Evolve Review Questions for Unit 2

A person is in status epilepticus. What are the greatest concerns when treating this individual? (Select all that apply.) -Cerebral hypoxia -Aspiration -Bleeding of the tongue -Musculoskeletal trauma

CEREBRAL HYPOXIA is of critical importance; if not corrected, then mental retardation, dementia, and further brain damage—even death—may result. ASPIRATION is also a great risk. Although bleeding of the tongue and musculoskeletal trauma may occur, neither are life-threatening.

A child is diagnosed with congenital hydrocephalus. Which clinical findings are not correlated with this diagnosis? -Congential hydrocephalus presents in the second month of life -Sunsetting eyes -Obstructive causes such as Dandy-Walker deformity -Full and bulging fontanels

CONGENITAL HYDROCEPHALUS IS PRESENT AT BIRTH, NOT IN THE SECOND MONTH OF LIFE Congenital hydrocephalus is present at birth, whereas acquired hydrocephalus usually becomes apparent in the first weeks to months of life. Sunsetting is the visualization of the sclera above the cornea. The Dandy-Walker deformity is a congenital defect of midline cerebellar structures and the fourth ventricle, which block the ventricular flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Other causes of obstructions within the ventricular system that can result in hydrocephalus include brain tumors, cysts, trauma, arteriovenous malformations, blood clots, and infection. Because of the increased intracranial pressure, the fontanels typically enlarge and become full and bulging.

Premature closure of one or more of the cranial sutures during the first 18-20 months of an infant's life is known as -anencephaly. -craniosynostosis. -encephalocele. -meningocele.

CRANIOSYNOSTOSIS (craniostenosis) is the premature closure of one or more of the cranial sutures during the first 18-20 months of an infant's life. Anencephaly is an anomaly in which the soft, bony component of the skull and part of the brain are missing. Encephalocele is a midline skull defect in which a large mass protrudes. Meningocele is a saclike cyst of meninges with spinal fluid that protrudes through the vertebral column.

An individual having difficulty concentrating is restless and irritable and briefly confused. These changes have developed over 2-3 days. Which describes this condition? -Alzheimer disease -Dementia -Delirium -Coma

DELIRIUM is an acute state of confusion and is abrupt in its onset (over 2-3 days). The person may have difficulty concentrating, is restlessness and irritable, exhibits tremulousness and insomnia, and has a poor appetite. Alzheimer disease is a type of dementia. Dementia is a more chronic problem during which progressive failure of many cerebral functions occurs. Coma is a loss of consciousness.

Which is a benefit of fever? -Decreased lymphocytic transformation -Diminished phagocytosis response -Decreased calcium concentration -Deprives bacteria of a food source

DEPRIVES BACTERIA OF A FOOD SOURCE Fever has benefits. The higher body temperature decreases serum levels of iron, zinc, and copper, all of which are needed for bacterial replication. It switches from burning glucose to lipolysis and proteolysis, thus depriving bacteria of a food source. Lymphocytic transformation is increased, increasing the immune response, and phagocytosis is increased.

Which best describes schizophrenia? -Positive personality -Negative personality -Disruption of thoughts -Constant hallucinations

DISRUPTION OF THOUGHTS Schizophrenia is a collection of illnesses characterized by thought disorders that reflect a break in reality or a splitting of the cognitive from the emotional side of a person's personality. It is characterized by positive and negative symptoms. Hallucinations, delusions, and cognitive defects are components of schizophrenia.

Which statements are true regarding epinephrine? -Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers release epinephrine. -Dopamine is the precursor of epinephrine. -Epinephrine induces general vasodilation. -The action of epinephrine is the same no matter which receptor it binds.

DOPAMINE IS THE PRECURSOR OF both EPINEPHRINE and norepinephrine. EPINEPHRINE INDUCES GENERAL VASODILATION because of the predominance of beta adrenergic receptors in the muscle vasculature. Preganglionic sympathetic fibers release epinephrine. Epinephrine varies with the type of neuroreceptor stimulated.

Which drugs may produce psychosis at high doses? (Select all that apply.) -Levodopa -Fluphenazine -Haloperidol -Cocaine

Drugs that increase dopamine transmission such as LEVODOPA or COCAINE may produce psychosis at high doses. Traditional antipsychotic drugs, such as fluphenazine and haloperidol, have a high affinity for dopamine receptors and reduce psychotic states.

