EXAM 2

dysfunctional grief

Prolonged grief disorder Extended and intense mourning Recurrent and severe distressing emotions Intrusive thoughts about the loss Self-neglect Denial of the loss for >6 months

trigeminal neuralgia

TRIGEMINAL NERVE-CN v, CEREBELLAR ARTERY COMPRESSES NERVE, BURNING, KNIFELIKE PAIN, UNILATERAL, INITIATED BY TRIGGERING MECHANISM (EX. TOUCH)

mustard gas

Yellow to brown in color with garlic-like odor Irritates eyes and causes skin burns/blisters

The dying patient and family have many interrelated psychosocial and physical care needs. Which ones can the nurse begin to manage with the patient and family (select all that apply)? a. Anxiety b. Fear of pain c. The dying process d. Care being provided e. Anger toward the nurse f. Feeling powerless and hopeless

a, b, c, d, e, f. Teaching, along with support and encouragement, can decrease some of the anxiety. Teaching about pain relief, the dying process, and the care provided will help the patient and family know what to expect. Allowing the patient to make decisions will help to decrease feelings of powerlessness and hopelessness. The nurse who is the target of anger needs to not react to this anger on a personal level.

According to the World Health Organization, palliative care is an approach that improves quality of life for patients and their families who face problems associated with life-threatening illnesses. From the list below, identify the specific goals of palliative care (select all that apply). a. Regard dying as a normal process. b. Minimize the financial burden on the family. c. Provide relief from symptoms, including pain. d. Affirm life and neither hasten nor postpone death. e. Prolong the patient's life with aggressive new therapies. f. Support holistic patient care and enhance quality of life. g. Offer support to patients to live as actively as possible until death. h. Assist the patient and family to identify and access pastoral care services. i. Offer support to the family during the patient's illness and their own bereavement.

a, c, d, f, g, i. Overall, goals of palliative care are to prevent and relieve suffering and to improve the quality of life for the patient.

When assessing an older patient admitted to the emergency department (ED) with a broken arm and facial bruises, the nurse observes several additional bruises in various stages of healing. Which statement or question by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Do you feel safe in your home?" b. "You should not return to your home." c. "Would you like to see a social worker?" d. "I need to report my concerns to the police."

a. "Do you feel safe in your home?" The nurse's initial response should be to further assess the patient's situation. Telling the patient not to return home may be an option once further assessment is done. A social worker may be appropriate once further assessment is completed.

Which patient is most appropriate for the burn unit charge nurse to assign to a registered nurse (RN) who has floated from the hospital medical unit? a. A 34-year-old patient who has a weight loss of 15% from admission and requires enteral feedings. b. A 67-year-old patient who has blebs under an autograft on the thigh and has an order for bleb aspiration c. A 46-year-old patient who has just come back to the unit after having a cultured epithelial autograft to the chest d. A 65-year-old patient who has twice-daily burn debridements and dressing changes to partial-thickness facial burns

a. A 34-year-old patient who has a weight loss of 15% from admission and requires enteral feedings. An RN from a medical unit would be familiar with malnutrition and with administration and evaluation of response to enteral feedings. The other patients require burn assessment and care that is more appropriate for staff who regularly care for burned patients.

As the nurse admits a patient in end-stage kidney disease to the hospital, the patient tells the nurse, "If my heart or breathing stop, I do not want to be resuscitated." Which action is best for the nurse to take? a. Ask if these wishes have been discussed with the health care provider. b. Place a "Do Not Resuscitate" (DNR) notation in the patient's care plan. c. Inform the patient that a notarized advance directive must be included in the record or resuscitation must be performed. d. Advise the patient to designate a person to make health care decisions when the patient is not able to make them independently

a. A health care provider's order should be written describing the actions that the nurses should take if the patient requires CPR, but the primary right to decide belongs to the patient or family. The nurse should document the patient's request but does not have the authority to place the DNR order in the care plan. A notarized advance directive is not needed to establish the patient's wishes. The patient may need a durable power of attorney for health care (or the equivalent), but this does not address the patient's current concern with possible resuscitation.

A terminally ill man tells the nurse, "I have never believed there is a God or an afterlife, but now it is too terrible to imagine that I will not exist. Why was I here in the first place?" What does this comment help the nurse recognize about the patient's needs? a. He is experiencing spiritual distress. b. This man most likely will not have a peaceful death. c. He needs to be reassured that his feelings are normal. d. This patient should be referred to a clergyman for a discussion of his beliefs.

a. Spiritual distress may surface when an individual is faced with a terminal illness and it is characterized by verbalization of inner conflicts about beliefs and questioning the meaning of one's own existence. Individuals in spiritual distress may be able to resolve the problem and die peacefully with effective grief work but referral to spiritual leaders should be the patient's choice.

The husband and daughter of a Hispanic woman dying from pancreatic cancer refuse to consider using hospice care. What is the first thing the nurse should do? a. Assess their understanding of what hospice care services are. b. Ask them how they will care for the patient without hospice care. c. Talk directly to the patient and family to see if she can change their minds. d. Accept their decision since they are Hispanic and prefer to care for their own.

a. The family may not understand what hospice care is and may need information. Some cultures and ethnic groups may underuse hospice care because of a lack of awareness of the services offered, a desire to continue with potentially curative therapies, and concerns about a lack of minority hospice workers.

The nurse cares for a terminally ill patient who is experiencing pain that is continuous and severe. How should the nurse schedule the administration of opioid pain medications? a. Give around-the-clock routine administration of analgesics. b. Provide PRN doses of medication whenever the patient requests. c. Offer enough pain medication to keep the patient sedated and unaware of stimuli. d. Suggest analgesic doses that provide pain control without decreasing respiratory rate.

a. The principles of beneficence and nonmaleficence indicate that the goal of pain management in a terminally ill patient is adequate pain relief even if the effect of pain medications could hasten death. Administration of analgesics on a PRN basis will not provide the consistent level of analgesia the patient needs. Patients usually do not require so much pain medication that they are oversedated and unaware of stimuli. Adequate pain relief may require a dosage that will result in a decrease in respiratory rate

The spouse of a patient with terminal cancer visits daily and cheerfully talks with the patient about wedding anniversary plans for the next year. When the nurse asks about any concerns, the spouse says, "I'm busy at work, but otherwise things are fine." Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate? a. Ineffective coping related to lack of grieving b. Anxiety related to complicated grieving process c. Caregiver role strain related to feeling overwhelmed d. Hopelessness related to knowledge deficit about cancer

a. The spouse's behavior and statements indicate the absence of anticipatory grieving, which may lead to impaired adjustment as the patient progresses toward death. The spouse does not appear to feel overwhelmed, hopeless, or anxious.

23. The urgent care center protocol for tick bites includes the following actions. Which action will the nurse take first when caring for a patient with a tick bite? a. Use tweezers to remove any remaining ticks. b. Check the vital signs, including temperature. c. Give doxycycline (Vibramycin) 100 mg orally. d. Obtain information about recent outdoor activities.

a. Use tweezers to remove any remaining ticks. Because neurotoxic venom is released as long as the tick is attached to the patient, the initial action should be to remove any ticks using tweezers or forceps. The other actions are also appropriate, but the priority is to minimize venom release.

Following an earthquake, patients are triaged by emergency medical personnel and are transported to the emergency department (ED). Which patient will the nurse need to assess first? a. A patient with a red tag b. A patient with a blue tag c. A patient with a black tag d. A patient with a yellow tag

a. a patient with a red tag The red tag indicates a patient with a life-threatening injury requiring rapid treatment. The other tags indicate patients with less urgent injuries or those who are likely to die.

After the return of spontaneous circulation following the resuscitation of a patient who had a cardiac arrest, therapeutic hypothermia is ordered. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Apply external cooling device. b. Check mental status every 15 minutes. c. Avoid the use of sedative medications. d. Rewarm if temperature is <91° F (32.8° C).

a. apply external cooling device When therapeutic hypothermia is used postresuscitation, external cooling devices or cold normal saline infusions are used to rapidly lower body temperature to 89.6° F to 93.2° F (32° C to 34° C). Because hypothermia will decrease brain activity, assessing mental status every 15 minutes is not needed at this stage. Sedative medications are administered during therapeutic hypothermia.

