EPPP_Key_Test_Learning_and_Cognitive_Affective_Questions

Test 3 10. Phallic is to initiative vs. guilt as latency is to. a. autonomy vs. shame and doubt. b. identity vs. role confusion. c. industry vs. inferiority. d. generativity vs. stagnation.

10. C. The terms presented in this question represent stages in Freud's and Erikson's theories of development. Freud's phallic and Erikson's initiative vs. guilt stages occur at about ages 3 to 6, while Freud's latency and Erikson's industry vs. inferiority stages occur at about ages 6 to 12.

Test 3: 100. The research has shown that, among children, categorization or distinction on the basis of which of the following develops prior to two years of age. a. age. b. age and gender. c. age and race. d. race.

100. B. The "top three" characteristics on which young children make distinctions are age, gender, and race. There is evidence that infants make categorical distinctions between men and women and between adults and children before one year of age. However, children do not make distinctions on the basis of race before they reach preschool age.

`Test 4: **asked about physical health and men and social support..does it help? 146. Numerous studies have found that social support is a causal contributor to physical and psychological health. Further, research on the "buffering hypothesis" indicates that the critical factor in determining if a person's health will be adversely affected by stress is whether. a. the person has a sufficient number of social supports. b. the person perceives available supports to be adequate. c. the person has previously received support in the past. d. the person's support system is actually adequate.

146. B. Research on the "buffering hypothesis" has focused on the individual's perceived (versus actual) support system. Most measures of support in the research on the buffering hypothesis have assessed perceived availability of adequate support, and this seems to be the crucial factor in determining whether social support reduces the negative effects of stress.

Test 5: 147. The procedure known as stress inoculation involves three basic phases. The final phase can be described as being most similar to which of the following. a. implosive therapy. b. systematic desensitization. c. overcorrection. d. operant extinction.

147. B. The three phases of stress inoculation are (1) education. (2) rehearsal/skills training, and (3) application training. The final stage of stress inoculation involves having the client practice his or her newly-acquired coping skills to imagined or in vivo stress-arousing situations that are presented in hierarchical order from least to most stress-arousing. This procedure most resembles systematic desensitization. Implosive therapy, response A, involves having individuals repeatedly imagine an anxiety-arousing situation and to experience anxiety as intensely as possible in order to extinguish the anxiety response. Overcorrection, response C, is used to decrease undesirable behaviors by having the individual correct the negative consequences of the behavior and practice more appropriate behaviors. Operant extinction, response D, occurs when previously reinforced behaviors are no longer reinforced.

Test 4:180. Research has demonstrated that recall of a particular piece of information is greater after five hours of sleep than after five hours of wakeful activity. This finding tends to discredit which of the following theories of forgetting. a. interference. b. memory trace decay. c. retrieval cue. d. motivated forgetting.

180. B. This research discredits memory trace decay theory which attributes memory loss to a decay in memory traces as the result of the passage of time. These findings suggest that memory loss is more than a simple decay of memory traces since a similar amount of decay should have occurred regardless of whether subjects slept or engaged in another activity. This research actually supports interference theory,response A, which proposes that memory loss is due to interference (i.e., stimuli encountered during the period of activity interferes with previously acquired information).

Test 4:183. A securely attached infant. a. may or may not become upset when the parent leaves the room; is comforted by a stranger; and seeks contact with the parent on reunion. b. becomes upset when the parent leaves the room; is unlikely to be comforted by a stranger; and seeks comfort from the parent on reunion. c. becomes upset when the parent leaves the room; is comforted by a stranger; and may or may not seek contact with the parent on reunion. d. becomes upset when the parent leaves the room; seeks comfort from a stranger if upset; and resumes play when the parent returns.

183. B. Research by Ainsworth and her colleagues identified three main patterns of attachment: secure, anxiety/avoidant, and anxious/resistant. Securely attached children become verbally and visually upset when a parent leaves the room, are not comforted by a stranger, and, on reunion with the parent, seek contact and comfort but gradually return to play.

Test 4:185. During Piaget's heteronomous stage, children's moral judgments are based on. a. the intentions behind the act. b. the seriousness of the consequences of the act. c. the status of the actor. d. the events leading up to the act.

185. B. Piaget proposed a sequence of moral development involving three stages: premoral, moral realism, and moral relativism. Rules and the consequences of violating a rule are the basis of moral judgment during the stage of moral realism (which is also called the heteronomous stage = moral realism).

Test 4: 186. Which of the following treatments entails a combination of exposure to a feared stimulus coupled with psychodynamtc interpretation of the fear. a. overcorrection. b. implosive therapy. c. covert sensitizatlon. d. PST.

186. B. Of the responses given, only one consists of a combination of behavioral techniques and psychodynamic principles. Implosive therapy combines classical extinction with psychodynamic interpretation. It is often used to treat phobias and to eliminate self-reinforcing behaviors. Overcorrection, response A, is an operant technique that is usually classified as a type of punishment. Covert sensitization, response C, is a type of aversive conditioning that is conducted in imagination. It does not incorporate psychodynamic interpretation. PST (Problem Solving Therapy), response D, is a cognitive technique used to help clients learn to cope with current and future problems.

Test 4: 191. As a treatment for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, hypnosis. a. is contraindicated because it often paradoxically exacerbates symptoms. b. has been found to be more effective for compulsions than obsessions. c. may have clinical utility, especially when combined with other behavioral techniques. d. is as effective or, in some cases, more effective than other behavioral techniques.

191. C. In vivo exposure with response prevention (flooding) has become the treatment-of-choice for OCD. However, other treatments have been evaluated and found to have some degree of clinical efficacy. The few studies that have evaluated hypnosis as a treatment for OCD have found that it helps reduce obsessions, especially when it is combined with other treatments such as flooding. The studies suggest that hypnosis is not more effective, response D, than other treatments but that it might be a useful adjunctive intervention.

Test 4:197. At BLANK months of age, infants begin to search for a hidden object but reach for the object in the last place they found it even when they have seen the object moved to another location. a. 4 to 8. b. 8 to 12. c. 12 to 18. d. 18 to 24.

197. B. The behavior described in this question is referred to as the "A-not-B error." At about eight months of age, children first provide evidence that they know that objects exist when they are out of view. However, they commit the A-not-B error, which continues to about 12 months of age. During the four to eight month stage, infants reach for a partially hidden object but stop if the object disappears from view.

Test 3: 40. Longitudinal research has shown that the "Big Five" personality traits remain relatively stable from midlife until later adulthood. However, when individuals reach their 80s and 90s, status on three of the Five traits often shifts. Specifically. a. agreeableness, sociability, and acceptance of change all increase. b. agreeableness and sociability increase, while acceptance of change decreases. c. acceptance of change increases, while agreeableness and sociability decrease. d. agreeableness and acceptance of change increase, while sociability decreases.

40. D. Longitudinal and cross-sectional studies suggest that the Big Five personality traits are relatively stable until late adulthood. At that time,agreeableness and acceptance of change increase, while sociability decreases. This is the finding reported by D. Field and R. E. Millsap.

Test 3: 41. One factor that limits the cognitive abilities of preoperational children is the inability to simultaneously consider several aspects of a situation at once. This inability is referred to as: a. irreversibility. b. centration. c. transduction. d. decentration.

41. B. According to Piaget, the preoperational child is unable to conserve due to limitations in cognitive ability. Centration refers to focusing on only one aspect of a situation while neglecting others. It is believed to be one of the primary reasons why preoperational children cannot conserve. Irreversibility, response A, is one of the cognitive limitations of the preoperational stage but refers to the inability to understand that an operation can be reversed. Transductive reasoning, response C, is also characteristic of the preoperational stage. However, it refers to the child's tendency to see a causal relationship between events that occur in sequence when none exists. Decentration, response D, is one of the abilities that emerge in the concrete operational stage and allow the child to conserve.

`Test 4: asked about locus of control...a depressed person will or learned helplessness will determine that a situation has internal control or external control... 42. According to Aaron Beck's theory of depression, in response to a negative event, a depressed person is most likely to manifest an. a. external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility. b. external locus of control and external locus of responsibility. c. internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility. d. internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility.

42. A. Beck proposes that depressed people tend to exhibit certain types of cognitive distortions. When faced with a negative event, a depressed individual is likely to exhibit a "control fallacy" (view him or herself as a hapless victim of fate) and personalization ("if anything goes wrong, it's my fault"). This paradox (an external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility) is one of the reasoning errors that contribute to depression.

Test 4:43. As defined by Aaron Beck, overgeneralization, personalization, and catastrophizing are. a. the "cognitive triad". b. cognitive distortions. c. cognitive schemata. d. automatic thoughts.

43. B. Aaron Beck describes several cognitive phenomena that contribute to depression, anxiety, and other disorders. The cognitive distortions (errors in reasoning) identified by Beck include overgeneralization, personalization, and catastrophizing. The cognitive triad, response A, refers specifically to the cognitive profile underlying depression (i.e., negative views of oneself, the world, and the future). Schemata, response C, are ways of organizing and interpreting experiences that develop in early childhood and may be latent until later in life when they are activated by stress. Automatic thoughts, response D, are repetitive, automatic self-statements that are elicited by certain stimuli and that are associated with strong emotions.