The temporary resetting of the hypothalamic thermostat to a higher level in response to endogenous or exogenous pyrogens is known as -fever. -thermoregulation. -shivering. -thermogenesis.

FEVER is a normal adaptive response to endogenous and exogenous pyrogens. It is a temporary resetting of the hypothalamic thermostat in response to these pyrogens. During fever, the core body temperature is maintained at a new higher set point, resulting in increased body temperature. Thermoregulation is the same as temperature regulation. Shivering is rapid muscle oscillations. Thermogenesis is heat production.

A person experiences a unilateral, partial seizure and maintains consciousness. Which term is appropriate to describe this type of seizure? -Generalized -Focal -Febrile -Status epilepticus

FOCAL (partial) seizures only involve neurons unilaterally. They often have a local (focal) onset. Consciousness may be maintained. In generalized seizures, consciousness is almost always impaired or lost. Febrile seizure occurs in children younger than 6 years who experience a high fever. Status epilepticus is the experience of recurring seizure activity in which recovery is incomplete. Seizure activity can last 30 minutes or more.

Which is an excitatory neurotransmitter? -Glutamate -Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) -Glycine -Substance P

GLUTAMATE and aspartate are the most common excitatory neurotransmitters in the brain and spinal cord. GABA and glycine are inhibitory. Substance P is contained in the neurons that synapse with GABA and glycine, and they inhibit pain.

An individual sustains a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) that results in left-sided paralysis. Which describes this condition? -Hemiplegia -Paraplegia -Diplegia -Quadriplegia

HEMIPLEGIA means the loss of motor function (paresis or paralysis) of the upper and lower extremities on one side of the body. Paraplegia refers to the loss of motor function of the lower extremities. Diplegia is the paralysis of either upper or lower extremities as a result of cerebral hemisphere injuries. Quadriplegia refers to paralysis of all four extremities.

Which term describes the elevation of the body temperature without an increase in the hypothalamic set point? -Hyperthermia -Hypothermia -Convection -Conduction

HYPERTHERMIA is the elevation of the body temperature without an increase in the hypothalamic set point. The hypothalamic set point is elevated in a fever. Hypothermia is the core body temperature less than 35°C (95°F). Convection is the transfer of heat through currents of gases or liquids. Conduction refers to heat loss by direct molecule-to-molecule transfer from one surface to another.

Which neurons transmit impulses from neuron to neuron? -Unipolar neurons -Sensory neurons -Motor neurons -Interneurons

INTERNEURONS, or associational neurons, transmit impulses from neuron to neuron. Motor neurons transmit impulses away from the CNS. Sensory neurons carry impulses from the peripheral sensory receptors to the CNS. Unipolar neurons have one process that branches shortly after leaving the cell body.

Which statement is true regarding migraine? (Select all that apply.) -An electroencephalogram (EEG) can be used to confirm a diagnosis of migraine headache. -Migraines occur most frequently before and during menses. -Migraine is not linked with any other disorder. -Drug therapy always includes the administration of narcotics.

The diagnosis of migraine is made from medical history and a physical examination. AN EEG HELPS CONFIRM DIAGNOSIS. MIGRAINES OCCUR MOST FREQUENTLY BEFORE AND DURING MENSES. When the headache is not attributable to any other condition and any two of the following occur—unilateral head pain, pulsating pain, pain worsening with activity, and moderate or severe pain intensity—and at least one of the following occur—nausea or vomiting or both, photophobia, and phonophobia—the diagnosis of migraine is made. Many individuals with migraines have comorbid depression. Drug therapy includes antiemetic agents, nonsteriodal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), ergotamine and dihydroergotamine, and serotonin receptor agonists (e.g., sumatriptan). Narcotics may be used, but they are not routine.

Which are categories of neurologic function that are classified as critical for evaluation? (Select all that apply.) -Level of consciousness (LOC) Correct -Pattern of breathing Correct -Heart rate -Eye position

The five categories that are critical to the evaluation process for neurologic functioning include: (1) LEVEL OF CONSCIOUSNESS, (2) PATTERN OF BREATHING, (3) size and reactivity of pupils, (4) EYE POSITION and reflexive response, and (5) skeletal muscle motor responses. Although heart rate is a vital sign, it is not always indicative of neurologic status.

