Exam 3 - Renal Test Bank Content

The nurse is caring for a patient who has just returned to the post-surgical unit following renal surgery. When assessing the patient's output from surgical drains, the nurse should assess what parameters? Select all that apply. A. Quantity of output B. Color of the output C. Visible characteristics of the output D. Odor of the output E. pH of the output

A, B, C Rationale: Urine output and drainage from tubes inserted during surgery are monitored for amount, color, and type or characteristics. Odor and pH are not normally assessed.

A nurse on the renal unit is caring for a patient who will soon begin peritoneal dialysis. The family of the patient asks for education about the peritoneal dialysis catheter that has been placed in the patient's peritoneum. The nurse explains the three sections of the catheter and talks about the two cuffs on the dialysis catheter. What would the nurse explain about the cuffs? Select all that apply. A. The cuffs are made of Dacron polyester. B. The cuffs stabilize the catheter. C. The cuffs prevent the dialysate from leaking. D. The cuffs provide a barrier against microorganisms. E. The cuffs absorb dialysate

A, B, C, D Rationale: Most of these catheters have two cuffs, which are made of Dacron polyester. The cuffs stabilize the catheter, limit movement, prevent leaks, and provide a barrier against microorganisms. They do not absorb dialysate.

The nurse is caring for a patient status after a motor vehicle accident. The patient has developed AKI. What is the nurse's role in caring for this patient? Select all that apply. A. Providing emotional support for the family B. Monitoring for complications C. Participating in emergency treatment of fluid and electrolyte imbalances D. Providing nursing care for primary disorder (trauma) E. Directing nutritional interventions

A, B, C, D Rationale: The nurse has an important role in caring for the patient with AKI. The nurse monitors for complications, participates in emergency treatment of fluid and electrolyte imbalances, assesses the patient's progress and response to treatment, and provides physical and emotional support. Additionally, the nurse keeps family members informed about the patient's condition, helps them understand the treatments, and provides psychological support. Although the development of AKI may be the most serious problem, the nurse continues to provide nursing care indicated for the primary disorder (e.g., burns, shock, trauma, obstruction of the urinary tract). The nurse does not direct the patient's nutritional status; the dietician and the physician normally collaborate on directing the patient's nutritional status.

The nurse is preparing to collect an ordered urine sample for urinalysis. The nurse should be aware that this test will include what assessment parameters? Select all that apply. A. Specific gravity of the patient's urine B. Testing for the presence of glucose in the patient's urine C. Microscopic examination of urine sediment for RBCs D. Microscopic examination of urine sediment for casts E. Testing for BUN and creatinine in the patient's urine

A, B, C, D Rationale: Urine testing includes testing for specific gravity, glucose, RBCs, and casts. BUN and creatinine are components of serum, not urine.

A patient with ESKD is scheduled to begin hemodialysis. The nurse is working with the patient to adapt the patient's diet to maximize the therapeutic effect and minimize the risks of complications. The patient's diet should include which of the following modifications? Select all that apply. A. Decreased protein intake B. Decreased sodium intake C. Increased potassium intake D. Fluid restriction E. Vitamin D supplementation

A, B, D Rationale: Restricting dietary protein decreases the accumulation of nitrogenous wastes, reduces uremic symptoms, and may even postpone the initiation of dialysis for a few months. Restriction of fluid is also part of the dietary prescription because fluid accumulation may occur. As well, sodium is usually restricted to 2 to 3 g/day. Potassium intake is usually limited, not increased, and there is no particular need for vitamin D supplementation.

A football player is thought to have sustained an injury to his kidneys from being tackled from behind. The ER nurse caring for the patient reviews the initial orders written by the physician and notes that an order to collect all voided urine and send it to the laboratory for analysis. The nurse understands that this nursing intervention is important for what reason? A. Hematuria is the most common manifestation of renal trauma and blood losses may be microscopic, so laboratory analysis is essential. B. Intake and output calculations are essential and the laboratory will calculate the precise urine output produced by this patient. C. A creatinine clearance study may be ordered at a later time and the laboratory will hold all urine until it is determined if the test will be necessary. D. There is great concern about electrolyte imbalances and the laboratory will monitor the urine for changes in potassium and sodium concentrations.

A. Rationale: Hematuria is the most common manifestation of renal trauma; its presence after trauma suggests renal injury. Hematuria may not occur, or it may be detectable only on microscopic examination. All urine should be saved and sent to the laboratory for analysis to detect RBCs and to evaluate the course of bleeding. Measuring intake and output is not a function of the laboratory. The laboratory does not save urine to test creatinine clearance at a later time. The laboratory does not monitor the urine for sodium or potassium concentrations.

A 45-year-old man with diabetic nephropathy has ESKD and is starting dialysis. "What should the nurse teach the patient about hemodialysis? A. "Hemodialysis is a treatment option that is usually required three times a week." B. "Hemodialysis is a program that will require you to commit to daily treatment." C. "This will require you to have surgery and a catheter will need to be inserted into your abdomen." D. "Hemodialysis is a treatment that is used for a few months until your kidney heals and starts to produce urine again."

A. Rationale: Hemodialysis is the most commonly used method of dialysis. Patients receiving hemodialysis must undergo treatment for the rest of their lives or until they undergo successful kidney transplantation. Treatments usually occur three times a week for at least 3 to 4 hours per treatment.

The nurse is assessing a patient suspected of having developed acute glomerulonephritis. The nurse should expect to address what clinical manifestation that is characteristic of this health problem? A. Hematuria B. Precipitous decrease in serum creatinine levels C. Hypotension unresolved by fluid administration D. Glucosuria

A. Rationale: The primary presenting feature of acute glomerulonephritis is hematuria (blood in the urine), which may be microscopic (identifiable through microscopic examination) or macroscopic or gross (visible to the eye). Proteinuria, primarily albumin, which is present, is due to increased permeability of the glomerular membrane. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels may rise as urine output drops. Some degree of edema and hypertension is noted in most patients.

The nurse is planning patient teaching for a patient with ESKD who is scheduled for the creation of a fistula. The nurse would include which of the following in teaching the patient about the fistula? A. A vein and an artery in your arm will be attached surgically. B. The arm should be immobilized for 4 to 6 days. C. One needle will be inserted into the fistula for each dialysis treatment. D. The fistula can be used 2 days after the surgery for dialysis treatment.

