exam 3

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in a population the frequency of the sex-linked color blind allele is 0.01. What is the expected frequency of colorblindness in males?

0.01

in a particular population the frequency of x linked color blind chromosomes is 0.05. what is the frequency of the color blind males?

0.05

in a population frequency of X linked color blindness X chromosomes is 0.05. What is the frequency of color blind females?

0.05

if the allele frequency of the dominant allele is 0.4, what value is used for the term p^2 in the equation p^2+2pq+q^2=1?

0.16

given two loci with additive effects, what is the expected phenotypic ratio in cross between two heterozygotes for wheat

1:4:6:4:1

the human genome consists of approx ____ base pairs of DNA

3 billion

After screening a colony of bacteria for mutations in a given gene, you discover 100 mutant colonies out of 3 million total colonies. What is the mutation frequency for this gene in the population?

3.3 x 10-5

which dna repair mechanism uses dna-n-glycosylases?

Base excision repair

a temporary change in the conformation of a nitrogenous base is called ____.

a tautomeric shift

what mutagen intercalates directly into the DNA double-helix and distort its structure?

acridine

researchers wish to increase the efficiency of chloroplasts using a chloroplast encoded gene they have modified. using the agrobacterium method, plants are created that carry the transgene of interest but there is no effect

agrobacterium mutates transgene

which of the following organisms is used by molecular biologists to produce transgenic plants?

agrobacterium tumefaciens

what form of cladogenesis occurs due to geographic separationdividing in a population?

allopatric speciation

Polygenic inheritance may result in a continuum of phenotypes because _____.

as the number of genes controlling a trait increases and the influence of environment variation becomes greater, there is a blurring of discreteness.

what is the purpose of the cyanogen bromide (CNBr) in the manufacture of insulin by recombinant bacteria?

cleaves the protein from the beta-galactosidase protein

Mutations that change the configuration of a protein at a specific temperature are called ____ mutations

conditional

mutations that change their configuration of a protein at a specific temp are called ___ mutations

conditional

a _____ is a combination of a plasmid vector and phage

cosmid

you are charged with the task of expressing a protein ....

create a chimeric gene that has the coding sequences of the desired protein fused to the gene of a protein that is easily isolated

researchers frequently wish to produce proteins in cells in a regulated fashion so that the effects of the protein can be studied underconditions when it is not present. Which of the strategies outlines below would be best studied for these types of studies?

creating a piece of DNA where the gene for the protein of interest is under control of glucocorticoid response elements

the process of hybridization is used for which of the following?

cytogenetic mapping

____ uses the unique banding patterns of a chromosome to determine the general location of a gene

cytogenic mapping

what would be the result of a mutation in Hsp90that prevented its binding to the glucocorticoid receptor?

expression of the regulated genes would become constitutive

true or false: DNA methylation usually activates gene expression

false

true or false: Ethyl methanesulfonate (EMS) is an example of a deaminating agent.

false

true or false: TNRE repeats frequently result in the addition ...

false

true or false: Unipotent cells may differentiate into all other cell types of the body

false

true or false: YAC stands for yeast artificial cosinid

false

true or false: a mutation in one gene that compensates for a mutation in another gene to result in the wild-type phenotype is called an intergenic suppressor mutation

false

true or false: activator proteins bind to silencer sequences and repressor proteins bind to enhancer sequences

false

true or false: cytogenetic mapping is accurate to within 500,000 base pairs, but not over this value.

false

true or false: polymorphisms are always selected against by natural selection

false

true or false: shotgun sequencing is precise enough to achieve a complete genomic sequence without the need for other mapping methods.

false

true or false: the most fit genotype has a selection coefficient of zero

false

true or false: unipotent cells may differentiate into all other cell types of the body

false

Inbreeding reduces which of the following variances to near zero?

genetic variance

bone marrow transplants typically use what type of cells?

hematopoietic stem cells

genetically modified glyphosate-resistant crops ....

increased rates of weeds that are glyphosate resistant

the first hormone to be made by recombinant bacteria was ____

insulin

Which of the following procedures best determines the relative order, but not precise location, of a series of genes on a chromosome?

linkage mapping

which of the following is the most direct benefit of high-throughout sanger sequencing?

many DNA samples can be sequenced simultaneously

QTL mapping can rely on the relationship between genes for quantitative traits and which of the following?

molecular markers such as RFLPs

proteins that are functionally less important for the survival of an organism generally evolve ___ more important proteins.

more quickly than

hematopoitic stem cells are ___.

multipotent

molecular clocks are based on ____ mutations.

neutral

in a population of the selection coefficients are 5 AA 0.5 Aa, ....