Test 4:44. All of the following are categorized as operant methods for reducing or eliminating undesirable behaviors except: a. extinction. b. response cost. c. negative reinforcement. d. D.R.O.

44. C. All of the techniques listed in the responses -except one -are used to decrease or eliminate a behavior. Negative reinforcement is used to increase a behavior. It involves removing a stimulus following the behavior in order to increase that behavior. Extinction, response A, is used to eliminate a previously reinforced behavior. Response cost, response B, is a type of negative punishment and is used to decrease behavior. D.R.O. (differential reinforcement for other behavior), response D, is used both to eliminate an undesirable behavior and establish alternative (desirable) behaviors.

Test 3: 45. A 2-1/2 year old whines until his mother picks him up. In this situation, the mother's behavior is being controlled by. a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. positive punishment. d. negative punishment.

45. B. In this situation, the mother's "picking-up-her-child" behavior is being reinforced by the cessation of her child's whining. The mother's behavior increases ("reinforcement") because of the stimulus that is removed following the behavior ("negative"). Positive reinforcement, response A, occurs when a behavior increases because of the stimulus that is applied following the behavior. Positive punishment, response C, occurs when a behavior decreases because of the application of a stimulus following the behavior. Negative punishment, response D, occurs when a behavior decreases because of the removal or cessation of a stimulus following the behavior.

Test 3: 46. An eighth grader goes through the motion of reading his history text without realizing that he has failed to understand the material he has just read. This. a. is indicative of low intelligence. b. is indicative of a learning disability. c. illustrates a lack of tacit knowledge. d. illustrates poor metacognitive skills.

46. D. In this situation, the student is apparently unaware of his own cognitive processes. The inability to monitor one's own cognitive processes suggests poor metacognitive ("knowing about knowing") skills. Response A is incorrect as this is not necessarily a sign of low intelligence. Response B is incorrect as this is not necessarily a sign of a learning disability. Tacit knowledge, response C, refers to strategies for success that aren't usually formally taught.

Test 3: 67. Longitudinal research on the impact of early temperament on adjustment at age 21 has found that. a. temperament predicts behavior at age 21 only for children classified as undercontrolled at age 3. b. temperament predicts behavior at age 21 only for children classified as inhibited at age 3. c. temperament predicts behavior at age 21 only for children classified as well-adjusted at age 3. d. temperament predicts behavior at age 21 for children classified as either undercontrolled, inhibited, or well-adjusted at age 3.

67. D. This question is addressing a specific research project -i.e., the Dunedin Study -that has followed a cohort of children born in the Dunedin region in New Zealand. Results of the study indicate that basic temperament at age 3 is predictive of outcomes for a significant number of children. For example, children rated as inhibited (slow-to-warm-up) at age 3 were most likely to report depression and low levels of social support at age 21.

Test 3: 68. Based on their longitudinal study of at-risk children residing on the Hawaiian Island of Kauai, Werner and Smith (1992) concluded that the most important protective factor is. a. a consistent trusting relationship with a parent, grandparent, or other person. b. a higher-than-average IQ. c. a lack of serious pathology in first-degree relatives. d. non-exposure to drugs or malnutrition during prenatal development.

68. A. E. Werner and R. Smith found that resilient high-risk children have several characteristics that distinguish them from their less-resilient peers. Werner and Smith's research indicated that resilient children have a "cluster of protective factors" but that one element in the cluster of all children was a consistent relationship with a parent, grandparent, older sibling, etc.

Test 4: 7. A school psychologist is trying to determine why a fourth grade student with an above-average IQ is doing poorly in school. He talks to the student's parents and teacher separately and then meets with them jointly to discuss similarities and differences in the boy's behaviors at home and school. From the perspective of Bronfenbrenner's bioecological model, the psychologist is investigating which of the following. a. microsystem and mesosystem. b. microsystem and exosystem. c. macrosystem and mesosystem. d. macrosystem and exosystem.

7. A. Bronfenbrenner's model distinguishes between five interlocking contextual systems that impact a child's development. The microsystem includes aspects of the child's environment that affect him/her directly (e.g., school and home). The mesosystem refers to the interactions between elements of the microsystem (e.g., the interaction between home and school). The exosystem, response B, includes factors that indirectly affect the child (e.g., the parents' workplaces and social networks). The macrosystem, response C, includes cultural values and customs, the economic system, etc.

Test 4:70. A number of investigators have studied learning processes in non-human animals. Which of the following does not accurately pair an investigator with the aspect of learning he studied. a. Tolman/cognitive maps. b. Kohler/the "aha" experience. c. Thorndike/reinforcement. d. Kandel/taste aversion learning.

70. D. This question is a simple one as long as you are familiar with the names listed in the responses. Kandel studied neural mechanisms underlying associative and nonassociative learning in Aplysia (sea slug). Response A is incorrect because based on his study of spatial learning in rats, Tolman did conclude that they form cognitive maps. Response B is incorrect. Kohler's studies with chimpanzees provided evidence of insight learning in these animals. Thorndike, response C, found that the behavior of cats in puzzle boxes was influenced by the consequences of that behavior, and specifically that "satisfying consequences" (reinforcement) increased the probability that a behavior would occur again.

Test 4:71. According to M. Seligman, when a person with an optimistic attribution style does poorly on an exam in a class he ordinarily does well in, that person will most likely say. a. I didn't study hard enough. b. I was unlucky. c. The teacher gave a very hard test this time. d. The teacher always grades on the curve.

71. C. According to Seligman's theory of learned optimism, the attributions of optimistic people are just the opposite of those made by depressed and other pessimistic people. Of the responses given, the teacher gave a very hard test this time, fits best with Seligman's theory, which proposes that optimistic people tend to make external, specific, and temporary attributions for negative events. Response A, I didn't study hard enough, is an internal attribution and is not consistent with Seligman's theory. Response B, I was unlucky, isn't as good of a response as response c. Response D, the teacher always grades on the curve, is a global (rather than specific) attribution.

Test 3: 86. A drive for order that involves the testing of patterns and structures against the real world is referred to as. a. elaboration. b. deduction. c. equilibration. d. accommodation.

86. C. As defined by Piaget, equilibration involves a combination of assimilation and accommodation and is motivated by a drive for balance or order. This is a difficult question because, while it may ask about a familiar concept, it uses language that is unfamiliar. Using the "process of elimination" may have helped you choose the correct answer. Elaboration, response A, refers to the process of increasing the number of associations between items of information, which enhances the meaningfulness of the information and is associated with improvements in retention and retrieval. Deduction, response B, refers to reasoning from the general to the specific. Accommodation, response D, is only one aspect of equilibration.

Test 3: 87. In their three-year study of 100 fourth, sixth, and eigth graders in four states and the District of Columbia, Sadker and Sadker (1994) looked at teacher interactions with male and female students. They found that. a. while boys are much more likely to call out answers in class, teachers call on boys and girls at about equal rates. b. while boys receive more negative attention, girls receive more positive attention from their teachers. c. girls experience sexual harassment from their teachers more often than boys do. d. white males and females get more attention from their teachers than males and females from minority groups do.

87. C. Girls experience sexual harrassment from their teachers more often than boys do, is one of the findings of the Sadker and Sadker study. Although teachers in the Sadker and Sadker study reported treating boys and girls similarly, observations of their classrooms indicated that this was often not the case. Response A is incorrect because although this study supports the fact that boys call out in class more often than girls do, they found that boys are also more likely to be called on by their teachers. Response B is incorrect because this study found that boys receive more positive and negative attention from their teachers. Response D is incorrect. According to this study, both white and minority boys get more attention from teachers than white and minority girls do.

Test 3: 97. Research using elicited imitation tasks (e.g., imitating a sequence of events such as removing a mitten from a puppet, shaking the mitten, and then replacing the mitten on the puppet) indicate that, for most infants, the onset of the ability to recall the past occurs. a. between 3 and 6 months of age. b. between 6 and 12 months of age. c. between 12 and 18 months of age. d. between 18 and 24 months of age.

97. B. There is physiological and behavioral evidence that the neural mechanisms required for long-term memory recall undergo significant development during the second half of the first year of life. In one study using the procedure described in this question, 75 percent of infants 6, 9, or 11 months of age imitated at least one action (e.g., removing the mitten) after a delay of 24 hours. The research has also found that, by 24 months of age, children are able to provide verbal evidence of long-term recall -i.e., are able to verbally report events that occurred 6 to 13 months earlier.

Test 3: 98. Longitudinal research by Gerald Patterson and his colleagues has shown that parents of aggressive children rely on power assertion to enforce their standards. In addition, the discipline of these parents. a. is consistent and often accompanied by withdrawal of physical affection. b. is inconsistent and often not clearly linked to the child's behavior. c. is inconsistent but, when applied, usually occurs immediately after the child's misbehavior. d. is consistent and is usually accompanied by humiliating verbal messages.

98. B. Patterson and his colleagues have found that parents of highly aggressive children tend to rely on physical punishment. They also found that parents of aggressive children frequently fail to connect their punishments to the child's behavior, do not state clear rules, and do not consistently punish violation of rules.

Test 4:98. Treisman and Gelade's (1980) feature integration theory would be of most interest to a psychologist conducting research on. a. prejudice. b. conflict resolution. c. visual selective attention. d. long-term memory.