A. A vein and an artery in your arm will be attached surgically. Rationale: The fistula joins an artery and a vein, either side-to-side or end-to-end. This access will need time, usually 2 to 3 months, to "mature" before it can be used. The patient is encouraged to perform exercises to increase the size of the affected vessels (e.g., squeezing a rubber ball for forearm fistulas). Two needles will be inserted into the fistula for each dialysis treatment.

The nurse has identified the nursing diagnosis of "risk for infection" in a patient who undergoes peritoneal dialysis. What nursing action best addresses this risk? A. Maintain aseptic technique when administering dialysate. B. Wash the skin surrounding the catheter site with soap and water prior to each exchange. C. Add antibiotics to the dialysate as ordered. D. Administer prophylactic antibiotics by mouth or IV as ordered.

A. Aseptic technique Rationale: Aseptic technique is used to prevent peritonitis and other infectious complications of peritoneal dialysis. It is not necessary to cleanse the skin with soap and water prior to each exchange. Antibiotics may be added to dialysate to treat infection, but they are not used to prevent infection.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has returned to the postsurgical suite after post-anesthetic recovery from a nephrectomy. The nurse's most recent hourly assessment reveals a significant drop in level of consciousness and BP as well as scant urine output over the past hour. What is the nurse's best response? A. Assess the patient for signs of bleeding and inform the physician. B. Monitor the patient's vital signs every 15 minutes for the next hour. C. Reposition the patient and reassess vital signs. D. Palpate the patient's flanks for pain and inform the physician.

A. Assess for signs of bleeding and inform physician. Rationale: Bleeding may be suspected when the patient experiences fatigue and when urine output is less than 30 mL/h. The physician must be made aware of this finding promptly. Palpating the patient's flanks would cause intense pain that is of no benefit to assessment.

The nurse is caring for a patient postoperative day 4 following a kidney transplant. When assessing for potential signs and symptoms of rejection, what assessment should the nurse prioritize? A. Assessment of the quantity of the patient's urine output B. Assessment of the patient's incision C. Assessment of the patient's abdominal girth D. Assessment for flank or abdominal pain

A. Assessment of the quantity of the patient's urine output. Rationale: After kidney transplantation, the nurse should perform all of the listed assessments. However, oliguria is considered to be more suggestive of rejection than changes to the patient's abdomen or incision.

Renal failure can have prerenal, renal, or postrenal causes. A patient with acute kidney injury is being assessed to determine where, physiologically, the cause is. If the cause is found to be prerenal, which condition most likely caused it? A. Heart failure B. Glomerulonephritis C. Ureterolithiasis D. Aminoglycoside toxicity

A. HF Rationale: By causing inadequate renal perfusion, heart failure can lead to prerenal failure. Glomerulonephritis and aminoglycoside toxicity are renal causes, and ureterolithiasis is a postrenal cause.

A nurse knows that specific areas in the ureters have a propensity for obstruction. Prompt management of renal calculi is most important when the stone is located where? A. In the ureteropelvic junction B. In the ureteral segment near the sacroiliac junction C. In the ureterovesical junction D. In the urethra

A. In the ureteropelvic junction Rationale: The three narrowed areas of each ureter are the ureteropelvic junction, the ureteral segment near the sacroiliac junction, and the ureterovesical junciton. These three areas of the ureters have a propensity for obstruction by renal calculi or stricture. Obstruction of the ureteropelvic junction is most serious because of its close proximity to the kidney and the risk of associated kidney dysfunction. The urethra is not part of the ureter.

A nurse is working with a patient who will undergo invasive urologic testing. The nurse has informed the patient that slight hematuria may occur after the testing is complete. The nurse should recommend what action to help resolve hematuria? A. Increased fluid intake following the test B. Use of an OTC diuretic after the test C. Gentle massage of the lower abdomen D. Activity limitation for the first 12 hours after the test

A. Increased fluid intake Rationale: Drinking fluids can help to clear hematuria. Diuretics are not used for this purpose. Activity limitation and massage are unlikely to resolve this expected consequence of testing.

The nurse is providing pre-procedure teaching about an ultrasound. The nurse informs the patient that in preparation for an ultrasound of the lower urinary tract the patient will require what? A. Increased fluid intake to produce a full bladder B. IV administration of radiopaque contrast agent C. Sedation and intubation D. Injection of a radioisotope

A. Increased fluid intake to produce a full bladder. Rationale: Ultrasonography requires a full bladder; therefore, fluid intake should be encouraged before the procedures. The administration of a radiopaque contrast agent is required to perform IV urography studies, such as an IV pyelogram. Ultrasonography is a quick and painless diagnostic test and does not require sedation or intubation. The injection of a radioisotope is required for a nuclear scan and ultrasonography is not this category of diagnostic studies.

A patient with ESKD receives continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. The nurse observes that the dialysate drainage fluid is cloudy. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A. Inform the physician and assess the patient for signs of infection. B. Flush the peritoneal catheter with normal saline. C. Remove the catheter promptly and have the catheter tip cultured. D. Administer a bolus of IV normal saline as ordered.

A. Inform physician and assess for signs of infection. Rationale: Peritonitis is the most common and serious complication of peritoneal dialysis. The first sign of peritonitis is cloudy dialysate drainage fluid, so prompt reporting to the primary care provider and rapid assessment for other signs of infection are warranted. Administration of an IV bolus is not necessary or appropriate and the physician would determine whether removal of the catheter is required. Flushing the catheter does not address the risk for infection.

A patient asks the nurse why kidney problems can cause gastrointestinal disturbances. What relationship should the nurse describe? A. The right kidney's proximity to the pancreas, liver, and gallbladder B. The indirect impact of digestive enzymes on renal function C. That the peritoneum encapsulates the GI system and the kidneys D. The left kidney's connection to the common bile duct

A. R kidney's proximity to the pancreas, liver, and gallbladder. Rationale: The proximity of the right kidney to the colon, duodenum, head of the pancreas, common bile duct, liver, and gallbladder may cause GI disturbances. The proximity of the left kidney to the colon (splenic flexure), stomach, pancreas, and spleen may also result in intestinal symptoms. Digestive enzymes do not affect renal function and the left kidney is not connected to the common bile duct.

The nurse is assessing a patient's bladder by percussion. The nurse elicits dullness after the patient has voided. How should the nurse interpret this assessment finding? A. The patient's bladder is not completely empty B. The patient has kidney enlargement C. The patient has a ureteral obstruction D. The patient has a fluid volume deficit

A. The patient's bladder is not completely empty. Rationale: Dullness to percussion of the bladder following voiding indicates incomplete bladder emptying. Enlargement of the kidneys can be attributed to numerous conditions such as polycystic kidney disease or hydronephrosis and is not related to bladder fullness. Dehydration and ureteral obstruction are not related to bladder fullness; in fact, these conditions result in decreased flow of urine to the bladder.