none of the genotypes are being selected for or against

which DNA repair mechanism uses DNAN-glycosylases?

nucleotide excision repair

what does physical mapping provide that the other types of genetic mapping do not?

number of nucleotide base pairs between genes

Homologous genes that are found in different species are called

orthologs

true or false: by creating gene knockouts, researchers can study how the loss of normal genes function affects the organism

true

true or false: human alpha hemoglobin and horse alpha hemoglobin are orthologs.

true

true or false: in exon shuffling, the duplicated ....

true

true or false: nucleosome location may be changed by a process called ATP dependent chromatin remodeling

true

true or false: silent mutations are possible due to the degenerate nature of the genetic code.

true

true or false: the Ames test may be used to determine if an agent is a mutagen

true

true or false: the activity of some transcription factors can be regulated by covenant modifications

true

true or false: the consequences of a frameshift mutation is usually much more severe than a point mutation

true

true or false: the process by which an electrical charge is used to introduce DNA into a cell to produce a transgenic organism is called electroporation

true

true or false: there is no evolution in hardy weinberg equilibrium

true

spontaneous mutations include

Depurination, deamination, errors in DNA replication

spontaneous mutations include ____.

Depurination, deamination, errors in DNA replication

the best definition for genotyoe-environment interactions is _____.

environmental effects on the phenotype differ with genotype

true or false: all stem cells have the potential to differentiate

true

the most common microsatellite in humans is _____.

(CA) n

In a given population of Drosophila, curly wings (c) is recessive to the wild-type condition of straight wings (c+). You isolate a population of 35 curly winged flies, 70 flies that are heterozygous for straight wings, and 45 that are homozygous for straight wings. What is the total number of alleles in the gene pool?

300

In a given population of Drosophila, curly wings (c) is recessive to the wild-type condition of straight wings (c+). You isolate a population of 35 curly winged flies, 70 flies that are heterozygous for straight wings, and 45 that are homozygous for straight wings. What is the frequency of alleles in this population?

46.7% c; 53.3% c+

consider the following DNA sequence ... 5' ATG CCC CGC AGTAGG GGG TGG AGA 3'

5' ATG CCC CGC AGTAGG GGGTGAAGA3'

Which DNA sequence would also work in place of the following bi-directional enhancer?5' GTTC 3'3' CAAG 5'

5' GAAC 3'5' CTTG 3'

An example of a base analog would be

5BU

An example of a mutagen that integrates into the double helix of DNA resulting in the inhibition of DNA replication would be ____.

Arcidine dyes

most TNRE repeats involve expansion of which codon?

CAG

Histone acetyltransferases are directly involved in which of the following?

Chemical modification of histones

genetic imprinting is a result of ____

DNA methylation

Which of the following may account for the process of gene conversion?

DNA mismatch repair

The complete loss of either a guanine or adenine from DNA is an example of

Depurination

which of the following acronyms describes a technique used in a chromosome painting?

FISH

which of the following is a region in DNA that binds to a steroid receptor?

GRE

for which of the following histones has variant forms not yet been identified?

H4

You are studying a new strain if bacteria. You discover that it's genome contain some genes that are not found in any form in its most recent ancestor. You suspect

Horizontal gene transfer

The wild-type eye color of Drosophila is red. A single-base mutation can occur that produces a white eye color. What statement is correct regarding this mutation?

It is an example of a mutation that alters protein function

the biological species concept was introduced by ___.

Mayr

Which repair mechanism is responsible for repairing damage from UV radiation?

Nucleotide excision repair

you are preparing to perform DNA fingerprinting by PCR for the first time. select the reagent that would result in complications in the interpretation ...

PCR primers that anneal to the repetitive region of the microsatellites

The results of the replica plating experiments by the Lederbergs supported which theory?

Random mutation theory

The formation of polyploids in plants is an example of which model of cladogenesis?

Sympatric speciation

what general transcription factor is most often affected by regulatory transcription factors?

TFIID

anticipation is associated with which type of mutation?

TNRE mutations

how does position effect influence gene expression?

Translocations may result in a promoter that is normally used for one gene now controlling an entirely different gene.

select the example of an induced mutational mechanism

UV light

in the nucleotide excision repair system, which of the following proteins is responsible for recognizing a thymine dimer to be repaired?

