Exam 5
A Brescia-Cimino fistula for dialysis access is created most commonly from what two vessels? A. radial artery to cephalic vein B. brachial artery to median cubital vein C. radial artery to basilic vein D. ulnar artery to cephalic vein
A. radial artery to cephalic vein
What happens to the Doppler waveform in the celiac axis once a patient has eaten? A. remains the same B. shows an increase in systolic velocity C. shows a decrease in systolic velocity D. shows a decrease in both systolic and diastolic velocity
A. remains the same
Cavitation is best described as: A. sound interacting with microbubbles B. the circular motion of fluids seen in ultrasound C. conversion of sound energy into heat D. a parameter that describes acoustic output
A. sound interacting with microbubbles
What is the effect of estrogen on the uterus? A. stimulates growth and repair of the endometrium B. prepares the endometrium for implantation C. causes endometrial atrophy D. causes menstrual bleeding
A. stimulates growth and repair of the endometrium
The Adson maneuver is utilized to evaluate: A. thoracic outlet syndrome B. subclavian steal C. stenosis D. trauma
A. thoracic outlet syndrome
The non-invasive test was negative and this result was supported by the Gold Standard. This is called: A. true negative B. false negative C. true positive D. false positive
A. true negative
13. The two-cell stage of an embryo is called a/an: A. zygote B. morula C. oogonia D. blastocyst
A. zygote
Which of the following describes how to calculate ovarian volume? A. (length x width x height) ÷ 5 B. (length x width x height) x 0.523 C. (length + width + height) ÷ 5 D. (length + width + height) x 0.523
B. (length x width x height) x 0.523
In reviewing a laboratory's data of comparing carotid duplex and MRA, the following statistics were available: sensitivity 85%, specificity 95%, PPV 89%, and NPV 98%. Which of the following values could be the accuracy for this lab? A. 88% B. 92% C. 96% D. 98%
B. 92%
A 25-year-old woman presents for sonographic evaluation of the pelvis because of pain. The sonographer notes a high reflective echo collection within the uterine cavity. Which question should the sonographer ask the patient? A. Do you have a history of irregular menses? B. Do you have an IUD in place for contraception? C. Do you have a family history of cancer? D. Are you taking any medication?
B. Do you have an IUD in place for contraception?
What relationship does the right renal artery (RRA) have to the inferior vena cava (IVC)? A. RRA passes anterior to the IVC B. RRA passes posterior to the IVC C. RRA passes superior to the IVC D. RRA passes transverse to the IVC
B. RRA passes posterior to the IVC
A 29-year-old female presents for a pelvis sonogram because her IUD locator string is no longer present. There is no sonographic evidence of an IUD. Which of the following best describes the next step in this patient's evaluation? A. it can be assumed the IUD has been expulsed, and no other imaging studies are necessary B. a radiograph should be taken of the abdomen to rule out perforation of the IUD into the peritoneum C. a hysterosalpingogram should be ordered to rule out migration of the IUD into the fallopian tubes D. a hysterosonogram should be performed to better outline the endometrial cavity
B. a radiograph should be taken of the abdomen to rule out perforation of the IUD into the peritoneum
In the ECST criteria, the measurement of the ICA diameter for the denominator is obtained: A. proximal to the area of stenosis B. at the site of stenosis C. distal to the region of stenosis D. dependent upon the physician's preference
B. at the site of stenosis
The most important reason for performance of quality assurance is: A. reputation of the sonographer B. consistency in examination accuracy for patient management C. reputation of the interpreting physician D. marketing of the facility is enhanced
B. consistency in examination accuracy for patient management
A 75-year-old female presents for a pelvic sonogram because of increasing abdominal girth. The sonographer notices a 20 cm complex, predominantly cystic mass occupying most of the pelvis. There are multiple nodular components and septations within the mass that demonstrate vascular flow when evaluated with color Doppler imaging. These findings are most consistent with: A. cystic teratoma B. cystadenocarcinoma C. hemorrhagic cyst D. endometrioma
B. cystadenocarcinoma
Which of the following would not be a preventative maintenance responsibility of a sonographer? A. vacuuming the filters B. diagnostic testing of the transducers C. documentation of system defects D. disinfecting transducers
B. diagnostic testing of the transducers