Which statement is true regarding mood disorders? -The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) system hormones are decreased in a large percentage of individuals with major depression. -Depression occurs with deficits in brain norepinephrine. -Environmental factors play no role in depression. -No genetic role exists in depression.

The monoamine hypothesis of DEPRESSION OCCURS WITH DEFICITS IN BRAIN NOREPINEPHRINE, dopamine, and/or serotonin is the underlying cause of depression. HPA system activity is increased in a large percentage of individuals with major depression (30% to 70% of those with major depression have chronic activation of the HPA system and elevated glucocorticoid secretion). Environmental and genetic factors play large roles in the development of depression.

Which statements are true regarding sleep patterns in older adults? (Select all that apply.) -Sleep time is decreased. -Sleep takes longer to initiate. -Sleep is maintained much easier. -Sleep is deeper.

The sleep patterns of the older adult differ from that of the younger adult or child. The total SLEEP TIME IS DECREASED, and the older adult TAKES LONGER TO INITIATE AND MAINTAIN SLEEP.

Which statement is true regarding the specificity theory of pain? -Focuses on the attention of pain -Focuses on the previous experience of pain -Relates the amount of pain to the amount of soft tissue injury -Is related to the emotions exhibited toward pain

The specificity theory of pain postulates that the intensity of pain is directly RELATED TO THE AMOUNT OF ASSOCIATED TISSUE INJURY. It does not take into account previous experience, emotions, or attention to pain.

A woman has sustained a traumatic brain injury. She is able to follow simple commands and can manipulate objects. Which term describes this state? -Coma -Vegetative -Minimally conscious -Locked-in syndrome

The term MINIMALLY CONSCIOUS applies to a severely altered consciousness during which the person demonstrates minimal but defined behavioral evidence of self or environmental awareness. The clinical features include following simple commands, manipulating objects, gestural or verbal yes and no responses, intelligible verbalization, and stereotypical movements. Coma is a state of unarousable neurobehavioral unresponsiveness. A vegetative state is the complete unawareness of self or the surrounding environment and a complete loss of cognitive function. Locked-in syndrome describes an individual who has the content of thought and the level of arousal intact. However, the efferent pathways are disrupted, which means the individual cannot communicate through speech or body movement.

Which are basic neural systems that are essential for the cognitive sphere? (Select all that apply.) -Attentional systems -Memory and language systems -Affective or emotive systems -Sensory systems

The three basic (core) neural systems to the cognitive sphere include ATTENTIONAL SYSTEMS that provide arousal and maintenance of attention over time, MEMORY AND LANGUAGE SYSTEMS through which information is communicated, and AFFECTIVE OR EMOTIVE SYSTEMS that mediate mood, emotion, and intention.

A patient has a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst containing meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord through a deficit in the spinal column. This condition is described as a(n) -encephalocele. -meningocele. -myelomeningocele. -Arnold-Chiari malformation

This is a description of a MYELOMENINGOCELE. Encephalocele is a midline skull defect in which a large mass protrudes. Meningocele is a saclike cyst of meninges with spinal fluid that protrudes through the vertebral column. An Arnold-Chiari malformation is a downward displacement of the cerebellum.

Pain in internal organs and the lining of the body cavities is called... -visceral pain. -referred pain. -chronic pain. -peripheral neuropathic pain.

VISCERAL PAIN refers to pain in internal organs and the lining of body cavities. It may be an aching, gnawing, throbbing, or intermittent cramping sensation. Referred pain is pain felt in an area removed or distant from its point of origin. Chronic or persistent pain is usually defined as lasting for more than 3-6 months and is pain lasting well beyond the expected normal healing time. Peripheral neuropathic pain is caused by peripheral nerve lesions and an increase in the sensitivity and excitability of primary sensory neurons and cells in the dorsal root ganglion (peripheral sensitization).

Vomiting is a result of a central nervous system (CNS) injury caused by which of the following? -Impingement directly on the floor of the third ventricle -Decrease in intracranial pressure -Involvement of the vestibular nuclei -Decompression of the brainstem

Vomiting that is associated with CNS injuries INVOLVES THE VESTIBULAR NUCLEI or its immediate projections. Vomiting can be caused by an impingement on the fourth ventricle. It can also be the result of brainstem compression from an increase in intracranial pressure.

