Exam Review Questions- Clinical Evaluation and Diagnosis
Which of the following medications is not an antihistamine drug? A. Dimetapp B. Ultram C. Benadryl D. Claritin E. Allegra
B
Which of the following muscles is not involved in internal rotation of the hip? A. Adductor Magnus B. Gluteus Maximus C. Gracilis D. Tensor fasciae latae E. Gluteus minimus
B
If the palpable "clunk" or short at approximately 20 to 30 degrees of knee flexion is found during a pivot-shift test, this may be indicative of what? A. Anterolateral rotary instability of the knee B. Anteromedial rotary instability of the knee C. Posterolateral rotary instability of the knee D. Posteromedial rotary instability of the knee E. Posterior instability of the knee
A
Mumps is a contagious viral disease that is primarily manifested by: A. Parotitis B. Splenomegaly C. Retinopathy D. Maculopapular rash E. Pancreatitis
A
Panner's disease is an osteochondrosis of which of the following? A. Capitellum B. Tibial tubercle C. Olecranon D. First ray of the foot E. Talus
A
The athlete may have difficulty performing what actions if the medial and lateral pectoral nerves are injured? A. Flexion, adduction, and internal rotation of the upper arm B. Shoulder shrugs C. Abduction and external rotation of the upper arm D. Extension, internal rotation, and adduction of the upper arm E. Flexion, abduction, and external rotation of the upper arm
A
To test the function of the rhomboid major muscle, the athletic trainer should ask the athlete to perform what movement? A. Scapular retraction B. Shoulder internal rotation C. Scapular protraction D. Shoulder shrug E. Shoulder external rotation
A
What is a quick method of testing the motor ability of the sacroiliac nerve root? A. Have the athlete walk on his or her toes B. Manually resist ankle inversion C. Manually resist great toe extension D. Assess the athletes ability to squat E. Resisted ankle eversion
A
What is one of the greatest concerns and primary life-threatening effect of rhabdomyolysis? A. Renal failure B. Heart failure C. High blood glucose levels D. Heart arrhythmias E. Blunt trauma to the abdomen
A
What is the best position for the patient to be in to muscle test the piriformis? A. Sitting B. Prone C. Supine D. Side lying E. Standing
A
What is the sensation that an athlete might experience just prior to an epileptic seizure called? A. An aura B. A hallucination C. A delusion D. Pre-epileptic vertigo E. A premonition
A
What position is "recommended" position for manually muscles testing the gluteus medius muscles? A. Sidelying, with the affected limb on top B. Supine C. Prone D. Sitting E. Standing
A
What type of force typically causes injury tot he medial collateral ligament, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate ligament of the knee? A. A valgus force with the tibia in external rotation B. A varus force with the knee in full extension C. A valgus force with the femur in external rotation D. A valgus force with the knee in recurvatum E. A valgus force with the knee in full flexion
A
When evaluating the inert structure of a joint, passive range of motion is used to determine all of the following except: A. The athlete's willingness to move B. Limitations of joint motion C. Joint stability D. Muscle elasticity E. Soft tissue elasticity
A
Which 2 structures are injured with a Bankart lesion? A. Anterior capsule of the shoulder and the glenoid labrum B. The inferior capsule of the shoulder and glenoid fossa C. The articular surface of the humeral head and glenoid labrum D. The surgical neck of the humerus and the coracoacromial ligament E. The acromioclavicular joint and glenoid fossa
A
Which of the following conditions is also known as Graves' disease? A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypothyroidism C. Hirsutism D. Hyperparathyroidism E. Polymyositis
A
An athlete informs the athletic trainer that he is taking tetracycline for a respiratory infection. Tetracycline will bind with which of the following 2 minerals to form a non absorbable complex ( and therefore should not be taken before meals)? A. Potassium and zinc B. Sodium and magnesium C. Iron and calcium D. Iron and phosphorus E. Folic acid and niacin
C
An athlete is poked in the eye with a finger and comes to the athletic trainer for evaluation. He is having significant difficulty opening his eye. Which of the following muscles might have sustained an injury? A. Levator capitis inferioris B. Splenius capitis C. Levator palpebrae superioris D. Levator palpebrae orbitis E. Scalenes
C
An athlete reports having had a recent upper respiratory infection 2 weeks ago and is now having rapidly evolving bilateral muscle weakness of unknown origin. He is afebrile. What should the athletic trainer suspect? A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Autonomic dysreflexia C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Acute myelogenous lymphoma E. Lyme disease
C
An athlete you have just evaluated for a possible head injury has a noticeable facial droop on the left side of his face. Which cranial nerve(s) is involved? A. I B. IV, V C. VII D. III, IX E. II, VI
C
A patient comes to the athletic training facility after being kicked in the lower leg by an opponent during a football game. He is complaining of decreased sensation in the L4 dermatome. What is this change in sensation called? A. Paresthesia B. Hypoesthesia C. Hyperesthesia D. Referred pain E. Anesthesia
B
A patient has wrist injury that is limiting his ability to supination his forearm. In what plane of motion does supination and pronation of the forearm take place (in anatomical position)? A. Frontal B. Horizontal C. Sagittal D. Vertical E. A and C
B
One of your female gymnasts has been complaining of feeling generally fatigued on a constant basis. After being examined by the team physician, he orders a complete blood count. This blood test assess all of the following except: A.Red blood count B. White blood cell count C. Plasma volume D. Hemoglobin levels E. Platelet count
C
What position should the athlete's shoulder be in to manually test the deltoids? A. Abducted to 0 degrees and externally rotated to 45 degrees B. Abducted to 90 degrees C. Flexed with the palm down D. Extended with the palm up E. Extended with the palm down
B
Which of the following is a simple movement to check the integrity of the radial nerve? A. Elbow flexion B. Wrist extension C. Forearm supination D. Thumb-to-little finger opposition E. Shoulder flexion
B
Speed's test is an evaluative test for which of the following problems? A. Thoracic outlet syndrome B. Supraspinatus tendinitis C. Bicipital tendinitis D. Ruptured biceps tendon E. Rupture of the brachialis muscle
C
The biceps brachii tendon relfex correlates to what spinal level? A. C2 B. C4 C. C5 D. C6 E. C7
C
The supinator muscle is innervated by which of the following nerves? A. Musculocutaneous nerves B. Axillary nerve C. Radial nerve D. Median nerve E. A and D
C
What is the typical mechanism of injury for an anterior shoulder dislocation? A. Shoulder abduction with internal rotation B. Maximal should extension C. Shoulder abduction with external rotation D. Shoulder adduction with internal rotation E. Shoulder flexion with internal rotation
C
What may proteinuria indicate? A. Pancreatitis B. Possible gallstones C. Renal or urinary tract pathology D. Diabetes E. Crohn's disease
C
What problem might the athletic trainer see if the L4 nerve root was compressed? A. Hip flexor weakness B. Plantar flexion weakness C. Knee extension weakness D. Dorsiflexion weakness E. Drop foot
C
Which dermatome correlates tot he T7 nerve root? A. Axilla B. Nipple line C. Typhoid process, costal margin D. Umbilicus E. Anterior superior iliac spine
C
Which muscle supinates the forearm and flexes the shoulder? A. Brachialis B. Coracobrachialis C. Biceps brachii D. Flexor policies longus E. Pronator quadratus
C
Which nerves innervate the hip adductor musculature? A. Femoral, superior gluteal B. Femoral, tibial C. Femoral, obturator D. Femoral, obturator, inferior gluteal E. Tibial, obturator
C
Which of the following is not an NSAID? A. Aspirin B. Motrin C. Tylenol D. Celebrex E. Aleve
C
Which of the following muscles does not extend the trunk? A. Semispinalis (thoracic) B. Erector spinae C. Quadratus lumborum D. Multifidi E. Gluteus maximus
C
Which of the following signs is tested for when a deep vein thrombosis is suspected after a traumatic incident occurs involving the lower leg? A. Babinski's sign B. Thompson's sign C. Homan's sign D. Battle's sign E. Ballotment sign
C
What is the most common mechanism of injury of an anterior shoulder dislocation? A. Adduction and external rotation B. Abduction and internal rotation C. Adduction and internal rotation D. Abduction and external rotation E. Abduction and extension
D
When an athlete reports to the athletic trainer complaining of lateral hip pain, all of the following conditions might be the source of pain except: A. Trochanteric bursitis B. Strain of the gluteus medius C. Lumbar discogenic disease D. Avulsion of the ischial tuberosity E. Strain of the TFL
D
Which of the following conditions often contributes to shoulder impingement? A. Acute bicipital tendinitis B. Suprascapular nerve entrapment C. Adhesive capsulitis D. Glenohumeral instability E. Serratus anterior weakness
D
Which of the following is not a good source of vitamin C? A. Broccoli B. Strawberries C. Oranges D. Nuts E. Spinach
D
Which of the following muscles does not extend and laterally flex the neck? A. Splenius capitis B. Splenius cervicis C. Levator scapulae D. Sternocleidomastoid E. Multifidus
D
Which of the following organisms is the most common causes of vaginitis in women? A. AIDS B. Gential herpes C. Chlamydia trachomatis D. Candida E. Gonorrhea
D
While training in a high-altitude climate (e.g., 9000 to 10,000 feet), a rock climber experiences acute dyspnea, cough, headache, and weakness. What is the probable cause of these symptoms? A. Asthma B. Pleurisy C. Bronchitis D. Pulmonary edema E. Pneumonia
D
During your examination of a football player who has sustained a low back injury during a tackle, you find that he is reporting dulled sensation along the dorm of his right foot, he has difficulty walking on his heels, and his patellar tendon reflex is diminished. You suspect which of the following nerve root(s) is affected? A. L3 B. L4 C. L2 D. S1 to S3 E. L5
E
Lysosomes function to do which of the following during the inflammatory process? A. Increase vascular permeability B. Cease the inflammatory process C. Cause platelets to adhere tot he collagen matrix D. Act as a catalyst in the formation of bradykinin E. Contain enzymes that digest material brought into the cytoplasm of the cells during phagocytosis
E
One of the hormones that the pancreas produces is glucagon. What is the function of this hormone? A. It stimulates the increase of glucose transport out of the blood and into cells B. It facilitates a build-up of glucose in the liver C. It stimulates an increase in metabolism D. It facilitates the breakdown of the fat in the pancreas E. It stimulates the release of glucose from the liver into the blood
E
The adrenal glands release all of the following hormones except: A. Aldosterone B. Cortisol C. Epinephrine D. Norepinephrine E. Growth hormone
E
The athletic trainer performs a cervical distraction test on a patient. A positive finding is observed. This is indicative of which of the following: A. Tumor B. Soft tissue inflammation C. Traction injury tot he brachial plexus D. Cervical disc herniation E. A nerve root compression or facet dysfunction
E
What internal organ is diseased if the athlete presents with jaundice? A. Spleen B. Pancreas C. Gallbladder D. Kidney E. Liver
E
What is spina bifida occulta? A. Complete herniation of the spinal cord and meninges through a defect in the neural tube B. Complete herniation of the meninges through a defect in the neural tube C. Partial herniation of the spinal cord and meninges through a defect in the neutral tube D. Partial herniation of the meninges through a defect in the neural tube E. The incomplete formation of the posterior vertebral arch without herniation of the meninges or spinal cord
E
What is the average range of motion of knee flexion? A. 0 to 180 degrees B. 0 to 120 degrees C. 0 to 100 degrees D. 0 to 155 degrees E. 0 to 135 degrees
E
When evaluating a patient for Sinding-Larsen-Johansson disease, the athletic trainer should be sure to do the following: A. Abduct, extend, and externally rotate the shoulder while palpating B. Palpate for effusion over Gerdy's tubercle C. Perform Thompson's test D. Check the level of the sacroiliac joints E. Palpate the inferior patellar pole with the patient's knee extended and the patellar tendon relaxed
E
Which muscle grade denotes active muscle movement in a gravity-eliminated position? A. -3/5 B. +3/5 C. 5/5 D. 1/5 E. 2/5
E
A disease that makes the skin appear to be yellow
jaundice
All of the following are symptoms of caffeine withdrawal except: A. Diaphoresis B. Fatigue C. Headache D. Irritability E. Runny nose
A
An athlete sustains a blunt trauma injury to the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. What structure might be injured in this area? A. Liver B. Gallbladder C. Spleen D. Pancreas E. Kidney
A
Changes in blood pressure may occur as a result of many factors. Two of these factors may include _________ and __________. A. Exercise, change in posture B. Change in posture, respiratory rate C. Level of consciousness, body size D. Respiratory rate, pH levels of the blood E. Change in mood, respiratory rate
A
A patient has been diagnosed with bulimia and has a known history of laxative abuse. Complications of chronic laxative use include which of the following? A. Electrolyte imbalance and dehydration B. Hyperactivity C. Hematemesis D. Chronic nasal congestion E. All of the above