What effect do high levels of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) have? A. growth and maturation of the corpus luteum B. growth and maturation of ovarian follicles C. growth and maturation of the endometrium D. stimulates ovulation
B. growth and maturation of ovarian follicles
Which of the following is responsible for the production and secretion of gonadatropin releasing hormones? A. pituitary gland B. hypothalamus C. uterus D. ovaries
B. hypothalamus
A 24-year-old female presents for a sonographic exam of the pelvis. The sonographer notices that the endometrium is isoechoic to the myometrium and outlined by a hyperechoic line, with another hyperechoic line in the center. One would assume that the patient is in which stage of her menstrual cycle? A. early proliferative B. late proliferative C. secretory phase D. luteal phase
B. late proliferative
A 34-year-old female of African descent presents with irregular, heavy periods. The sonographer notes a diffusely enlarged uterus containing multiple hypoechoic masses. This would be most consistent with: A. PID B. leiomyomas C. endometriosis D. uterine cancer
B. leiomyomas
Which of the following is a risk factor for venous abdominal vascular disease? A. smoking B. liver disease C. hypertension D. hypotension
B. liver disease
A normal Doppler signal in the SMA postprandial should be a: A. high resistance waveform with a PSV of 200 cm/s B. low resistance waveform C. low resistance waveform with a PSV of 200 cm/s D. high resistance waveform
B. low resistance waveform
Vascular compromise occurs during expiration with which condition? A. lymphedema B. median arcuate ligament syndrome C. Takayasu arteritis D. thoracic outlet syndrome
B. median arcuate ligament syndrome
An infection within an arterial wall causing a dilatation of the vessel walls is termed: A. pseudoaneurysm B. mycotic aneurysm C. fusiform aneurysm D. dissecting aneurysm
B. mycotic aneurysm
The left renal vein courses: A. anterior to the SMA and inferior to the aorta to enter the IVC B. posterior to the SMA and anterior to the aorta to enter the IVC C. lateral to the SMA and medial to the aorta to enter the IVC D. posterior to the celiac artery and anterior to the aorta to enter the IVC
B. posterior to the SMA and anterior to the aorta to enter the IVC
Which of the following is the most common indication for sonographic evaluation for endometrial carcinoma? A. pelvic pain B. postmenopausal bleeding C. abnormal vaginal discharge D. abnormal bleeding in the premenopausal patient
B. postmenopausal bleeding
What type of aneurysm most likely results from trauma? A. saccular B. pseudoaneurysm C. fusiform D. berry
B. pseudoaneurysm
Which of the following CANNOT be measured using a test object? A. lateral resolution B. resolution of a cystic structure C. axial resolution D. sensitivity of the system
B. resolution of a cystic structure
Which of the following hormone replacement regiments demonstrates cyclic variations in endometrial thickness in the postmenopausal uterus? A. continuous estrogen B. sequential therapy C. daily progestin and estrogen D. estrogen cream
B. sequential therapy
Which is a type of dialysis graft? A. curled synthetic B. straight PTFE C. cimino-ameil D. brescia swirled synthetic
B. straight PTFE
A 7-year-old female presents for pelvic sonography because of premature secondarysex characteristic development. The sonographer notes a pear-shaped uterus with the fundus proportionately larger than the cervix, and a 2 cm ovarian follicle. This would be most consistent with which of the following? A. this is a normal finding in pediatric patients B. the findings are associated with true precocious puberty C. the findings are characteristic of precocious pseudopuberty D. the patient should be evaluated for associated congenital renal anomalies
B. the findings are associated with true precocious puberty
A 32-year-old woman undergoing assisted reproduction would like to schedule oocyte retrieval within the next 2 days. The sonographer notes that the largest ovarian follicle measures 1.2 cm. Which of the following statements is true? the follicles are ready for A. administration of hCG and will be able to undergo oocyte retrieval within 30 - 34 hours B. the follicles are not ready for administration of hCG or oocyte retrieval C. the sonogram is irrelevant, because the only way to evaluate ovarian follicle maturation is through blood tests D. as long as there is no evidence of ovulation, oocyte retrieval can be scheduled
B. the follicles are not ready for administration of hCG or oocyte retrieval
What is the purpose of putting pressure or rubbing the tip of the endovaginal probe after sheathing? A. to check for leaks B. to eliminate air bubbles C. to make sure the sheath will not fall off D. to distribute the gel to the sides of the transducer