An infant is born with a wide membranous junction between skull bones. What is the appropriate name for this structure? -Suture -Fontanel -Schwann cell -Myelin

When an infant is born, the bones of the skull are separated at the suture lines, thus forming two FONTANELS or "soft spots": one diamond-shaped anterior fontanel and one triangular-shaped posterior fontanel. The fontanels are wide, membranous junctions of the sutures between skull bones that allow for the expansion of the skull during normal growth and development. Schwann cells are specialized connective tissue cells in the peripheral nervous system. Myelin is the conductive coating on nerve cells.

Which criterion is not used when determining brain death? -Unresponsive coma -No spontaneous respiration -Isoelectric electroencephalogram (EEG) -Ocular response to head turning

With brain death, OCULAR RESPONSE TO HEAD TURNING and pupils are often fixed and dilated. The following criteria determine brain death: 1. Completion of all appropriate and therapeutic procedures with no possibility of brain function recovery 2. Unresponsive coma: absence of motor and reflex movements 3. No spontaneous respirations (apnea): partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the arterial blood (PaCO2) rises above 60 mmHg without breathing efforts, providing evidence of a nonfunctioning respiratory center (apnea challenge) 4. No brainstem function: no ocular responses to head turning or caloric stimulation; dilated, fixed pupils; no gag or corneal reflex 5. Isoelectric (flat) EEG: electrocerebral silence 6. Persistence of these signs for an appropriate period of observation

An individual arrives in the emergency department in a coma with a possible drug overdose. Which drugs would cause the pupils to be dilated and fixed? (Select all that apply.) -Atropine -Scopolamine -Opiates -Sedatives

Large doses of ATROPINE and SCOPOLAMINE can fully dilate and fix pupils. Opiates cause pinpoint pupils. Sedatives can promote coma that cause the pupils to become midposition, moderately dilated, unequal, and fixed to light.

A child presents with congenital hydrocephalus. Upon tapping of his skull, a resonant sound is appreciated, which is referred to as -Macewen sign -sunsetting -Dandy-Walker -Arnold Chiari

MACEWEN SIGN, or cracked pot sign, occurs with separation of the cranial sutures and produces the characteristic sound. Sunsetting is the visualization of the sclera above the cornea. The Dandy-Walker deformity is a congenital defect of midline cerebellar structures. An Arnold-Chiari malformation is the downward displacement of the cerebellum.

Which is an insulating substance for the neuron? -Schwann sheath -Myelin -Neurilemma -Node of Ranvier

MYELIN is an insulating substance. The neurilemma is the same as a Schwann sheath; it is the delicate tissue that surrounds each axon. The nodes of Ranvier are interruptions at regular intervals that occur in the myelin.

Which statement is true regarding the epidemiologic effects of schizophrenia? (Select all that apply.) -If one twin has schizophrenia, then a 70% chance exists that the remaining twin will develop the disease. -One percent of the general population has schizophrenia. -Schizophrenia is a simple genetic transmission. -Concordance between siblings is 12%.

Monozygotic twins have a concordance rate of 30% to 50%. Siblings and dizygotic twins have a 12% concordance rate. Schizophrenia can occur in a child with parents who do not have the disease. SCHIZOPHRENIA OCCURS IN APPROXIMATELY 1% OF THE POPULATION. The genetic penetrance is not simple.

Which is classified as a myofascial pain syndrome? -Muscle strain -Mastectomy -Neck dissection -Surgical amputation

Myofascial pain syndrome (MPS) is a regional pain syndrome associated with injury to muscle, fascia, and tendons and includes myositis, fibrositis, myofibrositis, myalgia, and MUSCLE STRAIN. These conditions involve myofascial trigger points within a taut band of skeletal muscle. The pain may be the result of low-threshold mechanosensitive afferents projecting to sensitized dorsal horn neurons and the development of peripheral and central sensitization.

Which are free nerve endings in the afferent peripheral nervous system that selectively respond to different chemical, mechanical, and thermal stimuli? -Nociceptors -Prostaglandins -Enkephalins -Dynorphins

NOCICEPTORS are receptors located throughout the body that respond to pain. Prostaglandins are lipid compounds that have hormone-like effects in the body. Enkephalins are the most prevalent of the natural opioids and bind to δ opioid receptors. Dynorphins are the most potent of the endogenous opioids binding strongly with κ receptors to impede pain signals in the brain.

Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses? -Hallucinations -Compulsions -Obsessions -Delusions

OBSESSIONS ARE RECURRENT, INTRUSIVE THOUGHTS OR IMPULSES that provoke an intense anxiety that leads the individual to perform compulsive repetitive behavioral acts to alleviate the anxiety activated by the obsessions. Hallucinations are perceptions experienced without external stimulation of the sense organs. Delusions are persistent beliefs contrary to the educational and cultural background of the individual.

What is the definition of perceptual dominance? -Duration of time or intensity before overt pain responses is regulated. -Pain at one location may mask pain at another location. -Repeated exposure to pain. -The point at which pain is perceived.

Perceptual dominance is PAIN AT ONE LOCATION THAT MAY INCREASE THE THRESHOLD OF PAIN AT ANOTHER LOCATION. For example, when a person has severe pain in the leg, neck pain might not be felt. Pain tolerance is the duration of time or intensity of pain before overt pain responses are initiated. Repeated exposure to pain usually decreases pain tolerance. The pain threshold is the point at which pain is perceived.

Which mechanism of heat loss involves electromagnetic waves? -Radiation -Conduction -Convection -Evaporation

RADIATION is heat loss through electromagnetic waves. Conduction is heat loss by direct molecule-to-molecule transfer. Convection is the transfer of heat through currents of gases or liquids. Evaporation is the transfer of heat with the conversion of liquid to gas.

Which statement is true regarding spinal shock? -It is characterized by a complete loss of reflex function. -It is permanent. -It causes increased muscle tone below the lesion. -No disruption of thermal control results.

Spinal shock is characterized by a COMPLETE LOSS OF REFLEX FUNCTION, flaccid paralysis, sensory deficit, and loss of bladder and rectal control in all segments below the level of the lesion. Because an interruption occurs in the communication with the spinal nerves, often a transient drop in blood pressure transpires and disturbed thermal regulation with faulty control of sweating ensues. Uncontrolled heat radiation through capillary dilation also occurs. Spinal shock may persist for a few days up to 3 months.

Which term describes successive, rapid impulses received from a single neuron on the same synapse? -Temporal summation -Spatial summation -Convergence -Facilitation

TEMPORAL SUMMATION refers to the effects of successive, rapid impulses received from a single neuron on the same synapse. Spatial summation refers to the combined effect of impulses from a number of neurons on a single synapse at the same time. Facilitation refers to the effects of excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) on the plasma membrane potential. Convergence refers to a number of neutrons firing and converging on one neuron.

A 23-year-old reports bilateral pain with a sensation of a tight band around the head. Which type of headache fits this description? -Migraine with aura -Migraine without aura -Tension headache -Cluster headache

TENSION HEADACHE is the most common type of headache, often feels like a band is constricting the head, and is bilateral. Migraines tend to throb and are often unilateral. A migraine is classified as with and without aura and is precipitated by a triggering event. Cluster headaches are more common in men and occur in episodes several times during a day for a period of days at different times of the year. The pain of a cluster headache is unilateral, intense, tearing, and burning.

Which of the following structures is part of the central nervous system (CNS)? -Brain -Somatic Nervous System -Peripheral Nerve Pathways -Cranial nerves

The BRAIN is part of the CNS. The peripheral nervous system (PNS) consists of the cranial nerves and the spinal nerves. The PNS can be divided into the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system.

Which part of the brain contains all cell bodies and dendrites of the neurons? -Gyri -Sulci -White matter -Gray matter

The GRAY MATTER contains the cell bodies and dendrites of the neurons. The gyro are the convolutions of the cerebrum. The sulci are the grooves between adjacent gyri. The white matter contains myelinated nerve fibers.

Which part of the brain is responsible for temperature regulation? -Thalamus -Medulla -Hypothalamus -Limbic system

The HYPOTHALAMUS is responsible for temperature regulation. The thalamus helps regulate sleep. The medulla helps to regulate several functions including breathing and blood vessel function. Also, sensory and motor neurons from the forebrain and midbrain travel through the medulla. The limbic system regulates the emotional response to pain.