98. C. To answer this question, you have to know that the full name of feature integration theory is "feature integration theory of attention." According the feature integration theory, the perception of objects involves two stages -preattentive in which the basic aspects of an object are perceived in parallel (e.g., edges, size, color) and attentive in which these features are "glued" together into a coherent whole through a serial process.

Test 3: 99. Which of the following techniques would be least useful for assessing the perceptual abilities of a 3 or 4-month-old infant. a. sucking. b. heart rate. c. head turning. d. reaching.

99. C. This is a difficult question that requires you to be very familiar with the abilities of infants. Head turning is considered an appropriate measure of perception for children aged 5.5 to 12 months of age. High-amplitude sucking, response A, is often used to study infants' perceptual abilities and is especially useful for infants aged 1 to 4 months. Heart rate, response B, is useful as a measure of perception across a wide range of ages. Reaching, response D, is used as a measure of perception in infants aged 12 weeks and older.

`Test 4: (EPPP) 99. Research investigating the impact of family characteristics on altruism and other prosocial behaviors has shown that. a. children from high-income families are more prosocial than children from low-income families both outside and inside the home setting. b. children from large families are more prosocial than those from smaller families. c. younger siblings are more prosocial than firstborns. d. it is difficult to draw general conclusions about the relationship between family income, number of children, or ordinal position in the family and prosocial behaviors.

99. D. The research has produced inconsistent results with regard to the relationships between certain family characteristics and prosocial behaviors in children. This is the best conclusion that can be drawn from the existing research. As an example, with regard to family size, some studies have found family size to be unrelated to prosocial behavior, while others have found children in large families to be more generous but less likely to help in emergency situations or to comfort a peer.

Test 3: 135. Which of the following best describes the effects of overlearning. a. good long-term recall and resistance to extinction. b. good short-term recall but no effect on long-term recall or extinction. c. slight detrimental effects on recall. d. no significant effects on short-or long-term recall.

135. A. Overlearning refers to continued practice beyond the point of mastery. Overlearning, or practicing a behavior beyond the time required to learn it, is associated with improvements in both short-and long-term recall and resistance to extinction.

Test 4:100. Thomas and Collier (1995) reviewed the records of 42,000 language minority students in five U. S. school districts from 1982 to 1996 and concluded that. a. immersion programs have better short-and long-term effects on academic achievement than bilingual programs. b. bilingual programs have better short-and long-term effects on academic achievement than immersion programs. c. although there may be some advantage of immersion programs in terms of short-term effects on academic achievement, bilingual programs are superior in terms of long-term effects. d. although there may be some advantage of bilingual programs in terms of short-term effects on academic achievement, immersion programs are superior in terms of long-term effects.

100. C. The Thomas and Collier longitudinal study contradicts some of the earlier research. Thomas and Collier found that language minority children who remain in bilingual programs at least through sixth grade eventually catch up to and often surpass native English speakers and language minority children in immersion programs. They also found two-way bilingual programs (in which language minority and majority children learn each other's languages) to have the best long-term outcomes for language minority children. Note that this issue continues to be controversial, with some experts criticizing the methodology used by Thomas and Collier.

Test 4:102. From the perspective of Beck's cognitive therapy, the information processing of suicidal individuals is characterized by a high degree of hopelessness and. a. equivocation. b. dichotomous thinking. c. personalization. d. automatic thinking.

102. B. This one is difficult because three of the terms provided in the responses are used by Beck (dichotomous thinking, personalization, and automatic thinking). However, only one is considered a key feature of the thinking of suicidal individuals. According to Beck, hopelessness and rigid, black-and-white thinking are the essential cognitive characteristics of suicidal individuals. Treatment, therefore, targets the individual's sense of hopelessness and dichotomous thinking.

Test 4:103. Children at risk for antisocial behavior are most likely to have positive outcomes when. a. they have higher IQs. b. they are physically attractive. c. they have a special talent. d. they have higher self-esteem.

103. A. All of the factors listed in the responses can act as protective mechanisms for children at high risk. Note that this question is asking about a particular kind of risk (risk for antisocial behavior), and that other factors that might be the most important ones for other situations are not given as responses (e.g., good relationship with a caretaker, social responsivity). A number of studies report that higher IQ is associated with a better outcome for children at high risk for antisocial behavior.

Test 4:108. From the perspective of two-factor theory, the avoidance response in a phobic reaction is maintained by. a. negative reinforcement. b. positive reinforcement. c. intermittent reinforcement. d. vicarious reinforcement.

108. A. Two-factor theory describes phobic reactions as involving both classical conditioning and negative reinforcement. Negative reinforcement is occurring when a response increases because an aversive stimulus is removed following the response. In phobic reactions, the avoidance response increases because, by avoiding the feared object or event, anxiety is reduced or eliminated.

Test 4:109. Research investigating the effects of increasing age on metamemory suggests that. a. metamemory skills continue to improve throughout the lifespan. b. older adults are more likely than younger adults to underestimate the difficulty of a memory task. c. older adults are as proficient as younger adults at estimating their ability to recall information they have just studied. d. all aspects of metamemory begin to decline in the 4th or 5th decade of life.

109. C. Although some aspects of metamemory decline with increasing age, other aspects seem to be unaffected. Older people seem to be just as accurate at estimating their ability to recall newly-acquired information as younger people. Some aspects of metamemory, response A, do show declines with increasing age. Responser B is actually the opposite of what is true (and what you might have expected): Older people tend to overestimate, not underestimate the difficulty of memory tasks.

Test 3: 110. Dr. Agape uses a dismantling strategy to identify the "active ingredient" of systematic desensitization. He is most likely to find that which of the following is the critical component. a. stimulus control. b. reciprocal inhibition. c. extinction. d. gradual exposure.

110. C. Research using a dismantling strategy involves separating and comparing the various components of a treatment to identify the component or components most responsible for the treatment's effects. Studies using the dismantling strategy have found, contrary to what might be expected, that the elfects of systematic dcsensitizalion arc due to repeated exposure to the CS without the US (i.e., to classical extinction).

Test 4:111. To establish a behavior that an individual does not naturally emit, you would use. a. intermittent reinforcement. b. shaping. c. response generalization. d. priming.

111. B. One of the difficulties with operant conditioning is that it is necessary to wait until the organism emits a response so that the consequence of the response (reinforcement or punishment) can be manipulated. To overcome this problem, the desired behavior can be "shaped". Shaping involves reinforcing successive approximations to the desired behavior. In other words, when using shaping, isn't necessary to wait for the behavior to be emitted. Instead, the behavior is gradually developed or formed by reinforcing responses that come closer and closer to it.

Test 3: 136. Research investigating compliance with medical and dietary regimens among children and adolescents with diabetes mellitus suggests that compliance. a. is generally better among adolescents because of their increased knowledge about the disease. b. is generally better among adolescents as long as they are gradually given age-appropriate responsibilities. c. is generally better among preadolescent children than adolescent children. d. is not related to age.

136. C. Several studies have confirmed that, during childhood and adolescence, AGE is related to medical and dietary compliance. In one study of individuals with diabetes mellitus ranging from infancy to age 57, it was found that preadolescents exhibited the greatest compliance with medical and dietary regimens, while adolescents exhibited the worst. Some investigators suggest that such non-compliance among adolescents is related to defensiveness and acting out.

Test 3: 119. In response to the growing number of divorced parents in the United States, research on the effects of divorce on children has increased in the last two decades. Which of the following has NOT been shown to be true by such research. a. among school-aged children, following divorce, children do better if they live with the same-sex parent. b. following a divorce, noncustodial mothers are more likely to maintain contact with their children than noncustodial fathers. c. in general, children from conflictual intact families do not differ significantly in terms of behavioral problems from children from divorced families. d. although continued contact with the noncustodial father is associated with better outcome for children, no contact is better than contact when the parental relationship continues to be highly conflictual.

119. C. A number of longitudinal studies have been conducted to assess the long-term effects of divorce on the subsequent adjustment of children. Over the long-run, children are better off if their parents divorce than if they stay in a highly conflictual relationship especially if, after the divorce, the children are living in a stable single-parent or step-parent family. Response A, after divorce children do better if they live with same sex parent, is a finding of the research. Response B is also true. Although noncustodial fathers may maintain contact with their children immediately after the divorce, often, their contact rapidly decreases in frequency Response D is also true. Although research indicates that continued contact with a noncustodial father is beneficial, other studies have found that children benefit from contact with the noncustodial parent only when there is cooperation and low conflict between the parents.

Test 4:128. Developmental research has most consistently linked anxiety in an expectant mother to which of the following. a. premature birth. b. childhood autism. c. increased crying in the newborn. d. decreased activity levels in the newborn.

128. C. Developmental psychologists have found that a pregnant woman's behaviors can have lasting effects on the fetus. Of the responses given, increased crying in the newborn has been most consistently linked to anxiety in the expectant mother. Anxiety in the expectant mother is associated with increased, rather than decreased, activity levels in the newborn, as suggested in response D.

Test 4:13. A first-grade student frequently misbehaves in class. Whenever he does so, his teacher has him stand in the corner for ten minutes. During that time, he often turns around and makes faces at his classmates, and they respond by laughing and talking to him. The boy's misbehavior is being maintained by. a. habituation. b. satiation. c. positive reinforcement. d. negative reinforcement.