B. to eliminate air bubbles
Phalen's sign is an indication for sonography of which joint? A. shoulder B. wrist C. ankle D. elbow
B. wrist
Which of the following endometrial thickness measurement represents the upper-limit of normal in the premenopausal patient? A. 5 mm B. 8 mm C. 14 mm D. 24 mm
C. 14 mm
What is the size of the cuff used to obtain penile pressures? A. 3 cm x 14 cm B. 1.5 cm x 9 cm C. 2.5 cm x 9 cm D. 5 cm x 12 cm
C. 2.5 cm x 9 cm
A 75% diameter reduction is equivalent to which circumferential area reduction? A. 50% B. 90% C. 94% D. 99%
C. 94%
Which maneuver uses a gentle adduction and push against the infant's knee? A. Ortolani B. Push/pull C. Barlow D. Graf
C. Barlow
A small, T-shaped uterus is associated with which of the following? A. unicornuate uterus B. bicornuate uterus C. DES exposure D. septate uterus
C. DES exposure
Which of the following best describes the difference between First International Reference Preparation (FIRP) and the Second International Standard (2nd IS)? A. FIRP standards are inaccurate; only 2nd IS is accepted by the medical community B. 2nd IS is considered substandard, and only FIRP is accurate C. FIRP values are two times greater than 2nd IS D. 2nd IS is more pure than FIRP, so 2nd IS detects more beta subunits of hCG
C. FIRP values are two times greater than 2nd IS
While conducting statistical computations, the sonographer uses the formula: TP + TNTP + FP + TN + FN This formula is used to compute: A. PPV B. specificity C. accuracy D. sensitivity
C. accuracy
The artifact that gives the songrapher incorrect information on the tendon's integrity due to the sound beam not being perpendicular to the central axis is called: A. attenuation B. apodization C. anisotrophy D. refraction
C. anisotrophy
The first branch off the abdominal aorta is the: A. common iliac artery B. superior mesenteric artery C. celiac axis D. renal artery
C. celiac axis
A 23-year-old female presents for a pelvic sonogram with a history of a right adnexal mass palpated on clinical exam. The sonographer identifies a mass in the right adnexa that is complex in appearance, including an echogenic foci that casts a strong acoustic shadow. This would be most consistent with which of the following pathologies? A. corpus luteum cyst B. endometrioma C. cystic teratoma D. mucinous cystadenoma
C. cystic teratoma
What portion of the aorta passes through the aortic hiatus of the diaphragm to become the abdominal aorta? A. ascending aorta B. aortic arch C. descending aorta D. proximal aorta
C. descending aorta
In the NASCET criteria, the measurement of the ICA diameter for the denominator is obtained at: A. outer walls at the area of stenosis B. proximal to the bulb region C. distal to the bulb region D. proximal to the area of stenosis
C. distal to the bulb region
For a transabdominal pelvis sonogram, the patient should do which of the following prior to the examination? A. fast for 12 hours B. take a cleansing enema C. drink 24 oz - 32 oz of water 1 hour prior D. there are no preparations necessary for this examination
C. drink 24 oz - 32 oz of water 1 hour prior
A 30-year-old female presents with dysfunctional uterine bleeding. The sonographic images of the endometrium demonstrate a focal area of thickness with a small cystic component. In addition, color Doppler evaluation demonstrates a feeding vessel to the area. These findings are most consistent with which of the following? A. endometriosis B. submucosal fibroid C. endometrial polyp D. endometrial atrophy
C. endometrial polyp
Which of the following is an abnormal finding when performing duplex examination of the abdominal vessels? A. venous signals are spontaneous B. hepatofugal flow in the hepatic veins C. high resistance flow in the renal arteries D. low resistance flow in the celiac axis
C. high resistance flow in the renal arteries
Experiments performed in test tubes or culture media are known as: A. in vivo studies B. epidemiological studies C. in vitro studies D. cavitational studies
C. in vitro studies
Which of the following is a risk factor for ovarian cancer? A. premenonopause B. multiparity C. infertility D. family history of lung cancer
C. infertility
Having the patient place their hand on the opposite shoulder helps to evaluate which rotator cuff tendon? A. supraspinatus B. biceps C. infraspinatus D. subscapularis
C. infraspinatus
Which of the following vessels could be used as a bypass conduit? A. ulnar artery B. brachial artery C. internal mammary artery D. lumbar artery
C. internal mammary artery
Which statement about angiography is false? A. contrast agent is used to visualize the anatomy B. anatomy on obese patients can be seen C. is a noninvasive procedure D. can be performed on a post surgical patient
C. is a noninvasive procedure