A patient with elevated BUN and creatinine values has been referred by her primary physician for further evaluation. The nurse should anticipate the use of what initial diagnostic test? A. U/S B. X-ray C. CT D. Nuclear scan

A. U/S Rationale: Ultrasonography is a noninvasive procedure that passes sound waves into the body through a transducer to detect abnormalities of internal tissues and organs. Structures of the urinary system create characteristic ultrasonographic images. Because of its sensitivity, ultrasonography has replaced many other diagnostic tests as the initial diagnostic procedure.

A nurse is caring for a 73-year-old patient with a urethral obstruction related to prostatic enlargement. When planning this patient's care, the nurse should be aware of the consequent risk of what complication? A. Urinary tract infection B. Enuresis C. Polyruia D. Proteinuria

A. UTI Rationale: An obstruction of the bladder outlet, such as in advanced benign prostatic hyperplasia, results in abnormally high voiding pressure with a slow, prolonged flow of urine. The urine may remain in the bladder, which increases the potential of a UTI. Older male patients are at risk for prostatic enlargement, which causes urethral obstruction and can result in hydronephrosis, renal failure, and UTIs.

A nurse is preparing a patient diagnosed with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) for a lower urinary tract cystoscopic examination. The nurse informs the patient that the most common temporary complication experienced after this procedure is what? A. Urinary retention B. Bladder perforation C. Hemorrhage D. Nausea

A. Urinary retention Rationale: After a cystoscopic examination, the patient with obstructive pathology may experience urine retention if the instruments used during the examination caused edema. The nurse will carefully monitor the patient with prostatic hyperplasia for urine retention. Post-procedure, the patient will experience some hematuria, but is not at great risk for hemorrhage. Unless the condition is associated with another disorder, nausea is not commonly associated with this diagnostic study. Bladder perforation is rate.

The nurse is working on the renal transplant unit. To reduce the risk of infection in a patient with a transplanted kidney, it is imperative for the nurse to do what? A. Wash hands carefully and frequently. B. Ensure immediate function of the donated kidney. C. Instruct the patient to wear a face mask. D. Bar visitors from the patient's room.

A. Wash hands carefully and frequently. Rationale: The nurse ensures that the patient is protected from exposure to infection by hospital staff, visitors, and other patients with active infections. Careful handwashing is imperative; face masks may be worn by hospital staff and visitors to reduce the risk for transmitting infectious agents while the patient is receiving high doses of immunosuppressants. Visitors may be limited, but are not normally barred outright. Ensuring kidney function is vital, but does not prevent infection.

Dipstick testing of an older adult patient's urine indicates the presence of protein. Which of the following statements is true of this assessment finding? Select all that apply. A. This finding needs to be considered in light of other forms of testing. B. This finding is a risk factor for urinary incontinence. C. This finding is likely the result of an age-related physiologic change. D. This result confirms that the patient has diabetes.

B, C, D Rationale: A dipstick examination, which can detect from 30 to 1000 mg/dL of protein, should be used as a screening test only, because urine concentration, pH, hematuria, and radiocontrast materials all affect the results. Proteinuria is not diagnostic of diabetes and it is neither an age-related change nor a risk factor for incontinence.

A patient is scheduled for diagnostic testing to address prolonged signs and symptoms of genitourinary dysfunction. What signs and symptoms are particularly suggestive of urinary tract disease? Select all that apply. A. Petechiae B. Pain C. Gastrointestinal symptoms D. Changes in voiding E. Jaundice

B, C, D Rationale: Dysfunction of the kidney can produce a complex array of symptoms throughout the body. Pain, changes in voiding, and gastrointestinal symptoms are particularly suggestive of urinary tract disease. Jaundice and petechiae are not associated with genitourinary health problems.

The nurse is caring for a patient with acute glomerular inflammation. When assessing for the characteristic signs and symptoms of this health problem, the nurse should include which assessments? Select all that apply. A. Percuss for pain in the right lower abdominal quadrant. B. Assess for the presence of peripheral edema. C. Auscultate the patient's apical heart rate for dysrhythmias. D. Assess the patient's BP. E. Assess the patient's orientation and judgment.

B, D. Rationale: Most patients with acute glomerular inflammation have some degree of edema and hypertension. Dysrhythmias, RLQ pain, and changes in mental status are not among the most common manifestations of acute glomerular inflammation.

A 71-year-old patient with ESKD has been told by the physician that it is time to consider hemodialysis until a transplant can be found. The patient tells the nurse she is not sure she wants to undergo a kidney transplant. What would be an appropriate response for the nurse to make? A. "The decision is certainly yours to make, but be sure not to make a mistake." B. "Kidney transplants in patients your age are as successful as they are in younger patients." C. "I understand your hesitancy to commit to a transplant surgery. Success is comparatively rare." D. "Have you talked this over with your family?"

B. Rationale: Although there is no specific age limitation for renal transplantation, concomitant disorders (e.g., coronary artery disease, peripheral vascular disease) have made it a less common treatment for the elderly. However, the outcome is comparable to that of younger patients. The other listed options either belittle the patient or give the patient misinformation.

A patient with recurrent UTIs has just undergone a cystoscopy and complains of slight hematuria during the first void after the procedure. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A. Administer a STAT dose of vitamin K, as ordered B. Reassure the patient that this is not unexpected and then monitor the patient for further bleeding C. Promptly inform the physician of this assessment finding D. Position the patient supine and insert a Foley catheter, as ordered

B. Rationale: Some burning on voiding, blood-tinged urine, and urinary frequency from trauma to the mucous membranes can be expected after cystoscopy. The nurse should explain this to the patient and ensure that the bleeding resolves. No clear need exists to report this finding and it does not warrant insertion of a Foley or vitamin K administration.

The nurse caring for a patient with suspected renal dysfunction calculates that the patient's weight has increased by 5 pounds in the last 24 hours. The nurse estimates that the patient has retained approximately how much fluid? A. 1,300 mL in 24h B. 2,300 mL in 24h C. 3,100 mL in 24h D. 5,000 mL in 24h

B. 2,300 Rationale: An increase in body weight commonly accompanies edema. To calculate the approximate weight gain from fluid retention, remember that 1kg = 1,000mL of fluid. 5lbs = 2.27kg b= 2.270mL.