13. C. In this situation, the boy's misbehavior is continuing because of the attention he receives from his classmates when he misbehaves. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior increases because of a stimulus that is applied following the behavior. In this situation, the boy's misbehavior in class and in the corner is being maintained by the attention of his peers. Habituation, response A, occurs when a punishment loses its effectiveness. Satiation, response B, occurs when a reinforcer loses its effectiveness. Negative reinforcement, response D, occurs when a behavior increases because of a stimulus that is removed following the behavior.

Test 3: 131. Studies designed to identify the factors associated with fear of death suggest that middle-aged people are more anxious about death than elderly ones. Moreover, these studies suggest that. a. the fear of death, at least among college students, is associated with a rejection of the elderly. b. the fear of death is less for moderately religious people than for devoutly and irreligious people. c. the fear of death is more related to age than to sex, race, or socioeconomic status. d. all of the above.

131. C - The fear of dying has been associated with several factors. Bengtson, Cueller, and Ragan (1977) studied fear of death among Black, White, and Mexican-American subjects selected so as to be representitive of each group in terms of age and socioeconomic factors. They found fear of death to be most associated with age, with middle-aged people being more anxious about death than younger and older people. Response A is incorrect. Salter and Salter (1976) found that college students' fear of death was associated with a desire to help the elderly, not reject them. Response B is incorrect. Kalish (1976) found that fear of death was greatest for moderately religious people.

Test 4:132. Ebbinghaus was one of the first investigators to systematically study memory. In his studies, Ebbinghaus used himself as a subject and memorized lists of nonsense syllables. Results of his research indicated that. a. syllables in the middle of a list are better remembered than those at the beginning and end of the list. b. when memorizing syllables, new learning tends to interfere with previous learning. c. overlearning improves memory for syllables up to a point but thereafter has no effect. d. rote learning of syllables tends to lead to rapid forgetting.

132. D. Ebbinghaus was interested in assessing the effects of time on memory and, based on the results of his studies, constructed a "curve of forgetting," which shows that 50% of memorized syllables are forgotten within less than one hour. Ebbinghaus memorized syllables using rote learning (verbatim learning through repetition) and found that rote learning of nonsense syllables leads to rapid forgetting. Response A, syllables in the middle of a list are better remembered than those at the beginning and end of the list, is the opposite of what is true. In addition, this was not a phenomenon discussed by Ebbinghaus.. Response B, when memorizing syllables, new learning tends to interfere with previous learning, is a phenomenon referred to as retroactive inhibition but was not discussed by Ebbinghaus. Response C, overlearning improves memory for syllables up to a point but thereafter has no effect, is not true; the greater the overlearning, the greater the retention.

Test 3: 134. Which of the following is least characteristic of infants who were exposed to cocaine in utero. a. they are abnormally insensitive to tactile, visual, and auditory stimulation. b. they are excessively irritable and unresponsive to atteinpts to comfort. c. they often crawl, stand, and walk early. d. they often have a low birthweight and small head circumference.

134. A. Prenatal cocaine exposure is associated with both physical and behavioral problems in childhood. Early exposure to cocaine is associated with oversenstivity, not insensitivity, to environmental stimuli, even stimuli of low intensity. Response B is true and is one of the reasons why these children often exhibit disturbances in attachment. Cocaine-exposed children often have an unusual pattern of motor development, response C, as the result of excessive muscle tone.

Test 3: 138. A 47-year old politician teaching his aides the essentials of dirty tricks tells them, "Nothing is wrong unless you get caught." One of his aides, a developmental psychologist, comments to another aide that the politician is apparently at the BLANK level of moral development. a. preconventional. b. conventional. c. postconventional. d. instrumental.

138. A. Kohlberg's levels of moral development are preconventional morality (punishment-obedience orientation and instrumental-relativist orientation), conventional morality (good boy/nice girl orientation and law and order orientation), and postconventional morality (legalistic orientation and universal Ethical Principles orientation). Individuals at the punishment-obedience level of preconventional morality believe an action is moral to the degree that it docs not result in punishment. Although this stage is characteristic of children aged 4 to 10, it seems that this politician is also at this level. Conventional morality, respomse A, which is typical of individuals aged 10-13, is characterized by moral judgments motivated by a desire to be liked (good boy/nice girl orientation) or a desire to avoid censure by authority (law and order orientation). Postconventional morality, response B, a level which is not reached by most adults, is characterized by a concern for maintaining the social order (legalistic orientation) or meeting the criteria set by one's own conscience (universal Ethical Principles orientation). The instrumental-relativist stage, response D, in which moral judgments are based on a desire to satisfy one's own needs, is the second stage of the preconventional level.

Test 4:14. Studies on concurrent schedules of reinforcement have found that an organism's relative frequency of responding to one alternative corresponds to the relative frequency of reinforcement for responses to that alternative. This phenomenon is referred to as. a. the law of effect. b. the matching law. C. Rescorla-Wagner theory. d. the Premack principle.

14. B. The research has supported the "common sense" conclusion that an organism will respond to two different stimuli in proportion to the amount of reinforcement received for those responses. The matching law states that, when using concurrent schedules of reinforcement, the proportion of responses will match the proportion of reinforcements. Although the law of effect, response A, does make predictions about the effect of positive reinforcement, this answer is not as good (precise) as response b. The Rescorla-Wagner theory, response C, applied to classical conditioning. It predicts that the amount of conditioning depends on how "surprising" (unexpected) the association between the CS and US is: The more surprising the US, the more conditioning will occur. The Premack principle, response D, is a type of positive reinforcement in which a high frequency behavior is used as the reinforcer for a low frequency behavior.

Test 3 14. A pigeon is placed in a cage that has two levers. Lever #1 delivers reinforcement on a VI-30-second schedule, while Lever #2 delivers reinforcement on a VI-60-second schedule. What proportion of the pigeon's pecks will be on Lever # 1. a. one-third. b. two-thirds. c. one-half. d. three-fourths.

14. B. When using a concurrent VI schedule, each lever or key delivers reinforcement on a different variable interval schedule. In this situation, the animal matches the relative frequency of its pecks on each key to the relative frequency of reinforcement obtained with that key. In the situation described in the question, the pigeon will peck the VI-30 key twice as often as the VI-60 key. Put another way, two-thirds of the pigeon's pecks will be on the VI-30 key and the remaining 1/3 will be on the VI-60 key.

Test 3: 141. The underlying premise of Albert Ellis' Rational Emotive Therapy (RET) is that dysfunctional behaviors are. a. the result of irrational thoughts and beliefs. b. the result of incongruence between self and experience. c. the result of "automatic thoughts". d. the result of a lack of "awareness".

141. A. Ellis' RET assumes that irrational ways of thinking underlie dysfunctional behaviors. Response B, the result of incongruence between self and experience, is the underlying premise of Rogers' client-centered therapy. Although RET views irrational thoughts as determiners of dysfunctional behaviors, the notion of "automatic thoughts" , response C, is more characteristic of Beck's theory of and treatment for depression. Response D, the result of a lack of "awareness", is the underlying premise of Perls' Gestalt therapy.

Test 5 144. When aversive conditioning is being used to eliminate a fetish, the fetish is the. a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response.

144. C. Aversive conditioning is a form of counterconditioning which involves pairing a stimulus associated with the target behavior with a stimulus that naturally evokes an unpleasant response in order to eliminate the target behavior. A fetish is a nonsexual object (e.g., a shoe or glove) that evokes a sexual response. The conditioned stimulus is one which is paired with the unconditioned stimulus until the former elicits the same response as the latter. In the aversive conditioning of a fetish, the fetish is paired with an unconditioned stimulus until the fetish elicits the same response (e.g., aversion) as the unconditioned stimulus. In the terms of classical conditioning, the unconditioned stimulus, response A, is a stimulus that elicits the desired response before conditioning, or training, occurs. In aversive conditioning, the stimulus that naturally evokes the aversive response serves as the unconditioned stimulus. In the aversive conditioning of a fetish, the unconditioned stimulus is often electric shock. The unconditioned response, response B, is the response that is naturally elicited by the unconditioned stimulus. The response that occurs as a result of conditioning is the conditioned response, response D. The newly-acquired aversion to the fetish would represent the conditioned response.

Test 3: 146. The goodness-of-fit model proposed by Thomas and Chess implies that. a. adjustment in children is related to the degree of congruence between a child's basic temperament and his or her parents' caregiving. b. life satisfaction is related to the degree of congruence between a person's basic personality and his or her chosen lifestyle. c. adjustment to marriage is maximized when partners have similar values and goals. d. cognitive development is maximized when environmental demands are consistent with the child's biological maturation.

146. A. Thomas and Chess have conducted extensive research on temperament and its consequences. Thomas and Chess found that incongruence between a child's basic temperament and his or her parents' caregiving behaviors causes or contributes to maladjustment. Their prevention and intervention programs attempt to increase the compatibility of the behaviors of parents and their children.

Test 3: 148. The effects of a teratogenic agent on an organ system is adverse in fetal development only during the period in which the organ system grows most rapidly. This fact can be viewed as confirmation of which of the following. a. fixed-action periods. b. maturation. c. critical periods. d. sensitive periods.

148. C. To answer this question, you may have had to "translate" the information given into a simpler statement. This question is basically asking what term is used to describe the period in which an organ system is particularly sensitive to the adverse effects of a teratogenic agent (i.e., to a disease, drug, or other environmental agent that can harm the fetus). A critical period is a specific period in the development of the organism when it is especially susceptible to positive or negative environmental influences. Response A, fixed-action periods is a "made-up" term. Maturation, response B, refers to developmental changes that are genetically-programmed rather than being caused by learning or other life experiences. Although maturation can be affected by environmental events, maturation is not the most accurate term for the phenomenon described in the question. The presence of response D, "sensitive periods" made this question difficult since some authors use the terms "critical period" and "sensitive period" interchangeably. However, other authors do distinguish between the two, with critical periods implying a more restricted period of time and an inability to recover from the effects of the environmental factor and sensitive periods referring to a more diffuse period of time and a potential for recovery. This question seems to be describing a critical period.

Test 4:15. Research on the serial position effect suggests, that when "cramming"for a test, it is important to. a. get a good night's sleep before taking the test. b. engage in a distracting activity after studying and prior to taking the test. c. give extra attention to material studied during the middle of the study session. d. give extra attention to material studied at the beginning of the study session.

15. C. To answer this, you have to know that the serial position effect refers to the tendency to forget items in the middle of a list (versus the beginning and end of the list). Studies on memory and forgetting have shown that people tend to remember information presented in the beginning and, in some cases, end of a list better than that presented in the middle. If this finding is extended to a study session, it predicts that a student should pay most attention to the information reviewed in the middle of the study session since that is the information that is most likely to be forgotten.

Test 3: 15. A psychologist determines that, for a six-year child, Behavior A is more probable than Behavior B. The psychologist tells the parents to make the child's opportunity to engage in Behavior A contingent on Behavior B. The psychologist is using which of the following techniques. a. response cost. b. shaping. c. DRO. d. Premack principle.

15. D. In this situation the more frequent behavior is made contingent on the less frequent behavior in order to increase the less frequent behavior. The Premack Principle is a type of positive reinforcement in which the reinforcer is a frequently occurring behavior. If you allow yourself to talk on the phone to friends (or watch TV) only after studying for at least one hour, you are using the Premack Principle.

Test 4:151. As used by Lorenz, the term "critical period" refers to. a. the ages three to six months, during which many psychologists believe the basic structure of the personality is formed. b. the interval between the presentation of an unconditioned stimulus and a conditioned stimulus. c. the last two minutes of a sporting event, when, according to many sports psychologists, the greatest amount of stress to fans occurs. d. a period shortly after birth, which many theorists regard as the time in which an infant bonds with its mother.

151. D. The term "critical period" refers to a period when a specific experience will have its greatest impact on development. Lorenz applied the term to the period during which ducklings bond (or imprint) with their mothers. Lorenz found that the "critical period" for imprinting in ducklings is 2-3 days after birth. In other words, ducklings will stay close to stimuli which they are exposed to 2-3 days after birth. Research investigating the existence of a similar critical period in humans has been inconclusive.

Test 5: 154. The "FI scallop" refers to. a. the characteristic pause followed by accelerated responding that occurs within each fixed interval. b. the characteristic increase in responding that occurs after reinforcement at the end of each fixed interval. c. the characteristic gradual pause followed by an essential instantaneous high rate of responding that occurs between each fixed interval. d. the pause in responding that signals satiation after exposure to an extended fixed interval schedule.

154. A. The term "scallop" is ordinarily applied to the response pattern that is observed when an organism is being reinforced on a fixed interval schedule. When using an FI schedule, the delivery of reinforcement is typically followed first by a pause in responding and then an increasing rate of responding until the next reinforcement is delivered. On a cumulative record, this produces a "scallop."

Test 4:154. An 8-month old child displays an intense fear reaction whenever she is approached by strangers. The child's behavior can be best explained by which of the following. a. the child's previous negative experiences with strangers have conditioned her to respond to strangers with fear. b. the child has not yet developed a schema for her mother's face and the alternate models are confusing. c. the face of a stranger represents an unfamiliar event that naturally elicits a fear response. d. the child's behavior is an abnormal reaction that is related an overattachment to her mother.

154. C. The child appears to be exhibiting stranger anxiety, which typically develops at 8 months of age and appears to reflect maturation of the infant's perceptual skills such that he/she is able to distinguish between familiar individuals and strangers. Given the child's age and lack of information about any other behaviors that might suggest pathology, the most parsimonious explanation for the child's behavior is stranger anxiety.

Test 5 18. To reduce or eliminate a child's tantrums, which of the following would probably be most effective. a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. positive punishment. d. negative punishment.

18. D. In this situation, the goal is to eliminate a behavior. Therefore, punishment is the correct choice. If you have to choose between positive and negative punishment as an intervention, negative punishment (which involves removing a stimulus following a behavior) is generally preferred. Examples of negative punishment include time-out and response cost. Positive reinforcement, response A, involves applying a stimulus following a behavior in order to increase that behavior. Negative reinforcement, response B, involves removing a stimulus following a behavior in order to increase the behavior. Positive punishment, response C, could, of course, be used, but it is considered objectionable for both ethical and practical reasons (it doesn't work)

Test 5: 156. In treating an 8-year old child who doesn't like going to bed at night because he's afraid of the dark, which of the following interventions would probably be most successful. a. participant modeling. b. cognitive self-control. c. flooding. d. systematic desensitization.

156. B. In general, behavioral and cognitive-behavioral techniques have been found most effective for alleviating phobias in both children and adults. Unfortunately, knowing this doesn't help with this question since all of the techniques listed fall into this category. Considering the boy's age may have helped you eliminate at least two of the answers (c and d). Cognitive self-control technique has been described by A. M. Graziano and K. C. Mooney who found it to be an effective treatment for children who fear the dark. It involves several steps: At bedtime, the child first relaxes, then visuals a pleasant scene, and then makes self-statements such as "I am brave. I can take care of myself in the dark." This technique is considered a self-control technique since it is administered by the child him/herself (although the parents are also involved in reminding the child to use the technique and in monitoring the child's progress). Participant modeling, response A,has been found to be more useful for childhood phobias involving animals and dental and medical procedures. The use of flooding, response C, with children is controversial and is not considered a treatment-of-choice by most authorities. Systematic desensitization, response D, has generally not been found to be particularly effective with children (see Graziano and Mooney for a review of the literature).

Test 4:157. The "storm and stress theory" of adolescent mental health proposes that most adolescents experience extensive physical, social, and psychological turmoil. Research in the past 25 years on this topic. a. confirms that most adolescents do experience substantial "storm and stress". b. demonstrates that "storm and stress" is characteristic of adolescents in westernized cultures only. c. indicates that, for the large majority of individuals, adolescence is not a time of significant "storm and stress". d. shows that "storm and stress" is largely due to increases in family conflicts during the adolescent period.

157. C. Research in the past 2-1/2 decades has largely refuted Anna Freud's proposition that "to be normal during the adolescent period is by itself abnormal." Studies suggest that, while adolescents may exhibit greater emotional lability, only about 10 to 20% of adolescents exhibit some type of severe emotional turmoil, which is approximately the same percent as found in the adult population. Contrary to the popular view of adolescence, the research suggests that family conflicts do not really increase substantially during this period.

Test 4:158. Problem drug use among adolescents is most linked with. a. peer pressure. b. lack of information or education. c. alienation. d. early experimentation with drugs.

158. C. Although "just say no" and educational programs are probably the most popular types of anti-drug programs aimed at children and adolescents, the research suggests that their success is destined to be limited because they are based on the wrong assumptions regarding the causes of problem drug use. Based on their longitudinal study, J. Shedler and J. Block conclude that problem drug users exhibit a coherent syndrome, often as early as age 7, that is characterized by alienation, impulsivity, and subjective distress and that these symptoms clearly precede the onset of drug use. While peer pressure, response A, does underlie experimentation with drugs, it does not seem to be linked with problem drug use among adolescents. Lack of information, response B, has not been found to be a significant contributor to problem drug use. Experimentation, response D, is only a predictor of problem drug use in the presence of the syndrome described above.

Test 3: 159. A change in the relationship between time and life that reflects a shift in perspective from "time from birth" to "time until death" usually occurs between the ages of. a. 30 and 35. b. 40 and 45. c. 50 and 55. d. 60 and 65.

159. B. If you are unfamiliar with the literature on this topic, you may have been able to choose the correct answer to this question by taking a look at your own perceptions or those of family members, friends, clients, etc. According to D. Levinson, changes that occur during the "mid-life crisis" (typically between the ages of 40 and 45) are often tied to a mental change in the perception of time.

Test 3: 16. Which of the following is most useful for explaining the phenomenon known as the "serial position effect". a. the levels of processing model of memory. b. the multi-store (three-box) model of memory. c. the distinction between implicit and explicit memory. d. the concept of overlearning.