Which of the following is a gonadatropin? A. estrogen B. progesterone C. luteinizing hormone D. follicle stimulating hormone releasing factor
C. luteinizing hormone
Which of the following best describes the scanning technique to document endometrial thickness? A. coronally, through the double thickness layers, at the level of the fundus B. coronally, through a single thickness layer, at the level of the corpus C. midline sagittal, through the thickest portion of the double layers D. midline sagittal, through the thickest portion of a single layer
C. midline sagittal, through the thickest portion of the double layers
Which of the following is most suggestive of ovarian malignancy? A. thin septations B. anechoic C. mural nodules D. increased vascular impedance
C. mural nodules
Which of the following best describes sonohysterography? A. iodine is injected into the patient's veins, which subsequently provides contrast enhancement of the uterus B. an iodine solution is injected into the patient's uterine cavity to outline the uterus on x-ray C. normal saline is instilled into the patient's uterine cavity to outline the cavity during sonographic evaluation D. the uterine cavity is evaluated by a transducer mounted on a hysteroscope
C. normal saline is instilled into the patient's uterine cavity to outline the cavity during sonographic evaluation
A penile/brachial index of 0.62 would indicate: A. normal penile study B. venous leak C. penile arterial insufficiency D. external iliac artery disease
C. penile arterial insufficiency
During arterial mapping of the radial artery, you should do all of the following except: A. determine if there is a calcified wall B. measure the peak systolic velocities proximal and distal C. perform reactive hyperemia on the arm Dmeasure the diameter of the vessel
C. perform reactive hyperemia on the arm
Why is it necessary to add progestin to hormone therapy in a postmenopausal patient who has not had a hysterectomy? A. progestin protects against osteoporosis B. progestin protects against heart attacks C. progestin counteracts the endometrial proliferation caused by continuous estrogen stimulation, thus decreasing the risk for uterine cancer D. progestin helps reactivate the ovaries and relieve the symptoms of menopause
C. progestin counteracts the endometrial proliferation caused by continuous estrogen stimulation, thus decreasing the risk for uterine cancer
Which of the following uterine variants are best evaluated using the sagittal scanning plane? A. levoflexion B. dextroflexion C. retroflexion D. uterine duplication
C. retroflexion
The ability of a test to detect disease when it is really present is called: A. accuracy B. specificity C. sensitivity D. PPV
C. sensitivity
Which of the following best describes how to sonographically assess if the patient's bladder is distended adequately for an ultrasound examination? A. transverse evaluation should demonstrate the bladder occupying most of the pelvic space B. if the ovaries can be demonstrated transversely, the bladder is sufficiently filled C. the bladder should extend just beyond the uterine fundus on sagittal imaging D. on sagittal imaging, the bladder is considered adequately distended when the uterus is parallel to the scanning table
C. the bladder should extend just beyond the uterine fundus on sagittal imaging
A history of vaginal bleeding with a negative pregnancy test should prompt the sonographer to pay close attention to which of the following? A. the ovaries B. the myometrium C. the endometrium D. the fallopian tubes
C. the endometrium
An instrument that can be utilized to evaluate the ultrasound systems sensitivity, dynamic range, and elevational resolution is: A. test object phantom B. string phantom C. tissue equivalent phantom D. mechanical phantom
C. tissue equivalent phantom
Which of the following gestational structures produces hCG? A. zona pellucidi B. mesoderm C. trophoblast D. zygote
C. trophoblast
An 18-year-old female presents for pelvic sonography with a history of two vaginas. The sonographic images demonstrate two uterine horns and two cervices. This would be most consistent with which of the following? A. uterine aplasia B. bicornuate uterus C. uterus didelphys D. septate uterus
C. uterus didelphys
A renal artery to aortic ratio (RAR) greater than ________ is considered abnormal. A. 1.5 B. 2.0 C. 3.0 D. 3.5
D. 3.5
Xanthomas are found in association with which tendon? A. biceps B. supraspinatus C. radial D. Achilles'
D. Achilles'
Before performing an endovaginal examination, which question should be asked of the patient before selecting the proper transducer sheath? A. Do you have a sensitivity to vinyl products? B. Are you allergic to ultrasound gel?C. Are you allergic to iodine? D. Do you have latex allergies?