The origin of the peripheral nervous system is which of the following? -Neural crest -Neural tube -Neural groove -Neural plate

The NEURAL CREST is a cellular band that is created when the neuroectodermal cells separate from the neural tube but remain between the tube and the surface ectoderm. This cellular band develops into the cranial and spinal ganglia, more commonly referred to as the peripheral nervous system. During the fourth week of gestation, the neural groove deepens and ultimately becomes the central nervous system (CNS). The neural plate is the thickening of the ectoderm. This plate appears around the middle of the third week of gestation and unfolds to form a neural groove and neural folds.

Which two systems regulate the complex emotional responses to pain? -Frontal and cerebellar lobes -Limbic and reticular systems -Thalamus and brainstem -Midbrain and nuclei of thalamus

The RETICULAR AND LIMBIC SYSTEMS regulate how an individual emotionally responds to pain.

Which is involved in pain transmission? -Posterior horn -Substantia gelatinosa -Anterior horn -Dorsal root ganglia

The SUBSTANTIA GELATINOSA is a structure involved in pain transmission. The posterior horn (dorsal horn) is primarily composed of interneurons and axons from sensory neurons. The anterior or ventral horn contains nerve cell bodies for efferent pathways leaving the spinal cord. The dorsal root ganglion is part of the sensory ganglion.

Which is a component of the midbrain? -Cerebral hemisphere -Tegmentum -Cerebellum -Medulla oblongata

The TEGMENTUM, corpora quadrigemina, and cerebral peduncles are parts of the midbrain. The cerebral hemispheres make up the forebrain. The brainstem is composed of the midbrain, medulla oblongata, and pons.

Which statement is true regarding the cerebellum? -Makes up fibers of the corticospinal tract -Maintains balance or posture -Controls respiration -Is the location of cranial nerves V through VIII

The cerebellum is responsible for BALANCE AND POSTURE and is also responsible for both conscious and unconscious muscle synergy. The pons controls respirations and is the location of cranial nerves V through VIII. The fibers of the corticospinal tract are made up in the basis pedunculi.

An older adult who abuses alcohol has fallen and is diagnosed with a hematoma that is located on the top of the brain. Which type of hematoma fits this description? -Subdural -Epidural -Extradural -Intracerebral

The classical presentation of an EPIDURAL hematoma is a person hit in the temporal area with damage to the middle meningeal artery. The patient will lose consciousness at the time of injury, but there may be a period where consciousness is regained. The patient will then become more confused and drowsy. This scenario is not typical with the other types of brain injury.

Simple febrile seizures occur in... -less than 1% of children. -2% to 5% of children. -7% to 10% of children. -12% to 15% of children.

2%-5% OF CHILDREN Simple febrile seizures occur in 2% to 5% of children, most frequently between the ages of 3 months and 5 years. The seizures are brief and self-limited, and the cause is unknown.

Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important diagnostic factors in TBI. Which GCS score describes a severe TBI? - 13-15 - 12-13 - 9-12 - 3-8

3-8 The hallmark of a severe TBI is a loss of consciousness for more than 24 hours. A severe TBI is a GCS score of 8 or less associated with cognitive and/or physical disability or death.

A person experiences a vertebral fracture in which the C1 vertebra is fractured into several fragments. This type of fracture can be described as which of the following? -Simple -Compressed -Comminuted -Wedge

A COMMINUTED fracture is also called a burst fracture, in which the vertebral body is shattered into several fragments. A simple fracture is a single break usually affecting the transverse or spinous process. A compressed fracture is also called a wedge fracture; it occurs when a crush type of injury occurs and the vertebra is anteriorly compressed.

When an individual reports that, "Voices are telling me to steal money from the church," the nurse determines that the person is experiencing... -delusions. -disorganized speech. -disorganized behavior. -hallucinations.

A HALLUCINATION is a perception experienced without external stimulation of the sense organs. Sensory hallucinations may involve auditory, tactile, visual, gustatory, and olfactory features. A delusion is a persistent belief contrary to the educational and cultural background of the individual. Disorganized speech and behavior (bizarre behavior) are also positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Incongruity of affect is another dimension of disorganized behavior.

Which statement is true regarding a mood disorder? -Mood disorder is a sustained emotional state. -It is a disruption of thought. -Lifetime prevalence rate for depression is 1%. -Of those with depression, 95% respond to medication.