An unresponsive 79-year-old is admitted to the emergency department (ED) during a summer heat wave. The patient's core temperature is 105.4° F (40.8° C), blood pressure (BP) 88/50, and pulse 112. The nurse initially will plan to a. apply wet sheets and a fan to the patient. b. provide O2 at 6 L/min with a nasal cannula. c. start lactated Ringer's solution at 1000 mL/hr. d. give acetaminophen (Tylenol) rectal suppository.

a. apply wet sheets and a fan to the patient The priority intervention is to cool the patient. Antipyretics are not effective in decreasing temperature in heat stroke, and 100% oxygen should be given, which requires a high flow rate through a non-rebreather mask. An older patient would be at risk for developing complications such as pulmonary edema if given fluids at 1000 mL/hr.

When preparing to rewarm a patient with hypothermia, the nurse will plan to a. attach a cardiac monitor. b. insert a urinary catheter. c. assist with endotracheal intubation. d. have sympathomimetic drugs available.

a. attach a cardiac monitor Rewarming can produce dysrhythmias, so the patient should be monitored and treated if necessary. Urinary catheterization and endotracheal intubation are not needed for rewarming. Sympathomimetic drugs tend to stimulate the heart and increase the risk for fatal dysrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation.

When assessing a pt with a partial thickness burn, the nurse would expect to find (select all that apply) a. blisters b. exposed fascia c. exposed muscles d. intact nerve endings e. red, shiny, wet appearance

a. blisters d. intact nerve endings e. red, shiny, wet appearance

The nurse caring for a patient admitted with burns over 30% of the body surface assesses that urine output has dramatically increased. Which action by the nurse would best ensure adequate kidney function? a. Continue to monitor the urine output. b. Monitor for increased white blood cells (WBCs). c. Assess that blisters and edema have subsided. d. Prepare the patient for discharge from the burn unit.

a. continue to monitor the urine output The patient's urine output indicates that the patient is entering the acute phase of the burn injury and moving on from the emergent stage. At the end of the emergent phase, capillary permeability normalizes and the patient begins to diurese large amounts of urine with a low specific gravity. Although this may occur at about 48 hours, it may be longer in some patients. Blisters and edema begin to resolve, but this process requires more time. White blood cells may increase or decrease, based on the patient's immune status and any infectious processes. The WBC count does not indicate kidney function. The patient will likely remain in the burn unit during the acute stage of burn injury.

The following actions are part of the routine emergency department (ED) protocol for a patient who has been admitted with multiple bee stings to the hands. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Remove the patient's rings. b. Place ice packs on both hands. c. Apply calamine lotion to any itching areas. d. Give diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 100 mg PO.

a. remove the patient's rings The patient's rings should be removed first because it might not be possible to remove them if swelling develops. The other orders also should be implemented as rapidly as possible after the nurse has removed the jewelry.

drug therapy for burn patients

analgesics (opioids), tetanus, VTE prophylaxis, nutritional therapy (need 5,000 kcal/day), tube feed (20-40 mL/hr)

rule of nines breakdown

arms and head- 4.5% each legs- 9% each abdominal area- 18% groin- 1%

A nurse is performing triage in the emergency department. Which patient should the nurse see first? A. 18-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus who has a 4-cm laceration on right leg. B. 32-year-old patient with drug overdose who is unresponsive with poor respiratory effort. C. 56-year-old patient with substernal chest pain who is diaphoretic with shortness of breath. D. 78-year-old patient with right hip fracture who is confused; blood pressure is 98/62 mm Hg.

b. 32-year-old patient with drug overdose who is unresponsive with poor respiratory effort.

A hospice patient is manifesting a decrease in all body system functions except for a heart rate of 124 and a respiratory rate of 28. Which statement, if made by the nurse to the patient's family member, is most appropriate? a. "These symptoms will continue to increase until death finally occurs." b. "These symptoms are a normal response before these functions decrease." c. "These symptoms indicate a reflex response to the slowing of other body systems." d. "These symptoms may be associated with an improvement in the patient's condition."

b. An increase in heart and respiratory rate may occur before the slowing of these functions in the dying patient. Heart and respiratory rate typically slow as the patient progresses further toward death. In a dying patient, high respiratory and pulse rates do not indicate improvement, and it would be inappropriate for the nurse to indicate this to the family. The changes in pulse and respirations are not reflex responses.

A patient with end-stage liver failure tells the nurse, "If I can just live to see my first grandchild who is expected in 5 months, then I can die happy." The nurse recognizes that the patient is demonstrating which of the following stages of grieving? a. Prolonged grief disorder b. Kübler-Ross's stage of bargaining c. Kübler-Ross's stage of depression d. The new normal stage of the Grief Wheel

b. Bargaining is demonstrated by "if-then" grief behavior that is described by Kübler-Ross. Kübler-Ross's stage of depression is seen when the person says "yes me, and I am sad." Prolonged grief disorder is seen when there is a dysfunctional reaction to loss and the individual is unable to move forward after the death of a loved one. In the Grief Wheel model, the new normal stage is when the grief is resolved but the normal state, because of the loss, is not the same as before.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has burns of the ears, head, neck, and right arm and hand. The nurse should place the patient in which position? a. Place the right arm and hand flexed in a position of comfort. b. Elevate the right arm and hand on pillows and extend the fingers. c. Assist the patient to a supine position with a small pillow under the head. d. Position the patient in a side-lying position with rolled towel under the neck.

b. Elevate the right arm and hand on pillows and extend the fingers The right hand and arm should be elevated to reduce swelling and the fingers extended to avoid flexion contractures (even though this position may not be comfortable for the patient). The patient with burns of the ears should not use a pillow for the head because this will put pressure on the ears, and the pillow may stick to the ears. Patients with neck burns should not use a pillow because the head should be maintained in an extended position in order to avoid contractures

When assessing a patient who spilled hot oil on the right leg and foot, the nurse notes that the skin is dry, pale, hard skin. The patient states that the burn is not painful. What term would the nurse use to document the burn depth? a. First-degree skin destruction b. Full-thickness skin destruction c. Deep partial-thickness skin destruction d. Superficial partial-thickness skin destruction

b. Full-thickness skin destruction With full-thickness skin destruction, the appearance is pale and dry or leathery and the area is painless because of the associated nerve destruction. Erythema, swelling, and blisters point to a deep partial-thickness burn. With superficial partial-thickness burns, the area is red, but no blisters are present. First-degree burns exhibit erythema, blanching, and pain.

A terminally ill patient is unresponsive and has cold, clammy skin with mottling on the extremities. The patient's husband and two grown children are arguing at the bedside about where the patient's funeral should be held. What should the nurse do first? a. Ask the family members to leave the room if they are going to argue. b. Take the family members aside and explain that the patient may be able to hear them. c. Tell the family members that this decision is premature because the patient has not yet died. d. Remind the family that this should be the patient's decision and to ask her if she regains consciousness.

b. Hearing is often the last sense to disappear with declining consciousness and conversations can distress patients even when they appear unresponsive. Conversation around unresponsive patients should never be other than that which one would maintain if the patients were alert.

A hospice nurse who has become close to a terminally ill patient is present in the home when the patient dies and feels saddened and tearful as the family members begin to cry. Which action should the nurse take at this time? a. Contact a grief counselor as soon as possible. b. Cry along with the patient's family members. c. Leave the home as soon as possible to allow the family to grieve privately. d. Consider whether working in hospice is desirable because patient losses are common.

b. It is appropriate for the nurse to cry and express sadness in other ways when a patient dies, and the family is likely to feel that this is therapeutic. Contacting a grief counselor, leaving the family to grieve privately, and considering whether hospice continues to be a satisfying place to work are all appropriate actions as well, but the nurse's initial action at this time should be to share the grieving process with the family.

A patient is admitted to the burn unit with burns to the head, face, and hands. Initially, wheezes are heard, but an hour later, the lung sounds are decreased and no wheezes are audible. What is the best action for the nurse to take? a. Encourage the patient to cough and auscultate the lungs again. b. Notify the health care provider and prepare for endotracheal intubation. c. Document the results and continue to monitor the patient's respiratory rate. d. Reposition the patient in high-Fowler's position and reassess breath sounds.

b. Notify the health care provider and prepare for endotracheal intubation. The patient's history and clinical manifestations suggest airway edema and the health care provider should be notified immediately, so that intubation can be done rapidly. Placing the patient in a more upright position or having the patient cough will not address the problem of airway edema. Continuing to monitor is inappropriate because immediate action should occur.

