EPPP study set

Question ID #14069: If a split-brain patient is shown a picture of apple pie to their right visual field, what is the patient capable of doing? Select one: A.verbally identify "apple pie" but not be able to point to it B.point to apple pie but not verbally identify "apple pie" C.verbally name "apple pie" and point to it with their left hand D.verbally name "apple pie" and point to it with their right hand

he correct answer is D.A study by Sperry and Gazzaniga (1967) found that a picture projected to the right visual field of a split-brain patient, the patient was able to name the object and pick it out with their right hand but not their left hand. This is because the information projected to the right visual field went to the left hemisphere only.Answers A, B, and C: See rationale for Answer D.

Question ID #14072: Agrammatism, anomia, and articulation difficulties are produced by lesions in and around which area of the brain? Select one: A.Wernicke's area B.Broca's area C.prefrontal cortex D.angular gyrus

The correct answer is B.Broca's area is located in the left hemisphere and is associated with speech production and articulation. Lesions in this area produce agrammatism, anomia, and articulation difficulties.Answer A: Wernicke's area is a critical language area in the posterior superior temporal lobe. This area is primarily involved in comprehension and language processing.Answer C: The prefrontal cortex plays an important role in working memory function. It likely is also associated with control of working memory.Answer D: The angular gyrus is located near the parietal lobe and the occipital lobe. It allows for the association of words, different images, sensations, and ideas.

Lesions in the right (nondominant) hemisphere of the cerebral cortex are most likely to cause which of the following: Select one: A.exaggerated reactions to benign events B.indifference or excessive cheerfulness C.excessive fear and anger D.decreased talkativeness

The correct answer is B.Concerning emotions, the left hemisphere of the brain mediates positive emotions, while the right hemisphere mediates negative emotions. Lesions to the right hemisphere produce an opposite effect (e.g., indifference, emotional lability, and atypical humor).Answer A: Exaggerated reactions to small events is associated with damage to the left hemisphere of the brain.Answer C: Excessive fear and anger would be appropriate emotions regardless of lesions.Answer D: Lesions in the right hemisphere often increase talkativeness.

Temporal lobe damage causes which of the following? A.contralateral neglect B.apraxia C.receptive aphasia D.ataxia

The correct answer is C.Damage to the temporal lobe may result in receptive aphasia (difficulty understanding spoken language), difficulty learning and retaining new information, in addition to disturbances in selective attention.Answer A: Contralateral neglect involves a deficit in attention paid to one side of the visual field, usually the side that is contralateral to the damage.Answer B: Apraxia is the inability to perform particular purposeful actions.Answer D: Ataxia refers to the loss of muscle control and balance.

Question ID #12384: Eta is used _____. Select one: A.as an index of effect size and is a measure of the mean difference between two groups B.when both variables are true (natural) dichotomies C.to measure the relationship between two continuous (interval or ratio) variables when their relationship is nonlinear D.when both variables are measured on an ordinal scale

The correct answer is C.Eta is used to measure the relationship between two continuous (interval or ratio) variables when their relationship is nonlinear.Answer A: Cohen's d is used as an index of effect size and is a measure of the mean difference between two groups.Answer B: The phi coefficient is used when both variables are true (natural) dichotomies.Answer D: Kendall's tau is appropriate when both variables are measured on an ordinal scale.

Question ID #14160: Which of the following structures is associated with Huntington's disease, Parkinson's disease, Tourette's disorder, OCD, and ADHD? Select one: A.thalamus B.cingulate cortex C.basal ganglia D.suprachiasmatic nucleus

The correct answer is C.The basal ganglia are involved in planning, organizing, coordinating voluntary movement, and regulating motor actions. The disorders mentioned in this question are associated with dysfunction in the basal ganglia.Answer A: The thalamus acts as a relay station, transmitting sensory information to the appropriate parts of the brain. Damage to this area is associated with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.Answer B: The cingulate cortex is involved in attention, emotion, and perception, and the experience of pain.Answer D: The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) mediates the sleep-wake cycle and other circadian rhythms. The SCN may be involved in seasonal affective disorder.

Question ID #14065: Which sleep wave pattern is defined as "awake, rested, and relaxed"? Select one: A.delta waves B.alpha waves C.beta waves D.theta waves

The correct answer is B.Alpha waves occur when someone is awake, rested, and relaxed.Answer A: Delta waves occur when someone is in deep sleep.Answer C: Beta waves occur when someone is alert and in a fully awake state.Answer D: Theta waves are defined by deep relaxation and light sleep.

Question ID #14100: Procedural memory is processed by which area of the brain? Select one: A.hippocampus B.amygdala C.thalamus D.cerebellum

The correct answer is D.The cerebellum plays a role in the learning of procedural memory and motor learning.Answer A: The hippocampus is where new and complex memories are encoded.Answer B: The amygdala helps determine what memories to store, and it plays a part in determining where the memories are stored based on emotional responses.Answer C: The thalamus plays an important role in working memory and sustaining short-term memory.

Haloperidol acts as a _________ receptor antagonist. A.GABA B.norepinephrine C.dopamine D.glutamate

C

What is a platykurtic distribution? what is leptokurtic distribution?

Flat and peaked , respectively

Which of the following is the appropriate multivariate technique when using two or more continuous predictors to predict status on two or more continuous criteria? Select one: A.Logistic regression B.Linear regression C.Discriminant function analysis D.Canonical correlation

Of the techniques listed in the answers, canonical correlation is the only one that is appropriate when two or more continuous (interval or ratio) predictors will be used to predict status on two or more continuous criteria. For the exam, you want to be familiar with all four techniques listed in the answers to this question, which are described in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials.Answer A: Logistical regression is appropriate when the dependent variable is nominal and there is more than one independent variable.Answer B: . Linear regression is used to examine the strength of the effect of the independent variable(s) on the dependent variable.Answer C: Discriminant function analysis is used for predicting group membership base on a linear combination of interval predictor variables.

Question ID #14089: _________ are used to classify certain genes that influence various behavioral traits. Select one: A.molecular genetic methods B.quantitative genetic methods C.twin method D.adoption method

The correct answer is A.Molecular genetic methods are used in behavioral genetics to classify genes that influence certain behavioral traits. This research is done on both humans and animals.Answer B: Quantitative genetic methods are used to determine the effect of genetic and environmental factors on individual differences of many traits, including behavioral traits.Answer C: The twin method is a specific type of behavioral genetics research that relies on data from identical or fraternal twins.Answer D: The adoption method is a semi-experimental design that compares nature vs. nurture.

Question ID #14076: 80 to 85% of individuals diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) are categorized with this subtype. Select one: A.relapsing-remitting type B.secondary progressive type C.autoimmune type D.chronic subthreshold type

The correct answer is A.Most individuals who have MS are diagnosed initially with "relapsing-remitting type," which has alternating periods of relapse and remission.Answer B: Most individuals with MS are later diagnosed with "secondary progressive type," which involves a gradual worsening of symptoms without distinct periods of relapse and remission.Answer C: Autoimmune type is not a valid type of MS; however, MS is believed to be an autoimmune response triggered by genetic, viral, or environmental factors.Answer D: Chronic subthreshold type is not a valid type of MS.

wghat does the cerebellum, medulla, pons, and basal ganglia do?

The cerebellum is on the hindbrain and is responsible for the control of motor activities.Answer A: The medulla coordinates swallowing, coughing, sneezing, breathing, heartbeat, and blood pressure.Answer B: The pons connects the two halves of the cerebellum and integrates movements between the right and left sides of the body.Answer D: The basal ganglia help coordinate voluntary movement, among other functions.

Question ID #10598: A dimensional approach to diagnosis is based on the ________ of attributes. Select one: A.quantification B.categorization C.exclusion D.dichotomization

The correct answer is A. There are two basic approaches to diagnosis - categorical classification and dimensional classification. The DSM-5 utilizes a categorical approach, which involves determining whether a person meets the criteria for a given diagnosis. When using a dimensional approach, the individual is ranked on a quantitative dimension (e.g., on a scale from 1 to 10) on each symptom or other characteristic. Answer B: The DSM-5 uses a categorical approach to diagnosis. A dimensional approach to diagnosis is based on quantification instead of categorization. Answers C and D: A dimensional approach to diagnosis is based on the quantification of attributes.

Question ID #11371: To promote recycling in a community, you attempt to establish a collaboration between educators, community leaders, and interested community members. This approach is best described as: Select one: A.normative-reeducative B.rational-empirical C.power-coercive D.reciprocal-deterministic

The correct answer is A. This question is referring to Chin and Benne's (1976) distinction between three strategies for planned change: normative-reeducative, rational-empirical, and power-coercive. A key characteristic of the normative-reeducative strategy is its focus on collaboration between individuals representing different disciplines and interests in order to use norms and peer pressure to foster change. Answer B: The rational-empirical strategy utilizes information as the primary change agent.Answer C: The power-coercive strategy utilizes the power and authority of leaders to facilitate change.Answer D: Reciprocal-deterministic is not one of the three change strategies identified by Chin and Benne.

