) individually and/or in combination predicted completion or non-completion of a graduate program. In DA, the independent variables are the predictors and the dependent variables are the groups. In contrast, in MANOVA, the independent variables are the groups and the dependent variables are the predictors. A multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA) (a.) is used to analyze the effects of one or more independent variables on two or more dependent variables that are each measured on an interval or ratio scale. Structural equation modeling (b.) is a technique used to evaluate or confirm the cause-and-effect or hypothesized relationship between both measured and latent variables. Cluster analysis (d.) is a method for grouping objects of similar kind into respective categories. It can be used to discover structures in data without providing an explanation/interpretation.

When is the impact of poor nutrition most detrimental?

-During the perinatal period. -Malnutrition is most detrimental while the fetus is still in utero, at a time when significant physical growth and brain development is taking place. The perinatal period (Response D) refers to the period from about three months before birth (when the fetus is about one pound) to one month after birth. While poor nutrition certainly is detrimental across the lifespan, it is most detrimental prior to birth

The motivation theory that proposes a continuum of needs that is comparable to Maslow's Need Hierarchy Theory but attempts to overcome shortcomings of Maslow's theory is

-ERG theory. -The ERG theory of motivation proposes three categories of needs: existence, relatedness, and growth needs. Existence needs are material and are met by environmental factors such as (in the workplace) pay and benefits. Relatedness needs are met by relationships with superiors, co-workers, and subordinates. Growth needs are met by opportunities for personal development such as the chance to develop abilities that are important to the person. These three categories exist on a continuum from concrete to abstract; existence needs are the most concrete and relatedness needs are the most abstract. The theory is similar to Maslow's Need Hierarchy Theory in that it proposes a continuum of needs, but differs in a number of ways as well. For instance, in ERG theory, a person can move back and forth on the needs continuum. Specifically, according to ERG theory, difficulties in satisfying the more abstract needs causes frustration regression, or a greater focus on fulfilling needs on the next level below.

Research on constructive memory has linked false recollection to lesions in the:

-Frontal Lobes -Instead of a literal recollection of past events, the current view of memory is that it is a constructive process - vulnerable to distortions, errors, and factors limiting the accuracy of memories. Neuropsychological research has most consistently identified lesions in the frontal lobes, especially the prefrontal cortex, with false recollections. (See, e.g., D. L. Schachter and S. D. Slotnik, The cognitive neuroscience of memory distortion, Neuron, 2004, 44, 149-160.)

Research utilizing functional brain imaging techniques has shown a biological basis for Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) and has linked it to abnormalities in the following brain structures:

-Frontal lobe, striatum, and cerebellum -Recent research has established a biological basis for Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) with abnormalities in the right frontal lobe, striatum, and cerebellum most consistently implicated in this disorder. Other areas of the brain, including certain regions of the parietal lobe, have been linked to ADHD to a lesser extent. Using the core symptoms of ADHD and functions of the major brain structures, you may have determined the frontal lobes (mediates higher-order functions), the striatum (part of the basal ganglia and composed of the caudate nucleus and the putamen) and cerebellum (involved in motor activity) are the areas linked to this disorder. (See: J. Giedd et al., Brain imaging of attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder, Annals of New York Academy of Sciences, 2001, 931, 33-49. )

By the age of 6, which of the following are established?

-Gender constancy, identity and stability. -Kohlberg's cognitive-developmental theory of gender concept development, grounded in Piagetian theory, asserts that children gradually progress through three stages. Gender identity, usually gained by age three, is the ability to correctly label own gender and identify others as boys/men and girls/women. Gender stability - knowledge, usually gained by age four years, that reflects an understanding that one's gender remains the same throughout life. Gender constancy: realization, around age 5, 6 or 7 years, that one's gender stays the same even with alterations in appearance, behaviors, or desires.

With regard to research design, the term external validity refers to:

-Generalizability -External validity refers to the ability to generalize findings beyond the specifics (e.g., time, setting, and subjects) of a research study. Internal validity is the extent the changes in the dependent variable are believed to be caused by the independent variable. Both types of validity are research design considerations.

Which of the following is NOT generally considered a direct threat to external validity?