During the primary assessment of a victim of a motor vehicle collision, the nurse determines that the patient is breathing and has an unobstructed airway. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Palpate extremities for bilateral pulses. b. Observe the patient's respiratory effort. c. Check the patient's level of consciousness. d.Examine the patient for any external bleeding.

b. Observe the patient's respiratory effort. Even with a patent airway, patients can have other problems that compromise ventilation, so the next action is to assess the patient's breathing. The other actions are also part of the initial survey but assessment of breathing should be done immediately after assessing for airway patency.

A young adult patient with metastatic cancer, who is very close to death, appears restless. The patient keeps repeating, "I am not ready to die." Which action is best for the nurse to take? a. Remind the patient that no one feels ready for death. b. Sit at the bedside and ask if there is anything the patient needs. c. Insist that family members remain at the bedside with the patient. d. Tell the patient that everything possible is being done to delay death.

b. Staying at the bedside and listening allows the patient to discuss any unresolved issues or physical discomforts that should be addressed. Stating that no one feels ready for death fails to address the individual patient's concerns. Telling the patient that everything is being done does not address the patient's fears about dying, especially since the patient is likely to die soon. Family members may not feel comfortable staying at the bedside of a dying patient, and the nurse should not insist that they remain there.

A patient who has experienced blunt abdominal trauma during a motor vehicle collision is complaining of increasing abdominal pain. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the purpose of a. peritoneal lavage. b. abdominal ultrasonography. c. nasogastric (NG) tube placement. d. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

b. abdominal ultrasonography. For patients who are at risk for intraabdominal bleeding, focused abdominal ultrasonography is the preferred method to assess for intraperitoneal bleeding. An MRI would not be used. Peritoneal lavage is an alternative, but it is more invasive. An NG tube would not be helpful in diagnosis of intraabdominal bleeding.

The patient is diagnosed with Guillain-Barré syndrome and admitted to the inpatient unit from the emergency department. What is the most important nursing observation? A. Urine output B. Depth of respiration C. Bowel sounds D. Lower extremity strength

b. depth of respiration

The nurse plans care for a male pt who suffered thermal burns to the entire posterior aspect of his body when he fell on an outdoor grill. Which pt need is likely to be the primary problem of this pt in the emergent phase? a. maintain tissue oxygenation b. halt progression of the burn c. maintain intravascular volume d. prevent invasion of pathogens

b. halt progression of the burn

When planning the response to the potential use of smallpox as an agent of terrorism, the emergency department (ED) nurse-manager will plan to obtain sufficient quantities of a. blood. b. vaccine. c. atropine. d. antibiotics.

b. vaccine Smallpox infection can be prevented or ameliorated by the administration of vaccine given rapidly after exposure. The other interventions would be helpful for other agents of terrorism but not for smallpox.

Gastric lavage and administration of activated charcoal are ordered for an unconscious patient who has been admitted to the emergency department (ED) after ingesting 30 lorazepam (Ativan) tablets. Which action should the nurse plan to do first? a. Insert a large-bore orogastric tube. b.Assist with intubation of the patient. c. Prepare a 60-mL syringe with saline. d. Give first dose of activated charcoal.

b.Assist with intubation of the patient. In an unresponsive patient, intubation is done before gastric lavage and activated charcoal administration to prevent aspiration. The other actions will be implemented after intubation.

battle's sign

behind and above the eat bruising -check for clear fluid from nose or eats (CSF leakage) -check for halo with dripping onto tissue -positive for glucose

epidural hematoma

bleeding between dura and inner surface of skull -neurologic emergency -initial period of unconsciousness -brief lucid interval followed by decrease in LOC -headache, n/v

subdural hematoma

bleeding between dura mater and arachnoid -symptoms related to increase ICP, decreased LOC, headache

chemical burns-smoke inhalation and carbon monoxide

burns to face/neck, assess for airway compromise and pulmonary edema especially during first 12-48 hours carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin and prevents oxygen from circulating treat with 100% humidified oxygen, intubation and mechanical ventilation bronchoscopy, chest x-ray, ABG's

A patient with hypotension and an elevated temperature after working outside on a hot day is treated in the emergency department (ED). The nurse determines that discharge teaching has been effective when the patient makes which statement? a. "I will take salt tablets when I work outdoors in the summer." b. "I should take acetaminophen (Tylenol) if I start to feel too warm." c. "I should drink sports drinks when working outside in hot weather." d. "I will move to a cool environment if I notice that I am feeling confused."

c. "I should drink sports drinks when working outside in hot weather." Electrolyte solutions such as sports drinks help replace fluid and electrolytes lost when exercising in hot weather. Salt tablets are not recommended because of the risks of gastric irritation and hypernatremia. Antipyretic medications are not effective in lowering body temperature elevations caused by excessive exposure to heat. A patient who is confused is likely to have more severe hyperthermia and will be unable to remember to take appropriate action.

A patient with severe burns has crystalloid fluid replacement ordered using the Parkland formula. The initial volume of fluid to be administered in the first 24 hours is 30,000 mL. The initial rate of administration is 1875 mL/hr. After the first 8 hours, what rate should the nurse infuse the IV fluids? a. 350 mL/hour b. 523 mL/hour c. 938 mL/hour d. 1250 mL/hour

c. 938 mL/hour Half of the fluid replacement using the Parkland formula is administered in the first 8 hours and the other half over the next 16 hours. In this case, the patient should receive half of the initial rate, or 938 mL/hr.

The emergency department (ED) triage nurse is assessing four victims of an automobile accident. Which patient has the highest priority for treatment? a. A patient with absent pedal pulses b. A patient with an open femur fracture c. A patient with a sucking chest wound d. A patient with bleeding of facial lacerations

c. A patient with a sucking chest wound Most immediate deaths from trauma occur because of problems with ventilation, so the patient with a sucking chest wound should be treated first. Face and head fractures can obstruct the airway, but the patient with facial injuries has lacerations only. The other two patients also need rapid intervention but do not have airway or breathing problems.

Family members are in the patient's room when the patient has a cardiac arrest and the staff start resuscitation measures. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Keep the family in the room and assign a staff member to explain the care given and answer questions. b. Ask the family to wait outside the patient's room with a designated staff member to provide emotional support. c. Ask the family members about whether they would prefer to remain in the patient's room or wait outside the room. d. Tell the family members that patients are comforted by having family members present during resuscitation efforts.

c. Ask the family members about whether they would prefer to remain in the patient's room or wait outside the room. Although many family members and patients report benefits from family presence during resuscitation efforts, the nurse's initial action should be to determine the preference of these family members. The other actions may be appropriate, but this will depend on what is learned when assessing family preferences.

A 28-year-old patient who has deep human bite wounds on the left hand is being treated in the urgent care center. Which action will the nurse plan to take? a. Prepare to administer rabies immune globulin (BayRab). b. Assist the health care provider with suturing of the bite wounds. c. Teach the patient the reason for the use of prophylactic antibiotics. d. Keep the wounds dry until the health care provider can assess them.

c. Teach the patient the reason for the use of prophylactic antibiotics. Because human bites of the hand frequently become infected, prophylactic antibiotics are usually prescribed to prevent infection. To minimize infection, deep bite wounds on the extremities are left open. Rabies immune globulin might be used after an animal bite. Initial treatment of bite wounds includes copious irrigation to help clean out contaminants and microorganisms.

The nurse cares for an adolescent patient who is dying. The patient's parents are interested in organ donation and ask the nurse how the decision about brain death is made. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Brain death occurs if a person is flaccid and unresponsive." b. "If CPR is ineffective in restoring a heartbeat, the brain cannot function." c. "Brain death has occurred if there is no breathing and certain reflexes are absent." d. "If respiratory efforts cease and no apical pulse is audible, brain death is present."

c. The diagnosis of brain death is based on irreversible loss of all brain functions, including brainstem functions that control respirations and brainstem reflexes. The other descriptions describe other clinical manifestations associated with death but are insufficient to declare a patient brain dead.