D. Do you have latex allergies?
In which portion of the fallopian tube does fertilization normally occur? A. infundibulum B. interstitial C. isthmus D. ampulla
D. ampulla
Which would reveal a 'halo' appearance on a sonographic image? A. stenosis B. thoracic outlet syndrome C. trauma D. arteritis
D. arteritis
A 72-year-old female presents with bleeding. The sonographer notes an endometrial thickness measurement of 12 mm. This would be most suggestive of: A. a normal finding B. adenomyosis C. endometriosis D. endometrial cancer
D. endometrial cancer
Which of the following represents the most common cause of abnormal uterine bleeding in premenopausal and postmenopausal women? A. uterine cancer B. endometrial polyps C. uterine leiomyomas D. endometrial hyperplasia
D. endometrial hyperplasia
The non-invasive test was negative and the Gold Standard was positive. What is this called? A. true positive B. false positive C. true negative D. false negative
D. false negative
A patient is instructed to position herself so that her knees are flexed with her feet in exam stirrups. Which of the following is the term for this position? A. decubitus B. Trendelenberg C. reverse Trendelenberg D. lithotomy position
D. lithotomy position
Another name for the term that describes pain developing 15 - 30 minutes after eating is: A. cardiac angina B. hypotension C. stasis D. mesenteric ischemia
D. mesenteric ischemia
Using the information from the previous question, which of the following best describes the most likely appearance of the ovaries at the time of the sonographic evaluation? A. a corpus luteum may be evident B. the ovaries will most likely contain multiple small follicles C. one ovary will most likely demonstrate a collapsed follicle D. one ovary will most likely demonstrate a dominant follicle approach 2 cm
D. one ovary will most likely demonstrate a dominant follicle approach 2 cm
Which of the following describes the path of the SMA? A. originates from the lateral aspect of the aorta and courses superior to feed the stomach B. originates from the anterior aspect of the aorta and courses along the posterior-medial surface of the pancreatic head C. originates from the posterior aspect of the aorta and courses inferior along the spine D. originates from the anterior aspect of the aorta and courses inferior to feed the small intestine and colon
D. originates from the anterior aspect of the aorta and courses inferior to feed the small intestine and colon
Which of the following is responsible for the production and secretion of estrogen and progesterone? A. pituitary gland B. hypothalamus C. uterus D. ovaries
D. ovaries
18. Which of the following is most likely to increase a female's risk for infertility? A. having a retroverted uterus B. a history of ovarian cysts C. using contraceptives for more than 5 years D. pelvic inflammatory disease
D. pelvic inflammatory disease
A TIPS procedure is used for the treatment of: A. renovascular hypertension B. mesenteric ischemia C. aortic aneurysm D. portal hypertension
D. portal hypertension
A 75-year-old woman presents for sonographic evaluation of her pelvis because of a suspected mass. What patient history would be most helpful? A. medication history B. obstetrical history C. menstrual history D. prior imaging studies
D. prior imaging studies
How do high levels of estrogen affect FSH? A. production of FSH from the hypothalamus will increase B. production of FSH from the ovaries will increase C. production of FSH from the ovaries will decrease D. production of FSH from the pituitary will decrease
D. production of FSH from the pituitary will decrease
A sonographic 'yin-yang' appearance is seen in: A. arteriovenous fistula B. hematoma C. hemodialysis graft D. pseudoaneurysm
D. pseudoaneurysm
Which of the following represents the most common form of ovarian cancer? A. Brenner tumor B. dysgerminoma C. endometriod tumor D. serous cystadenocarcinoma
D. serous cystadenocarcinoma
Which type of leiomyoma tends to be the most symptomatic? A. subserosal B. intramural C. interstitial D. submucosal
D. submucosal
Which of the following is best evaluated on a sagittal image to the right of midline in the uterus? A. the vagina B. the cervix C. the endometrium D. the myometrium
D. the myometrium
A thermal index (TI) of 3 indicates which of the following? A. a normal TI value B. increase your output level C. the receive gain should be decreased D. the output level may be excessively high