A MOOD DISORDER IS A SUSTAINED EMOTIONAL STATE. The condition is unipolar or a major depressive disorder, or it is bipolar (manic-depressive) illness. A disruption of thought is consistent with schizophrenia, not a mood disorder. Lifetime prevalence for depression is 16.2% for the general population. The prevalence of the bipolar disorder ranges from 3% to 5% in the general population. Approximately 80% of depressed persons will respond to antidepressant drugs such as monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).

Which statement is true regarding a subdural hematoma? -It is a collection of blood between the dura and the arachnoid. -It occurs as a result of the disruption of an artery. -It is a collection of blood between the skull and the dura. -It produces cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

A subdural hematoma IS A COLLECTION OF venous BLOOD BETWEEN THE DURA AND THE ARACHNOID. An epidural hematoma is a collection of blood between the skull and the dura that involves an arterial bleed. The pia mater closely adheres to the brain. The choroid plexuses produce CSF.

A person experiencing difficulty in recognizing a pattern cannot recognize the form and nature of objects. Which term describes this condition? -Agnosia -Aphasia -Dysphasia -Alzheimer

AGNOSIA is a defect of pattern recognition that involves the loss of recognition through one sense, although the object or person may still be recognized by other senses. Agnosia can be tactile, visual, or auditory. Aphasia is the complete loss of the comprehension or production of language. Dysphasia is an impairment of comprehension or production of language. Alzheimer is a disease of dementia.

Which statements are true regarding neurologic development? (Select all that apply.) -The head size is the fastest growing body part during infancy. -The infant's skull contains fontanels. -An adult's head will expand with an intracranial mass. -The posterior fontanel may remain open until 2-3 months of age.

AN INFANT'S SKULL CONTAINS open sutures and FONTANELS to allow for head expansion. THE HEAD IS THE FASTEST GROWING BODY PART DURING INFANCY. THE POSTERIOR FONTANEL MAY REMAIN OPEN UNTIL 2-3 MONTHS OF AGE; the anterior fontanel normally does not fully close until 18 months of age. An adult's head size will not expand, regardless of intracranial events, such as tumor growth, bleeding, or the increased production of CSF.

Which term describes the inability to experience emotions, especially pleasure? -Alogia -Avolition -Anhedonia -Aphasia

ANHEDONIA is the inability to experience emotions, and individuals often report a sense of detachment from the environment. Alogia is the absence of spontaneous speech production for the purpose of answering or expressing oneself. Avolition is a deficit in spontaneous or goal-directed behavior. Aphasia is the lack of speech.

Which statement is true of anxiety disorders? -Anxiety disorders are the most prevalent psychiatric illness. -Anxiety disorders and depression are not linked. -Anxiety disorders are normal and will correct themselves. -Benzodiazepines are first-line, single treatment for panic disorder.

ANXIETY DISORDERS ARE THE MOST PREVALENT PSYCHIATRIC ILLNESS, occurring in approximately 10% to 30% of the general population. Many individuals with anxiety disorders develop major depression, and the high comorbidity of anxiety disorders and depression suggests a common neural pathophysiologic basis linking these two mental illnesses. When normal fear and anxiety mental states persist and become uncontrollable, an individual may develop an anxiety disorder. PD, GAD, PTSD, and OCD are examples of uncontrollable fear and anxiety states that require medical attention. Panic disorders are generally treatable with cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) and antidepressants such as TCAs and SSRIs. Benzodiazepines (BZs) are used as an adjunct or augmentation therapy for individuals who are nonresponsive to SSRIs or TCAs.

Which primary brain tumor occurs most commonly? -Astrocytoma -Ependymoma -Oligodendroglioma -Meningioma

ASTROCYTOMAS are the most common brain tumors and account for 50% of brain and spinal tumors. Ependymomas are gliomas that arise from ependymal cells and account for 6% of primary brain tumors in adults. Oligodendrogliomas are less commonly occurring gliomas and account for 2% of primary brain tumors. Meningiomas account for approximately 3% to 4% of all intracranial tumors.

A woman with a history of schizophrenia asks the nurse, "Now that I'm pregnant, how will my mental illness affect my baby?" Which response from the nurse is true regarding the woman's child? -Schizophrenia may result from neurodevelopmental defects. -Research does not indicate any environmental involvement in schizophrenia. -An early brain defect immediately reveals itself. -No alterations are suspected in the brain structure.