-History -Distinguishing between internal and external threats to validity can be difficult. Indeed, some experts disagree on how to categorize some of them. However, all of the choices except history are generally considered to be threats to external validity. Order effects (A) (also known as carryover effects) occurs in repeated measures designs, or in studies in which the same subjects are exposed to more than one treatment. For example, in a study on the effects of marital therapy interventions, couples are given relaxation training followed by communication training. If significant improvement occurs, it may be due to relaxation training preceding communication training; therefore, the results could not be generalized to situations in which subjects only receive communication training. The Hawthorne effect (B) occurs when subjects behave differently due to the fact that they are participating in research. Obviously this threatens external validity since the results cannot be generalized to real-life situations in which people are not participating in research. Interaction between selection and treatment (C) refers to when a treatment has different effects depending on the selection of subjects. For example, studies that only use undergraduate students (as many studies do) might not generalize to non-undergraduate students. Finally, history (D) refers to an external event, other than the experimental treatment, that affects scores on the DV. This is primarily considered a threat to internal validity. For example, if a study on the effects of a new treatment for depression began several weeks before the events on "9-11" and concluded several weeks after "9-11," the results might indicate that the new treatment is not effective. However, this might not be a valid conclusion due to the effects of history.

The major threat to internal validity of a time-series quasi-experiment would be

-History -To get this correct (except if you got it correct by chance), you'd need to know what a time-series design is. Basically, you take a number of measurements over time to get a longitudinal baseline trend, then somewhere along the line you introduce your experimental manipulation. If, following the manipulation, you see the trend change, you can infer that your intervention caused the change. But a major threat to the internal validity of this design is a historical event which could co-occur with your experimental manipulation. You'd have no control over these events and they could be a rival explanation for changes in your measurements.

According to Erikson, successful negotiation of the psychosocial stage of trust versus mistrust, will result in which of the following strengths?

-Hope -According to Erikson's model of the life cycle, there are eight psychosocial crises or developmental tasks that we each face. These tasks extend into old age. He proposed that successful negotiation of each task results in specific strengths. Hope (Response 1) is associated with trust versus mistrust (first year of life). Love (Response 2) is the strength associated with intimacy versus isolation (ages 18 - 35). Competence (Response 3) is associated with industry versus inferiority (ages 6 - 12), and wisdom (Response 4) is the strength associated with integrity versus despair (age 60+).

Reactive Attachment Disorder, Inhibited Type involves:

-Hypervigilance -Reactive Attachment Disorder occurs in children below the age of 5 and is characterized by disturbed social relatedness. There are two subtypes: inhibited and disinhibited type. This question is about the former, which involves inhibition, hypervigilance, and ambivalent responses in social situations. The other subtype, disinhibited type, involves indiscriminate attachments and sociability (e.g., familiarity with strangers, lack of selectivity in choice of attachment figures). In both subtypes, evidence of pathogenic care (e.g., disregard for the child's basic physical or emotional needs) must be present before the diagnosis can be made.

A needs assessment is usually conducted to:

-Identify the needs of an organization -A needs assessment involves identifying the needs of the organization. A needs assessment is often conducted to determine which employees need training and what should be included in that training. Choice B describes the purpose of a job analysis, which is to describe the requirements of a job. And choice C describes the purpose of a job evaluation, which is to determine the salary levels of jobs.

Which of the following of Kohlberg's stages of moral development is in the correct order?

-Instrumental hedonistic orientation, social relations orientation, social contract and individual rights orientation, universal ethical principles orientation

A measure of relative strength of a score within an individual is referred to as a(n):

-Ipsative score -Ipsative scores report an examinee's scores using the examinee him or herself as a frame of reference. They indicate the relative strength of a score within an individual but, unlike normative measures, do not provide the absolute strength of a domain relative to a normative group. Examples of ipsative scores are the results of a forced choice measure.

Which of the following statements is true regarding concurrent validity?

-It is used to establish criterion-related validity. -It is obtained by collecting predictor and criterion scores at about the same time. -It indicates the extent to which a test yields the same results as other measures of the same phenomenon. -There are two ways to establish the criterion-related validity of a test: concurrent validation and predictive validation. In concurrent validation, predictor and criterion scores are collected at about the same time; by contrast, in predictive validation, predictor scores are collected first and criterion data are collected at some future point. Concurrent validity indicates the extent to which a test yields the same results as other measures of the same phenomenon. For example, if you developed a new test for depression, you might administer it along with the BDI and measure the concurrent validity of the two tests.