D. the output level may be excessively high
A 15-year-old female presents for a pelvis ultrasound examination because of intense pelvic pain. The sonographer should focus on which of the following? A. the endometrium for signs of endometrial cancer B. the ovaries for evidence of a dermoid C. the uterus for evidence of a fibroid D. the ovaries for signs of torsion
D. the ovaries for signs of torsion
What is the most likely cause of stenosis in a hemodialysis access graft? A. atherosclerosis B. arteritis C. fibromuscular dysplasia D. thrombus
D. thrombus
Which of the following is an indication for a hip sonogram? a. increased birth weight b. family history of displacement c. foot deformity d. all of the above
d. all of the above
Which of the following transducers is best for pediatric hip sonography? a. curved linear 3.5 MHz b. curved linear 10 MHz c. flat linear 3.5 MHz d. flat linear7.5MHz
d. flat linear 7.5MHz
What is the main nerve of interest in carpal tunnel syndrome? a. ulnar nerve b. radial nerve c. suprascapular d. median
d. median
Which maneuver gives a sonographic appearance of a flower? a. coronal with neutral hip position b. coronal with hip flexion c. transverse with hip flexion d. transverse with neutral position of hip
d. transverse with neutral position of hip
Rheumatoid arthritis can cause all the above except: a. tendinosis b. hyperemia c. numbness and tingling d. erosion
hyperemia.
Tendons are most often connectors between which two anatomical structures? a. muscle to muscle b. muscle to bone c. ligaments to bone d. bones to bone
muscle to bone
The routine evaluation of equipment performance and routine maintenance is called: A. mechanical index B. temporal index C. biological effect D. quality assurance
quality assurance
Where is the acetabular labrum located? a. lateral surface of the ilium b. superolateral aspect of the femoral head c. posterolateral aspect of the femoral head d. superolateral aspect of the femoral head
superolateral aspect of the femoral head
Which protocol does the sonographer keep the legs neutral with a 15 degree - 20 degree flexion and see the ilium as a straight line? a. coronal with neutral hip position b. coronal with hip flexion c. transverse with hip flexion d. transverse with neutral position of hip
a. coronal with neutral hip position
With subluxation of the biceps tendon, the bicipital groove will appear: a. empty b. full of fluid c. echogenic with a fibrillar pattern d. normal
a. empty
Which of the following bones create the pelvic girdle? a. ilium, ischium, pubis b. ilium, ischium, femoral head c. ischium, pubis, acetabulum d. pubis, femoral head, acetabulum
a. ilium, ischium, pubis
Abduction is defined as: a. move away from the medial b. move toward the medial c. rotate medial d. rotate lateral
a. move away from the medial
Which of the following is a double walled tubular structure surrounding some tendons? a. synovial sheath b. bursa c. ligaments d. nerve
a. synovial sheath
During what week of gestation should medial rotation of the lower limbs occur? A. 6 B. 10 C. 12 D. 18
c. 12
A 19-year-old female presents for a pelvic sonogram because of a positive pregnancy test. The beta hCG levels were 800 mIU/ml (FIRP). There is no sonographic evidence of an intrauterine gestational sac. Which of the following is true? a. hCG levels do not relate to sonographic findings and are irrelevant b. hCG level is above the discriminatory zone, therefore, it should be assumed the patient has an ectopic pregnancy c. hCG level is below the discriminatory zone, therefore, the pregnancy may be too early to detect sonographically d. hCG level is markedly elevated, and is worrisome for trophoblastic disease
c. hCG level is below the discriminatory zone, therefore, the pregnancy may be too early to detect sonographically
When scanning the Achilles' tendon the foot should remain: a. flexed b. extended c. hanging comfortable prone off the bed or chair d. supine
c. hanging comfortable prone off the bed or chair
Which of the following is proper patient position for hip exams? a. infant prone and legs straight b. infant prone and legs relaxed c. infant supine and legs relaxed d. infant supine and legs straight
c. infant supine and legs relaxed
Which of the following infertility treatments is NOT considered an assisted reproductive technique? A. ovulation stimulation with clomiphene citrate B. IVF C. ZIFT D. GIFT