Alterations are suspected in the brain structure that may be the result of NEURODEVELOPMENT DEFECTS. Researchers believe that environmental factors may alter brain development; these factors include prenatal infection, prenatal nutritional deficiencies, perinatal complications, hypoxia, and upbringing in an urban environment. Researchers also hypothesize that an early brain defect may remain silent until that part of the brain is used.

Which are characteristics of Alzheimer disease? (Select all that apply.) -Rapid onset -Memory loss -Increased irritability -Anxiety and depression

Alzheimer disease and other forms of dementia have a slow onset. Mental status changes are MEMORY LOSS and behavioral changes that include IRRITABILITY, agitation, ANXIETY, restlessness, and DEPRESSION.

Which is an arterial bleed from the blood vessels that lie within the grooves of the skull? -Subdural -Epidural -Subarachnoid -Lumbar cisterna

An EPIDURAL hematoma develops from an arterial bleed of blood vessels that lie within the grooves in the skull. A subdural hematoma is a collection of venous blood between the dura and the arachnoid. A subarachnoid bleed occurs within the subarachnoid space, which is between the brain and tissues that cover the brain. CSF, contained within the subarachnoid space, circulates down to the large lumbar cistern, which extends from the second lumbar vertebra to the second sacral vertebra. Cisterns are expanded areas of the subarachnoid space.

Which statement is true regarding Broca's area? -Is responsible for receptive speech -Is responsible for motor speech -Results in the inability to hear -Is located in the right cerebral hemisphere

Broca's area is found on the left and IS RESPONSIBLE FOR MOTOR SPEECH. Deficits in this area result in the inability to form words, which is also called expressive aphasia.

The person at highest risk for traumatic brain injury (TBI) is -black and economically disadvantaged. -male and disabled. -female and over 20 years of age. -an economically advantaged young adult.

BLACK AND ECONOMICALLY DISADVANTAGED Those at highest risk for TBI are children 0-4 years of age, older adolescents aged 15-19 years, and adults aged 65 years and older. Males have the highest incidence in every age group. TBI is highest among black and in lower- and median-income families.

Which statement is true regarding brain tumors in children? -Brain tumors represent the most common primary neoplasm in children. -Twenty percent of the brain tumors are nonmalignant. -Brain tumors account for 50% of all childhood cancers. -Brain tumors spread by direct invasion of cells through CSF.

BRAIN TUMORS SPREAD BY DIRECT INVASION or dissemination of cells through CSF. Brain tumors are the leading cause of cancer death in children. Approximately 45% of primary brain tumors in children are nonmalignant. Overall, primary brain tumors account for nearly 26% of all childhood cancers.

Which type of pain arises from connective tissue, muscle, bone, and skin? -Somatic -Referred -Neuropathic -Segmental

SOMATIC pain arises from connective tissue, muscle, bone, and skin. It may be sharp and well organized or dull, aching, and poorly localized. Referred pain is pain felt in an area removed or distant from its point of origin. Neuropathic pain is chronic pain initiated or caused by a primary lesion or dysfunction in the nervous system and leads to long-term changes in pain pathway structures (neuroplasticity) and abnormal processing of sensory information. Segmental is not a type of pain.

A child diagnosed with cerebral palsy has increased muscle tone, prolonged primitive reflexes, scoliosis, and contractures. Which form of cerebral palsy does this child have? -Pyramidal or spastic -Dyskinetic -Ataxic -Mixed variety

SPASTIC cerebral palsy demonstrates increased muscle tone, prolonged primitive reflexes, scoliosis, and contractures. Dyskinetic cerebral palsy is associated with extreme difficulty in fine motor coordination. Ataxic cerebral palsy is associated with gait disturbances and instability. The mixed variety of cerebral palsy has components of each of these forms.

Which statement is true regarding the epidemiologic effects of an acute cerebrovascular accident (CVA)? -The incidence of a CVA is twice as high among whites than it is among blacks in the United States. -CVAs are the fifth leading cause of death in the United States. -Fifty percent of all strokes are recurrent. -Two million individuals are victims of stroke each year in the United States.

STROKES ARE THE FIFTH LEADING CAUSE OF DEATH IN THE UNITED STATES. The incidence of stroke is approximately two times higher among blacks than it is among whites. Of the 795,000 new and recurrent strokes that occur annually in the United States, approximately 185,000 of these are recurrent.