A nurse is caring for a patient with impaired renal function. A creatinine clearance measurement has been ordered. The nurse should facilitate collection of what samples? A. A fasting serum potassium level and a random urine sample B. A 24-hour urine specimen and a serum creatinine level midway through the urine collection process C. A BUN and serum creatinine level on three consecutive mornings D. A sterile urine specimen and an electrolyte panel, including sodium, potassium, calcium, and phosphorus values

B. A 24-hour urine specimen and a serum creatinine level midway through the urine collection process. Rationale: To calculate creatinine clearance, a 24-hour urine specimen is collected. Midway through the collection, the serum creatinine level is measured.

The nurse coming on shift on the medical unit is taking a report on four patients. What patient does the nurse know is at the greatest risk of developing ESKD? A. A patient with a history of polycystic kidney disease B. A patient with diabetes mellitus and poorly controlled hypertension C. A patient who is morbidly obese with a history of vascular disorders D. A patient with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

B. A patient with DM and poorly controlled HTN. Rationale: Systemic diseases, such as diabetes mellitus (leading cause); hypertension; chronic glomerulonephritis; pyelonephritis; obstruction of the urinary tract; hereditary lesions, such as in polycystic kidney disease; vascular disorders; infections; medications; or toxic agents may cause ESKD. A patient with more than one of these risk factors is at the greatest risk for developing ESKD. Therefore, the patient with diabetes and hypertension is likely at highest risk for ESKD.

The critical care nurse is monitoring the patient's urine output and drains following renal surgery. What should the nurse promptly report to the physician? A. Increased pain on movement B. Absence of drain output C. Increased urine output D. Blood-tinged serosanguineous drain output

B. Absence of drain output Rationale: Urine output and drainage from tubes inserted during surgery are monitored for amount, color, and type or characteristics. Decreased or absent drainage is promptly reported to the physician because it may indicate obstruction that could cause pain, infection, and disruption of the suture lines. Reporting increased pain on movement has nothing to do with the scenario described. Increased urine output and serosanguineous drainage are expected.

The nurse is reviewing the electronic health record of a patient with a history of incontinence. The nurse reads that the physician assessed the patient's deep tendon reflexes. What condition of the urinary/renal system does this assessment address? A. Renal calculi B. Bladder dysfunction C. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) D. Recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs)

B. Bladder dysfunction Rationale: The deep tendon reflexes of the knee are examined for quality and symmetry. This is an important part of testing for neurologic causes of bladder dysfunction, because the sacral area, which innervates the lower extremities, is in the same peripheral nerve area responsible for urinary continence. Neurologic function does not directly influence the course of renal calculi, BPH or UTIs.

A patient is being treated for AKI and the patient daily weights have been ordered. The nurse notes a weight gain of 3 pounds over the past 48 hours. What nursing diagnosis is suggested by this assessment finding? A. Imbalanced nutrition: More than body requirements B. Excess fluid volume C. Sedentary lifestyle D. Adult failure to thrive

B. Excess fluid volume Rationale: If the patient with AKI gains or does not lose weight, fluid retention should be suspected. Short-term weight gain is not associated with excessive caloric intake or a sedentary lifestyle. Failure to thrive is not associated with weight gain.

A patient with a history of progressively worsening fatigue is undergoing a comprehensive assessment which includes test of renal function relating to erythropoiesis. When assessing the oxygen transport ability of the blood, the nurse should prioritize the review of what blood value? A. Hematocrit B. Hemoglobin C. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) D. Serum creatinine

B. Hemoglobin Rationale: Although historically hematocrit has been the blood test of choice when assessing a patient for anemia, use of the hemoglobin level rather than hematocrit is currently recommended, because that measurement is a better assessment of the oxygen transport ability of the blood. ESR and creatinine levels are not indicative of oxygen transport ability.

A patient on the medical unit has a documented history of polycystic kidney disease (PKD). What principle should guide the nurse's care of this patient? A. The disease is self-limiting and cysts usually resolve spontaneously in the fifth or sixth decade of life. B. The patient's disease is incurable and the nurse's interventions will be supportive. C. The patient will eventually require surgical removal of his or her renal cysts. D. The patient is likely to respond favorably to lithotripsy treatment of the cysts.

B. Incurable, supportive nursing interventions. Rationale: PKD is incurable and care focuses on support and symptom control. It is not self-limiting and is not treated surgically or with lithotripsy.

The nurse is caring for a patient scheduled for renal angiography following a motor vehicle accident. What patient preparation should the nurse most likely provide before this test? A. Administration of IV potassium chloride B. Administration of a laxative C. Administration of Gastrografin D. Administration of a 24-hour urine test

B. Laxative Rationale: Before the procedure, a laxative may be prescribed to evacuate the colon so that unobstructed x-rays can be obtained. A 24-hour urine test is not necessary prior to the procedure. Gastrografin and potassium chloride are not administered prior to renal angiography.

A patient is brought to the renal unit from the PACU status post resection of a renal tumor. Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse prioritize in the care of this patient? A. Increasing oral intake B. Managing postoperative pain C. Managing dialysis D. Increasing mobility

B. Managing postoperative pain Rationale: The patient requires frequent analgesia during the postoperative period and assistance with turning, coughing, use of incentive spirometry, and deep breathing to prevent atelectasis and other pulmonary complications. Increasing oral intake and mobility are not priority nursing actions in the immediate postoperative care of this patient. Dialysis is not necessary following kidney surgery.

A patient is scheduled for a CT scan of the abdomen with contrast. The patient has a baseline creatinine level of 2.3 mg/dL. In preparing this patient for the procedure, the nurse anticipates what orders? A. Monitor the patient's electrolyte values every hour before the procedure. B. Preprocedure hydration and administration of acetylcysteine C. Hemodialysis immediately prior to the CT scan D. Obtain a creatinine clearance by collecting a 24-hour urine specimen.

B. Preprocedure hydration and administration of acetylcysteine. Rationale: Radiocontrast-induced nephropathy is a major cause of hospital-acquired acute kidney injury. Baseline levels of creatinine greater than 2 mg/dL identify the patient as being high risk. Preprocedure hydration and prescription of acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) the day prior to the test is effective in prevention. The nurse would not monitor the patient's electrolytes every hour preprocedure. Nothing in the scenario indicates the need for hemodialysis. A creatinine clearance is not necessary prior to a CT scan with contrast.

A patient on the critical care unit is postoperative day 1 following kidney transplantation from a living donor. The nurse's most recent assessments indicate that the patient is producing copious quantities of dilute urine. What is the nurse's most appropriate response? A. Assess the patient for further signs or symptoms of rejection. B. Recognize this as an expected finding. C. Inform the primary care provider of this finding. D. Administer exogenous antidiuretic hormone as ordered.

B. Recognize this as an expected finding. Rationale: A kidney from a living donor related to the patient usually begins to function immediately after surgery and may produce large quantities of dilute urine. This is not suggestive of rejection and treatment is not warranted. There is no obvious need to report this finding.

A patient is scheduled for a diagnostic MRI of the lower urinary system. What pre-procedure education should the nurse include? A. The need to be NPO for 12 hours prior to the test B. Relaxation techniques to apply during the test C. The need for conscious sedation prior to the test D. The need to limit fluid intake to 1 liter in the 24 hours before the test

B. Relaxation techniques Rationale: Patient preparation should include teaching relaxation techniques because the patient needs to remain still during an MRI. The patient does not normally need to be NPO or fluid-restricted before the test and conscious sedation is not usually implemented.

A patient with chronic kidney disease is completing an exchange during peritoneal dialysis. The nurse observes that the peritoneal fluid is draining slowly and that the patient's abdomen is increasing in girth. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A. Advance the catheter 2 to 4 cm further into the peritoneal cavity. B. Reposition the patient to facilitate drainage. C. Aspirate from the catheter using a 60-mL syringe. D. Infuse 50 mL of additional dialysate.

B. Reposition the patient to facilitate drainage. Rationale: If the peritoneal fluid does not drain properly, the nurse can facilitate drainage by turning the patient from side to side or raising the head of the bed. The catheter should never be pushed further into the peritoneal cavity. It would be unsafe to aspirate or to infuse more dialysate.

A patient with renal failure secondary to diabetic nephropathy has been admitted to the medical unit. What is the most life-threatening effect of renal failure for which the nurse should monitor the patient? A. Accumulation of wastes B. Retention of potassium C. Depletion of calcium D. Lack of BP control

B. Retention of potassium. Rationale: Retention of K+ is the most life-threatening effect of renal failure. Aldosterone causes the kidney to excrete K+, in contrast to aldosterone's effects on sodium previously described. Acid-base balance, the amount of dietary potassium intake, and the flow rate of the filtrate in the distal tubule also influence the amount of K+ secreted into the urine. Hypocalcemia, the accumulation of wastes, and lack of BP control are complications associated with renal failure, but do not have the same level of threat to the patient's well-being as hyperkalemia.

A patient with a diagnosis of respiratory acidosis is experiencing renal compensation. What function does the kidney perform to assist in restoring acid-base balance? A. Sequestering free hydrogen ions in the nephrons B. Returning bicarbonate to the body's circulation C. Returning acid to the body's circulation D. Excreting bicarbonate in the urine

B. Returning bicarb Rationale: The kidney performs two major functions to assist in acid-base balance. The first is to reabsorb and return to the body's circulation any bicarbonate from the urinary filtrate; the second is to excrete acid in the urine. Retaining bicarbonate will counteract an acidotic state. The nephrons do not sequester free hydrogen ions.

The nurse is caring for a patient who describes changes in his voiding patterns. The patient states, "I feel the urge to empty my bladder several times an hour and when the urge hits me I have to get to the restroom quickly. But when I empty my bladder, there doesn't seem to be a great deal of urine flow." What would the nurse expect this patient's physical assessment to reveal? A. Hematuria B. Urine retention C. Dehydration D. Renal failure

B. Urine retention Rationale: Increased urinary urgency and frequency couple with decreasing urine volumes strongly suggest urine retention. Hematuria may be an accompanying symptom, but is likely related to a urinary tract infection secondary to the retention of urine. Dehydration and renal failure both result in a decrease in urine output, but the patient with these conditions does not have normal urine production and decreased or minimal flow of urine to the bladder. The symptoms of urgency and frequency do not accompany renal failure and dehydration due to decreased urine production.

An 84-year-old woman diagnosed with cancer is admitted to the oncology unit for surgical treatment. The patient has been on chemotherapeutic agents to decrease the tumor size prior to the planned surgery. The nurse caring for the patient is aware that what precipitating factors in this patient may contribute to AKI? Select all that apply. A. Anxiety B. Low BMI C. Age-related physiologic changes D. Chronic systemic disease E. NPO status

C, D Rationale: Changes in kidney function with normal aging increase the susceptibility of elderly patients to kidney dysfunction and renal failure. In addition, the presence of chronic, systemic diseases increases the risk of AKI. Low BMI and anxiety are not risk factors for acute renal disease. NPO status is not a risk, provided adequate parenteral hydration is administered.

A patient is admitted to the ICU after a motor vehicle accident. On the second day of the hospital admission, the patient develops acute kidney injury. The patient is hemodynamically unstable, but renal replacement therapy is needed to manage the patient's hypervolemia and hyperkalemia. Which of the following therapies will the patient's hemodynamic status best tolerate? A. Hemodialysis B. Peritoneal dialysis C. Continuous venovenous hemodialysis (CVVHD) D. Plasmapheresis

C. Rationale: CVVHD facilitates the removal of uremic toxins and fluid. The hemodynamic effects of CVVHD are usually mild in comparison to hemodialysis, so CVVHD is best tolerated by an unstable patient. Peritoneal dialysis is not the best choice, as the patient may have sustained abdominal injuries during the accident and catheter placement would be risky. Plasmapheresis does not achieve fluid removal and electrolyte balance.

The nurse is caring for acutely ill patient. What assessment finding should prompt the nurse to inform the physician that the patient may be exhibiting signs of acute kidney injury (AKI)? A. The patient is complains of an inability to initiate voiding. B. The patient's urine is cloudy with a foul odor. C. The patient's average urine output has been 10 mL/hr for several hours. D. The patient complains of acute flank pain.

C. Rationale: Oliguria (<500 mL/d of urine) is the most common clinical situation seen in AKI. Flank pain and inability to initiate voiding are not characteristic of AKI. Cloudy, foul-smelling urine is suggestive of a urinary tract infection.

Diagnostic testing of an adult patient reveals renal glycosuria. The nurse should recognize the need for the patient to be assessed for what health problem? A. Diabetes insipidus B. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) C. Diabetes mellitus D. Renal carcinoma

C. Rationale: Renal glycosuria can occur on its own as a benign condition. It also occurs in poorly controlled diabetes, the most common condition that causes the blood glucose level to exceed the kidney's reabsorption capacity. Glycosuria is not associated with SIADH, diabetes insipidus, or renal carcinoma.

A nurse is aware of the high incidence and prevalence of fluid volume deficit among older adults. What related health education should the nurse provide to an older adult? A. "If possible, try to drink at least 4 liters of fluid daily." B. "Ensure that you avoid replacing water with other beverages." C. "Remember to drink frequently, even if you don't feel thirsty." D. "Make sure you eat plenty of salt in order to stimulate thirst."

C. Rationale: The nurse emphasizes the need to drink throughout the day even if the patient does not feel thirsty, because the thirst stimulation is decreased. Four liters of daily fluid intake is excessive and fluids other than water are acceptable in most cases. Additional salt intake is not recommended as a prompt for increased fluid intake.

A patient is complaining of genitourinary pain shortly after returning to the unit from a schedule cystoscopy. What intervention should the nurse perform? A. Encourage mobilization B. Apply topical lidocaine to the patient's meatus, as ordered C. Apply moist heat to the patient's lower abdomen D. Apply an ice pack to the patient's perineum

C. Apply moist heat to the patient's lower abdomen Rationale: Following cystoscopy, moist heat to the lower abdomen and warm sitz baths are helpful in relieving pain and relaxing the muscles. Ice, lidocaine, and mobilization are not recommended interventions.

The nurse is performing a focused genitourinary and renal assessment of a patient. Where should the nurse assess for pain at the costovertebral angle? A. At the umbilicus and the RLQ B. At the suprapubic region and the umbilicus C. At the lower border of the 12th rib and the spine D. At the 7th rib and the xyphoid process

C. At the lower border of the 12th rib and the spine Rationale:The costovertebral angle is the angle formed by the lower border of the 12th rib and the spine. Renal dysfunction may produce tenderness over the costovertebral angle.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is in the diuresis phase of AKI. The nurse should closely monitor the patient for what complication during this phase? A. Hypokalemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Dehydration D. Acute flank pain

C. Dehydration Rationale: The diuresis period is marked by a gradual increase in urine output, which signals that glomerular filtration has started to recover. The patient must be observed closely for dehydration during this phase; if dehydration occurs, the uremic symptoms are likely to increase. Excessive losses of potassium and calcium are not typical during this phase, and diuresis does not normally result in pain.

The nurse is caring for a patient suspected of having renal dysfunction. When reviewing lab results for this patient, the nurse interprets the presence of which substances in the urine as most suggestive of pathology? A. Potassium and sodium B. Bicarbonate and urea C. Glucose and protein D. Creatinine and chloride

C. Glucose and protein Rationale: The various substances normally filtered by the glomerulus, reabsorbed by the tubules, and excreted in the urine include sodium, chloride, bicarbonate, potassium, glucose, urea, creatinine, and uric acid. Within the tubule, some of these substances are selectively reabsorbed into the blood. Glucose is completely reabsorbed in the tubule and normally does not appear in the urine. However, glucose is found in the urine if the amount of glucose in the blood and glomerular filtrate exceeds the amount that the tubules are able to reabsorb. Protein molecules are also generally not found in the urine because amino acids are also filtered at the level of the glomerulus and reabsorbed so that it is not excreted in the urine.

The nurse is caring for a patient in acute kidney injury. Which of the following complications would most clearly warrant the administration of polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)? A. Hypernatremia B. Hypomagnesemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypercalcemia

C. Hyperkalemia Rationale: Hyperkalemia, a common complication of acute kidney injury, is life-threatening if immediate action is not taken to reverse it. The administration of polystyrene sulfonate reduces serum potassium levels.

The nurse is creating an education plan for a patient who underwent a nephrectomy for the treatment of a renal tumor. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan? A. The importance of increased fluid intake B. Signs and symptoms of rejection C. Inspection and care of the incision D. Techniques for preventing metastasis

C. Inspection and care of the incision Rationale: The nurse teaches the patient to inspect and care for the incision and perform other general postoperative care, including activity and lifting restrictions, driving, and pain management. There would be no need to teach the signs or symptoms of rejection as there has been no transplant. Increased fluid intake is not normally recommended and the patient has minimal control on the future risk for metastasis.

The nurse is caring for a patient after kidney surgery. The nurse is aware that bleeding is a major complication of kidney surgery and that if it goes undetected and untreated can result in hypovolemia and hemorrhagic shock in the patient. When assessing for bleeding, what assessment parameter should the nurse evaluate? A. Oral intake B. Pain intensity C. Level of consciousness D. Radiation of pain

C. LOC Rationale: Bleeding is a major complication of kidney surgery. If undetected and untreated, this can result in hypovolemia and hemorrhagic shock. The nurse's role is to observe for these complications, to report their signs and symptoms, and to administer prescribed parenteral fluids and blood and blood components. Monitoring of vital signs, skin condition, the urinary drainage system, the surgical incision, and the level of consciousness is necessary to detect evidence of bleeding, decreased circulating blood, and fluid volume and cardiac output. Bleeding is not normally evidenced by changes in pain or oral intake.

The staff educator is giving a class for a group of nurses new to the renal unit. The educator is discussing renal biopsies. In what patient would the educator tell the new nurses that renal biopsies are contraindicated? A. A 64-year-old patient with chronic glomerulonephritis B. A 57-year-old patient with proteinuria C. A 42-year-old patient with morbid obesity D. A 16-year-old patient with signs of kidney transplant rejection

C. Morbid obesity. Rationale: There are several contraindications to a kidney biopsy, including: Bleeding tendencies Uncontrolled HTN Solitary kidney Morbid obesity Indications for a renal biopsy include: Unexplained acute renal failure Persistent proteinuria or hematuria Transplant rejection Glomerulopathies

The nurse is caring for a patient with a nursing diagnosis of deficient fluid volume. The nurse's assessment reveals a BP of 98/52 mmHg. The nurse should recognize that the patient's kidneys will compensate by secreting what substance? A. ADH B. Aldoesterone C. Renin D. Angiotensin

C. Renin Rationale: When the vasa recta detect a decrease in BP, specialized juxtaglomerular cells near the afferent arteriole, distal tubule, and efferent arteriole secrete the hormone renin. Renin converts angiotensinogen (in liver) to angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II (in lungs). The vasoconstriction causes the BP to increase. The adrenal cortex secretes aldosterone in response to stimulation by the pituitary gland, which in turn is in response to poor perfusion or increasing serum osmolality. The result is an increase in BP.

The nurse is providing a health education workshop to a group of adults focusing on cancer prevention. The nurse should emphasize what action in order to reduce participants' risks of renal carcinoma? A. Avoiding heavy alcohol use B. Control of sodium intake C. Smoking cessation D. Adherence to recommended immunization schedules

C. Smoking cessation Rationale: Tobacco use is a significant risk factor for renal cancer, surpassing the significance of high alcohol and sodium intake. Immunizations do not address an individual's risk of renal cancer.

A patient has a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 43 mL/min/1.73 m2. Based on this GFR, the nurse interprets that the patient's chronic kidney disease is at what stage? A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4

C. Stage 3. Rationale: Stages of chronic renal failure are based on the GFR. Stage 3 is defined by a GFR in the range of 30 to 59 mL/min/1.73 m2. This is considered a moderate decrease in GFR.

A patient admitted to the medical unit with impaired renal function is complaining of severe, stabbing pain in the flank and lower abdomen. The patient is being assessed for renal calculi. The nurse recognizes that the stone is most likely in what anatomic location? A. Meatus B. Bladder C. Ureter D. Urethra

C. Ureter Rationale: Ureteral pain is characterized as a dull continuous pain that may be intense with voiding. The pain may be described as sharp or stabbing if the bladder is full. This type of pain is inconsistent with a stone being present in the bladder. Stones are not normally situation in the urethra or meatus.

Results of a patient's 24-hour urine sample indicate osmolality of 510 mOsm/kg, which is within reference range. What conclusion can the nurse draw from this assessment finding? A. The patient's kidneys are capable of maintaining acid-base balance. B. The patient's kidneys reabsorb most of the potassium that the patient ingests. C. The patient's kidneys can produce sufficiently concentrated urine. D. The patient's kidneys are producing sufficient erythropoietin.

C. Sufficiently concentrated urine. Rationale: Osmolality is the most accurate measurement of the kidney's ability to dilute and concentrate urine. Osmolality is not a direct indicator of renal function as it relates to erythropoietin synthesis or maintenance of acid-base balance. It does not indicate the maintenance of healthy levels of potassium, the vast majority of which is excreted.

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving hemodialysis three times weekly. The patient has had surgery to form an arteriovenous fistula. What is most important for the nurse to be aware of when providing care for this patient? A. Using a stethoscope for auscultating the fistula is contraindicated. B. The patient feels best immediately after the dialysis treatment. C. Taking a BP reading on the affected arm can damage the fistula. D. The patient should not feel pain during initiation of dialysis.

C. Taking a BP reading on the affect arm can damage the fistula. Rationale: When blood flow is reduced through the access for any reason (hypotension, application of BP cuff/tourniquet), the access site can clot. Auscultation of a bruit in the fistula is one way to determine patency. Typically, patients feel fatigued immediately after hemodialysis because of the rapid change in fluid and electrolyte status. Although the area over the fistula may have some decreased sensation, a needle stick is still painful.

The nurse is caring for a patient who had a brush biopsy 12 hours ago. The presence of what assessment finding should prompt the nurse to notify the physician? A. Scant hematuria B. Renal colic C. Temperature 100.2F orally D. Infiltration of the patient's IV catheter

C. Temperature Rationale: Hematuria and renal colic are common and expected findings after the performance of a renal brush biopsy. The physician should be notified of the patient's body temperature, which likely indicates the onset of an infectious process. IV infiltration does not warrant notification of the primary care physician.

A patient has presented with signs and symptoms that are characteristic of acute kidney injury, but preliminary assessment reveals no obvious risk factors for this health problem. The nurse should recognize the need to interview the patient about what topic? A. Typical diet B. Allergy status C. Psychosocial stressors D. Current medication use

D. Rationale: The kidneys are susceptible to the adverse effects of medications because they are repeatedly exposed to substances in the blood. Nephrotoxic medications are a more likely cause of AKI than diet, allergies, or stress.

What nursing action should the nurse perform when caring for a patient undergoing diagnostic testing of the renal-urologic system? A. Withhold medications until 12 hours post-testing. B. Ensure that the patient knows the importance of temporary fluid restriction after testing. C. Inform the patient of his or her medical diagnosis after reviewing the results. D. Assess the patient's understanding of the test results after their completion.

D. Rationale: The nurse should ensure that the patient understands the results that are presented by the physician. Informing the patient of a diagnosis is normally the primary care provider's responsibility. Withholding fluids or medications is not normally required after testing.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a fluid volume deficit. When evaluating this patient's urinalysis results, what should the nurse anticipate? A. A fluctuating USG B. A fixed USG C. A decreased USG D. An increased USG

D. An increased urine specific gravity. Rationale: Urine specific gravity depends largely on hydration status. A decrease in fluid intake will lead to an increase in the urine specific gravity. With high fluid intake, specific gravity decreases. In patients with kidney disease, urine specific gravity does not vary with fluid intake, and the patient's urine is said to have a fixed specific gravity.

A patient with chronic kidney disease has been hospitalized and is receiving hemodialysis on a scheduled basis. The nurse should include which of the following actions in the plan of care? A. Ensure that the patient moves the extremity with the vascular access site as little as possible. B. Change the dressing over the vascular access site at least every 12 hours. C. Utilize the vascular access site for infusion of IV fluids. D. Assess for a thrill or bruit over the vascular access site each shift.

D. Assess for thrill or bruit Rationale: The bruit, or "thrill," over the venous access site must be evaluated at least every shift. Frequent dressing changes are unnecessary and the patient does not normally need to immobilize the site. The site must not be used for purposes other than dialysis.

A geriatric nurse is performing an assessment of body systems on an 85-year-old patient. The nurse should be aware of what age-related change affecting the renal or urinary system? A. Increased ability to concentrate urine B. Increased bladder capacity C. Urinary incontinence D. Decreased glomerular filtration rate

D. Decreased GFR Rationale: Many age-related changes in the renal and urinary systems should be taken into consideration when taking a health history of the older adult. One change includes a decreased glomerular surface area resulting in a decreased glomerular filtration rate. Other changes include the decreased ability to concentrate urine and a decreased bladder capacity. It also should be understood that urinary incontinence is not a normal age-related change, but is common in older adults, especially in women because of the loss of pelvic muscle tone.

A kidney biopsy has been schedule for a patient with a history of acute renal failure. THe patient asks the nurse why this test has been scheduled. What is the nurse's best response? A. A biopsy is routinely ordered for all patients with renal disorders. B. A biopsy is generally ordered following abnormal x-ray findings of the renal pelvis. C. A biopsy is often ordered for patients before they have a kidney transplant. D. A biopsy is sometimes necessary for diagnosing and evaluating the extent of kidney disease.

D. Diagnosing and evaluating the extent of kidney disease. Rationale: Biopsy of the kidney is used in diagnosing and evaluating the extent of kidney disease. Indications for biopsy include unexplained acute renal failure, persistent proteinuria or hematuria, transplant rejection, and glomerulopathies.

A patient admitted with nephrotic syndrome is being cared for on the medical unit. When writing this patient's care plan, based on the major clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome, what nursing diagnosis should the nurse include? A. Constipation related to immobility B. Risk for injury related to altered thought processes C. Hyperthermia related to the inflammatory process D. Excess fluid volume related to generalized edema

D. Excess fluid volume related to generalized edema Rationale: The major clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome is edema, so the appropriate nursing diagnosis is "Excess fluid volume related to generalized edema." Edema is usually soft, pitting, and commonly occurs around the eyes, in dependent areas, and in the abdomen.

A patient with a history of incontinence will undergo urodynamic testing in the physician's office. Because voiding in the presence of others can cause situational anxiety, the nurse should perform what action? A. Administer diuretics as ordered. B. Push fluids for several hours prior to the test. C. Discuss possible test results as the patient voids. D. Help the patient to relax before and during the test.

D. Help patient relax Rationale: Voiding in the presence of others can frequently cause guarding, a natural reflex that inhibits voiding due to situational anxiety. Because the outcomes of these studies determine the plan of care, the nurse must help the patient relax by providing as much privacy and explanation about the procedure as possible. Diuretics and increased fluid intake would not address the patient's anxiety. It would be inappropriate and anxiety-provoking to discuss test results during the performance of the test.

A patient's most recent laboratory findings indicate a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 58 mL/min. The nurse should recognize what implication of this diagnostic finding? A. The patient is likely to have a decreased level of blood urea nitrogen (BUN). B. The patient is at risk for hypokalemia. C. The patient is likely to have irregular voiding patterns. D. The patient is likely to have increased serum creatinine levels.

D. Increased serum creatinine levels Rationale: The adult GFR can vary from a normal of approximately 125 mL/min (1.67 to 2.0 mL/sec) to a high of 200 mL/min. A low GFR is associated with increased levels of BUN, creatinine, and potassium.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is going to have an open renal biopsy. What would be an important nursing action in preparing this patient for the procedure? A. Discuss the patient's diagnosis with the family B. Bathe the patient before the procedure with antiseptic skin wash C. Administer antivirals before sending the patient for the procedure D. Keep the patient NPO prior to the procedure

D. Keep the patient NPO Rationale: Preparation for an open biopsy is similar to that for any major abdominal surgery. When preparing the patient for an open biopsy you would keep the patient NPO. You may discuss the diagnosis with the family, but that is not a preparation for the procedure. A pre-procedure wash is not normally ordered and antivirals are not administered in anticipation of a biopsy.

The nurse performing the health interview of a patient with a new onset of periorbital edema has completed a genogram, noting the health history of the patient's siblings, parents, and grandparents. This assessment addresses the patient's risk of what kidney disorder? A. Nephritic syndrome B. Acute glomerulonephritis C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Polycystic kidney disease (PKD)

D. PKD Rationale: PKD is a genetic disorder characterized by the growth of numerous cysts in the kidneys. Nephritic syndrome, acute glomerulonephritis, and nephrotic syndrome are not genetic disorders.

A patient has experienced excessive losses of bicarbonate and has subsequently developed an acid-base imbalance. How will this lost bicarbonate be replaced? A. The kidneys will excrete increased quantities of acid. B. Bicarbonate will be released from the adrenal medulla. C. Alveoli in the lungs will synthesize new bicarbonate. D. Renal tubular cells will generate new bicarbonate.

D. Renal tubular cells will generate new bicarbonate. Rationale: To replace any lost bicarbonate, the renal tubular cells generate new bicarbonate through a variety of chemical reactions. This newly generated bicarbonate is then reabsorbed by the tubules and returned to the body. The lungs and adrenal glands do not synthesize bicarbonate. Excretion of acid compensates for a lack of bicarbonate, but it does not actively replace it.

A 15-year-old is admitted to the renal unit with a diagnosis of postinfectious glomerular disease. The nurse should recognize that this form of kidney disease may have been precipitated by what event? A. Psychosocial stress B. Hypersensitivity to an immunization C. Menarche D. Streptococcal infection

D. Strep Rationale: Postinfectious causes of postinfectious glomerular disease are group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the throat that precedes the onset of glomerulonephritis by 2 to 3 weeks. Menarche, stress, and hypersensitivity are not typical causes.

The care team is considering the use of dialysis in a patient whose renal function is progressively declining. Renal replacement therapy is indicated in which of the following situations? A. When the patient's creatinine level drops below 1.2 mg/dL (110 mmol/L) B. When the patient's blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is above 15 mg/dL C. When approximately 40% of nephrons are not functioning D. When about 80% of the nephrons are no longer functioning

D. When about 80% of the nephrons are no longer functioning. Rationale: When the total number of functioning nephrons is less than 20%, renal replacement therapy needs to be considered. Dialysis is an example of a renal replacement therapy. Prior to the loss of about 80% of the nephron functioning ability, the patient may have mild symptoms of compromised renal function, but symptom management is often obtained through dietary modifications and drug therapy. The listed creatinine and BUN levels are within reference ranges. BUN: 7-18, over 60 y.o it is 8-20 Cr: 0.6-1.2 (over 1.3, no pee pee!)

The nurse is caring for a patient with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus who has been recently diagnosed with end-stage kidney disease (ESKD). The patient has an elevated phosphorus level and has been prescribed calcium acetate to bind the phosphorus. The nurse should teach the patient to take the prescribed phosphorus-binding medication at what time? A. Only when needed B. Daily at bedtime C. First thing in the morning D. With each meal

D. With each meal Rationale: Both calcium carbonate and calcium acetate are medications that bind with the phosphate and assist in excreting the phosphate from the body, in turn lowering the phosphate levels. Phosphate-binding medications must be administered with food to be effective.