Which of the following statements best addresses the ethical issues involved when a psychologist who is treating an incarcerated individual as a psychotherapy patient makes recommendations regarding parole?

-It is usually considered ethically acceptable for psychologists to make parole recommendations for incarcerated psychotherapy patients -Most correctional psychologists are in the position of being both a therapist and an evaluator for parole and release. Ethical guidelines for correctional psychologists encourage sensitivity to the ethical pitfalls inherent in this dual relationship (Response 1), but it is definitely permitted. One ethical concern is that the patient may not be completely honest as a therapy patient if he or she knows that the therapist will be making parole recommendations. Another concern is that informed consent may not be given in a truly free manner but may be somewhat forced (Response 2); after all, the patient may recognize that if he or she does not cooperate with treatment, the therapist may not recommend parole. Many psychologists and researchers contend that reliable and valid assessments of dangerousness can be made (Response 4). If limitations are properly noted, competent assessments of dangerousness are certainly ethical.

Which of the following is true regarding Sleep Terror Disorder in children?

-It usually begins between 4 and 12 years and resolves spontaneously during adolescence -According to DSM-IV-TR, Sleep Terror Disorder is characterized by "the repeated occurrence of sleep terrors, that is, abrupt awakenings from sleep usually beginning with a panicky scream or cry." It usually begins between 4 and 12 years and resolves spontaneously during adolescence. The frequency of episodes varies over time. Among children it is somewhat more common in males than in females.

The statement "I'm afraid because I run" would be supported by the theory of:

-James and Lange -Historically, two competing theories of emotion have been the Cannon and Bard theory and the James and Lange theory. Cannon and Bard (A) proposed that emotions and thoughts occur more or less simultaneously. William James in America and Lange in Europe had a different idea. They contended that we first observe our behavior and then we make an attribution of that behavior in terms of some emotion. Therefore, the notion that if we observe ourselves running we must have felt afraid is most consistent with the James and Lange theory. Yerkes and Dodson (C) are known for identifying the inverted "U" relationship between arousal and performance. Miller and Dollard (D) are known for a few theories including the frustration-aggression hypothesis, which proposed that frustration always precedes aggression.

According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, an employee who is happy with which of the following job elements will most likely be satisfied with her job?

-Job content -Herzberg's two-factor theory divides job elements into two types: hygiene factors and motivators. Hygiene factors result in job dissatisfaction when absent, but do not lead to job satisfaction when present. Motivators result in job satisfaction when present, but do not lead to dissatisfaction when absent. Of the choices listed, only job content is a motivator. According to the theory, motivators are intrinsic to the work (i.e., they have to do with the job itself), while hygiene factors are extrinsic to the work. The other three choices are not directly related to the job itself and are classified by Herzberg as hygiene factors.

During a neurological examination, a patient exhibits the following difficulties: when told to lift objects with her left hand, she repeatedly picks them up with her right hand; when told to touch her nose, she exhibits great difficulty in doing so. These symptoms are most suggestive of a lesion in the:

-Parietal Lobe -This patient is presenting with left-right confusion (picking up paper with the wrong hand) and problems with proprioception (an inability to touch her nose). These are symptoms of parietal lobe damage. Damage to the frontal lobe (Response 1) may result in disturbances in personality, planning and initiative, abstract thinking, judgment and higher mental functions. Damage to the temporal lobe (Response 2) may result in problems with hearing, memory, emotional behavior, or receptive speech. Damage to the occipital lobe (Response 4) might cause visual impairment.

Transactional leaders who wait for mistakes to be brought to their attention before taking corrective action are engaging in:

-Passive management-by-exception -Transactional leadership, in its simplest form, is leadership by contingent reinforcement. The leaders' rewards, promises and/or threats of disciplinary actions or punishments motivate the followers. In constructive transactions, the leader may participate in discussing what is to be done in exchange for implicit or explicit rewards and the allocation of desired resources, or they give out assignments, negotiate or contract with followers. The actions of the leader are contingent on whether the followers do what they have been "contracted" to do. Leaders that take corrective action with negative feedback or reprimand only after followers' mistakes have been called to their attention are engaging in passive management-by-exception. In corrective transactions (a.) or contingent rewarding (b.), leaders engage in active management-by-exception (d.) which means they monitor followers' performance and correct their mistakes if and when they occur.

An actress portrays a philanthropist in a TV series. In each show, she performs an act of kindness toward a downtrodden individual or group. The actress receives a great deal of mail from fans who tell her what a fantastic person she is because she is so willing to share her time and wealth with others who are in need. The response of the actress's fans illustrates which of the following.

-The fundamental attribution bias (error) -This refers to the tendency of people to overestimate the contribution of dispositional factors to an actor's behavior. In the situation described in the question, the actress's fans attribute her good deeds to her rather than to the role she plays in the TV series.

Which of the following is one of the first signs of AIDS-related dementia?

-Mild memory loss for recent events -AIDS dementia complex occurs in about 2/3 of all AIDS patients. Usually, one of the first cognitive signs of dementia (both in AIDS and non-AIDS patients) is a loss of concentration and a mild memory loss, especially for recent events.

The Drugs-R-Us company wants to compare the effectiveness of 3 new antidepressant medications. Patients with depression are randomly assigned to one of the three medications and depressive symptoms are measured at weeks 1, 6, and 12. Which type of research design would be most appropriate for this study?

-Mixed -A mixed research design has at least one between-subjects independent variable and at least one repeated measures variable (or within-subjects variable). Since this study is comparing the effects on three different groups of subjects (i.e., a between-subjects variable) combined with the use of a repeated measures (within-subjects) variable, it would be considered a mixed design. An ABAB design is a type of reversal design, in which a baseline measure of a behavior is obtained (the "A" phase), the behavior is again measured after a treatment is administered (the "B" phase), the treatment is removed or reversed and the behavior is measured again (the second "A"), and the treatment is then re-applied (the second "B") and a final behavior measure is taken.

Kohlberg's view of the relationship between moral judgment and moral action is best described by which of the following?

-Moral judgment and moral action have the strongest relationship during the higher stages of moral development. -Kohlberg's theory of moral development focuses on moral judgment and distinguishes judgment from moral action. Kohlberg proposes the higher the moral reasoning, the more likely moral action is and the greater the consistency is between moral judgment and action because the higher stages increasingly employ more stable and general principles.

When several individuals are to be compared by a supervisor in a work setting, paired comparisons, as compared to order of merit comparisons, are

-More precise but more difficult. -When using the paired comparison technique, a rater compares each person with every other person. It's specific but time-consuming, as you can see. The order of merit comparisons has the rater rank order the people in terms of some criterion, such as overall job performance. You can see that it wouldn't take as long as paired comparisons, but wouldn't be as precise either.

Regarding the negative effects of divorce, research has shown that:

-Most children and adolescents tend not to suffer long-lasting negative effects. -Research into the impact of divorce indicates that initial recovery may take children from three to five years. Ultimately, about 2/3 of these children do not suffer long-lasting negative effects. Negative effects are more likely to occur if the parents argue openly in front of the children (Response 3). The short-term and long-term effects differ depending on the age of the children at the time of the divorce. Younger children initially demonstrate poorer adjustment than adolescents, however, children who are older at the time of divorce appear to have more significant problems later in life (Responses 1 & 2).

Incremental validity

-The increase in correct decisions that can be expected in predictor used as a decision-making tool -If predictor scores lowered (moved to left), number of positive would increase and negatives would decrease -If predictor scores increased (moved right), number of positive would decrease and number of negatives would increase.

The item difficulty ("p") index yields information about the difficulty of test items in terms of a(n) _________ scale of measurement.

-Ordinal -An item difficulty index indicates the percentage of individuals who answer a particular item correctly. For example, if an item has a difficulty index of .80, it means that 80% of test-takers answered the item correctly. Although it appears that the item difficulty index is a ratio scale of measurement, according to Anastasi (1982) it is actually an ordinal scale because it does not necessarily indicate equivalent differences in difficulty.

Which of the following is most likely to occur as a result of a lesion in the medial hypothalamus?

-Outbursts of aggressive behavior -The hypothalamus is associated with regulating the release of hormones from the pituitary and other endocrine glands, maintaining the body's homeostasis, and mediating aggressive responses. In particular, lesions in the medial hypothalamus have been associated with outbursts of rage and aggressive behavior. Indifference and apathy (b.) are the likely consequences of lesions in certain areas in the right hemisphere of the cerebral cortex. Damage to the dominant temporal lobe, including the Wernicke's area, causes receptive aphasia (c.). Lesions or damage to the thalamus, hippocampus or prefrontal cortex have been linked to memory loss (d.).

Compared to the Stanford-Binet, the WAIS-III tends to:

-Overestimate the IQ scores of lower functioning individuals and underestimate the IQ scores of higher functioning individuals. -The easiest way to deal with this question and other questions like it is to remember that for the extremes of the IQ continuum, the Stanford-Binet is a better measure to use. It will more accurately reflect the person's functioning at either the very top or very bottom of the range.

Which of the following tests can be used to show the functional capacity of a particular brain region?

-PET Scan -The positron emission tomography (PET) scan is specifically used for demonstrating brain activity or functioning. The MRI and CAT scan are used for visualization of brain structure. The MRI (Response 3) is a technique that utilizes radio waves rather than x-rays to see structures within the brain. The CAT scan (Response 4) results in x-ray-like pictures of internal organs that are clearer and more accurate than normal x-rays. The polygraph (Response 2) measures emotional arousal through heart rate, respiration and skin conductivity, and is commonly known as a "lie-detector test."

According to research on parenting styles, which of the following describes the parents who are most likely to raise very aggressive children?

-Parents who use frequent and intermittent violence and have a laissez-faire attitude toward their children's behavior. -Researchers in the 1950s identified two dimensions of parenting styles: permissiveness and affection. Permissiveness is a continuum that ranges from autonomy on one extreme to control at the other; affection is a continuum that ranges from hostility to love. Parents who combine hostility with autonomy (e.g., those who combine violent discipline with a laissez-faire attitude toward their children) are likely to produce disobedient and aggressive children.

Apraxia and left-right confusion indicate damage to the:

-Parietal Lobe -Apraxia (a disturbance in carrying out motor activities) and left-right confusion indicate damage to the parietal lobe. The parietal lobe contains the primary sensory areas that process somatosensory information including light touch, pain, heat, and proprioception (the ability to locate one's body parts). People with parietal lobe damage frequently experience apraxias in dressing. The frontal lobes (Response 1) control planning and initiative, abstract thinking, judgment, and higher mental functions. The temporal lobes (Response 2) contain the primary auditory cortex, and are also involved in emotional behavior and memory. The occipital lobes (Response 4) house the primary visual cortex.

An individual who produces normal sounding speech that makes little or no sense and is usually unaware of this deficit is most likely to have damage in the:

-Temporal lobe -This is a description of Wernicke's aphasia, also known as receptive or fluent aphasia, which can be caused by damage to Wernicke's area in the temporal lobe

A company wants its clerical employees to be very efficient, accurate and fast. Examinees are given a perceptual speed test on which they indicate whether two names are exactly identical or slightly different. The reliability of the test would be best assessed by:

-Test-retest. -Perceptual speed tests are highly speeded and are comprised of very easy items that every examinee, it is assumed, could answer correctly with unlimited time. The best way to estimate the reliability of speed tests is to administer separately timed forms and correlate these, therefore using a test-retest or alternate forms coefficient would be the best way to assess the reliability of the test in this question. The other response choices are all methods for assessing internal consistency reliability. These are useful when a test is designed to measure a single characteristic, when the characteristic measured by the test fluctuates over time, or when scores are likely to be affected by repeated exposure to the test. However, they are not appropriate for assessing the reliability of speed tests because they tend to produce spuriously high coefficients.

Kuder-Richardson reliability applies to

-Tests with dichotomously scored questions. -The Kuder-Richardson formula is one of several statistical indices of a test's internal consistency reliability. It is used to assess the inter-item consistency of tests that are dichotomously scored (e.g., scored as right or wrong).

In the context of expectancy theory, valence refers to:

-The desirability of the consequences of performance. -Expectancy theory predicts that motivation is related to three phenomena: beliefs about the relationship between effort and performance; beliefs about the relationship between performance and outcomes; and the desirability of those outcomes. The latter is referred to as valence.

Which of the following statements is MOST consistent with the research results on the effects of crowding?

-The effects of crowding are mediated by a person's level of distraction; for example, a person viewing a boring documentary in a crowded movie theater has been found to feel the effects of crowding more than a person watching an interesting movie in the crowded theater. Contrary to "A," men tend to be more adversely affected by crowding than women. Contrary to "C," crowding does not always have a negative impact on affect; rather, it tends to enhance whatever a person is already feeling (e.g., a person at a crowded party or sports event may experience enhanced positive feelings). And common sense should have allowed you to eliminate "D" because people are less willing to discuss intimate details in crowded situations.

In industrial settings, administration of a trainability test would be done for the purposes of determining whether

-The examinee is likely to do well on a job sample. -A trainability test is designed to determine whether or not potential employees are suitable for training. It is not designed to be directly predictive of how well the person will do on the job itself. Instead, it would more directly indicate how well the person would do on a job sample, which is likely to be a part of the training sessions. In fact, trainability tests typically include job samples and are described as a type of job sample.

An examinee's scaled scores on the WAIS-III can be calculated with:

-The examinee's subtest raw scores, chronological age, and a score conversion table -To calculate the scaled scores on the WAIS-III, one must use the subtest raw scores, the examinee's chronological age, and a score conversion table.

A test developer creates a new test of anxiety sensitivity and correlates it with an existing measure of anxiety sensitivity. The test developer is operating under the assumption that:

-The existing test is valid -The question is describing an example of obtaining evidence for a test's construct validity. Construct validity refers to the degree to which a test measures a theoretical construct that it purports to measure; anxiety sensitivity is an example of a theoretical construct measured in psychological tests. A high correlation between a new test and an existing test that measures the same construct offers evidence of convergent validity, which is a type of construct validity. Another type is divergent validity, which is the degree to which a test has a low correlation with another test that measures a different construct. Correlating scores on a new test with an existing test to assess the new test's convergent validity requires an assumption that the existing test is valid; i.e., that it actually does measure the construct

Low LPC leaders would be most likely to say:

-The first one to hand in this budget report wins the office lottery pool -According to Fiedler's 1971 contingency theory, a leader's effectiveness is determined by a combination of the leader's style and the characteristics of the situation. Low LPC leaders are task and achievement oriented. Answers A and B could describe High LPC leaders who are primarily relationship oriented. Answer C could describe a transformational leader which Bass (1990) (see I/O section) described as change focused.

According to Edgar Schein, the concept of career anchor refers to:

-The motivation of priorities that define how people see themselves and their work -A person's career anchor is his or her self-concept consisting of self-perceived talents and abilities, basic values, motives, and needs as they pertain to the career. Schein says that people are primarily motivated by one of eight anchors — priorities that define how they see themselves and how they see their work. The eight anchors include: technical/functional competence - a desire to excel in a chosen line of work; general managerial competence - closely allied with the traditional career path of the corporation; autonomy/independence - individuals just want to be alone; security/stability - value predictable environment in which tasks and policies are clearly codified and defined; entrepreneurial creativity - desire to create something of own and run it; service/dedication to a cause - the need to focus work around a specific set of values; pure challenge - seek to solve or master challenges; and lifestyle - organized around an individual's private life. (See: Schein, E. H. (1978). Career Dynamics: Matching Individual and Organizational Needs. Reading, MA.: Addison-Wesley; Schein, E. H. (1990). Career Anchors (Rev. Ed.). San Diego: Pfeiffer, Inc.)

A percentage score, as opposed to a percentile rank, is based on:

-The number of items answered correctly -A percentage score indicates the number of items answered correctly. A percentile rank compares one examinee's score with all other examinee's scores.

In designing a new test of a psychological construct, you correlate it with an old test the new one will replace. Your assumption in this situation is that:

-The old test is valid but out of date. -In the assessment of the construct validity of a new test, a common practice is to correlate that test with another test that measures the same construct. For this technique to work, the other test must be a valid measure of the construct. So in this situation, it is assumed that the old test is valid, but at the same time, it is being replaced. Of the choices listed, only "B" provides a reason why a valid test would be replaced.