A. ovulation stimulation with clomiphene citrate
A 9 mm carotid artery 'bulb' has a stenosis with a residual lumen of 4 mm and a distal ICA diameter of 4 mm. What is the percent stenosis using the NASCET method? A. 0% B. 44% C. 66% D. 100%
A. 0%
Which of the following transducers is generally used to interrogate abdominal vessels in an adult? A. 3 MHz B. 7 MHz C. 10 MHz D. 12.5 MHz
A. 3 MHz
Sonographic evidence of a hypoechoic, irregular-shaped structure within the ovary most likely represents which of the following? A. a corpus luteum B. a graafian follicle C. a primordial follicle D. a secondary ovarian follicle
A. a corpus luteum
A resistive index of less than 0.7 in a renal allograft indicates: A. a normal exam B. renal infarction C. transplant rejection D. renal stenosis
A. a normal exam
Which of the following has a low resistance waveform in its normal state? A. celiac artery B. SMA in a fasting patient C. aorta D. common femoral artery
A. celiac artery
An enlarged, heterogenous uterus is associated with which form of adenomyosis? A. diffuse B. focal C. atypical D. degenerative
A. diffuse
Which of the following hormones is responsible for abnormal proliferation of the endometrium? A. estrogen B. progesterone C. lutenizing hormone D. follicle stimulating hormone
A. estrogen
Which of the following describes sonographic evidence of impending ovulation? A. evidence of anechoic follicles measuring 18 mm - 22 mm B. evidence of a corpus luteum C. a thick, hyperechoic endometrium D. endometrial thickness less then 10 mm
A. evidence of anechoic follicles measuring 18 mm - 22 mm
Which of the following describes an indication for sonohysterography? A. evidence of focal thickening of the endometrium B. evaluate for a pedunculated fibroid C. confirm intrauterine pregnancy D. rule out PID
A. evidence of focal thickening of the endometrium
A patient with arterial thoracic outlet syndrome might exhibit any of the following symptoms except: A. focal pain in the temporal area B. arm pain C. 'pins and needle' sensation D. cyanosis of the arm in certain positions
A. focal pain in the temporal area
A 12-year-old female presents for pelvic sonography with abdominal pain. Thepatient states that she has not started menstruating yet and is not sexually active. The sonographer identifies a large fluid collection within the uterine and vaginal cavity. This finding is consistent with which of the following? A. hematometrocolpos B. endometrial cancer C. cervical stenosis D. septate uterus
A. hematometrocolpos
Flow into the liver is called: A. hepatopetal flow B. hepatofugal flow C. collateral flow D. perforating flow
A. hepatopetal flow
A patient with a history of resolved pelvic inflammatory disease presents for a pelvic sonogram because of infertility. Sonographic images demonstrate a normal uterus and ovaries. However, there is an anechoic, dilated, serpiginous tubular structure apparent in the left adnexa. This would be most consistent with: A. hydrosalpinx B. pyosalpinx C. peritoneal adhesions D. tubo-ovarian abscess
A. hydrosalpinx
12. Which of the following best describes an advantage of the transabdominal pelvic imaging technique? A. it provides a global view of the pelvis B. high frequency transducers can typically be used C. the patient does not need to fill her bladder D. a relatively close look at the uterus and ovaries is possible
A. it provides a global view of the pelvis
Endovaginal scanning techniques are beneficial for all of the following except: A. large pelvic masses B. endometrial pathology C. retropositioned uterus D. distinguishing bowel from adnexal masses
A. large pelvic masses
Which of the following anomalies may warrant further evaluation of the kidneys? A. mullerian anomalies of the uterus B. a T-shaped uterus because of DES exposure C. agenesis of the ovaries D. multiple ovarian cysts
A. mullerian anomalies of the uterus
Which of the following will appear as a cyst in the cervical region? A. nabothian cyst B. cervical cancer C. cervical myoma D. Gartner's duct cyst
A. nabothian cyst
A 32-year-old woman undergoing fertility treatment reports for sonographic evaluation because of pelvic pain. Considering this medical history, which unique abnormality might the sonographer encounter? A. ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome B. uterine fibroids C. DES exposure D. adenomyosis
A. ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome