Esseiveir Adaptive Quizzing

अब Quizwiz के साथ अपने होमवर्क और परीक्षाओं को एस करें!

The nurse is assessing a newborn in the well-baby nursery. Which type of respirations would the nurse expect to identify in a healthy newborn?

A newborn's respirations are abdominal, diaphragmatic, and irregular; the rate varies from 30 to 60 breaths/min. Retractions are a sign of respiratory distress. A newborn's respirations are abdominal, not thoracic. Stertorous breathing may indicate respiratory distress.

Which information would the nurse provide a client with diabetes mellitus (DM) regarding alcohol consumption?

A person with DM should only drink alcohol with or shortly after meals to prevent alcohol-induced delayed hypoglycemia. Alcohol should not be consumed before meals. The client with DM does not need to limit to one drink per week nor completely abstain from drinking.

What is a serious side effects of x-rays

Desquamation

When teaching the client about when to call the primary health care provider if they are showing signs of hypothyroidism after a thyroidectomy, which statement made by the client shows that teaching was effective?

Dry, sparse hair and cold intolerance are characteristic responses to low serum thyroxine. Muscle cramping is associated with hypocalcemia. Low thyroxine levels reduce the metabolic rate, resulting in fatigue, but do not increase the pulse rate. Low thyroxine levels reduce the metabolic rate, resulting in weight gain and bradycardia, not tachycardia.

The nurse identifies which medication as used to treat both generalized anxiety disorder and depression?

Duloxetine is an antidepressant medication used to treat both generalized anxiety disorder and depression. Fluoxetine is used to treat depression. Bupropion is used to treat depression and also aid in smoking cessation. Mirtazapine is used in the treatment of depression and is also helpful in reducing the adverse sexual side effects in the male client receiving selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor therapy.

which finding during assessment prompts the nurse to don a protective gown?

Excessive wound drainage

which vaccine is used to prevent HPV?

Gardasail- used to prevent genital cancer and warts

A client was admitted with full-thickness burns 2 weeks ago. Since admission, the client has lost an average of 1 lb (0.5 kg) of weight each day. Which dietary adjustment would the nurse recommend?

High-protein drinks have twice the calories per volume of other fluids and provide protein for wound healing. Low-sodium milk does not contain adequate calories to help meet the high metabolic rate associated with burns. Potassium is restricted during the first 48 to 72 hours after a burn injury, not 2 weeks after the injury. Increased calories in the form of protein and carbohydrates, not fats, are needed.

The parents of a preschooler inform the nurse that their child often develops diarrhea and ask whether there might be anything wrong with the child's stomach. The nurse also finds that the child has poor oral care and has dental caries. Which is the most likely cause for the child's health issues?

If the child consumes excessive fruit juice or sweetened beverages, it increases the risk for dental caries and gastrointestinal conditions, such as chronic diarrhea. Consuming fast foods often results in childhood obesity, because fast foods are high in fats and starches. Neglecting the dietary needs or not following hygienic practices may cause gastrointestinal problems or make the child susceptible to infections.

Which age-related skin change occurs in older adult clients and increases their potential for developing pressure ulcers?

In older adults, a decrease in subcutaneous fat leads to skin shearing, which may lead to pressure ulcers. Atrophy of the sweat glands will cause dry skin and decreased body odor. Stiffening of the collagen fibers and degeneration of the elastic fibers will result in the development of wrinkles.

Which medication is a newer treatment option for treating metastatic melanoma?

Ipilimumab

Which equipment will the nurse prepare for a client whose burn wounds are scheduled to be debrided mechanically?

Mechanical debridement means to physically remove dirt, damaged or dead tissue, and cellular debris from a wound or burn so that infection is prevented and healing is promoted. Scissors, forceps, or scalpels may be used along with hydrotherapy. Enzymatic preparations are used to debride chemically by dissolving and removing necrotic tissue. A mechanical device that continually moves an extremity is called continuous passive range of motion and is used for knee surgery. Autolytic debridement includes semi-occlusive or occlusive dressings to soften dry eschar by autolysis.

Which blood glucose levels would the nurse identify as hypoglycemia?

Normal blood glucose level for an adult is 72 to 108 mg/dL (4-6 mmol/L). Clients who have blood glucose levels less than 72 mg/dL (4 mmol/L) may experience hypoglycemia; 78 mg/dL (4.3 mmol/L), 88 mg/dL (4.9 mmol/L), and 98 mg/dL (5.4 mmol/L) are normal blood glucose levels.

The nurse is assessing the needs of a client who just learned that a tumor is malignant and has metastasized to several organs and that the illness is terminal. Which behavior would the nurse expect the client to exhibit during the initial stage of grieving?

Seeking other opinions to disprove the inevitable is a form of denial employed by individuals who have illnesses with a poor prognosis. If the client is crying, the client is aware of the magnitude of the situation and is past the stage of denial. Criticism that is unjust often is characteristic of the stage of anger. Refusing to receive visitors is most common during the depression experienced as one moves toward acceptance or during the acceptance stage.

Which is the target tissue for the parathyroid hormone?

The target tissue of the parathyroid hormone is the intestines. Growth hormone acts on all body cells. The mammary gland is the target tissue of oxytocin. Epinephrine and norepinephrine act on the sympathetic effectors.

According to Freud's developmental theory, which age is considered the phallic stage?

according to Freud's developmental theory, 3 to 6 years of age is considered the phallic stage. Birth to 18 months of age is considered the oral stage. Eighteen months to 3 years of age is the anal stage. Six to 12 years of age is the latent stage.

how can the nurse describe heart failure to a client?

an inability of the heart to pump blood in proportion metabolic rate

which type of laser is used in the treatment of vascular and other pigmented lesions

argon

Varivax

associated with protection from the varicella virus. sometimes given in combination with MMR Vaccine

Chemical injuries

contact with grease and alkaline

While palpating the skin of a client, the nurse observes pitting edema on the dorsum of the foot. Which condition could be a possible cause of this?

fluid and electrolyte imbalance

Diminished breath sounds

evidence of a reduction in the amount of air entering the alveoli; this usually is caused by obstruction or consolidation.

which period of paiget's theory marks the end of cognitive devlopment

formal operations. During this period, adolescents have the capacity to reason with respect to possibilities. The sensorimotor period is the first period when a newborn develops a schema or pattern for dealing with the environment. The second period is the preoperational period when a child develops egocentrism and animism. During the concrete operations period, children are able to perform mental operations.

which event occurs in the proliferative phase of wound healing

formation of grannulation tissue Granulation tissue is formed in the proliferative tissue. Thinning of scar tissue and strengthening of collagen fibers is seen in the maturation phase of wound healing. The increase in capillary permeability occurs in the inflammatory phase of wound healing.

Crackles

heard at the end of inspiration are associated with fluid in the alveoli

shearing force

occurs when two surfaces move against each other; when the bed is at an angle greater than 30 degrees, the torso tends to slide and cause this phenomenon. Angles of 45 degrees, 60 degrees, and 90 degrees raise the head of the bed too high, which contributes to the client sliding down in bed.

thermal injuries

open flames in house fires

The nurse is about to perform a wound irrigation on a client who had a left hemispheric stroke 1 year ago. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to perform before beginning the irrigation?

pain Assessment of pain must be performed before beginning a potentially painful procedure such as a wound irrigation. A neurological check is not necessary unless the client's neurological status has worsened since the stroke. Both skin and wound checks can be assessed once client comfort has been determined and handled.

Which physiological response occurs first when a client experiences sudden hypovolemia caused by hemorrhage?

peripheral vasoconstriction- shunts blood to essential core organs. the other options occur but more slowly

Which variations in nail color would indicate that a client has trauma to the nail beds?

red A red color is an indication of trauma to the nail bed. A blue color is an indication of respiratory failure. A white color is an indication of anemia, chronic liver disease, or kidney disease. A yellow-brown color is an indication of jaundice or cardiac failure.

scalding injuries

usually result from contact with hot liquids or steam

what are serious side effects of medication-induced sensitivity

vesicles, papules, plaque-like lesions

when ausculating a client's chest, the nurse hears swishing sounds of normal breathing. how would the nurse document this finding?

vesicular breath sounds (they are normal respiratory sounds heard on ausculation)


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