Question ID #11363: According to Tuckman and Jensen (1977), group members begin to develop close relationships with one another, trust each other, and feel as though they are part of a cohesive, effective group during the __________ stage. Select one: A.norming B.forming C.performing D.storming

The correct answer is A. Tuckman and Jensen (1977) distinguish between five stages of group development - forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning. The norming stage is characterized by agreement, commitment, and unity. Members listen to and support each other during this stage and develop close relationships. The norming stage may become a "period of play" with the task becoming temporarily abandoned by workers. Answer B: During the forming stage, group members become acquainted and attempt to establish ground rules for the group.Answer C: During the performing stage, group members are more focused on "getting the job done."Answer D: The storming stage is characterized by power struggles and conflict.

Question ID #14040: The neurotransmitter acetylcholine is most responsible for: Select one: A.muscular contraction B.mood regulation C.situational responsivity D.an inhibitory effect

The correct answer is A.Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter and plays a key role in signaling nerve and muscle coordination.Answer B: Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that modulates thinking, feeling, and acting.Answer C: Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter that helps regulate the body's system in response to changing situational demands. It can impact mood, attention, dreaming, learning, and some autonomic functions.Answer D: Serotonin exerts an inhibitory effect and impacts mood, hunger, arousal, sleep, aggression, and sexual activity.

Campbell and Stanley (1966) identify which of the following as a direct threat to a study's external, but not internal, validity? Select one: A.Multiple treatment interference B.Statistical regression C.Maturation D.Attrition

The correct answer is A.Anything that is a threat to a study's internal validity will also be a threat to its external validity. For this question, you need to identify a factor that is only a threat to external validity. Of the threats listed, only multiple treatment interference is listed by Campbell and Stanley as a direct threat to external validity. Multiple treatment interference occurs when a study involves exposing each subject to two or more levels of an independent variable (i.e., when the study utilizes a within-subjects design), the effects of one level of the independent variable can be affected by previous exposure to another level. When this occurs, the results of the study cannot be generalized to situations in which people will be exposed to only one level of the IV.Answer B: Statistical regression is a threat to internal validity.Answer C: Maturation is a threat to internal validity.Answer D: Attrition is a threat to a study's internal validity.

Question ID #14071: How does naltrexone treat alcohol use disorder? Select one: A.blocks cravings and blocks reinforcing effects B.blocks reinforcing effects only C.blocks cravings only D.increases unpleasant reactions

The correct answer is A.Naltrexone is an opioid receptor antagonist. It blocks the craving for alcohol and blocks the reinforcing effects of alcohol.Answer B: This answer is partially correct, but Answer A is the best response.Answer C: This is partially correct but Answer A is a better and more thorough answer.Answer D: This answer describes disulfiram (Antabuse), a different anti-alcohol drug. Antabuse inhibits alcohol metabolism, causing an accumulation of unpleasant reactions such as nausea, vomiting, sweating, headache, and hypotension, all of which deter an individual from drinking alcohol.

A researcher calculated a Cohen's d of .50 for the data collected in a study comparing two brief treatments for generalized anxiety disorder. This means that _____. Select one: A.there was a difference of one-half standard deviation between the means of the two groups B.there was a difference of one-fourth standard deviation between the means of the two groups C.the percent of variance accounted for by the difference in treatments was 50% D.the percent of variance accounted for by the difference in treatments was 25%

The correct answer is A.Cohen's d is a measure of effect size. It indicates the difference between the means of two groups in terms of standard deviations. A Cohen's d of .50 indicates that one group obtained a mean that is one-half standard deviation higher than the mean obtained by the other group. Additional information about methods for calculating an effect size is provided in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials.Answer B: There is a difference of one-half standard deviation, not one-fourth.Answers C and D: Cohen's d is a measure of the difference between two groups in terms of standard deviation units and is not related to the percent of variance accounted for.

Question ID #14073: Which of the following is not one of the categories used in the Glasgow Coma Scale? Select one: A.confusion B.eye opening C.verbal utterances D.motor responses

The correct answer is A.Confusion is not a category of the Glasgow Coma Scale.Answers B, C, and D: The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to assess to the level of consciousness in individuals with a brain injury. A numbered score is given in three categories: eye opening, verbal utterances, and motor responses. The total score ranges from 3 (worst possible score) to 15 (highest possible score) and is the sum of the response in each category.

A researcher would use "counterbalancing" to _____. Select one: A.control multiple treatment interference B.ensure an equal number of participants in each group C.match subjects on a confounding variable D.ensure that the sample is representative of the population from which it was drawn

The correct answer is A.Counterbalancing involves administering the treatments (different levels of the IV) in different orders to different groups of participants. It helps control multiple treatment interference (also known as carry-over or order effects) that may result when multiple levels of the independent variable(s) are administered to the same participants.Answer B: Counterbalancing involves administering the treatments in different orders to different groups of participants. It is not reliant on having equal number of participants in groups.Answer C: Counterbalancing involves administering the treatments in different orders to different groups of participants. It is not related to matching subjects on confounding variables.Answer D: This answer relates to sampling (random sampling, sample size, etc.) and not to treatment administration or counterbalancing.

Which of the following would be useful for measuring the strength of the relationship between two continuous variables when their relationship is nonlinear? Select one: A.Eta coefficient B.Phi coefficient C.Spearman rho D.Pearson r

The correct answer is A.Eta is also known as the eta coefficient and the correlation ratio can be used when the relationship between two continuous variables is nonlinear.Answer B: The phi coefficient is used when both variables are true dichotomies.Answer C: Spearman rho is used when both variables are ranks.Answer D: The Pearson r is used when both variables are continuous and their relationship is linear.

As a behavioral observation technique, event sampling (recording) is useful for behaviors that _____. Select one: A.occur infrequently or have a long duration B.occur frequently or have a short duration C.occur randomly and involve a sequence of responses D.occur spontaneously and have no clear beginning or end

The correct answer is A.Event sampling involves observing a behavior each time it occurs and is useful for behaviors that occur infrequently, have a long duration, or leave a permanent record. Methods of behavioral sampling include event sampling, interval recording, and situational sampling. These are described in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials.Answer B: This is the opposite of behaviors observed with event sampling, which are behaviors that occur infrequently or have a long duration.Answer C: Event sampling does not rely on randomness or sequential events, but rather events that occur infrequently and/or have a long duration.Answer D: Event sampling does not rely on behaviors with spontaneous occurrence or lacking a clear beginning or end, but rather events that occur infrequently and/or have a long duration.

Question ID #14080: This neurotransmitter is implicated in eating, seizures, anxiety disorders, motor control, vision, and sleep. Select one: A.GABA B.glutamate C.serotonin D.dopamine

The correct answer is A.GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter. Low levels of GABA are linked to anxiety disorders and the level of GABA is implicated in the other categories listed in this question.Answer B: Glutamate is an excitatory neurotransmitter and plays a role in learning and memory.Answer C: Serotonin exerts an inhibitory effect and impacts mood, hunger, temperature, sexual activity, arousal, sleep, aggression, and migraines.Answer D: Dopamine is involved in personality, mood, memory, and sleep.

Which disease is characterized by a combination of finger agnosia, right-left confusion, agraphia, and acalculia? A.Gerstmann's syndrome B.Parkinson's disease C.Huntington's disease D.Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

The correct answer is A.Gerstmann's syndrome results from damage to the parietal lobe and is characterized by the symptoms listed in the question.Answer B: Parkinson's disease is a progressive disorder characterized by tremors, muscular rigidity, akathisia, and speech difficulties.Answer C: Huntington's disease includes symptoms of anxiety, depression, apathy, fidgeting, facial grimaces, and forgetfulness.Answer D: Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome includes mental confusion, abnormal eye movements, ataxia, and amnesia.

Which of the following disease is characterized by uncontrollable jerking movements, writhing movements, and dementia? Select one: A.Huntington's disease B.Parkinson's disease C.Alzheimer's disease D.Tardive Dyskinesia

The correct answer is A.Huntington's disease is a fatal inherited disorder that causes degeneration of the caudate nucleus and putamen. The main symptoms include uncontrollable jerking movements, writhing movements, and dementia.Answer B: Parkinson's disease is a neurological disease characterized by tremors, rigidity of the limbs, poor balance, and difficulty in initiating movements.Answer C: Alzheimer's disease is a degenerative brain disorder that causes progressive memory loss, motor deficits, and eventual death.Answer D: Tardive dyskinesia is a movement disorder that can occur after prolonged treatment with antipsychotic medication, characterized by involuntary movements of the face and neck.

To test the validity of a model that describes the causal relationships among a set of variables, you would use which of the following techniques? Select one: A.Path analysis B.Logistic regression C.Cluster analysis D.Multitrait-multimethod matrix

The correct answer is A.Path analysis and other structural equation modeling techniques are used to determine if sample data fit a predefined model that indicates the direction of the causal links between variables.Answer B: Logistic regression is a multivariate technique used to identify the combination of predictors that most accurately categorizes individuals into criterion groups, and is not used to describe a causal relationship.Answer C: Cluster analysis is used to "cluster" or categorize individuals or items. Causal relationships cannot be derived from this type of analysis.Answer D: The multitrait-multimethod matrix is used to evaluate the construct validity of a measure and includes information about the test's convergent and divergent validity. This is not used to determine causal relationships among a set of variables.

Question ID #12353: A researcher instructs a participant to "think aloud" while solving complex geometry problems to identify the thought processes that underlie successful and unsuccessful problem-solving. The participant's verbalizations will be recorded and analyzed. This technique is known as_____. Select one: A.protocol analysis B.behavioral sampling C.process analysis D.situation sampling

The correct answer is A.Protocol analysis is a qualitative research strategy used to examine cognitive processes that underlie problem-solving and other complex tasks involving subjects to "think aloud" while solving a problem. The subject's verbalizations are recorded and later coded in terms of relevant categories.Answer B: Behavioral sampling is a quantitative method for sampling and recording frequency or duration of behavior, including interval recording and event sampling.Answer C: Process analysis is a qualitative technique used to identify, classify, and understand weaknesses and opportunities for improving a process. Protocol analysis is used to examine cognitive processes that underlie problem-solving and other complex tasks involving subjects to "think aloud" while solving a problem.Answer D: Situational sampling is used when the goal of the study is to observe a behavior in a number of settings, whereas protocol analysis involves one setting and is used to examine cognitive processes that underlie problem-solving and other complex tasks.

In a scatterplot, the correlation between two variables is equal or close to zero when _____. A.the range of Y scores at each value of X is equal to the total range of Y scores B.the range of Y scores at each value of X is about the same C.the range of Y scores is equal to the range of X scores D.the range of Y scores at each value of X is different

The correct answer is A.The correlation for two variables is zero when scores on one variable are not related to scores on the other variable. This is the only answer of those given that describes a lack of correlation between X and Y. When the range of Y scores at each value of X equals the total range of Y scores, the scattergram for X and Y is rectangular in shape, indicating a correlation of (or near) zero.Answer B: This describes homoscedasticity which is good as long as the range of Y scores at each value of X is not equal to the total range of Y scores.Answer C: This condition is not a zero correlation between X and Y.Answer D: This describes heteroscedasticity. Although heteroscedasticity can produce an inaccurate estimate of the degree of association between variables, it does not necessarily result in a correlation coefficient of zero.

Question ID #14064: Which of the following are helpful in diagnosing seizures? Select one: A.EEG, CT, and MRI B.EEG C.fMRI D.PET

The correct answer is A.The diagnosis of a seizure disorder includes obtaining a medical history, a physical exam, an EEG, and sometimes an imaging technique such as CT or MRI.Answers B, C, and D: This is a difficult question because although some of these techniques may be used to diagnose seizures (among other things), Answer A is the most thorough and correct response to the question.

Question ID #12354: The primary characteristic that distinguishes true experimental research from quasi-experimental research is that, in the former,_____. Select one: A.participants are randomly assigned to either the treatment or control group B.the researcher manipulates the independent variable C.the researcher properly controls for systematic and random error D.the researcher places the participants in equivalent groups to ensure fair comparisons

The correct answer is A.The hallmark of true experimental research is that participants are randomly assigned to either the treatment or control group.Answer B: Although the independent variable is manipulated in research, it is NOT the characteristic that differentiates experimental research from other types of research. In true experimental research, participants are randomly assigned to either the treatment or control group.Answer C: While controlling for error is important in research, it is NOT the defining characteristic of experimental research. Random assignment to groups is the hallmark of true experimental research.Answer D: While some research designs involve equivalent groups, such as a matched-subjects design, in true experimental research, participants are randomly assigned to either the treatment or control group.

Which of the following areas of the brain produces melatonin and plays a role in circadian and seasonal rhythms? A.pineal gland B.suprachiasmatic nucleus C.reticular formation D.raphe nuclei

The correct answer is A.The pineal gland is the primary endocrine organ that secretes hormones, such as melatonin, and controls the circadian rhythms.Answer B: The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is a nucleus situated atop the optic chiasm. It contains a biological clock that is responsible for organizing many of the body's circadian rhythms.Answer C: The reticular formation extends from the spinal cord through the hindbrain and midbrain into the hypothalamus. It is involved in respiration, posture, locomotion and REM sleep.Answer D: The raphe nuclei are a group of nuclei located in the reticular formation of the medulla, pons, and the midbrain, situated along the midline that contains serotonergic neurons.

_______ is specialized for the control of fine movements, such as moving one finger at a time. A.precentral gyrus B.prefrontal cortex C.caudate nucleus D.hippocampus

The correct answer is A.The precentral gyrus is called the somatomotor cortex because it controls volitional movements of the contralateral side of the body.Answer B: The prefrontal cortex is the brain region that has been implicated in planning complex cognitive behavior, personality expression, decision making, and moderating social behavior.Answer C: The caudate nucleus functions not only in planning the execution of movement but also in learning, memory, reward, motivation, emotion, and romantic interaction.Answer D: The hippocampus is a complex brain structure embedded within the temporal lobe. It has a major role in learning and memory.

Question ID #12372: To conclude that one research participant has twice as much of a characteristic than another participant, your measure of that characteristic must produce scores that represent which scale of measurement? Select one: A.Ratio scale B.Continuous scale C.Interval scale D.Ordinal scale

The correct answer is A.The ratio scale has the properties of order, equal intervals, as well as an absolute zero. An absolute zero point allows for a more precise determination of "how much" more or less of a characteristic one person has as compared to another.Answer B: A continuous scale is a general term that refers to scales that are on the ordinal, interval, and ratio level.Answer C: Interval scales have the property of order and equal intervals but do not have an absolute zero, which allows for mathematical comparisons.Answer D: Ordinal scales involve dividing observations into ordered categories but do not have an absolute zero, which allows for mathematical comparisons.

As the result of an injury, Walter cannot recognize familiar objects by touch. Most likely, Walter has damage to which area of his brain? Select one: A.parietal B.occipital C.temporal D.frontal

The correct answer is A.Walter is exhibiting tactile agnosia as a result of damage to the parietal lobe. The parietal lobe contains the somatosensory cortex, which processes information from receptors in the skin that are responsible for detecting touch, proprioception (i.e., the position of the body in space), nociception (i.e., pain) and temperature.Answer B: The occipital lobe is the visual processing center of the brain that contains the primary visual cortex. The occipital lobe is responsible for processing visual information.Answer C: The temporal lobe is involved in auditory perception, processing sensory input, language comprehension, and emotion association. The primary auditory cortex is housed in the temporal lobe and receives sensory information from the ears.Answer D: The frontal lobe is the part of the brain that is involved in motor function, problem-solving, memory, language, judgment, and impulse control.

Which disease is due to atrophy and reduced thiamine in the thalamus? Select one: A.Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome B.Graves' disease C.hypoglycemia D.Kluver-Bucy syndrome

The correct answer is A.Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is due to a thiamine deficiency and is usually the result of chronic alcoholism.Answer B: Grave's disease (hyperthyroidism) is a result of hypersecretion of thyroxine in the thalamus.Answer C: Hypoglycemia is caused by excess insulin production in the pancreas.Answer D: Kluver-Bucy syndrome is a result of lesions in the amygdala and temporal lobes.

uestion ID #14084: Which general hormone is most effective in helping to restore sexual arousal for women following removal of their sex organs and/or after menopause? Select one: A.androgen B.estrogen C.progesterone D.testosterone

The correct answer is A.When women experience a loss of sexual desire following menopause or removal of their sex organs, androgen is effective in restoring sexual arousal and orgasm.Answer B, C, and D: These hormones are implicated in sexual arousal and sexual cycles but the correct answer is A.

Question ID #10484: Restlessness, psychomotor agitation, flushed face, diuresis, rambling speech, and muscle twitching are most suggestive of which of the following? Select one: A.Alcohol Withdrawal B.Caffeine Intoxication C.Cocaine Intoxication D.Hyperthyroidism

The correct answer is B. It is sometimes difficult to distinguish between substance-induced disorders and other medical conditions. The symptoms listed in the question are characteristic of caffeine Intoxication. Answer A: Alcohol Withdrawal often involves tremor, nausea and vomiting, autonomic hyperactivity, anxiety, transient illusions and hallucinations, insomnia, and seizures. Answer C: Stimulant Intoxication may involve pupillary dilation, chills, nausea or vomiting, confusion, psychomotor agitation, and tachycardia or bradycardia. Answer D: Hyperthyroidism, an endocrine disorder, produces weight loss, increased appetite, intolerance to heat, tremors, and rapid heart rate.

Which step of the four-step organizational assessment includes creating questions that are important to the organization and address topics such as organizational performance and motivation? Select one: A.Step 1 B.Step 2 C.Step 3 D.Step 4

The correct answer is B. Step 2 is to create and include questions involving the organization's performance, capacity, motivation, and environment. Answer A: Step 1 of the four-step organizational assessment is to determine the purpose of the evaluation, the organization's time and budget, methodology, and how findings will be communicated.Answer C: Step 3 involves the collection of both qualitative and quantitative data from multiple sources, such as documentation, site visits, and interviews.Answer D: Step 4 is the analysis of the findings.

The analysis of variance produces an F-ratio, which is calculated by dividing MSB by MSW. The denominator of the F-ratio (MSW) is a measure of which of the following? A.Treatment effects only B.Error only C.Treatment effects plus error D.Treatment effects minus error

The correct answer is B."Mean square within" is a measure of variability within treatment groups and provides an estimate of the effects of error. Knowing that MSB stands for "mean square between" may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. (Additional information on the F-ratio is provided in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials.)Answer A: Since it is not possible to measure treatment effects only, they are estimated by dividing a measure of treatment plus error (MSB) by a measure of error only (MSW).Answer C: "Mean square between" is the numerator of the F-ratio and provides a measure of variability due to a combination of treatment plus error.Answer D: "Mean square between" is the numerator of the F-ratio and provides a measure of variability due to a combination of treatment plus error and "Mean square within" is in the denominator and provides an estimate of variability that is due to error.

Question ID #14090: This type of migraine has gastrointestinal symptoms and no aura. Select one: A.classic B.common C.cluster D.tension

The correct answer is B.88% of migraine sufferers have "common migraine," which does not have an aura but has gastrointestinal or other symptoms.Answer A: About 12% of migraine sufferers experience "classic migraine," which starts with an aura.Answer C: A cluster headache is not a classification of migraine. A cluster headache involves excruciating pain, usually behind one eye or temple, and occurs one or more per day over a two to three month period.Answer D: A tension headache differs from a migraine. A tension headache involves non-throbbing pain, usually located on both sides of the head, face, or back of the neck.

When the number of participants in a research study is too small to use a completely counterbalanced research design, a researcher would use which of the following? Select one: A.Changing criterion design B.Latin square design C.Multiple baseline design D.Solomon four-group design

The correct answer is B.Counterbalancing is a within-subjects design that involves changing the order in which each treatment is administered to different groups of participants. The goal of counterbalancing is to use every possible sequence of treatments with an equal number of participants for each sequence. When the number of participants is too small, a researcher may use partial counterbalancing and the Latin square design is a type of partial counterbalancing that helps determine exactly what sequences of treatment will be administered to different groups of participants.Answer A: The changing criterion design is a type of single-case design consisting of a series of phases in which a different behavioral criterion is set for each phase. If the behavior reaches the criterion level for each phase, the treatment is considered to be effective.Answer C: The multiple baseline design is a type of single-case design that involves sequentially applying a treatment across participants, settings, or behaviors.Answer D: The Solomon four-group design is used to evaluate the effects of pretesting on a study's internal and external validity.

Which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in forming long-term memories? Select one: A.GABA B.glutamate C.norepinephrine D.serotonin

The correct answer is B.Glutamate plays a role in learning, memory, and long-term potentiation (LTP) which forms long term memories.Answer A: GABA affects eating, seizures, anxiety disorders, motor control, vision, and sleep.Answer C: Norepinephrine plays a role in mood, attention, dreaming, learning, and some autonomic functions.Answer D: Serotonin is implicated in mood, hunger, temperature regulation, sexual activity, aggression, sleep, and migraines.

The _____________ maintains the body's internal homeostasis. Select one: A.cingulate gyrus B.hypothalamus C.cerebellum D.adrenal medulla

The correct answer is B.Homeostasis refers to the ability to maintain the internal environment of the body within limits that allow survival. A primary function of the hypothalamus is to maintain the body's homeostasis in addition to regulating temperature and blood pressure.Answer A: The cingulate gyrus is part of the limbic system and is involved in processing emotions and behavior regulation.Answer C: The cerebellum regulates motor movements and coordinates voluntary movements such as posture, balance, and coordination.Answer D: The adrenal medulla is the innermost part of the adrenal gland and consists of cells that secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine.

Which disease is Levodopa (L-Dopa) most commonly used to treat? Select one: A.Alzheimer's disease B.Parkinson's disease C.Huntington's disease D.Tourette Syndrome

The correct answer is B.L-Dopa is the most effective and commonly used to treat Parkinson's disease due to its ability to cross the blood-brain barrier.Answer A: Cholinesterase inhibitors are used to treat cognitive symptoms in Alzheimer's patients.Answer C: Mediations used to control movements (e.g., tetrabenazine) are associated with Huntington's disease.Answer D: Medications that block dopamine are used to treat the symptoms of Tourette Syndrome.

An investigator uses a factorial ANOVA to assess the effects of two independent variables on a dependent variable and obtains significant main and interaction effects. When interpreting the results, the investigator should _____. A.ignore the interaction since the main effects are significant B.interpret the main effects with caution since the interaction is significant C.interpret the interaction with caution since the main effects are significant D.re-analyze the data since these results are not possible

The correct answer is B.Main effects refer to the effects of one independent variable on the dependent variable when considered alone, while interaction effects refer to the effects of one independent variable at different levels of another independent variable. When the interaction is significant, the effects of one independent variable differ for different levels of another independent variable and it is not possible to conclude that the independent variable has consistent main effects.Answer A: A researcher should not ignore significant interaction effects regardless of whether the main effect is significant. When there are significant interaction effects, the researcher should actually interpret the main effect with caution. When the interaction is significant, the effects of one independent variable differ for different levels of another independent variable and it is not possible to conclude that the independent variable has consistent main effects.Answer C: Significant main effects do not dictate the interpretation of significant interaction effects. A researcher should interpret the main effect with caution and focus on the significant interaction effect because the effects of one independent variable differ for different levels of another independent variable and it is not possible to conclude that the independent variable has consistent main effects.Answer D: It is possible to observe any combination of significant main and/or interaction effects. How the researcher should interpret these results is the bigger question.

Which structures are included in Papez's circuit? A.mammillary bodies, basal ganglia, and circle of wilis B.hippocampus, mammillary bodies, and thalamus C.hippocampus, cingulate gyrus, and hypothalamus D.putamen, cingulate gyrus, and amygdala

The correct answer is B.Papez's circuit mediates the experience and expression of emotion. It includes the hippocampus, mammillary bodies, anterior nuclei of the thalamus, and the cingulate gyrus.Answers A, C, and D: See rationale for Answer B.

Question ID #14161: Damage at the _________ level results in paraplegia. Select one: A.cervical B.thoracic C.lumbar D.sacral

The correct answer is B.Paraplegia entails a loss of sensory and voluntary functioning in the legs. This occurs when there is damage to the thoracic region of the spinal cord.Answer A: Damage to the cervical level of the spinal cord causes quadriplegia (tetraplegia), which involves a loss of functioning and sensory input in the arms and legs.Answer C: Damage to the lumbar region of the spine does not cause paraplegia.Answers C and D: Damage to the sacral region of the spine does not cause paraplegia.

Question ID #14018: A drug that binds with a receptor but does not activate it is called a ________. A. indirect agonist B.receptor blocker C.indirect antagonist D.inverse agonist

The correct answer is B.Receptor blockers are also known as direct antagonists. It is a type of ligand or drug that avoids or dampens a biological reaction. When binding to the receptor, it does not activate it, rather, it tends to block the particular receptor.Answer A: An indirect agonist is a drug that attaches to a binding site on a receptor and facilitates the action of the receptor.Answer C: An indirect antagonist is a drug that attaches to a binding site on a receptor and interferes with the action of the receptor.Answer D: An inverse agonist produces an effect opposite to the effect produced by a neurotransmitter or an agonist.

When a distribution of scores is normally shaped, approximately what percent of scores fall between the mean and the score that is one standard deviation above the mean? Select one: A.25 B.34 C.50 D.68

The correct answer is B.To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to be familiar with the areas under the normal curve. When a distribution is normally shaped, approximately 34% of scores fall between the mean and the score that is one standard deviation above the mean.Answers A and C: When a distribution is normally shaped, approximately 34% of scores fall between the mean and the score that is one standard deviation above the mean.Answer D: In a normal distribution, approximately 68% of scores fall between the scores that are one standard deviation below and above the mean.

Question ID #12374: Dr. Terry Tas obtains SAT scores from a sample of 30 high school seniors following their participation in a workshop designed to improve SAT scores. The appropriate statistical test for comparing the mean score obtained by these students to the national mean is which of the following? Select one: A.Independent samples t-test B.Single sample t-test C.Single sample chi-square test D.Multiple sample chi-square test

The correct answer is B.The data analysis for the study described in this question involves comparing the mean SAT score from the workshop to the national mean. A single sample t-test is used to compare an obtained mean to a known population mean.Answer A: The independent samples t-test is the appropriate t-test for comparing means obtained from two independent samples.Answer C: The single-sample chi-square test is used to compare the number (frequency) of cases in each category when a study includes a single variable.Answer D: The multiple-sample chi-square test is used to compare the number (frequency) of cases in each category when a study includes two or more variables.

The _______ controls the flow of information between the spinal cord and the brain. Select one: A.thalamus B.medulla C.cerebellum D.central nervous system

The correct answer is B.The medulla is a structure in the hindbrain that controls the flow of information between the spinal cord and the brain. It also regulates a number of vital functions including heartbeat, breathing, and blood pressure.Answers A, C, and D: See rationale for Answer B.

Damage to the reticular activating system is most likely to cause which of the following? Select one: A.deficits in explicit memory B.disruptions in the sleep-wake cycle C.impaired balance and coordination D.Kluver-Bucy syndrome

The correct answer is B.The reticular activating system (RAS) is a complex, net-like system of nuclei and fibers that extends from the spinal cord into the brain. Damage to the RAS disrupts the sleep-wake cycle and can produce a permanent, coma-like state.Answer A: Damage to the hippocampus is associated with deficits in explicit memory.Answer C: Damage to the cerebellum would cause impaired balance and coordination.Answer D: Kluver-Bucy syndrome is characterized by reduced fear, increased docility, compulsive oral behaviors, and altered dietary habits.

Which of the following statistical tests would be most appropriate for analyzing the relationship between gender and Holland's six occupational themes? Select one: A.Single-sample chi-square B.Multiple-sample chi-square C.One-way ANOVA D.Factorial ANOVA

The correct answer is B.The study described in this question has one independent variable (gender) and one dependent variable (Holland's six occupational themes), and the dependent variable is measured on a nominal scale. The multiple-sample chi-square test is appropriate for studies that include two or more variables and the data being analyzed represent a nominal scale.Answer A: The single-sample chi-square test is appropriate for descriptive studies that include a single nominal variable.Answer C: The one-way ANOVA is appropriate for studies assessing the impact of a single independent variable on a single dependent variable that is measured on an interval or ratio scale.Answer D: The factorial ANOVA is appropriate for studies assessing the impact of two or more independent variables on a single dependent variable that is measured on an interval or ratio scale.

When using stepwise multiple regression, the addition of predictors to the equation is usually based on _____. Select one: A.a predefined model or theory B.the magnitude of R-squared C.the proportion of accurate versus inaccurate decisions made D.the magnitude of the eigenvalues

The correct answer is B.The types of multiple regression include simple, hierarchical, and stepwise. As its name implies, stepwise regression involves adding (or subtracting) predictors to the multiple regression equation one at a time. When using stepwise multiple regression, each predictor is retained in the equation as long as it contributes significantly to the total amount of variability in the criterion that is explained by the combined predictors. The proportion of explained variability is measured by R-squared.Answer A: This describes hierarchical multiple regression.Answer C: This sounds like the basis for determining if predictors have incremental validity, which may be a consideration in multiple regression. However, this is not the best answer to this question.Answer D: This refers to factor analysis.

Question ID #14165: Which aphasia is characterized by the ability to talk but having nothing to say, inability to understand written and spoken language, but do have the ability to produce automatic responses (e.g. singing familiar songs, repeating phrases, etc.)? Select one: A.transcortical motor aphasia B.mixed transcortical aphasia C.transcortical sensory aphasia D.conduction aphasia

The correct answer is B.This question defines mixed transcortical aphasia. This occurs when Broca's and Wernicke's areas are both damaged.Answer A: Transcortical motor aphasia occurs when the damage is only in Broca's area. It includes non-fluent, effortful speech, lack of spontaneous speech, and anomia.Answer C: Transcortical sensory aphasia occurs with lesions only in Wernicke's area. It is characterized by deficits in comprehension, anomia, and fluent but meaningless speech with unimpaired repetition.Answer D: Conduction (associative) aphasia occurs when the arcuate fasciculus (the area that connects Broca's area and Wernicke's area) is damaged. This disorder does not affect language comprehension but does result in impaired repetition, anomia, and paraphasia.

Question ID #12359: An interviewer unintentionally nods whenever research participants answer the questions in ways that confirm the study's research hypothesis. The interviewer's behavior is best described as an example of which of the following? Select one: A.Treatment diffusion B.Demand characteristics C.Placebo effect D.Confirmation bias

The correct answer is B.This question describes a type of reactivity in which the behavior of participants is affected by cues from the researcher indicating what behaviors are expected of them. Cues from a researcher or in the environment that inform participants about the purpose of the study or indicate what behavior is required of them are referred to as demand characteristics.Answer A: Treatment diffusion (also known as treatment spillover) occurs when participants in one group inadvertently receive (or learn about) the intervention that has been applied to participants in another group.Answer C: The placebo effect refers to an improvement in physical or mental health that occurs in response to a "fake" treatment (e.g., a sugar pill) typically because the individual expects that the treatment will be effective.Answer D: Confirmation bias is the tendency to pay attention to information confirming one's current beliefs or preconceptions.

Question ID #12355: When using the technique known as blocking _____. Select one: A.the researcher is looking to manipulate one independent variable per "block" B.the researcher is trying to control the effects of a (confounding) extraneous variable C.the researcher is attempting to parse out the effects on the dependent variable at different levels of the independent variable D.the researcher is seeking to sort participants by a naturally occurring grouping characteristic

The correct answer is B.When using blocking, the researcher is trying to control the effects of a (confounding) extraneous variable by treating it as an independent variable so a researcher can evaluate its main and interaction effects on the dependent variable.Answer A: This is not characteristic of the blocking technique. When using this technique, the researcher is trying to control the effects of a (confounding) extraneous variable.Answer C: This is not characteristic of the blocking technique. When using this technique, the researcher is trying to control the effects of a (confounding) extraneous variable.Answer D: This is not reflective of the blocking technique. Researchers use blocking to attempt to control the effects of an extraneous variable.

Question ID #14060: Which of the following is not an anticholinergic effect? Select one: A. blurred vision B. constipation C. increased urinary frequency D. confusion

The correct answer is C. Increased urinary frequency is not an anticholinergic effect. Answers A, B, and D. Anticholinergic effects are caused by several drugs including antipsychotics and tricyclic antidepressants. They include dry mouth, blurred vision, tachycardia, urinary retention, constipation, memory impairment, and confusion

Question ID #11360: Which of the following performance appraisal techniques would be most useful when a primary goal of appraisal is to provide employees with specific feedback that will help them improve their job performance? Select one: A.forced-choice B.forced-distribution C.BARS D.BIB

The correct answer is C. The performance appraisal techniques used in organizations differ not only in terms of the ways in which they are developed and executed but also in the amount and type of feedback they provide to employees. BARS (behaviorally-anchored rating scale) is a graphic rating scale in which an employee's performance on several dimensions is rated in terms of specific behaviors. This format facilitates providing the employee with feedback about acceptable and unacceptable work-related behaviors. Answer A: The forced-choice technique requires the rater to pick the statements from several that are most and least descriptive of the employee. Although this technique helps reduce certain rater biases, it is less useful than BARS for providing employees with feedback about their job performance.Answer B: The forced-distribution technique requires the rater to assign a certain percentage of employees to one of several predetermined categories (e.g., highest 10%, next highest 20%, middle 40%, and so on). It does not generate the kind of information that is useful for feedback purposes.Answer D: A BIB (biographical information blank) is not a performance appraisal technique but, instead, a method for collecting biographical data from job applicants.

Question ID #11361: The research indicates that, when Total Quality Management (TQM) fails to live up to its potential, this is most often because: Select one: A.the team leader lacks adequate leadership skills. B.there was too much reliance on team (versus individual) effort. C.employees were not sufficiently involved in decision-making. D.pay and other benefits were not adequately linked to team performance.

The correct answer is C. The primary goal of TQM is to continuously improve the quality of the organization's products and services. This is accomplished by evaluating customer satisfaction, maximizing employee involvement and empowerment, and making continuous improvements in organizational processes. Although TQM emphasizes team involvement in decision-making, decisions are too often made unilaterally by the supervisor. Answer A: Although leader ability is always important, it has not been identified as a particular problem in TQM, which emphasizes the involvement of employees in decision-making processes.Answer B: Teamwork is considered a key feature of TQM; and the research has shown that, under the right circumstances, teamwork is associated with positive outcomes for the company.Answer D: Pay and other benefits not adequately linked to team performance have not been identified as a problem by the research on TQM.

Which area of the brain keeps track of the position of the body relative to the world? A.primary motor cortex B.prefrontal cortex C.posterior parietal cortex D.supplementary motor cortex

The correct answer is C.Ataxia is a symptom of several disorders including multiple sclerosis, cerebral palsy, and stroke. Ataxia involves a loss of balance and coordination that is caused by damage to the cerebellum, dorsal spinal cord, or vestibular system.Answer A: A complete loss or significant impairment of movement is referred to as akinesia.Answer B: An uncomfortable sense of restlessness or agitation is referred to as akathisia.Answer D: Athetosis involves slow, writhing, involuntary movements.

Question ID #14087: Abrupt cessation of _____________ can produce nightmares and an REM rebound. Select one: A.beta-blockers B.benzodiazepines C.barbiturates D.narcotics

The correct answer is C.Barbiturate use causes a decrease in REM sleep, and abrupt cessation can produce an REM rebound and nightmares.Answer A: Abruptly discontinuing beta-blockers can cause sweating, palpitations, headache, and cardiac arrhythmia.Answer B: Abrupt cessation of benzodiazepines can lead to seizures, depersonalization, panic, and stroke.Answer D: Withdrawal symptoms of narcotics include insomnia and flu-like symptoms.

Question ID #12358: Dr. Angela Angst is using a repeated measures design to compare the effects of different techniques for reducing free-floating anxiety. To control potential carryover effects, Dr. Angst should use which of the following? Select one: A.Randomized blocking B.Trend analysis C.Counterbalancing D.Point biserial correlation

The correct answer is C.Carryover effects occur in repeated measures designs when the effects of one treatment have an impact on the effects of subsequent treatments. Counterbalancing distributes the carryover effects evenly across the treatment groups so their influence is balanced.Answer A: Randomized blocks design are used for controlling extraneous variables that are NOT the result of using a repeated measures design.Answer B: Trend analysis involves one or more quantitative independent variables and the researcher wants to evaluate the shape, pattern, or form of the relationship between independent and dependent variables.Answer D: The point biserial coefficient is used when one variable is continuous and the other is a true dichotomy.

Question ID #12366: In a negatively skewed distribution of scores_____. Select one: A.most of the scores fall towards the low end and few fall towards the high end. The mean is greater than the mode. B.most of the scores cluster in the extreme high and low ends. The mean and the median are in the center, but there are two modes. C.most of the scores fall in the high end with few falling in the low end. The mean is less than the mode. D.most of the scores are evenly distributed, but they are negatively correlated to the independent variable.

The correct answer is C.In a negatively skewed distribution, more values are concentrated on the right side of the distribution graph while the left tail of the distribution graph is longer, indicating outliers (i.e., most of the scores fall in the high end with few falling in the low end). With a negatively skewed distribution, the mean is always less than the mode because it is most affected by outliers whereas the mode is the most frequently occurring score.Answer A: In a positively skewed distribution, more values are concentrated on the left side of the distribution, while the right tail of the distribution graph is longer. The mean has the highest value; the mode has the lowest value, and the median is between the mean and the mode.Answer B: This describes a bi-modal distribution.Answer D: This is unrelated to negatively skewed distributions.

Which of the following behavioral observation techniques would be most useful for evaluating the extent to which a student remains on-task while the teacher is talking? A.Event recording B.Latency recording C.Interval recording D.Duration recording

The correct answer is C.Interval recording is useful for behaviors that do not have a clear beginning or end (e.g., on-task behavior) and involves recording whether or not the behavior occurred during each interval.Answer A: Event recording (sampling) is useful for behaviors that occur infrequently, have a long duration, and/or leave a permanent record or other product.Answer B: Latency recording is used to determine how long it takes for a behavior to begin after a specific antecedent event has occurred (e.g., after a verbal demand or request has been made).Answer D: Duration recording is used to capture how long a behavior lasts and is most useful for behaviors with a clear beginning and end.

To statistically analyze rank-ordered data obtained from two correlated groups, you would use which of the following? Select one: A.Mann-Whitney U B.Kruskal-Wallis C.Wilcoxon D.ANCOVA

The correct answer is C.Knowing that the full name of this test is the Wilcoxon matched-pairs signed-ranks test would have helped you identify it as the correct response. The Wilcoxon is the appropriate test for rank-ordered data obtained from correlated groups (e.g., groups that have been formed by matching participants on the basis of their scores on a pretest or extraneous variable and then randomly assigning members of each matched pair to one of two groups). For the exam, you want to be familiar with the appropriate use of all of the tests listed in the answers to this question. Additional information on these tests is provided in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials.Answer A: The Mann-Whitney U test is used to analyze rank-ordered data from two independent groups.Answer B: The Kruskal-Wallis test is used to analyze rank-ordered data from two or more independent groups.Answer D: The ANCOVA is a type of analysis of variance that allows the researcher to statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable. Like other forms of the analysis of variance, it is used when data represent an interval or ratio scale of measurement.

Question ID #14043: Which of these drugs is not a benzodiazepine? Select one: A.Valium B.Lorazepam C.Nardil D.Ativan

The correct answer is C.Nardil is an MAOI, not a benzodiazepine.Answers A, B, and D: These are all included in the benzodiazepine drug category.

A teacher converts students' raw scores on a 200-item test to percent correct scores. What scale of measurement do the converted scores represent? A.Ordinal B.Interval C.Ratio D.Nominal

The correct answer is C.Percent correct scores represent a ratio scale of measurement (i.e., they have the properties of order, equal intervals, and an absolute 0 point). With percent correct scores, it is possible to conclude that someone who obtains a score of 50% got twice as many items correct as someone whose score is 25%.Answer A: Ordinal scale data are ordered categories where the distances between categories are not known.Answer B: On an interval scale, there is order and the distance between two values is meaningful but there is no natural zero point.Answer D: This scale describes variables that are categorized without having a natural rank or order.

Question ID #14066: How many women of reproductive age are regularly impacted by the symptoms of premenstrual syndrome (PMS)? Select one: A.1 B.10-30% C.30-80% D.40-60%

The correct answer is C.Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) includes anxiety, depression, emotional lability, fluid retention, backache, food cravings, and headaches. Its cause is not well understood and reported estimates of prevalence range from 30-80% of women of reproductive age. 1.8-5.8% have symptoms that are severe enough to qualify for PMDD.Answers A, B, and D: See rationale for Answer C.

"Sampling error" is _____. A.the tendency of sample statistics to vary from one another due to unintended effects of the treatment B.the tendency of sample statistics to vary from population parameters due to the effects of systematic error C.the tendency of sample statistics to vary from population parameters due to the effects of random error D.the tendency of sample statistics to vary from population parameters due to the unreliability of the measuring instruments

The correct answer is C.Sampling error is due to chance variations that can be expected in samples that have been randomly drawn from the population. Sampling error refers to the discrepancies between sample values and corresponding population values (parameters) that are due to chance factors in the selection process. Note that, by definition, sampling error is random, not systematic.Answer A: The tendency of sample statistics to vary from one another due to unintended effects of the treatment addresses error in the form of extraneous and confounding variables.Answer B: The variation in population parameters is due to random error, not a systematic error.Answer D: Error due to the unreliability of the measuring instruments is referred to as measurement error, not sampling error.

Question ID #12360: When assessing the impact of gender on preference for three different study methods (written materials, workshop, combination of written materials and workshop), you would use which of the following statistical tests to analyze the data you collect from 100 psychologists who have just started preparing for the licensing exam? Select one: A.Factorial ANOVA B.One-way ANOVA C.Multiple-sample chi-square test D.Single sample chi-square test

The correct answer is C.The chi-square test is used to analyze the frequency of observations in each category (level) of a nominal variable or other variable that is being treated as a nominal variable. Both gender and study methods are measured on a nominal scale and because there are 2 variables, you would use the multiple-sample chi-square test.Answer A: The factorial ANOVA is an extension of the one-way ANOVA and is used when a study includes two or more independent variables and the DV is measured on an interval or ratio scale. While there are two variables being described in the study, they are measured on a nominal scale, so a factorial ANOVA would not be an appropriate test.Answer B: The one-way ANOVA is used when a study includes one IV and two or more independent groups and one DV that is measured on an interval or ratio scale. All variables in the study described are measured on a nominal scale, so a one-way ANOVA would not be an appropriate test.Answer D: The single-sample chi-square test is used when a descriptive study includes only one variable and the data to be analyzed are the frequency of observations in each category of that variable. There are two variables in the study described, so a single-sample chi-square test would not be appropriate.

Question ID #12375: The chi-square test would NOT be the appropriate test for analyzing data collected in which of the following studies? Select one: A.Determining whether or not studying improved their test score by a letter. B.Comparing the number of democrats and republicans from two colleges. C.Comparing crime rates for a rural and urban area in the same state. D.Whether having an APA- accredited internship was associated with passing the EPPP.

The correct answer is C.The chi-square test is used to examine the frequency of observations in each category (level) of a nominal variable. Crime rates are a ratio level variable, not a nominal level variable.Answer A: The chi-square would be used for this purpose because both variables (whether or not someone studied and letter grade) are measured on a nominal scale.Answer B: The chi-square would be used to compare the frequency of Democrats and Republicans in two different colleges.Answer D: The chi-square would be used for this purpose because it involves two nominal variables: whether or not someone had an APA-accredited internship and whether or not they passed the EPPP.

Question ID #12378: The t-test for dependent samples is used to analyze the data collected in a study involving 36 participants whose depressive symptoms are measured before and after receiving 12 sessions of therapy. The degrees of freedom for this study are_____. Select one: A.0.05 B.34 C.35 D.36

The correct answer is C.The degrees of freedom for a dependent samples t-test are calculated by the formula of n-1, where n is the number of participants or observations.Answer A: This is the typical significance level for alpha and does not indicate degrees of freedom.Answer B: This is n-2. The degrees of freedom for a dependent samples t-test are calculated by the formula of n-1, where n is the number of participants or observations.Answer D: This is the total number of participants

Which limbic brain structure is important for spatial and explicit memory and the consolidation of declarative memories? Select one: A.amygdala B.hypothalamus C.hippocampus D.cingulate cortex

The correct answer is C.The hippocampus is a limbic system structure that is important for spatial and explicit memory and the consolidation of declarative memories.Answer A: The amygdala is a limbic system structure but its primary role is related to emotions.Answer B: The hypothalamus is not a part of the limbic system and its role is with hunger, thirst, sex, sleep, movement, and body temperature.Answer D: The cingulate cortex is a limbic system structure but its primary role is with attention, emotion, and the experience of pain.

Question ID #12382: To determine the degree of association between gender and attitude toward abortion when the attitude measure represents an interval scale, you would use which of the following correlation coefficients? Select one: A.Pearson's r coefficient B.Spearman's correlation coefficient C.Point biserial D.Phi coefficient

The correct answer is C.The key to answering this question lies in identifying that the two scales of interest are a dichotomy (gender) and on an interval scale (attitude towards abortion). The point biserial correlation coefficient is appropriate when one variable is a true dichotomy and the other is measured on an interval or ratio scale. Answer A: Pearson's r measures the linear correlation between two continuous variables.Answer B: Spearman's rank-order correlations are used when both variables are ranks.Answer D: The phi coefficient measures the relationship between two dichotomous (binary) variables.

Question ID #12381: The correlation coefficient for Test A and Test B is -.40. This means that ___% of variability in Test A scores is shared in common with Test B scores. Select one: A.-0.8 B.-0.16 C.16 D.8

The correct answer is C.The magnitude of the relationship can be expressed by squaring the correlation coefficient and multiplying by 100 to get a percentage of their shared variance. In this case, -.40 squared is .16, multiplied by 100 equals 16%.Answer A: To calculate the percentage of shared variance, square the correlation coefficient (-.40), and multiply that (.16) by 100.Answer B: The magnitude of the relationship between can be expressed by squaring the correlation coefficient and multiplying by 100 to get a percentage of their shared variance.Answer D: The magnitude of the relationship between can be expressed by squaring the correlation coefficient and multiplying by 100 to get a percentage of their shared variance.

Question ID #11367: According to Krumboltz (1996), a person's career path is determined primarily by: Select one: A.basic needs and drives B.ego identity development C.perceptions of the match between his/her abilities and the requirements of the job D.learning that occurs as the result of interactions with other people

The correct answer is D. Krumboltz proposes that career decisions are based on what the individual has learned. Krumboltz's social learning theory of career decision-making proposes that career decisions are based primarily on what we have learned, especially from our interactions with others. Answer A: Roe (1972) focuses on the impact of basic needs on career development.Answer B: Ego identity development is a focus of Tiedeman and O'Hara's (1963) theory of career development.Answer C: Perceptions of the match between abilities and the requirements of the job do not accurately describe Krumboltz's theory of career decision-making.

An educational psychologist conducts a study to assess the effects of an educational program designed to improve the academic performance of children diagnosed with a mild intellectual disability. The psychologist matches 30 children with mild intellectual disability on the basis of their IQ test scores and randomly assigns the members of each matched pair so one member is assigned to the experimental group and the other is assigned to the control group. The psychologist administers the program to the children in the experimental group and following completion of the program, administers an achievement test to all children and calculates a total correct score for each child. Which of the following should the psychologist use to assess the effects of the treatment on achievement test scores? .T-test for a single sample B.T-test for independent (unrelated) samples C.T-test for dependent (related) samples D.Two-way ANOVA

The correct answer is C.The t-test for dependent (related) samples is used when the data are collected from two correlated groups, which is the case when a researcher uses matching to assign participants to groups. This study includes one independent variable that has two levels (program and no program); the data to be analyzed represent a ratio scale of measurement (total number of correct items); matching was used to control an extraneous variable (IQ score).Answer A: The t-test for a single sample is used to compare the mean from a single sample to a known population mean.Answer B: The t-test for independent samples is used to compare the means of two unrelated samples. The study in this question involves comparing means obtained from dependent (related) samples.Answer D: A two-way ANOVA is used when a study involves two independent variables. This study has one independent variable (educational program) with two levels.

A psychologist compares the effectiveness of three brief interventions for obsessive-compulsive disorder by randomly assigning adults who have received this diagnosis to one of the three interventions and measuring their symptoms prior to the beginning of treatment and one week, one month, and six months following treatment. Which of the following types of research design is the psychologist is using? Select one: A.Between-groups B.Within-subjects C.Mixed D.Counterbalanced

The correct answer is C.This study has two independent variables: type of treatment and time. In this study, the type of treatment is a between-groups variable because each participant is assigned to one of the three interventions. Time is a within-subjects variable because all participants are being evaluated on the dependent variable at four different times. Studies that have both between-groups and within-subjects variables are referred to as mixed designs.Answer A: The type of treatment is a between-groups variable since each participant is assigned to one of the three interventions, but a between-groups design only accounts for half of the independent variables in this study. Time is a within-subjects variable since all participants are being evaluated on the dependent variable at four different times. Because the psychologist used both between-groups and within-subjects independent variables, this is a mixed design.Answer B: Time is a within-subjects variable since all participants are being evaluated on the dependent variable at four different times, but a within-subjects design only accounts for half of the independent variables in this study. Type of treatment is a between-groups variable since each participant is assigned to one of the three interventions. Because the psychologist used both between-groups and within-subjects independent variables, this is a mixed design.Answer D: A counterbalanced design is a type of within-subjects design that involves administering the different levels of the independent variable to different groups of participants in a different order.

Question ID #14083: Tourette Syndrome has been most associated with a dysfunction in which of the following structures of the brain? Select one: A.dentate gyrus B.pons C.basal ganglia D.mammillary bodies

The correct answer is C.Tourette Syndrome is a neuropsychiatric disorder characterized by vocal and motor tics. Tics represent a symptom traditionally associated with a dysfunction of the basal ganglia leading to an excess of the neurotransmitter, dopamine.Answer A: The dentate gyrus is part of the hippocampus and is involved in the formation of new episodic memories.Answer B: The pons contains nuclei that relay signals from the forebrain to the cerebellum, along with nuclei that contribute to sleep, respiration, swallowing, bladder control, taste, eye movement, and posture.Answer D: The mammillary bodies are connected to the hypothalamus and are involved in episodic memory.

Statistical regression is a potential threat to a study's internal validity when _____. Select one: A.there is a statistically different number of participants in the study's treatment groups B.there is a statistically significant difference in the number of participants who drop out of the different treatment groups during the course of the study C.participants are selected for inclusion in the study because of their extremely high or low scores on the pretest D.the researcher is unable to randomly assign participants to the different treatment groups

The correct answer is C.When participants are chosen for inclusion in a study because of their extreme scores on the pretest, it is likely that their scores will "regress to the mean" on the post-test, regardless of the effects of the treatment. This can make it difficult to ascertain the effects of the independent variable on the dependent variable. Statistical regression refers to the tendency of extreme scores to "regress to the mean" on retesting (i.e., for examinees who obtained extremely high or extremely low scores on a measure to obtain scores closer to the mean when retested).Answer A: Unequal numbers of participants in treatment groups is not related to statistical regression and will not have an impact on an individual's scores regressing to the mean.Answer B: Attrition (mortality) threatens internal validity when the characteristics of those who drop out differ in an important way from those who remained and does not impact an individual's scores regressing to the mean.Answer D: The lack of random assignment does impact internal validity, but it is not related to statistical regression.

Question ID #11370: To intervene effectively, a mediator should: Select one: A.encourage direct contact between disputants at the beginning of the mediation process B.hold early discussions in an "open site" that is readily observed and influenced by interested parties C.prioritize relevant issues so they can be settled sequentially in order from the most specific to the more general D.introduce new ideas and alternatives for reaching an agreement to the disputants

The correct answer is D. A mediator is a neutral third party whose primary task is to help disputants reach an agreement. Perhaps the most creative thing a mediator can do is to introduce new issues and alternatives, thereby broadening the disputants' horizons and providing them with ideas for achieving integrative agreements (J. Z. Rubin et al., Social conflict: Escalation, stalemate, and settlement, New York, McGraw-Hill, Inc., 1994, p. 209). Answer A: Encouraging direct contact between disputants at the beginning of the mediation process is a good idea only when the conflict between disputants is mild. With more serious conflicts, the better course of action is to initially meet separately with each disputant to identify and clarify the relevant issues.Answer B: A closed site is preferable during the initial stages of mediation. An open site is best when an agreement between disputants is very close to being reached.Answer C: It is usually more effective to address multiple issues as a package rather than to negotiate issues separately. Also, when there are a large number of issues that must be resolved separately, it is better to progress from the more general to the more specific.

A meta-analysis of the research conducted by Baltes et al. (1999) found that, in terms of job outcomes, the compressed workweek has the least impact on: A.overall job satisfaction. B.satisfaction with work schedule. C.supervisor performance ratings. D.objective measures of job performance.

The correct answer is D. The compressed workweek decreases the number of days worked in a given work cycle by increasing the number of hours worked per day. For example, a compressed workweek might entail four ten-hour shifts rather than the usual five eight-hour shifts. In their meta-analysis of the research, Baltes and colleagues found that the compressed workweek had positive effects on supervisor ratings of employee performance, employee overall job satisfaction, and employee satisfaction with the work schedule. In contrast, the compressed workweek did not have a strong impact on objective measures of job performance or on absenteeism [B. B. Baltes et al., Flexible and compressed workweek schedules: A meta-analysis of their effects on work, Journal of Applied Psychology, 1999, 84(4), 496-513]. Note that these findings are not entirely consistent with earlier conclusions about the effects of the four-day (compressed) workweek, but the question is specifically asking about Baltes's research. Answers A, B, and C: According to the research conducted by Baltes et al., in terms of job outcomes, the compressed workweek has the least impact on objective measures of job performance.

A researcher would use an ABAB design rather than an AB design in order to control which of the following threats to the study's validity? Select one: A.Diffusion B.Attrition C.Instrumentation D.History

The correct answer is D.An ABAB design is a single-subject design that involves collecting baseline data, administering the independent variable, removing the independent variable, and then readministering the independent variable. The use of an ABAB design helps determine whether or not an observed change in the dependent variable is due to the independent variable or to an external event (history). Specifically, if the participant exhibits the same change after the independent variable is administered the second time that they exhibited after it was administered the first time, that change can be assumed to have been caused by the independent variable rather than by history.Answer A: Diffusion is a threat to a study's validity when participants in one group (often a no-treatment control group) benefit from the intervention administered to another group (e.g., when participants in the control group inadvertently learn about the treatment or are accidentally exposed to it).Answer B: Attrition is a threat to a study's internal validity. It occurs when participants who drop out of one group differ in a systematic way from those who drop out of another group and this difference affects the study's results. The ABAB design would not be used in this case because we are making between-groups comparisons and the ABAB design is used for within groups comparisons or single-subject design.Answer C: Instrumentation is a threat to internal validity and refers to any change in tests or other measuring devices administered to participants during the course of the study that confounds the study's results. An ABAB design would not help control instrumentation effects.

Question ID #14061: A _____________ provides cross-sectional images of the brain by use of magnetic fields and radio waves. Select one: A. fMRI B. CT scan C. PET D. MRI

The correct answer is D.An MRI is a structural imaging technique, meaning it provides structural information about the brain. A MRI uses magnetic fields and radio waves.Answer A: A fMRI is similar to an MRI but it is a functional imaging technique, which provides information on brain activity as opposed to structure.Answer B: A CT scan is a structural imaging technique that uses X-rays.Answer C: A PET is a functional neuroimaging technique that provides information on cerebral blood flow, glucose metabolism, and oxygen consumption. When using PET, a patient is injected with a radioactive tracer that is taken up by active brain cells.

Question ID #14088: Which of the following is not true regarding traditional vs. atypical antipsychotics? Select one: A.alleviation of positive symptoms of Schizophrenia vs. alleviation of positive and negative symptoms of Schizophrenia. B.faster onset vs. slower onset C.anticholinergic side effects vs. reduced extrapyramidal side effects D.affect serotonin vs. affect glutamate

The correct answer is D.Both typical and atypical antipsychotics affect dopamine receptors but atypical antipsychotics also affect receptors for other neurotransmitters including serotonin and glutamate.Answer A: Typical antipsychotics treat positive symptoms but not negative. Atypical antipsychotics treat both negative and positive symptoms. Answer B: Typical antipsychotics have a faster onset of therapeutic effects while atypical antipsychotics have a slower onset.Answer C: Both types of antipsychotics have anticholinergic effects and extrapyramidal side effects but extrapyramidal side effects are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

Question ID #12352: Cluster sampling involves_____. Select one: A.dividing the population into segments and randomly selecting individuals from those strata B.selecting people on the basis of their availability C.selecting every nth (e.g., 10th, 100th) participant from a list of individuals in the population beginning with the random selection of the first participant D.selecting units rather than individuals

The correct answer is D.Cluster sampling involves selecting clusters (units) rather than individuals. It is a useful technique when it is not feasible to identify or obtain access to individuals in the entire population. For example, rather than randomly selecting individual high school students from the population of all high school students, it may be necessary to select a sample of high schools and then include all students in those schools or a sample of students from those schools.Answer A: This described stratified random sampling. Common strata include gender, SES, and race/ethnicity.Answer B: This describes a convenience sample.Answer C: This describes systematic sampling, which is similar to simple random sampling. Researchers select members from a larger population according to a random starting point but with a fixed, periodic interval such as every 10th or 100th participant.

Question ID #14042: A process where messages within a neuron are transmitted from a neuron's dendrites to the end of its axon is called: Select one: A.hyperpolarization B.polarization C.depolarization D.conduction

The correct answer is D.Conduction is the term for the electrical process that moves messages through a neuron.Answer A: Hyperpolarization is a change in a cell's membrane potential that makes it more negative.Answer B: Polarization is the electrical gradient across a cell's membrane.Answer C: Depolarization is the reduction in the level of polarization across a cell's membrane.

The least squares criterion is used for _____. Select one: A.isolating latent traits in a factor analysis B.predicting true scores from obtained scores C.estimating shrinkage when cross-validating a multiple regression equation D.identifying the line of best fit in a regression analysis

The correct answer is D.For the licensing exam, you want to have the least squares criterion associated with regression analysis. The least squares criterion is used to locate the regression line in a scatterplot so the amount of error in prediction is minimized when using the regression line or its equation to predict criterion scores.Answer A: Eigenvalues (how much of the observed variance the factor explains) and scree plots are most often used in isolating latent traits in a factor analysis.Answer B: Predicting true scores from obtained scores describes classical test theory.Answer C: There are two general formula categories for estimating shrinkage when cross-validating a multiple regression equation: estimators of the squared population multiple correlation coefficient and those of the squared population cross-validity coefficient.

In the context of bivariate correlational techniques, "homoscedasticity" refers to _____. A. a linear relationship between X and Y B. a nonlinear relationship between X and Y C. a different range of Y scores at different values of X D. the same range of Y scores at different values of X

The correct answer is D.Homoscedasticity is one of the assumptions for using the Pearson r and most other correlation coefficients. This assumption is met when the range of Y scores is about the same at every value of X. Homoscedasticity and heteroscedasticity are illustrated in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials.Answer A: Having a linear relationship between X and Y is a condition for regression but does not describe homoscedasticity.Answer B: A nonlinear relationship between X and Y does not meet the assumptions of regression and would therefore be the incorrect statistical technique.Answer C: A different range of Y scores at different values of X is referred to as "heteroscedasticity".

Question ID #12362: In which of the following types of research studies do participants act as their own "controls"? Select one: A.Double-blind B.Ex post facto C.Cross-sectional D.Single-subject

The correct answer is D.In single-subject designs, a researcher compares a participant's behavior during the baseline (no treatment) and treatment phases. When using single-subject designs, participants act as their own no-treatment controls.Answer A: In a double-blind study design neither the researcher nor the participants know who is receiving a particular treatment.Answer B: In ex post facto design, the independent variable is not manipulated as it has already occurred.Answer C: A cross-sectional design involves examining data from a population at one specific point in time.

When designing a research study, an investigator would be concerned about the impact of pretest sensitization on the study's external validity if _____. A.the investigator's knowledge of how participants performed on the pretest affects how the investigator scores the post-tests B.the participants know which group (experimental or control) the investigator assigned them to C.the investigator revises the post-test on the basis of how participants responded to the pretest D.taking the pretest changes how the participants react to the treatment

The correct answer is D.Pretest sensitization occurs when the administration of a pretest "sensitizes" participants to the purpose of the research study and, as a result, alters their reaction to the treatment. This is a potential threat to external validity and the results of the study cannot be generalized to situations in which a pretest is not administered prior to delivery of the treatment.Answer A: Internal validity is threatened when subjects' pretest and post-test scores are affected by the investigator's knowledge of test performance rather than the independent variable.Answer B: Having prior knowledge of which group participants' have been assigned could affect the outcome which is unrelated to the independent variable.Answer C: Instrumentation is a threat to internal validity.

In which of the following studies would an investigator use the split-plot ANOVA to analyze the collected data? A.A study in which each participant receives only one level of Variable A and one level of Variable B B.A study in which participants who received level 1 of Variable A also received either level 1 or 2 of Variable B, while participants who received level 2 of Variable A received either level 3 or 4 of Variable B C.A study in which each participant received all levels of Variable A but in a different order D.A study in which each participant received only one level of Variable A but all levels of Variable B

The correct answer is D.Split-plot is another name for "mixed," and a researcher would use a split-plot ANOVA when the study uses a mixed design (i.e., it includes both between-groups and within-subjects comparisons). This is the only answer that describes a mixed design: Variable A is a between-groups variable, while Variable B is a within-subjects variable. Additional information about between-groups and within-subjects designs is provided in the Statistics and Research Design chapter of the written study materials.Answer A: This answer describes a study that includes two between-groups variables.Answer B: This answer describes a nested design.Answer C: This answer describes a counterbalanced design with a single independent variable.

Question ID #14051: Which antidepressant is likely to have an initially high sedative effect? Select one: A.NDRI B.SSRI C.MAOI D.TCA

The correct answer is D.TCAs are also known as tricyclics. These types of antidepressants block histamine receptors, which results in drowsiness and sedation.Answer A: NDRIs (e.g. Wellbutrin) have fewer anticholinergic side effects than TCAs and do not cause sexual dysfunction but can aggravate pre-existing psychosis and seizures.Answer B: SSRIs often have side effects of gastrointestinal disturbance, insomnia, tremor, frequent urination, and sexual dysfunction.Answer C: The common side effects of MAOIs include anticholinergic effects, hypertensive crisis, weight gain and swelling, and headaches.

Question ID #12364: A researcher would use the Solomon four-group design to control which of the following threats to the validity of a research study? Select one: A.Regression to the mean B.Experimental mortality C.Maturation D.Pre-testing effects

The correct answer is D.The Solomon four-group design is used to measure the effects of pretesting on a study's internal and external validity.Answer A: Regression to the mean is best controlled for by conducting a randomized controlled trial during the design stage.Answer B: Experimental mortality cannot be directly controlled. Strategies such as trying to prevent dropouts, determining the cause of dropout, and determining whether it contributed to the differences observed can all be helpful in minimizing dropout.Answer C: Maturation is often controlled by limiting the amount of time between pre and post-tests.

When using a "multiple-baseline" design, a researcher will _____. Select one: A.apply and then withdraw the same treatment multiple times B.change the performance criterion gradually over the course of the study C.compare two or more treatments that are simultaneously applied to the same participant(s) D.sequentially apply a treatment to different behaviors or participants

The correct answer is D.The multiple-baseline design is a type of single-subject design. When using the multiple-baseline design, a treatment is sequentially applied to different baselines (i.e., to different behaviors, to the same behavior in different settings, or to the same behavior performed by different individuals). Unlike a "reversal" design, the multiple-baseline design does not require the withdrawal of the treatment during the course of the study.Answer A: This describes the reversal (withdrawal) design.Answer B: This describes the changing criterion design.Answer C: A multiple-baseline does not involve two or more treatments that are applied simultaneously, so this response does not describe the multiple-baseline design.

Question ID #14082: Doxepin, Elavil, and Tofranil all belong to which category of drugs? Select one: A.conventional antipsychotics B.atypical antipsychotics C.MAOIs D.TCAs

The correct answer is D.These drugs are all TCAs.Answers A, B, and C: See rationale for Answer D.