UvrA/UvrB

true or false: an RFLP marker may be used to predict the likelihood that an individual carries a trait for a specific disease.

true

horizontal gene transfer is most common among what group of organisms?

bacteria

which repair mechanism is responsible for repairing damage from UV light?

base extension repair

which of the following might complicate the interpretation of ChIP-Seq data?

because histones can be moved around or ejected from the chromatin, DNA that is only sometimes wrapped around might not be sequenced

which of the following mechanisms use high-velocity microprojectiles coated with DNA to produce a transgenic plant?

biolistic gene transfer

which of the following mechanisms uses high-velocity microprojectiles, coated with DNA, to produce a transfer plant?

biolistic gene transfer

the conversion of cytosine to uracil in DNA is an example of ____.

deamination

photolyase in yeast is an example of what kind of DNA repair mechanism?

direct repair

which type of selection would lead to two distinct phenotypes?

disruptive selection

the formation of a d-loop is associated with which of the following models of recombination?

double-stranded break model

in the construction of a phylogenetic tree, a _____ considers the overall similarities among a group of species without trying to understand their evolutionary history, whereas a ____ considers the possible pathways of evolution to find the best possibly phylogenetic tree.

phenetic approach; cladistic approach

differences in sexual attraction between males and females based on behavior, physiology, or morphology is an example of a ____ isolation mechanism

prezygotic

After growing a culture of E. coli bacteria in the presence of the T1 phage, you discover that sub-cultures taken from the original exposure show a tremendous fluctuation in the number of colonies that are resistant to T1 phage. This fluctuation supports which of the following theories?

random mutation theory

select the correct statement regardingrate of mutation

rates of spontaneous mutation per cell generation typically range from 10^-5 to 10^-9

The Holli... model .....

recombination between homologous chromosomes

A translocation that moves a gene from an area of euchromatin to heterochromatin would typically cause _________ in the expression of the gene.

reduction

the method of sequencing genomic fragments that are randomly generated from larger DNA fragments is called _____

shotgun sequencing

Genetic drift has a greater influence in __ populations

small

which of the following types of selection favors one extreme of a phenotypic distribution?

stabilizing selection

which of the following types of selection favors the survival of individuals with the intermediate phenotype?

stabilizing selection

The square root of the variance is called the ___

standard deviation

What type of cladogenesis occurs when a new species arises in the same habitat as the species from which it was derived?

sympatric speciation

It is currently believed that apple maggot flies are undergoing a divergence into two separate species. Two hundred years ago these maggot flies laid their eggs only on the hawthorn fruit, but after apples were introduced in the Americas, some maggot flies started laying their eggs on apples. Today, females generally lay their eggs on the type of fruit they grew up in, and male flies end up mating on the type of fruit they grew up in. Therefore hawthorn flies mate with hawthorn flies and apple flies mate with apple flies. If genetic changes between the hawthorn maggot flies and the apple maggot flies continue until the flies are different species, this would be an example of

sympatric speciation.

regions of a chromosome that contain groups of linked genes of several species are called ____

synteny groups

in ChIP-Seq, the DNA fragments to be sequences are around 150 bp in length. what does this size of DNA represent?

the amount of DNA wrapped around a nucleosome

Beechdrops is a parasitic plant that cannot perform photosynthesis but relies on its host the Beech tree. However, Beechdrops still retains many if not all of the genes for photosynthesis. Snapdragons and gladiolas are common garden flowers that rely on their ability to perform photosynthesis. If you were to compare the gene sequences for these three plants for ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase (RuBisCO) a protein necessary for photosynthesis what would you predict?

the differences between gladiolas and snapdragons would most likely be silent mutations while those in beechdrops may be silent or missense

in shotgun sequencing, how is a complete sequence of a genome reconstructed

the genome is fragmented and sequences of each fragment are arranged so that overlapping regions are identified

the inbreeding coefficient (F) tells us what about an individual?

the probability that they are homozygous due to an inheritance from a common ancestor

Although Dolly was only three years old, her chromosomes had the length of a 9-10 year old sheep. Which of the following best describes why this occurred?

the telomeres of the somatic cells that Dolly originated from were shortening

which would be a set of anticipated results from a Lederberg experiment?

total number of colonies on a plate: 1500; total number of resistant colonies on replica plate with TI:15

what might happen if the insulator between two genes is missing?

transcription factors influencing one gene's expression may abnormally influence a neighboring genes expression

if a DNA template is being transcribed in vitro what would be the effect on RNA production if an inhibitor of TFIID was added

transcripts being produced would continue but there would be no new initiation

In the following sequence of DNA, the italicized base has been mutated. What type of mutation is this?5' - G A T C T C C G A A T T - 3' original strand5' - G A T C T C C C A A T T - 3' mutated strand

transversion

true or false: BAC stands for bacterial artificial chromosome

true

true or false: If a portion of transcription factor domain is the and in variety of organism, it is a motif.

true

true or false: The rarer a recessive allele becomes, the less effective selecting is against it.

true

true or false: a possible explanation for a lack of observable phenotypic change in a knockout mouse may involve gene redundancy.

true


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