A middle-aged patient tells the nurse, "My mother died 4 months ago, and I just can't seem to get over it. I'm not sure it is normal to still think about her every day." Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate? a. Hopelessness related to inability to resolve grief b. Complicated grieving related to unresolved issues c. Anxiety related to lack of knowledge about normal grieving d. Chronic sorrow related to ongoing distress about loss of mother

c. The patient should be reassured that grieving activities such as frequent thoughts about the deceased are considered normal for months or years after a death. The other nursing diagnoses imply that the patient's grief is unusual or pathologic, which is not the case.

A patient with severe burns is admitted to the intensive care unit to stabilize and begin fluid resuscitation before transport to the burn center. The nurse should monitor the patient closely for what signs of the onset of burn shock? A) Confusion B) High fever C) Decreased blood pressure D) Sudden agitation

c. decreased blood pressure As fluid loss continues and vascular volume decreases, cardiac output continues to decrease and the blood pressure drops, marking the onset of burn shock. Shock and the accompanying hemodynamic changes are not normally accompanied by confusion, fever, or agitation.

A patient has just arrived in the emergency department after an electrical burn from exposure to a high-voltage current. What is the priority nursing assessment? a. Oral temperature b. Peripheral pulses c. Extremity movement d. Pupil reaction to light

c. extremity movement All patients with electrical burns should be considered at risk for cervical spine injury, and assessments of extremity movement will provide baseline data. The other assessment data are also necessary but not as essential as determining the cervical spine status.

Fluid and electrolyte shifts that occur during the early emergent phase include a. adherence of albumin to vascular walls b. movement of potassium into the vascular space c. sequestering of sodium and water in the interstitial fluid. d. hemolysis of red blood cells from large volumes of rapidly administered fluid.

c. sequestering of sodium and water in the interstitial fluid.

blast injuries

can cause damage to lungs, middle ear, GI tract

peripheral neuromuscular assessment

capillary refill, motion, sensation, pulses, temperature

bite/sting interventions

clean with copious irrigation, debridement, tetanus prophylaxis, analgesics, prophylactic antibiotics

Bell's Palsy treatment

corticosteroids, antivirals Nursing care: analgesics, protect face from cold, oral hygiene, nutrition Eye protection: shield, dark glasses, ointment, tape eye lid closed at night

The emergency department (ED) triage nurse is assessing four victims involved in a motor vehicle collision. Which patient has the highest priority for treatment? a. A patient with no pedal pulses. b. A patient with an open femur fracture. c. A patient with bleeding facial lacerations. d. A patient with paradoxic chest movements.

d. A patient with paradoxic chest movements. Most immediate deaths from trauma occur because of problems with ventilation, so the patient with paradoxic chest movements should be treated first. Face and head fractures can obstruct the airway, but the patient with facial injuries only has lacerations. The other two patients also need rapid intervention but do not have airway or breathing problems.

A patient is admitted to the emergency department with cold exposure and a core body temperature of 86.6o F (30.3o C). Which action is most appropriate for the nurse to take? A. Immerse the extremities in a water bath (102° to 108° F) [38.9° to 42.2° C]) B. Place an air-filled warming blanket on the patient. C. Position patient under a radiant heat lamp. D. Administer warmed intravenous (IV) fluids.

d. Administer warmed intravenous (IV) fluids. Rationale: A patient with a core body temperature of 86.6o F (30.3o C) has moderate hypothermia. Active core rewarming is used for moderate to severe hypothermia and includes administration of warmed IV fluids (109.4° F [43° C]). Patients with moderate to severe hypothermia should have the core warmed before the extremities to prevent after drop (or further drop in core temperature). This occurs when cold peripheral blood returns to the central circulation. Use passive or active external rewarming for mild hypothermia. Active external rewarming involves fluid-filled warming blankets or radiant heat lamps. Immersion of extremities in a water bath is indicated for frostbite.

A 54-year-old patient arrives in the emergency department (ED) after exposure to powdered lime at work. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Obtain the patient's vital signs. b. Obtain a baseline complete blood count. c. Decontaminate the patient by showering with water. d. Brush off any visible powder on the skin and clothing.

d. Brush off any visible powder on the skin and clothing. The initial action should be to protect staff members and decrease the patient's exposure to the toxin by decontamination. Patients exposed to powdered lime should not be showered; instead any/all visible powder should be brushed off. The other actions can be done after the decontamination is completed.

During the emergent phase of burn injury, the nurse assesses for the presence of hypovolemia. In burn patients, hypovolemia occurs primarily as a result of? a. Blood loss from injured tissue. b. Third spacing of fluid into fluid-filled vesicles. c. Evaporation of fluid from denuded body surfaces. d. Capillary permeability with fluid shift to the interstitium.

d. Capillary permeability with fluid shift to the interstitium. Rationale: Hypovolemic shock is caused by a massive shift of fluids out of the blood vessels as a result of increased capillary permeability. Water, sodium, and plasma proteins move into interstitial spaces and other surrounding tissue.

The nurse cares for a terminally ill patient who has 20-second periods of apnea followed by periods of deep and rapid breathing. Which action by the nurse would be most appropriate? a Suction the patient. b Administer oxygen via face mask. c Place the patient in high Fowler's position. d Document the respirations as Cheyne-Stokes

d. Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of apnea alternating with deep and rapid breaths. Cheyne-Stokes respirations are expected in the last days of life. There is also no need for supplemental oxygen by face mask or suctioning the patient. Raising the head of the bed slightly and/or turning the patient on the side may promote comfort. There is no need to place the patient in high Fowler's position.

End-of-life palliative nursing care involves a. constant assessment for changes in physiologic functioning. b. administering large doses of analgesics to keep the patient sedated. c. providing as little physical care as possible to prevent disturbing the patient. d. encouraging the patient and family members to verbalize their feelings of sadness, loss, and forgiveness.

d. In assisting patients with dying, end-of-life care promotes the grieving process, which involves saying goodbye. Physical care is very important for physical comfort but assessment should be limited to essential data related to the patient's symptoms. Analgesics should be administered for pain but patients who are sedated cannot participate in the grieving process.

During the primary survey of a patient with multiple traumatic injuries, the nurse observes that the patient's right pedal pulses are absent and the leg is swollen. Which of these actions will the nurse take next? a. Assess further for a cause of the decreased circulation. b. Send blood to the lab for a complete blood count (CBC). c. Finish the airway, breathing, circulation, disability survey. d. Initiate isotonic fluid infusion through two large-bore IV lines.

d. Initiate isotonic fluid infusion through two large-bore IV lines. The assessment data indicate that the patient may have arterial trauma and hemorrhage. When a possibly life-threatening injury is found during the primary survey, the nurse should immediately start interventions before proceeding with the survey. Although a CBC is indicated, administration of IV fluids should be started first. Completion of the primary survey and further assessment should be completed after the IV fluids are initiated.

A 19-year-old is brought to the emergency department (ED) with multiple lacerations and tissue avulsion of the left hand. When asked about tetanus immunization, the patient denies having any previous vaccinations. The nurse will anticipate giving a. tetanus immunoglobulin (TIG) only. b. TIG and tetanus-diphtheria toxoid (Td). c. tetanus-diphtheria toxoid and pertussis vaccine (Tdap) only. d. TIG and tetanus-diphtheria toxoid and pertussis vaccine (Tdap).

d. TIG and tetanus-diphtheria toxoid and pertussis vaccine (Tdap). For an adult with no previous tetanus immunizations, TIG and Tdap are recommended. The other immunizations are not sufficient for this patient.

When rewarming a patient who arrived in the emergency department (ED) with a temperature of 87° F, which assessment indicates that the nurse should discontinue the rewarming? a. The patient stops shivering. b. The BP decreases to 85/40 mm Hg. c. The patient develops atrial fibrillation. d. The core temperature is 94° F (34.4° C).

d. The core temperature is 94° F (34.4° C). A core temperature of 89.6° F to 93.2° F (32° C to 34° C) indicates that sufficient rewarming has occurred. Dysrhythmias, hypotension, and shivering may occur during rewarming and should be treated but are not an indication to stop rewarming the patient.