According to many experts in cross-cultural psychology and counseling, Western assumptions about psychology, as compared to non-Western assumptions, are characterized by all of the following except

-an emphasis on context. -The study of psychology and the practice of psychotherapy require the application of certain assumptions about human beings in general and what constitutes healthy behavior. Many such assumptions are culturally driven and Western assumptions may not always apply across cultures. For instance, one author makes a distinction between high-context and low-context cultures. The distinction refers to a culture's tendency to cater towards in-groups. In high context cultures, which cater towards in-groups, people expect meanings to be embedded in the context of situations, because they expect others around them to have similar experiences and expectations; thus, much more is left unsaid. By contrast, in low-context cultures, where there is a less of an expectation of similar experiences, people search for meaning in words, phrases, and abstract concepts. From the perspective of this framework, Western cultures, contrary to the first choice, are low in context. The other choices describe characteristics of Western culture that may influence counseling and psychology. Linear thinking, or the notion that each cause has an effect and each effect has a cause, is an underlying assumption that may cause difficulty in communicating with clients from cultures where events may be viewed as causally unconnected. Abstraction is also more characteristic of Western culture, as noted in the discussion above about context. And many Western psychological theories emphasize the importance of individual happiness and control of one's destiny, whereas in other cultures, functioning as part of the family or community without thinking oneself may be more highly valued.

The "paired comparison" technique is a method to:

-appraise performance -The paired comparison technique compares an employee to every other employee on each dimension of job performance.

The Eriksonian stage corresponding to the second year of life is:

-autonomy versus shame. -This is another one of those concepts you just need to know. The Eriksonian stage corresponding to the second year of life (Freud's anal stage) is autonomy versus shame. Trust versus mistrust (Response 1) corresponds to the first year of life (Freud's oral stage). Initiative versus guilt (Response 3) corresponds to Freud's phallic stage of 3 - 6 years, and industry versus inferiority (Response 4) corresponds to the latency stage of 6 - 12 years.

Margaret is reluctant to give poor ratings to her subordinates for fear of "ruffling feathers." Consequently, she tends to be unusually easy in her ratings. Margaret is committing what type of error?

-central tendency -Rater biases include the strictness, leniency, central tendency, and halo biases. The central tendency bias is the tendency to use the middle of a scale in rating all ratees. The halo effect (b.) occurs when evaluations of one aspect of a person's behavior influence evaluations of other aspects. The halo effect can be positive or negative; i.e., it can result in a bias in favor of or against a person. You may have considered the leniency bias (c.) as the correct response. This type of rater bias involves giving ratees high ratings on each dimension of performance regardless of their actual performance. However, the question does not indicate that all the ratings are high, only that Margaret is reluctant to give low scores for poor performance. Severity error (d.), or strictness bias, refers to the tendency to use the low end of a rating scale to rate all ratees.

Randomly selecting certain schools from a large school district and then including all teachers in those schools or a random sample of teachers from those schools in your study is referred to as

-cluster sampling -In this situation, you are starting out the sampling processing by selecting naturally occurring groups (clusters) of subjects. This is referred to as cluster sampling, and is useful when it's not feasible to directly sample individuals from the population

You are asked by the court to conduct a custody evaluation for a nine-year-old child. The mother agrees to participate but the father declines. Your best course of action would be to:

-conduct an evaluation with custody recommendations, stating the limitations of the data. -There is still some controversy about whether psychologists should ever make custody recommendations or whether they should simply report findings. Current APA guidelines permit making recommendations, if "they are derived from sound psychological data" and are "based on the best interests of the child in the particular case." A custody evaluation can be conducted even if one parent refuses or is unavailable (ruling out Response 4). Data about that parent can be included, for example that he has been convicted of murder or that the child cries and asks not to see him. However, no conclusions about that parent's psychological functioning may be made if that parent has not been personally evaluated. Recommendations can still be made (ruling out Response 2), for example, that the mother should receive custody because she is a fit mother, the child is scared of being with the father, and the child needs a stable environment. The data of one participating parent (Response 1) is never sufficient for a custody evaluation. Multiple methods of data gathering are required, typically including evaluations of the parent, the child, observation of their interactions, and record review.