16. B. The serial position effect refers to the finding that people who are asked to recall a list of words immediately after remembering them tend to recall the words at the beginning and end of the list better than those in the middle. The most widely-accepted explanation for the serial position effect is that words in the beginning of the list have been transferred to long-term memory, while those at the end of the list are still in short-term memory. Therefore, the multi-store model, which proposes three distinct memory systems -sensory register, short-term memory, and long-term memory -is most useful for explaining the serial position effect. The levels of processing model, response A, predicts that memory is maximized when information is encoded semantically. Implicit and explicit memory, response C, have not been used to explain the serial position effect. Overlearning, response D, refers to rehearsing or studying past the point of mastery and is not relevant to the serial position effect.

Test 3: 169.As you eat a hot fudge sundae, a friend describes what the sundae reminds him of in the most disgusting terms he can think of. Eventually, you cannot continue eating the sundae because it makes you feel sick. This situation is most similar to which of the following techniques. a. operant shaping. b. prompting and fading. c. paradoxical intention. d. covert sensitization.

169. D. This situation is most similar to covert scnsitization, a type of aversive conditioning in which the aversive stimulus is imagined. The goal of covert sensitization is to decrease a behavior.As the result of pairing an imagined aversive scene with eating a sundae, eating a sundae has became unpleasant and "sundae-eating behavior" has decreased. This situation is not similar to operant shaping, response A, which involves the learning of a new response as a result of the reinforcement that follows that response. This situation is not similar to prompting and fading, rtesponse B. Prompting is used to facilitate the acquisition of a new behavior. Examples of prompts are instructions, physical guidance, cues, etc. Fading is the gradual removal of prompts. This situation is not similar to paradoxical intention, response C, which involves imagining an exaggerated version of conditions surrounding a fear in order to eliminate the fear.

Test 4:160. You are invited to speak at a national conference on the education of inner-city school children about the qualities of the school environment that contribute to academic achievement. Which of the following best characterizes the advice you are likely to give. a. teachers should have high expectations for their students since expectations can affect achievement. b. teachers should be strict and emphasize consistent, age-appropriate discipline. c. "at-risk" children should be separated from other children during the early years of schooling. d. LEP (limited English proficiency) students should be separated from English speakers until they achieve a minimal level of competency in English.

160. A. Rutter (1983) outlined the school characteristics that are associated with unusually effective schools. Effectiveness is defined in terms such as higher standardized test scores, higher attendance rates, lower rates of delinquency, and higher student self-esteem. According to Rutter, among other characteristics, effective schools are characterized by high standards and high expectations of academic excellence. In addition, Gerard and Miller (1975) and others have shown that minority students whose teachers expect them to perform poorly on aptitude tests showed decreases in verbal achievement test scores. In effective schools, relatively little class time is spent on discipline, response B. This is because good teachers intervene early in potentially difficult situations. Separating at-risk children from other students, response C, would probably adversely affect their academic performance. A mixture of backgrounds and abilities characterizes effective classrooms. Research on the education of LEP students has not provided conclusive results as to which technique is most effective. However, there is no consistent evidence that separating these students from other students, response D, is the best course of action.

Test 3: 164. While treating a client for snake phobia, a therapist handles the snake and then guides the client through a series of steps until she is able to handle the snake herself. This technique is referred to as. a. symbolic modeling. b. participant modeling. c. in-vivo desensitization. d. overcorrection.

164. B. Bandura compared live modeling with participant modeling, symbolic modeling, and desensitization as treatments for snake and other phobias. Even if you are unfamiliar with Bandura's research, you could probably select the right answer simply because "participant modeling" sounds like the procedure described in the question. Studies on observational learning (modeling) have shown that it is most effective when live modeling is combined with guided participation! the technique described in this question. Symbolic modeling, response A, which would involve watching a filmed model handling a snake, is not the procedure described in the question. In-vivo desensitization, response C, would probably involve a gradual handling of the snake. However, it would not necessarily involve handling (modeling) by the therapist. Overcorrection, response D, an operant technique, is used to decrease an undesirable behavior. It involves requiring the individual to correct the consequences of the undesirable behavior and/or to practice alternative desirable behaviors.

Test 3: 165. Which of the following is not characteristic of Piaget's preoperational stage of development: a. magical thinking. b. insight learning. c. finalism. d. decentration.

165. D. The preoperational stage of development spans the period from ages two through seven. In the preoperational stage, children exhibit centration, or an inability to mentally hold two dimensions at the same time. Decentration occurs in the concrete operational stage and contributes to the ability to conserve. Magical thinking, response A, the belief that one has magical powers, is a result of egocentrism and precausal reasoning. Piaget believed that a major achievement of the preoperational stage is insight learning, response B, which is learning based on intuition. Finalism, response C, is the belief that every event has a purpose and is characteristic of the preoperational stage.

Test 4:166. A client says, "I don't know where they come from, but these thoughts about swearing and cursing just keep coming back. I just can't seem to get them out of my mind. All I can think about is cursing and swearing." Which of the following techniques is most likely to be used to alleviate this client's problem. a. thought stopping. b. biofeedback. c. behavioral rehearsal. d. overcorrection.

166. A. This client is exhibiting obsessions. Although thought stopping is often used to treat obsessions and compulsions, there is some evidence that it is most effective for obsessions, while flooding and other exposure techniques are better for eliminating compulsions. However, of the responses given, this is the best answer. Biofeedback, response B, is ordinarily used to control involuntary bodily functions and activities such as blood pressure, muscle tension, and body temperature. The technique of behavioral rehearsal, response C, is not associated with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder. Overcorrection, response D, is used to reduce undesirable overt behaviors.

Test 3: 168. From the perspective of operant conditioning, which of the following techniques is most useful for combining component responses into a particular sequence. a. stimulus generalization. b. response priming. c. shaping. d. chaining.

168. D. Translating this question into a less awkward statement might have made it easier to answer; e.g., "Which operant technique is used to put together individual responses in a particular sequence?" Chaining is used to combine a sequence of responses in order to end up with a "behavioral chain." Chaining is considered by advocates of operant conditioning as the mechanism underlying the acquisition of at least some complex behaviors. In operant conditioning, stimulus generalization, response A, occurs when an organism responds with the target response to stimuli similar to the discriminative stimulus. Response priming, response B, refers to any procedure used to initiate the early steps in a sequence of responses. Although response priming can be used to initiate a behavioral chain, this is not the best answer of those given. People often mix up shaping and chaining. However, in shaping, response C, the goal is the end behavior; in chaining, the whole string (chain) of behaviors is important.

Test 4:. Most infants take their first steps while holding onto furniture at about. a. 6 to 7 months of age. b. 9 to 10 months of age. c. 12 to 13 months of age. d. 15 to 16 months of age.

174. B. Although children vary considerably in motor and other aspects of development, some generalizations can be made. At about 9 to 10 months, most babies are able to take a few steps while holding onto furniture. This is followed, at about 12 to 13 months, by the ability to walk without help or support.

Test 5 20. A 13-year old is having trouble doing his homework. He doesn't understand some of the material he is supposed to study and is unable to recall things he has already reviewed. Most likely, the boy's problems are due to. a. the boy's lack of metacognitive skills. b. the boy's inconsistent use of elaboration and other encoding strategies. c. the boy's inadequate learning strategies. d. the boy's difficulty in focusing his attention.

20. C. This is a difficult question because it is very vague. In this kind of situation, often the more general response is the best one. The term "learning strategy" is very broad and encompasses a variety of techniques that increase attention and understanding and ensure that information is transferred from short-to long-term memory. Given the limited information provided in the question, this is the best response since it covers a wide range of possible problems. Metacognitive skills, response A, begin to develop at about age seven, so this shouldn't be a problem in this situation. It may be that the boy is having trouble getting information into long-term memory. However, he may have other problems as well, so attributing the boy's difficulties to his inconsistent use of elaboration and other encoding strategies, response B, isn't the best response. Response D, may also be true, but problems with attention are included in "inadequate learning strategies."

Test 3: 200. Research looking at the self-esteem of children suggests that. a. children with a heterosexual mother have somewhat higher self-esteem than children with a lesbian mother. b. children with a lesbian mother have somewhat higher self-esteem than children with a heterosexual mother. c. children with a lesbian or heterosexual mother have comparable levels of self-esteem, with children in both groups having higher self-esteem when their mother is currently living with a partner. d. children with a lesbian or heterosexual mother have comparable levels of self-esteem when their mother is living alone, but only children with a heterosexual mother have higher self-esteem when their mother is living with a partner.

200. C. Overall, the research has not identified differences between children of heterosexual or homosexual mothers and, instead, indicates that factors other than sexual orientation are important for psychological adjustment. Children of heterosexual or homosexual mothers have comparable levels of self-esteem with children in both groups showing slightly higher self-esteem when their mother is living with a partner.

Test 5 32. As described by Beck, automatic thoughts involve. a. interpreting experiences in patterned, reflexive ways. b. enduring schemas that have been repeatedly reinforced. c. "shoulds," "musts," and "oughts". d. episodic memory.

32. A. Automatic thoughts are a primary target in Beck's cognitive therapy. As their name implies, automatic thoughts are automatic or reflexive. They also usually have an interpretive component (e.g., "this is awful").

Test 4:36. Eighteen-month old Tylee has learned the word "cup" and applies it to other similar objects such as bowls, glasses, and bottles. This is referred to as. a. under extension. b. overextension. c. overregularization.