When rewarming a patient who arrived in the emergency department (ED) with a temperature of 87° F (30.6° C), which assessment indicates that the nurse should discontinue active rewarming? a. The patient begins to shiver. b. The BP decreases to 86/42 mm Hg. c. The patient develops atrial fibrillation. d. The core temperature is 94° F (34.4° C).

d. The core temperature is 94° F (34.4° C). A core temperature of 89.6° F to 93.2° F (32° C to 34° C) indicates that sufficient rewarming has occurred. Dysrhythmias, hypotension, and shivering may occur during rewarming and should be treated but are not an indication to stop rewarming the patient.

Eight hours after a thermal burn covering 50% of a patient's total body surface area (TBSA) the nurse assesses the patient. Which information would be a priority to communicate to the health care provider? a. Blood pressure is 95/48 per arterial line. b. Serous exudate is leaking from the burns. c. Cardiac monitor shows a pulse rate of 108. d. Urine output is 20 mL per hour for the past 2 hours.

d. Urine output is 20 mL per hour for the past 2 hours. The urine output should be at least 0.5 to 1.0 mL/kg/hr during the emergent phase, when the patient is at great risk for hypovolemic shock. The nurse should notify the health care provider because a higher IV fluid rate is needed. BP during the emergent phase should be greater than 90 systolic, and the pulse rate should be less than 120. Serous exudate from the burns is expected during the emergent phase.

A deathly ill patient from a culture different than the nurse's is admitted. Which question is appropriate to help the nurse provide culturally competent care? a. "If you die, will you want an autopsy?" b. "Are you interested in learning about palliative or hospice care?" c. "Do you have any preferences for what happens if you are dying?" d. "Tell me about your expectations of care during this hospitalization."

d. Using the open-ended statement to seek information related to the patient's and family's perspective and expectations will best guide the plan of care for this patient. This will open the discussion about palliative or hospice care and preferences for end-of-life care.

The nurse is caring for a client who sustained superficial partial thickness burns on the anterior lower legs and anterior thorax. Which of the following does the nurse expect to note during the resuscitation/emergent phase of the burn injury? a. decreased heart rate b. increased urinary output c. increased blood pressure d. elevated hematocrit levels

d. elevated hematocrit levels during the resuscitation/emergent phase, the hematocrit level increases to above normal because of hemoconcentration from the large fluid shift.

A patient is brought to the emergency department from the site of a chemical fire, where he suffered a burn that involves the epidermis, dermis, and the muscle and bone of the right arm. On inspection, the skin appears charred. Based on these assessment findings, what is the depth of the burn on the patient's arm? A) Superficial partial-thickness B) Deep partial-thickness C) Full partial-thickness D) Full-thickness

d. full-thickness A full-thickness burn involves total destruction of the epidermis and dermis and, in some cases, underlying tissue as well. Wound color ranges widely from white to red, brown, or black. The burned area is painless because the nerve fibers are destroyed. The wound can appear leathery; hair follicles and sweat glands are destroyed. Edema may also be present. Superficial partial-thickness burns involve the epidermis and possibly a portion of the dermis; the patient will experience pain that is soothed by cooling. Deep partial-thickness burns involve the epidermis, upper dermis, and portion of the deeper dermis; the patient will complain of pain and sensitivity to cold air. Full partial thickness is not a depth of burn.

During the emergent phase of burn care, which assessment will be most useful in determining whether the patient is receiving adequate fluid infusion? a. Check skin turgor. b. Monitor daily weight. c. Assess mucous membranes. d. Measure hourly urine output.

d. measure hourly urine output When fluid intake is adequate, the urine output will be at least 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hour. The patient's weight is not useful in this situation because of the effects of third spacing and evaporative fluid loss. Mucous membrane assessment and skin turgor also may be used, but they are not as adequate in determining that fluid infusions are maintaining adequate perfusion.

During the primary survey of a patient with severe leg trauma, the nurse observes that the patient's left pedal pulse is absent and the leg is swollen. Which action will the nurse take next? a. Send blood to the lab for a complete blood count. b. Assess further for a cause of the decreased circulation. c. Finish the airway, breathing, circulation, disability survey. d. start normal saline fluid infusion with a large-bore IV line.

d. start normal saline fluid infusion with a large-bore IV line. The assessment data indicate that the patient may have arterial trauma and hemorrhage. When a possibly life-threatening injury is found during the primary survey, the nurse should immediately start interventions before proceeding with the survey. Although a complete blood count is indicated, administration of IV fluids should be started first. Completion of the primary survey and further assessment should be completed after the IV fluids are initiated.

you are caring for a patient admitted 1 week earlier with an acute spinal cord injury. Which assessment finding alerts you to the presence of autonomic dysreflexia? A. Tachycardia B. Hypotension C. Hot, dry skin D. Throbbing headache

d. throbbing headache

what is the priority for managing bioterroism?

decontamination

sepsis

decreased BP, increased HR then low, temp is increased or decreased

Below C4 injury

diaphragmatic breathing, respiratory insufficiency

what can injuries above T6 cause?

dysfunction of sympathetic nervous system and can also lead to neurogenic shock

electrical burns

focus on cardiac system, pt needs telemetry severity- voltage, current pathways, surface areas *treat like C-spine injury, pt will typically fall, log roll and neuro exam myoglobin released- causes acute tubular necrosis (ATN), give IV fluids *in metabolic acidosis

fluid/electrolyte shift

hyperkalemia (RBC breakdown/tissue damage) hyponatremia (from extracellular sodium excretion) replace with IV fluids

hypovolemic shock

increased HR, decreased BP, elevated HCT replace fluids that are leaking out of cells

nursing care with head injuries

increased ICP- give Mannitol, watch for bradycardia/decorticate eye problems- eye drops hyperthermia- prevent shivering *HOB elevated

domestic violence screening/intervention

make referrals, notify appropriate agencies, provide emotional support, inform victims about options

treatment of hypothermia

manage and maintain ABC, rewarm patient, correct dehydration and acidosis, treat dysrhythmias

heat exhaustion interventions

monitor ABC's, start NS IV, pt in cool area and remove constrictive clothing, place moist sheet over patient

rules with battle's sign

no nasal cannulas, no tissue using, no suctioning *use face mask for oxygen

how would you give anticholinergics?

not IV, SubQ is preferred

what medications are best for pain control with burn patients?

opioids (ex: dilaudid)

Treatment of trigeminal neuralgia

pain relief-antiseizure meds, tricyclic antidepressants nerve block *GABAPENTIN assist with nutrition, hygiene, oral care *artificial tears, eye shields

edema

pt can lose up to 400mL/hr

what is a prophylactic treatment for DVT?

sludging blood

pre hospital care

small thermal burns- cool water large thermal burns- circulation, airway, swelling

upper airway swelling

stridors/wheezes, difficulty swallowing, singed nasal hair

chemical burns

strong acid or base (harder to remove from skin), tissue breakdown can occur up to 72 hour after injury **irrigate with water

frostbite interventions

superficial- immerse affected area in water that is 98.6-104, use warm soaks for facial area, avoid heavy blankets and clothing deep- same as superficial but elevate to decrease edema after rewarming

lower airway swelling

takes a couple of days, looks like ARDS patients

paralytic ileus

time of stress, blood shunting away give PPI/H2 blockers.. check occult blood for active GI bleed

above C4 injury

total loss of respiratory muscle function

sarin

toxic nerve gas that can cause death within minutes of exposure, enters body through eyes and skin, paralyzes respiratory muscles **antidote is atropine

fluid replacement

two large bore IV's for >15% TBSA (LR or NS) albumin- 24 hours post to hold fluid in vascular system and cells

acute phase of burns

urine increases, diuresis begins again, bowel sounds return, slough occurs, granulation tissue, eschar removal (then reepithelialization begins), splints (PT/OT), increased blood sugar from stress, prevent Curling's ulcer (PPI/H2 blockers) *watch for sepsis the whole time

contusion

"brain whiplash" (coup contre coup) -Bruising of brain tissue -Associated with closed head injury -Can cause hemorrhage, infarction, necrosis, edema -can rebleed *monitor for seizures, potential for increased hemorrhage if on anticoagulants

treatment of autonomic hyperreflexia

- Elevate head, sit upright -Notify HCP -Assess for and remove cause -Immediate catheterization -Remove stool impaction if cause -Remove constrictive clothing/tight shoes -Monitor and treat BP

spinal shock

- ↓ Reflexes - Loss of sensation - Absent thermoregulation - Flaccid paralysis below level of injury

cardiovascular system at end of life

-Increased heart rate and then later slowing and weakening of pulse -Irregular rhythm -Decreased BP -Delayed absorption of IM or SQ drugs *will put pt on opioid drip