The Taylor-Russell tables are used to evaluate incremental validity, the benefit of using a test for improving selection decisions. The key variables that the tables take into account include base rate, selection ratio and:

-criterion-related validity. -Base rate is the rate of successful hiring without using a test. A moderate base rate optimizes incremental validity. Selection ratio is the ratio of number of openings to number of applicants, and a low selection ratio optimizes incremental validity. The criterion-related validity of the test is the correlation between scores on the test and scores on some outcome measure of performance or productivity. The higher the criterion-related validity, the better the incremental validity

-The greatest benefit to the company from implementing flextime is:

-decreased tardiness and absenteeism. -The findings on the benefits of flextime are mixed. While some say it increases morale and productivity, it has most consistently been associated with decreased tardiness and absenteeism.

Gender Dysphoria

Children - Sx's present for 6 mos, w/ 6 Sx's Adolescents/Adults - Sx's present for 6 mos, w/ 2 Sx's Persistence in natal males from childhood to adolescence/adulthood is 2.2-30% Persistence in natal females from childhood to adolescence/adulthood is 12-50% Non-persistant males identify as gay (63-100%)/ Non-persistant females identify as lesbian (32-50%) Early Onset Gender Dysphoria occurs in childhood & may desist. Late-Onset starts in puberty or later.

Studies examining the predictions of goal-setting theory for work groups suggests that:

Having employees work as a team with team goals results in higher productivity than having employees work as individuals with individual goals.

Research indicates the validity of structured interviews as predictors of performance:

Is increased when the interview is used in combination with a measure of general mental ability.

MMPI-2 Faking Bad Profile

Low K Scale for faking bad, FBS scale, High F may indicate Malingering An elevated F score, particularly within the range of 80 to 99 suggests malingering ("faking bad"), exaggeration of difficulties, resistance to testing, or significant psychopathology. All of the other choices, i.e., high K, high L, and low F scores indicate the reverse, that is, an attempt to be viewed in an overly favorable light ("faking good"). (G. Groth-Marnat, Handbook of psychological assessment, 2nd ed. New York, John Wiley, 1990).

MEG (Functional)

Magnetoencephalography (MEG) is an imaging technique used to measure the magnetic fields produced by electrical activity in the brain via extremely sensitive devices known as SQUIDs. These measurements are commonly used in both research and clinical settings. There are many uses for the MEG, including assisting surgeons in localizing a pathology, assisting researchers in determining the function of various parts of the brain, neurofeedback, and others.

In comparison studies of younger and older adults, it has been found that depression in older adults is least likely to result in:

Older adults are less likely than younger adults to express feelings of depression or sadness. They are more willing to express feelings of hopelessness (answer C) and anxiety (answer B). They are also more apt to have memory problems (answer A). (APA Working Group on the Older Adult, What practitioners should know about working with older clients, Professional Psychology: Research and Practice, 1998, 29(5), 413-427).

According to the APA's Guidelines for Psychological Practice with Older Adults, which of the following statements regarding psychotherapy effectiveness is most accurate?

Older adults respond similarly to younger adults, although older adults tend to respond slower

The ____________ Coefficient is a correlation measure of the strength of association between a continuous-level variable (ratio or interval data) and a binary variable. Binary variables are variables of nominal scale with only two values. For example, you could use a ____________ correlation to determine whether there is an association between salaries, measured in US dollars, and gender (i.e., your continuous variable would be "salary" and your dichotomous variable would be "gender", which has two categories: "males" and "females").

Point-Biserial

PET (Functional)

Positron Emission Tomography (PET) uses trace amounts of short-lived radioactive material to map functional processes in the brain. When the material undergoes radioactive decay a positron is emitted, which can be picked up be the detector. Areas of high radioactivity are associated with brain activity.

TAU versus EBT

Treatment as usual (TAU) or routine care in the context of psychotherapy has been used both as a control condition in clinical trials of evidence-based psychotherapy (EBP) and as a primary therapeutic intervention. This article considers TAU from both perspectives in which it is used and evaluated. First, the strengths, limitations, and sources of ambiguity of using TAUs as control conditions are discussed. Second, the evidence in behalf of TAUs is evaluated. Reviews of the effectiveness of TAUs when contrasted with EBPs and when evaluated in clinical applications and benchmarked against EBPs from clinical trials suggest that both broad classes of treatments are effective and often equally effective. The effectiveness of TAUs and the often similar outcomes evident in comparison to EBPs raise research as well as clinical issues. The article discusses research priorities for the evaluation of TAUs and clinical practices that can improve both EBPs and TAUs in patient care.