36. B. Children exhibit a number of predictable errors when learning to speak. As its name implies, over extension involves applying a word to a wider collection of objects or events than is appropriate. Underextension, response A, involves applying a term too narrowly (e.g., using "dog" to refer only to the family dog). Overregularization, response C, is an overextension of grammatical rules to words that are exceptions (e.g., adding "s" to "feet"). Expansion, response D, refers to the feedback that adults seem to naturally give young children, which provides children with information on appropriate language use.

Test 4:37. Which of the following represents a phoneme. a. "c". b. "ing". c. "mama". d. "mom".

37. A. A phoneme is the smallest unit of sound in a language. English has 26 letters but 44 phonemes since the same letter alone or combined with others can represent more than one sound. Response B, "ing" is a morpheme (the smallest unit of sound that conveys meaning).

Test 537. Bandura's social learning theory implies that, in organizational settings, a training program will be most effective when. a. it includes frequent rewards for reaching goals. b. it targets the cognitive processes underlying successful task performance. c. trainees possess prerequisite skills before training begins. d. models are clearly reinforced for successful performance.

37. C. Bandura has provided guidelines for applying social learning theory to the workplace. Bandura stresses the importance of (1) self-efficacy beliefs; (2) intrinsic motivation; (3) focusing on overt activities and behaviors; and (4) ensuring that people have prerequisite skills. Note that Bandura's work on aggression indicated that it is not always necessary for the model to be rewarded in order for an observer to imitate the behavior.

Test 4:38. Harvey's (1999) re-analysis of the 1994 National Longitudinal Survey of Youth (NLSY) data found that, in terms of future effects, maternal employment during the first three years of a child's life is most likely to have. a. a significant and long-term negative impact on the child's emotional, cognitive, and behavioral functioning. b. a small negative impact on the child's cognitive functioning but no consistent impact on emotional or behavioral development. c. a small negative impact on the child's emotional and behavioral functioning but no consistent impact on cognitive development. d. a significant negative impact on the child's behavioral functioning but no consistent impact on cognitive and emotional development.

38. B. This question is referring to Elizabeth Harvey's re-analysis of the NLSY data, which involved remedying some of the methodological problems of the previously-published study. Harvey concludes that the data reveal no consistent effects on compliance or self-esteem but small, usually short-term effects on measures of academic achievement.

Test 3: 39. Studies investigating the relationship between an infant's basic temperament at six months of age and later aggressiveness indicate that. a. "easy" children with authoritarian parents arc most likely to exhibit high levels of aggressiveness at age 3. b. "difficult" children with laissez-faire parents are most likely to exhibit high levels of aggressiveness at age 3. c. "difficult" children with authoritarian parents are most likely to exhibit high levels of aggressiveness at age 3. d. there is little or no relationship between temperament at six months and level of aggressiveness at age 3.

39. C. The research has consistently found a relationship between early temperament, parenting style, and later behavior, especially with regard to certain temperament traits. The studies have confirmed that children with a difficult temperament have worse outcomes than those with an easy temperament especially when parents respond to their child by forbidding certain activities, threatening punishment, using physical restraint -i.e., when parents adopt an authoritarian parenting style.

Test 3: 47. A working mother who has been reassured by her husband and friends many times that she is a "great mother," states that she is a "terrible mother" after she forgets to wash her daughter's baseball uniform the night before an important game. Aaron Beck would consider the mother's conclusion to be an example of which of the following. a. personalization. b. arbitrary inference. c. selective abstraction. d. dichotomous thinking.

47. B. All of the responses are terms that Beck describes as cognitive distortions. Arbitrary inference involves drawing a specific conclusion without supporting evidence or in the face of contradictory evidence. Personalization, response A, occurs when a person attributes external events to him or herself without evidence supporting such a causal connection. Selective abstraction, response C, occurs when a person interprets a situation on the basis of a single detail taken out of context (e.g., a jealous husband thinks his wife is having an affair with the neighbor when he sees her pat the neighbor on the back). Dichotomous thinking, response D, involves categorizing an experience in terms of one of two extremes (e.g., "If I do this, everything will be perfect; if I don't, everything will be terrible").

Test 5: 47. Studies using neuroimaging techniques have found that, on learning and memory tasks, older adults exhibit less activation in the left hemisphere than younger adults, which confirms that age-related declines in memory are due largely to, a. reduced memory capacity. b. problems in retrieval. c. problems in encoding. d. reduced motivation.

47. C. Although early studies on aging and memory attributed normal memory loss to both encoding and retrieval problems, more recent studies (including those that make use of neuroimaging) have shown that encoding is the primary problem. Increased activity in the left hemisphere accompanies encoding, while increased activity in the right hemisphere occurs during retrieval. On memory and learning tasks, older adults exhibit attenuated left brain activity when compared to younger adults but comparable right brain activity.

`Test 5: a guys with memory issues the pt after reading an article will remember... 49. A hospitalized patient with brain injury meets Dr. Wonder in the morning in his office. In the afternoon, when the patient encounters Dr. Wonder in the hospital hallway, he doesn't recognize Dr. Wonder or remember his office or their previous meeting. The patient is most likely suffering from. a. prosopagnosia. b. apraxia. c. anterograde amnesia. d. retrograde amnesia.

49. C. In this situation, the patient has apparently formed no memories of his visit with Dr. Wonder. The inability to form new memories is called anterograde amnesia. Prosopagnosia, response A, is the inability to recognize familiar faces. The patient's problems are not limited to this deficit. Apraxia, response B, refers to the inability to perform purposeful movements. Retrograde amnesia, response D, is a loss of memory for information acquired before a brain injury.

Test 5 6. As defined by Bandura, self-efficacy beliefs have four sources. These are. a. past accomplishments, observations of others, verbal persuasion, and logical verification. b. external reinforcement, internal (self) reinforcement, vicarious reinforcement, and logical verification. c. observation of others, imitation of others, reinforcement by others, and self-reinforcement. d. observation, cognitive mediation, rehearsal, and successful performance.

6. A. Bandura's theory of self-efficacy proposes that people undertake activities they believe they are capable of performing. These are the four sources of self-efficacy that Bandura has identified.

Test 4:64. According to Piaget, which of the following is a necessary prerequisite for the development of reversibility. a. self-awareness. b. meta-cognition. c. symbolism. d. hypothetico-deductive reasoning.

64. C. Piaget argued that symbolism -and in particular language -is critical for reversibility and conservation. In Logical Operations and Social Life, Piaget states "complete reversibility presupposes symbolism" .

Test 4:65. Research investigating the impact of parenting style on the academic achievement of children and adolescents suggests that the effects are. a. modified by the offspring's temperament. b. modified by the family's ethnicity/culture. c. modified by level of parental education. d. not affected by temperament, ethnicity/culture, or parental education.

65. B. A number of studies have linked authoritative parenting with the most positive outcomes for children and adolescents. This is some evidence that the benefits of authoritative parenting are modified by family ethnicity or culture. For example, L. Sternberg et al. report that the authoritative style is beneficial for the school success of white and Hispanic students but that, for Asian-and African-Americans, this style does not predict school achievement.

Test 4:66. Gerald Patterson and his colleagues have developed a model to explain the origins of adolescent delinquency. Their approach is most consistent with which of the following. a. object relations theory. b. social learning theory. c. cognitive developmental theory. d. social comparison theory.

66. B. According to Patterson and his colleagues, adolescent delinquency is traceable to unskilled and inefficient child rearing by the child's parents, high levels of punishment, and a tendency to react to a child's negative actions in kind. Patterson's model is consistent with a social learning approach (i.e., it emphasizes the impact of modeling, imitation and reinforcement).

Test 3: 66. From the perspective of attachment theory, a therapy client's transference is a manifestation of. a. insecure attachment. b. disorganized attachment. c. an internal working model. d. a reflexive schema.

66. C. According to attachment theory, internal working models -or general rules about the self and others in intimate relationships -develop in early childhood as the result of the relationship between the child and his or her primary caregiver(s). From the perspective of attachment theory, transference occurs when a client inaccurately perceives the client-therapist relationship in terms of internal working models that developed in infancy. Secure attachments often result in positive transferences, while insecure attachments underlie negative transferences.

Test 3: 72. As defined by Aaron Beck, automatic thoughts are. a. more accessible and less stable than voluntary thoughts. b. spontaneously triggered by a specific circumstance and accompanied by an emotional reaction. c. systematic errors in reasoning that are evident during times of psychological distress. d. always irrational.

72. B. This response, spontaneously triggered by a specific circumstance and accompanied by an emotional reaction, is consistent with Beck's definition of automatic thoughts. Beck distinguishes between a number of cognitive phenomena including voluntary thoughts, automatic thoughts, cognitive schemas, and cognitive distortions. Response A, automatic thoughts are more accessible and less stable than voluntary thoughts, is incorrect as automatic thoughts are less accessible and more stable than voluntary thoughts. Response C, automatic thoughts are systematic errors in reasoning that are evident during times of psychological distress, describes cognitive distortions. Response D, automatic thoughts are always irrational, is incorrect. Automatic thoughts may be rational or irrational in the sense that they may be accurate or inaccurate. Treatment focuses on irrational (inaccurate) automatic thoughts.

Test 4:72. Research on age-related changes in cognitive abilities suggests that normal aging is least likely to have a negative impact on which of the following. a. working memory. b. cued recall. c. free recall. d. picture recognition.

72. D. Of the memory abilities listed in the responses, picture recognition has the lowest processing demand and has been found to show little, if any, age-related cognitive decline.

Test 3: 73. A therapy client says, "I feel useless and incompetent and, therefore, I must be a worthless person." From the perspective of cognitive therapy, this is an example of. a. all-or-none thinking. b. overgeneralization. c. magnification. d. emotional reasoning.

73. D. In this situation, the client is using her emotions as evidence for the way things really are. The logic underlying emotional reasoning is "I feel, therefore I am." All-or-nothing thinking, response A, is the tendency to evaluate performance or personal qualities in terms of extremist, black-and-white categories. Overgeneralization, response B, refers to arbitrarily drawing the conclusion that a single negative event will happen over and over again. Magnification, response C, occurs when a person sees something as being far more significant than it really is.

Test 4: 8. Erik Erikson coined the term. a. adolescent storm and stress. b. adolescent identity crisis. c. midlife crisis. d. sandwich generation.

8. B. Erik Erikson is probably best known for his psychosocial theory of development. One of the stages of this model is "identity versus identity confusion," which is characteristic of adolescents. Erikson was the first major theorist to elucidate the notion of an adolescent identity crisis and is credited with coining the term. Response A is incorrect, as it was Stanley Hall who discussed the storm and stress of adolescence. "Midlife crisis", response C, was coined by the psychoanalyst Elliott Jacques in 1967. "Sandwich generation", response D, was not a term coined by Erikson.

Test 3 8. Solitary (non-social) play. a. is the predominant form of play for children between one and three years of age. b. is useful as an indicator of cognitive development during the preschool years. c. may be indicative of developmental delays if it constitutes a significant portion of the child's play after age three. d. is not necessarily less mature than group play and, in some circumstances, may be associated with a high level of competence.

8. D. Research on children's play suggests that it is the quality, not the quantity, of solitary play that determines its significance. The studies have generally shown that nonsocial play is not necessarily more immature than group play. In fact, because it often consists of goal-directed or educational activities or activities involving large-motor movements, it is often associated with high levels of competence.

Test 4:84. According to Gyorgy Gergely, visual feature representation is a necessary precondition for. a. gender identity development. b. mirror self-recognition. c. attachment. d. social referencing.

84. B. Mirror self-recognition in children, dolphins, and elephants has generated a considerable amount of research in the last decade. According to G. Gergely, the ability to recognize oneself in the mirror (which occurs between 1.5 and 2 years in humans) requires a certain level of cognitive development. One cognitive prerequisite is the construction of "a visual feature representation of the typical physical appearance of the not-directly-visible parts of ... [the] body".

Test 3: 85. Research by Jerome Kagan has shown that the difference between high-and low-reactive infants is. a. attributable to nutritional differences during prenatal development. b. due, in part, to genetic factors. c. due largely to early infant-parent interactions. d. not predictive of future behavior.

85. B. Kagan argues that temperament is heavily influenced by genetics, especially the aspect of temperament referred to as "reactivity." Kagan found that approximately 15 to 20 percent of children born into secure homes have an inherited tendency to be highly reactive -i.e., to be unusually aroused and disturbed by new, unexpected events. In contrast, about 35 percent of children exhibit the opposite reaction and are relaxed and rarely cry when exposed to new events. Support for a biological contribution to this difference is provided by studies indicating corresponding levels of SNS arousal to new events and research comparing monozygotic and dizygotic twins. Kagan has also found that early levels of reactivity are predictive of later behavior.

Test 4:85. A 1990 survey conducted by Buhrmester and Furman of 3rd, 6th, 9th, and 12th graders found that, as children move toward the end of middle childhood, relationships between siblings become more. a. distant. b. egalitarian. c. conflictual. d. complementary.

85. B. Research by D. Buhrmester and W. Furman found a combination of closeness and conflict among siblings in middle childhood with a trend toward less conflict and greater egalitarianism with increasing age. The study cited in the question found that, by the end of middle childhood, sibling relationships had become much more egalitarian and lower in intensity and conflict.

Test 3: 9. Research investigating the social-cognitive characteristics of aggressive children has found ALL of the following to be true except. a. aggressive children are more likely than their peers to base their interpretation of social interactions on cues that occurred at the outset of the interaction. b. aggressive children are more likely than their peers to erroneously attribute hostile intent to the actions of other children. c. aggressive children have access to a fewer number of behavioral responses to social situations than their peers do. d. aggressive children expect less positive outcomes than their peers for performing competent or prosocial behaviors.

9. A. A number of social information processing deficits have been linked to aggressiveness in children and adolescents. This is the opposite of what is true. Aggressive youngsters often focus on cues at the end of a social interaction (a recency effect). Although a few studies have not found a consistent difference between aggressive and nonaggressive children with regard to this factor, the majority of studies have found that aggressive children are more likely to interpret the behaviors of peers as intentionally hostile, response B, especially when those behaviors are ambiguous. Aggressive children not only have access to fewer potential responses, response C, but the responses they access are typically more aggressive and less prosocial in nature. It is true that aggressive children expect less positive outcomes than their peers for performing compentent or prosocial behaviours, response D, and in some situations, aggressive children are more likely than their peers to believe that aggressive behavior will have positive outcomes.

Test 4: 9. Children are most likely to be resilient (i.e., to "bounce back"from high-risk or traumatic events) when their parents are. a. high in warmth, structure, and expectations. b. high in warmth and structure but low in expectations. c. moderate in warmth, structure, and expectations. d. moderate in warmth but low in structure and expectations.

9. A. Perhaps not surprisingly, authoritative parenting has been linked to greater resilience. Authoritative parenting is characterized by a high degree of warmth, structure, and expectations.

Test 3: 90. The lack of a relationship between a student's confidence about her ability to succeed on a task and her actual success on the task reflects problems related to. a. means-end analysis. b. equilibration. c. resolution. d. calibration.

90. D. This is one of those "distant galaxy" questions that you wouldn't want to spend too much time on if you are unfamiliar with the concept being asked about. The term "calibration" (or "confidence calibration") is used in the cognition literature to describe the degree of similarity between a person's level of confidence about being successful on a task and the actual success or accuracy of the person on the task. Means-end analysis, response A,is a problem-solving technique that involves identifying goals, the current situation, and what is needed to achieve the goals. Equilibration, response B. is the process of using both assimilation and accommodation to gain understanding of new information or a new event. Resolution, response C, also known as "confidence discrimination" = resolution, refers to the ability to discriminate between what one knows and what one doesn't know.

Test 3: 91. In his research, a cognitive psychologist uses paired-associate and serial learning tasks Apparently this psychologist is interested in. a. verbal learning. b. selective attention. c. procedural memory. d. iconic memory.

91. A. A paired associate task requires the individual to respond with one member of a pair when presented with the other member. A serial learning task requires the individual to learn and recall a list of words in a particular order. These tasks are frequently used in the study of verbal learning.

Test 4:93. When using the Adult Attachment Interview, a mother will be classified as BLANK if she describes her parents in positive terms (e.g., "Dad was a very loving person") but either reports negative interactions with her parents or says she can't remember any early interactions with them. a. dismissing. b. preoccupied. c. unresolved or disorganized. d. resistant.

93. A. The Adult Attachment Interview categorizes respondents in terms of three main categories -autonomous, dismissing, and preoccupied. Dismissing individuals describe their parents in positive terms that are not substantiated by descriptions of actual interactions. Preoccupied individuals, response B, are confused, angry, or passively preoccupied with attachment figures. The Adult Attachment Interview includes a fourth category (unresolved/disorganized), response C, that is assigned to respondents who have an unresolved experience related to loss or abuse. It is assigned in conjunction with one of the three categories listed above. Resistant, response D, is not one of the scoring categories for the Adult Attachment Interview.

Test 4:94. A woman is having trouble with her six-month old son who often "fusses" at bedtime and wakes up at least once or twice during the night. She does an Internet search on the problem and finds several articles about Dr. Richard Ferber. She learns that his method for getting babies to sleep ("Ferberizing") is supported by many experts and involves. a. a "progressive-waiting" approach. b. therapeutic touch. c. a "cold turkey" approach. d. co-sleeping.

94. A. Ferber's method is similar to that promoted by a number of other experts including T. Berry Brazelton and William Sears. When using Ferber's method, the parent puts the child to bed. If he cries, the parent returns and reassures the child and pats him on the back but does not pick him up. If the child cries again later, the parent waits a little longer before returning. On subsequent nights, the wait period is gradually increased, which is why the method is known as the progressive waiting method.

Test 4:95. For all age groups combined, the leading cause of death in the United States is. a. heart disease. b. physician error. c. stroke. d. unintentional injury.

95. A. The leading cause of death in the United States varies for different groups. Note, however, that this question is asking what the leading cause is for all age groups combined. In 1998, heart disease was responsible for the death of 724,859 people. Although physician error, response B, is not listed in the official statistics, there is evidence that it is the third leading cause of death. Stroke, response C, is listed in the official statistics as the third leading cause of death and, in 1998, was responsible for 541,532 deaths. (The second leading cause is cancer.) Unintentional injury, response D, is the leading cause of death for individuals from birth to age 34 but, overall, is the fifth leading cause (97,835 deaths in 1998).