Bell's Palsy

-Inflammation of facial nerve (cn vii), unilateral - Unknown cause-linked with herpes simplex, viral infections, genetics -Numbness, headache, paralysis of one side of face

respiratory signs at end of life

-Irregular breathing that gradually slows. -Respirations may be rapid or slow, shallow, and irregular -Cheyne-Stokes respiration: pattern of breathing characterized by alternating periods of apnea and deep rapid breathing -Inability to cough or clear secretions -Grunting, gurgling, or noisy congested breathing ("death rattle") Death rattle: terminal secretions caused by mouth breathing and accumulation of mucus in the airways

musculoskeletal system at end of life

-Loss of muscle tone with sagging jaw -Difficulty speaking -Difficulty swallowing (Also: loss of ability to move or maintain body position, loss of gag reflex)

Autonomic Dysreflexia

-Massive uncompensated cardiovascular reaction mediated by sympathetic nervous system SNS responds to stimulation of sensory receptors - parasympathetic nervous system unable to counteract these responses. Hypertension and bradycardia

skin at end of life

-Mottling on hands, feet, arms, and legs -Cold, clammy skin -Cyanosis of nose, nail beds, knees -"Waxlike" skin when very near death

prehospital immediate goals

-Patent airway -Adequate ventilation/breathing -Adequate circulating blood volume -Prevent extension of spinal cord damage

GI and urinary system at end of life

-Slowing of the gastrointestinal tract with accumulation of gas and abdominal distention -Loss of sphincter control with incontinence -Bowel movement before imminent death or at time of death -incontinent of urine

Guillian-Barre Syndrome (GBS)

-autoimmune after bacterial or viral infection -demyelination Acute ascending progressive symmetric weakness of limbs treatment: V IG, plasmapheresis, respiratory support

sensory system at end of life

-hearing is last to go -decreased sensation and perception of touch -blurring vision -blink reflex absent and eyelids remain half open (use eye drops) family advice: use mouth swabs for patient, position the patient, help with ADLs

goals of palliative care

1) prevent and relieve suffering 2) improve quality of life for patients with serious, life-limiting illnesses hospice is a TYPE of palliative care

wound care

1. debridement (loose necrotic tissue removed) chemical- Santyl mechanical- with tools 2. granulation tissue 3. graft- must have granulation tissue first with silver/sterile dressings

primary concerns during emergent phase

1. hypovolemic shock 2. edema

criteria for hospice care

1. patient must desire services 2. patient must be eligible for services (less than 6 months to live)

Which statement made by the graduate nurse working in the hospice unit with a patient near the end of life requires intervention by the preceptor nurse? A. "The patient has eaten only small amounts the past 48 hours; will the physician consider placing a feeding tube?" B. "The family seems comfortable with the long periods of silence." C. "The physician ordered an increase in the dosage of morphine; I will administer the new dose right away." D. "The blood pressure is lower this afternoon than it was this morning; I will communicate the changes to the family."

A. "The patient has eaten only small amounts the past 48 hours; will the physician consider placing a feeding tube?" Nursing management related to physical care at the end of life deals with symptom management and caring rather than treatment aimed at curing a disease or disorder. Meeting the patient's physiologic and safety needs is the priority. Physical care focuses on the needs for oxygen, nutrition, pain relief, mobility, elimination, and skin care. People who are dying deserve and require the same physical care as people who are expected to recover.

A patient with terminal cancer tells you, "I know I am going to die pretty soon, perhaps in the next month." Which of the following is your most appropriate response? A. "What are your feelings about being so sick and thinking you may die soon?" B. "None of us knows when we are going to die. Is this a particularly difficult day?" C. "Would you like for me to call your spiritual advisor so you can talk about your feelings?" D. "Perhaps you are depressed about your illness; I will speak to the doctor about getting some medications for you."

A. "What are your feelings about being so sick and thinking you may die soon?" The most appropriate response to psychosocial questions is to acknowledge the patient's feelings and explore his or her concerns. This option does both and is a helpful response that encourages further communication between the patient and nurse.

Which patient should the nurse prepare to transfer to a regional burn center? A. A 53-year-old patient with a chemical burn to the anterior chest and neck B. A 25-year-old pregnant patient with a carboxyhemoglobin level of 1.5% C. A 42-year-old patient who is scheduled for skin grafting of a burn wound D. A 39-year-old patient with a partial-thickness burn to the right upper arm

A. A 53-year-old patient with a chemical burn to the anterior chest and neck

What is the best method to assess a patient with trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux)? A. Ask the patient what the triggering factors are. B. Have the patient open and close the jaw while palpating the mandible. C. Instruct the patient to touch the examiner's finger and then the patient's nose. D. Look at the optic disk with an ophthalmoscope

A. Ask the patient what the triggering factors are.

Which is most important to respond to in a patient presenting with a T3 spinal injury? A. Blood pressure of 88/60 mm Hg, pulse of 56 beats/minute B. Deep tendon reflexes of 1+, muscle strength of 1+ C. Pain rated at 9 D. Warm, dry skin

A. Blood pressure of 88/60 mm Hg, pulse of 56 beats/minute Neurogenic shock is a loss of vasomotor tone caused by injury, and it is characterized by hypotension and bradycardia. The loss of sympathetic nervous system innervations causes peripheral vasodilation, venous pooling, and a decreased cardiac output. The other options can be expected findings and are not as significant. Patients in neurogenic shock have pink and dry skin, instead of cold and clammy, but this sign is not as important as the vital signs.

Which clinical manifestation do you interpret as representing neurogenic shock in a patient with acute spinal cord injury? A. Bradycardia B. Hypertension C. Neurogenic spasticity D. Bounding pedal pulses

A. Bradycardia Neurogenic shock results from loss of vasomotor tone caused by injury and is characterized by hypotension and bradycardia. Loss of sympathetic innervation causes peripheral vasodilation, venous pooling, and a decreased cardiac output.

What should the patient with Bell's palsy be cautioned against? A. Cornea dryness B. Driving while experiencing diplopia C. Sudden movement of the head when bending over D. Contamination from the affected eye to the other eye

A. Cornea dryness With Bell's palsy, the eyelid on the affected side often does not close tightly. Eye drops are used during the daytime, and patches are worn at night. The other options are not related to Bell's palsy.

Which signs and symptoms in a patient with a T4 spinal cord injury should alert you to the possibility of autonomic dysreflexia? A. Headache and rising blood pressure B. Irregular respirations and shortness of breath C. Decreased level of consciousness or hallucinations D. Abdominal distention and absence of bowel sounds

A. Headache and rising blood pressure Among the manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia are hypertension (up to 300 mm Hg systolic) and throbbing headache. Respiratory manifestations, decreased level of consciousness, and gastrointestinal manifestations are not characteristic.

The nurse is caring for a 71 kg patient during the first 12 hours after a thermal burn injury. Which outcomes if observed by the nurse would indicate adequate fluid resuscitation (select all that apply)? A. Heart rate is 94 beats/minute. B. Mean arterial pressure is 54 mm Hg. C. Urine output is 46 mL/hour. D. Urine specific gravity is 1.040. E. Systolic blood pressure 88 mm Hg

A. Heart rate is 94 beats/minute. C. Urine output is 46 mL/hour.

An 80-year-old patient is receiving palliative care for heart failure. What are the primary purposes of her receiving palliative care (select all that apply)? A. Improve her quality of life. B. Assess her coping ability with disease. C. Have time to teach patient and family about disease. D. Focus on reducing the severity of disease symptoms. E. Provide care that the family is unwilling or unable to give.

A. Improve her quality of life. D. Focus on reducing the severity of disease symptoms. The focus of palliative care is to reduce the severity of disease symptoms. The goals of palliative care are to prevent and relieve suffering and to improve quality of life for patients with serious, life-limiting illnesses.

During assessment of the patient with trigeminal neuralgia, what should you do (select all that apply)? A. Inspect all aspects of the mouth and teeth. B. Assess the gag reflex and respiratory rate and depth. C. Lightly palpate the affected side of the face for edema. D. Test for temperature and sensation perception on the face. E. Ask the patient to describe factors that initiate an episode.

A. Inspect all aspects of the mouth and teeth. D. Test for temperature and sensation perception on the face. E. Ask the patient to describe factors that initiate an episode.

Which aspects of anticipatory grief are associated with positive outcomes for the caregiver of a palliative patient (select all that apply)? A. Strong spiritual beliefs B. Medical diagnosis of the patient C. Advanced age of the palliative patient D. Acceptance of the expected death of the patient E. Adequate time for the caregiver to prepare for the death

A. Strong spiritual beliefs D. Acceptance of the expected death of the patient E. Adequate time for the caregiver to prepare for the death Acceptance of an impending loss, spiritual beliefs, and adequate preparation time are all associated with positive outcomes regarding anticipatory grief. The age and diagnosis of the patient are not key factors in influencing the quality of caregivers' anticipatory grief.

Which intervention should you perform in the acute care of a patient with autonomic dysreflexia? A. Urinary catheterization B. Administration of benzodiazepines C. Suctioning of the patient's upper airway D. Placement of the patient in the Trendelenburg position

A. Urinary catheterization

The following four patients arrive in the emergency department (ED) after a motor vehicle collision. In which order should the nurse assess them? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D, E].) a. A 74-year-old with palpitations and chest pain b. A 43-year-old complaining of 7/10 abdominal pain c. A 21-year-old with multiple fractures of the face and jaw d. A 37-year-old with a misaligned left leg with intact pulses

ANS: C, A, B, D The highest priority is to assess the 21-year-old patient for airway obstruction, which is the most life-threatening injury. The 74-year-old patient may have chest pain from cardiac ischemia and should be assessed and have diagnostic testing for this pain. The 43-year-old patient may have abdominal trauma or bleeding and should be seen next to assess circulatory status. The 37-year-old appears to have a possible fracture of the left leg and should be seen soon, but this patient has the least life-threatening injury.

When preparing to cool a patient who is to begin therapeutic hypothermia, which intervention will the nurse plan to do (select all that apply)? a. Assist with endotracheal intubation. b. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter. c. Begin continuous cardiac monitoring. d. Obtain an order to restrain the patient. e. Prepare to give sympathomimetic drugs.

ANS: A, B, C Cooling can produce dysrhythmias, so the patient's heart rhythm should be continuously monitored and dysrhythmias treated if necessary. Bladder catheterization and endotracheal intubation are needed during cooling. Sympathomimetic drugs tend to stimulate the heart and increase the risk for fatal dysrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation. Patients receiving therapeutic hypothermia are comatose or do not follow commands so restraints are not indicated.

The emergency department (ED) nurse is initiating therapeutic hypothermia in a patient who has been resuscitated after a cardiac arrest. Which actions in the hypothermia protocol can be delegated to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) (select all that apply)? a. Continuously monitor heart rhythm. b. Check neurologic status every 2 hours. c. Place cooling blankets above and below patient. d. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg per nasogastric tube. e. Insert rectal temperature probe and attach to cooling blanket control panel.

ANS: C, D, E Experienced LPN/LVNs have the education and scope of practice to implement hypothermia measures (e.g., cooling blanket, temperature probe) and administer medications under the supervision of a registered nurse (RN). Assessment of neurologic status and monitoring the heart rhythm require RN-level education and scope of practice and should be done by the RN.

Which is a classic presentation of Guillain-Barré syndrome? A. Acute change in level of consciousness B. Ascending, symmetric paralysis C. Acute onset of paralysis in lower extremities D. Paresthesias in legs starting with feet and radiating to groin area

B. Ascending, symmetric paralysis Guillain-Barré syndrome is an acute, rapidly progressing polyneuritis with ascending, symmetric paralysis. The other options are not related to Guillain-Barré syndrome.

What is the most common early symptom of a spinal cord tumor? A. Urinary incontinence B. Back pain that worsens with activity C. Paralysis below the level of involvement D. Impaired sensation of pain, temperature, and light touch

B. Back pain that worsens with activity The most common early symptom of a spinal cord tumor outside the cord is pain in the back, with radicular pain simulating intercostal neuralgia, angina, or herpes zoster infection. The location of the pain depends on the level of compression. The pain worsens with activity, coughing, straining, and lying down.

What is a common treatment for trigeminal neuralgia? A. Warm, moist compressions B. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) C. Ice packs applied intermittently D. Vitamin D

B. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

What are the goals of rehabilitation for the patient with an injury at the C6 level (select all that apply)? A. Stand erect with leg brace B. Feed self with hand devices C. Drive an electric wheelchair D. Assist with transfer activities E. Drive adapted van from wheel chair

B. Feed self with hand devices C. Drive an electric wheelchair D. Assist with transfer activities E. Drive adapted van from wheel chair Rehabilitation goals for a patient with a spinal cord injury at the C6 level include ability to assist with transfer and perform some self-care; feed self with hand devices; push wheelchair on smooth, flat surface; drive adapted van from wheelchair; independent computer use with adaptive equipment; and needing attendant care only for 6 hours per day.

You suspect Bell's palsy in which patient? A. Unilateral facial droop with contralateral extremity weakness B. Sudden onset one-sided facial weakness with ear pain and vesicles C. Sharp, knife-like facial pain when eating hot or cold foods D. Inability to shrug the shoulders against resistance

B. Sudden onset one-sided facial weakness with ear pain and vesicles Bell's palsy is an acute, peripheral facial paresis of unknown cause without systemic effects. Facial droop is found in stroke. Sharp facial pain occurs with trigeminal neuralgia. An inability to shrug the shoulders describes pathology of cranial nerve XI.

One month after a spinal cord injury, which finding is most important for you to monitor? A. Bladder scan indicates 100 mL. B. The left calf is 5 cm larger than the right calf. C. The heel has a reddened, nonblanchable area. D. Reflux bowel emptying.

B. The left calf is 5 cm larger than the right calf.

urinary effects from spinal injury

Bladder dysfunction related to abnormal or absent bladder innervation Acute phase Urinary retention Bladder atonic, overdistended, fails to empty Indwelling catheter Postacute phase Bladder may become hyperirritable Loss of inhibition from brain Reflex emptying and failure to store urine

A patient who experienced a near drowning accident in a local lake, but now is awake and breathing spontaneously, is admitted for observation. Which action will be most important for the nurse to take during the observation period? a. Listen to heart sounds. b. Palpate peripheral pulses. c. Auscultate breath sounds. d. Check pupil reaction to light.

C Since pulmonary edema is a common complication after near drowning, the nurse should assess the breath sounds frequently. The other information also will be collected by the nurse, but it is not as pertinent to the patient's admission diagnosis.

The nurse provides information to a patient who was exposed to anthrax by inhalation. The nurse determines the teaching has been successful if the patient makes which statement? A. "Anthrax can be spread by person-to-person contact." B. "It is not necessary to receive the anthrax vaccine." C. "An antibiotic will be prescribed for 2 months." D. "Antibiotics are only indicated for an active infection."

C. "An antibiotic will be prescribed for 2 months."

What is essential teaching in treating a patient with Bell's palsy? A. Perform eye exercises to maintain strength. B. Obtain a herpes simplex virus (HSV) immunization. C. Do not abruptly stop the corticosteroids. D. Vigorously massage the area to promote circulation.

C. Do not abruptly stop the corticosteroids.

What is the classic manifestation of a spinal cord tumor? A. Sudden onset of excruciating pain, worse at night B. Radiating pain down one leg C. Gradual onset of radicular pain, worse when lying down D. Positive Brudzinski's sign

C. Gradual onset of radicular pain, worse when lying down

What is characteristic of trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux)? A. Unilateral facial drooping B. Inability to hear whispered speech C. One-sided facial stabbing pain D. Attacks of severe dizziness

C. One-sided facial stabbing pain

What is most important action for a patient who has a suspected cervical spinal injury? A. Apply a soft foam cervical collar. B. Perform a neurologic check. C. Place the patient on a firm surface. D. Assess function of cranial nerves IX and X.

C. Place the patient on a firm surface. A patient with a suspected cervical spine injury should be immobilized with a hard collar and placed on a firm surface. This takes priority over any further assessment. A soft foam collar does not provide immobilization.

You are providing care for a patient who has been diagnosed with Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which assessment should you prioritize? A. Pain assessment B. Glasgow Coma Scale C. Respiratory assessment D. Musculoskeletal assessment

C. Respiratory assessment

Mr. Johansen died at the age of 71 after a myocardial infarction that he experienced while performing yard work. What indicates that Mrs. Johansen is experiencing prolonged grief disorder? A. She initially denied that Mr. Johansen died. B. She talked about her husband extensively in the years after his death. C. She stated that she expects him home soon on the anniversary of his death. D. She cried uncontrollably and unpredictably in the weeks after her husband's death.

C. She stated that she expects him home soon on the anniversary of his death. Denial of an individual's death that persists beyond 6 months indicates prolonged grief disorder. Strong emotions and denial immediately after the death are expected responses, and talking about the deceased loved one is not considered to be evidence of the disorder.

The nurse is caring for a patient who sustained a deep partial thickness burn to the anterior chest area. Which statement would be appropriate for the nurse to include when documenting the appearance of this type of burn? A. Skin is hard with a dry, waxy white appearance with visible venous patterns. B. Skin blanches with pressure and is red with delayed blister formation. C. Skin is red and shiny with the presence of clear fluid-filled blisters. D. Skin is charred and leathery with visible muscles, tendons, and bones

C. Skin is red and shiny with the presence of clear fluid-filled blisters.

What is the primary goal of nursing care for the patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome? A. Assist the patient to adapt to their lifelong paralysis. B. Teach the patient to use a communication board. C. Support body systems until the patient recovers. D. Place the patient in contact isolation to prevent spread of the condition.

C. Support body systems until the patient recovers.

A patient with a C7 spinal cord injury undergoing rehabilitation tells you he must have the flu because he has a bad headache and nausea. What is your initial action? A. Call the physician. B. Check the patient's temperature. C. Take the patient's blood pressure. D. Elevate the head of the bed to 90 degrees.

C. Take the patient's blood pressure. Autonomic dysreflexia is a massive, uncompensated cardiovascular reaction mediated by the sympathetic nervous system. Manifestations include hypertension (up to 300 mm Hg systolic), throbbing headache, marked diaphoresis above the level of the lesion, bradycardia (30 to 40 beats/minute), piloerection, flushing of the skin above the level of the lesion, blurred vision or spots in the visual fields, nasal congestion, anxiety, and nausea. It is important to measure blood pressure when a patient with a spinal cord injury complains of a headache.

how do you treat spinal cord tumors?

CORTICOSTEROID, RADIATION/CHEMO, STABILIZE THE SPINE

anticipatory grief

Caregivers of patients with chronic illness often begin to grieve long before the actual death Patients can also experience anticipatory grief at the end of their lives

phosgene

Colorless gas normally used in chemical manufacturing If inhaled at high concentrations for long enough period, causes severe respiratory distress, pulmonary edema, and death

spinal cord tumors

Could be metastatic lesions from other cancers, Slow growing, can compress spinal cord, Back pain, paralysis, incontinence

When planning care for a patient with a C5 spinal cord injury, which nursing diagnosis is the highest priority? A. Impaired tissue integrity due to paralysis B. Impaired urinary elimination due to quadriplegia C. Ineffective coping due to the extent of trauma D. Ineffective airway clearance due to high cervical spinal cord injury

D. Ineffective airway clearance due to high cervical spinal cord injury

A patient is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with a C7 spinal cord injury and diagnosed with Brown-Séquard syndrome. What would you most likely find on physical examination? A. Upper extremity weakness only B. Complete motor and sensory loss below C7 C. Loss of position sense and vibration in both lower extremities D. Ipsilateral motor loss and contralateral sensory loss below C7

D. Ipsilateral motor loss and contralateral sensory loss below C7

A patient is admitted to the hospital with a C4 spinal cord injury after a motorcycle collision. The patient's blood pressure is 83/49 mm Hg and pulse is 39 beats/minute. He remains orally intubated. What is the cause of this pathophysiologic response? A. Increased vasomotor tone after the injury B. A temporary loss of sensation and flaccid paralysis below the level of injury C. Loss of parasympathetic nervous system innervation resulting in vasoconstriction D. Loss of sympathetic nervous system innervation resulting in peripheral vasodilation

D. Loss of sympathetic nervous system innervation resulting in peripheral vasodilation eurogenic shock results from loss of vasomotor tone caused by injury, and it is characterized by hypotension and bradycardia. Loss of sympathetic nervous system innervation causes peripheral vasodilation, venous pooling, and a decreased cardiac output. These effects usually are associated with a cervical or high thoracic injury (T6 or higher).

During routine assessment of a patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome, you find the patient is short of breath. What is causing the patient's respiratory distress? A. Elevated protein levels in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) B. Immobility resulting from ascending paralysis C. Degeneration of motor neurons in the brainstem and spinal cord D. Paralysis ascending to the nerves that stimulate the thoracic area

D. Paralysis ascending to the nerves that stimulate the thoracic area

Which patient should be assigned to the experienced registered nurse on a neurologic floor? A. Patient with trigeminal neuralgia reporting facial pain rated at 10 B. Patient with Bell's palsy with unilateral facial droop C. Patient after surgical removal of a spinal cord tumor who is scheduled for discharge tomorrow D. Patient with traumatic injury to the cervical spinal cord who was admitted today from the emergency department

D. Patient with traumatic injury to the cervical spinal cord who was admitted today from the emergency department

What is the primary treatment for a primary neoplasm on the spine? A. High-dose oral corticosteroids B. Methylprednisolone IV C. Chemotherapy D. Surgery

D. Surgery

What is a predominant causative trigger for the painful episodes in trigeminal neuralgia? A. Staphylococcus aureus cellulitis B. Misaligned bite of molar teeth C. Direct trauma to transmandibular joint D. Touching along the lower jaw

D. Touching along the lower jaw Touch and tickle predominate as causative triggers. Others include chewing, tooth brushing, hot or cold blast of air on the face, washing the face, yawning, or talking. The other options are not significant causative factors.

The patient arrives in the emergency department from a motor vehicle accident, during which the car ran into a tree. The patient was not wearing a seat belt, and the windshield is shattered. What action is most important for you to do? A. Determine if the patient lost consciousness. B. Assess the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score. C. Obtain a set of vital signs. D. Use a logroll technique when moving the patient.

D. Use a logroll technique when moving the patient.

GI effects from spinal injury

Decreased GI motor activity Gastric distention Development of paralytic ileus Gastric emptying may be delayed Excessive release of HCl may cause stress ulcers Dysphagia may be present Intraabdominal bleeding may be difficult to diagnose

how to disaster triage

Green (minor injury) or yellow (non-life-threatening injury) tag indicates non-life-threatening injury Red tag indicates life-threatening injury Blue tag indicates those who are expected to die Black tag identifies the dead

adaptive grief

Grief that helps accept the reality of death Healthy process Revealed in positive memories and seeing some good from the death

neurogenic shock

Hypotension, Bradycardia, Loss of SNS innervation, Peripheral vasodilation, Venous pooling, ↓Cardiac output T6 or higher injury

Poikilothermism

Interruption of SNS ↓Ability to sweat or shiver below the level of injury More common with high cervical injury

neuropathic pain

Located at or below level of injury Hot, burning, tingling, pins and needles, cold, shooting May be extremely sensitive to stimuli

autonomic hyperreflexia

Most common precipitating factor is distended bladder or rectum -Hypertension (up to 300 mm Hg systolic) -Throbbing headache -Marked diaphoresis above level of injury Bradycardia (30 to 40 beats/minute) -Piloerection -Flushing of skin above level of injury -Blurred vision or spots in visual field -Nasal congestion -Anxiety -Nausea

nociceptive pain

Musculoskeletal pain dull or aching, worsens with movement Visceral pain in thorax, abdomen, pelvis - dull, tender, or cramping

metabolic needs with spinal injury

NG suctioning → metabolic alkalosis Monitor electrolytes, especially sodium and potassium ↑Nutritional needs Nutritional support to focus on caloric and nitrogen needs Prevent skin breakdown, reduce infection, decrease muscle atrophy

respiratory effects from spinal injury

Paralysis of abdominal and intercostal muscles → ineffective cough → risk for aspiration, atelectasis, pneumonia