A
A patient reports tot he athletic trainer with the presence of lesions on his upper lip and mouth area that look like blisters with a crushed yellow appearance and a red, weeping base. What is the probable cause of these lesions? A. Impetigo B. HIV C. Shingles D. A fungus infection E. Hives
A
Which of the following tests is appropriate to perform if the athletic trainer suspects the athlete has meningitis? A. Brudzinski-Kernig test B. Milgram's test C. Beevor's test D. Halstead's maneuver E. Bowstring test
A
________ and _________ are 2 signs of diabetic coma. A. Drownsiness, acetone-smelling breath B. Seizures, pale/clammy skin C. Seizures, a bounding pulse D. Flushed skin, giddiness E. Pale skin, weak pulse
A
What does a positive drop-arm sign indicate? A. Posterior shoulder subluxation B. Torn rotator cuff muscle C. Axillary nerve injury D. A labral tear E. Humeral head fracture
B
A type V Salter-Harris fracture involves what kind of fracture through the physeal plate? A. The epiphysis and metaphysis separate without fragmentation B. A crush injury tot he epiphysis C. The epiphysis and metaphysis separate with fragmentation D. The epiphysis, metaphysis, and physics all separate from each other E. The metaphysics is separated with fragmentation
B
Allen's test is used to test what? A. The integrity of the vertebral arteries B. The integrity of the radial and ulnar arteries of the hand C. For carpal tunnel syndrome D. For tarsal tunnel syndrome E. Integrity of the ulnar nerve
B
An athlete collides with a teammate during an ice hockey game and sustains a blow to the jaw with his hands and is in intense pain. All of the following procedures will assist the athletic trainer in determining if there is a fracture of the jaw except: A. Have the athlete bite and observe for a malocclusion B. Palpate the jaw for a hematoma C. Ask the athlete to open and close his mouth, noting asymmetry with movement D. Palpate for jaw deformity when it is at rest, open, and closed E. See if the athlete can retract his jaw and observe for difficulty with movement
B
An athlete sustains a blow to the head with a temporary loss of consciousness. He appears to have a lucid period in which he seems to be normal for a period of a couple of hours and then becomes significantly lethargic. What type of medial emergency would the athletic trainer suspect? A. Ruptured intervertebral disc at level C3,4 B. Extradural hemorrhage C. Basical fracture D. Subdural hemorrhage E. Contrecoup fracture
B
During your examination of an athlete who has been complaining of weakness when using the rowing machine in the weight room, you notice his latissimus doors muscle appears atrophied. Which nerve is affected? A. Trigeminal B. Thoracodorsal C. Dorsal scapular D. Thoracic spinal E. None of the above
B
Following multiple ankle sprains over the course of the year, the athletic trainer detects some weakness of the investors and evertors of an athletes ankle. Which of the following muscles does not invert the ankle? A. Tibialis posterior B. Extensor digitorum longus C. Flexor digitorum longus D. Flexor hallucis longus E. C and D
B
If a patient whom an athletic trainer is working with a history of asthma, what daily test should he or she use to monitor that patient's condition? A. Metered-dose inhaler B. Peak flow meter C. Ventilator D. Breatholizer E. Volume spirometer
B
If there is inflammation at the site of the medial epicondyle of the elbow, which of the following would be positive? A. Tennis elbow test B. Golfer's elbow test C. Tinel's sign D. Finkelstein's test E. Allen's test
B
Sickle-cell anemia may cause rhabdomyolysis in the athlete. Which if the following is a cardinal sign of rhabdomyolysis? A. Bleeding from the ear B. The presence of the myoglobin in the urine C. Yellowing of the nail beds of the fingers and toes D. Yellowing of the conjuctiva of the eyes E. Dyspnea
B
The flexor pollicis longus is responsible for which of the following action(s)? A. Great toe flexion B. Thumb flexion C. Thumb flexion and adduction D. Thumb flexion and abduction E. None of the above
B
The maximal rate at which oxygen is consumed and utilized while exercising is known as the maximal oxygen consumption, or VO2 max. What is the normal range of VO2 max for an average college athlete? A. 80 to 100 mL/kg/min B. 45 to 60 mL/kg/min C. 70 to 80 mL/kg/min D. 45 to 60 dL/g/min E. 25 to 40 mL/kg/min
B
Type I diabetes is characterized by an impaired capacity to secrete insulin due to a beta cell defect. This type of diabetes is commonly seen in what type of individual? A. Obese, geriatric B. Lean, insulin dependent C. Noninsulin dependent, obese D. Noninsulin dependent, juvenile E. None of the above
B
A patient with an infection or serious disease, such as leukemia, might demonstrate an abnormally raised white blood cell count. What is the normal leukocyte count? A. 200,000 to 400,000/cu mm B. 500 to 1500/cu mm C. 4000 to 10,000/cu mm D. 1000 to 40,000/cu mm E. 250 to 500/cu mm
C
All of the following are useful in evaluating low back pathology except: A. Valsalvas maneuver B. Bilateral straight leg test C. Scouring test D. Lasègues test E. Slump test
C
Which of the following structures is not part of the pelvis? A. Coccyx B. Public symphysis C. Ileum D. Innominate bones E. Sacrum
C
With the patient siting, the scapula stabilized, and the shoulder maximally flexed, the patient complains of pain and appears apprehensive. This is a positive _________ test. A. Yergason's B. Speed's C. Neer's D. Compression E. Hawkins-Kennedy
C
What is the hallmark sign of peripheral arterial disease? A. Numbness of the hands and feet B. Pallor of the hands and feet C. Hyperlipidemia D. Intermittent claudication E. Pain and cramping of the lower extremities while in sitting
D
A football quarterback is sacked during a game. He comes off the field holding his throwing arm and and complains of chest and anterior shoulder pain. After evaluating the athlete, the athletic trainer suspects a torn pectoralis major muscle. Which of the following physical findings will be seen of the athletic trainer id correct? A. Ecchymosis around the typhoid process B. Palpable defect in the posterior axilla C. Weakness in abduction and external rotation D. Weakness in adduction, flexion, and internal rotation of the affected arm E. Weakness in adduction and external rotation
D
A gymnast reports tot he athletic trainer with a complain of low back pain, which has been present for approximately 1 week. After being sent to the doctor for evaluation, a "Scottie dog" defect is seen on x-ray. This finding confirms which condition? A. Fractured transverse process of a vertebra B. Fractured demarcate of a vertebra C. Spondylolisthesis D. Spondylolysis E. A and B
D
A second-degree medial collateral ligament sprain is characterized by all of the following expect: A. Pain along the medial joint line B. No gross knee instability, but mild ligamentous laxity is noted in full knee extension during values stress test C. Difficulty in actively flexing and extending the knee D. Immediate severe pain following the feeling a "pop" in the knee; the pain quickly subsides and the athlete is left feeling a dull ache in the knee joint E. A and B
D
A soccer player sustains a mild head injury during a game. The athletic trainer administers a Romberg's test on the sideline, assessing which of the following? A. Disorder of the medulla B. Function of the cerebral cortex C. Function of the temporal lobe of the brain D. Cerebellum or basal gangila dysfunction E. Disorder of the parietal lobe of the brain
D
All of the following are risk factors for osteoporosis except: A. Early menopause B. High consumption of alcohol, cigarettes, and caffeine C. Sedentary lifestyle D. Obesity E. Lack of folic acid in the diet
D
All of the following injuries might be associated with "popping" sensation of the knee joint except: A. Anterior cruciate ligament injury B. Torn meniscus C. Subluxed patella D. Iliotibial band friction syndrome E. B and C
D
Asking the patient to move his or her eyes from side to side and up and down tests the integrity of which cranial nerve? A. II B. V C. I D. III E. VIII
D
During exercise, the body's oxygen stores are greatly diminished. The recovery O2 is used for all the following except: A. Replacing O2 dissolved in tissues fluids B. Returning muscle myoglobin to resting values C. Increasing venous oxyhemoglobin to pre-exercise levels D. Returning the catecholamine level in the blood to normal E. A and B
D
How is cranial nerve IX tested? A. Having the athlete identify an odor B. Using Snellen chart C. Having the athlete swallow E. By touching the athlete's cheek lightly with a finger
D
Submaximal exercise tests, which evaluate physical working capacity by measuring heart rate increases with exercise, include all the following except: A. Progressive pulse rate test B. Harvard step test C. Copper 12-mintue run-walk test D. The Saltin-Astrand VO2 debt test E. None of the above
D
What is one of the most common symptoms of a lumbar discogenic injury? A. Dull, localized backache B. Localized swelling with muscle guarding C. Inability to backward bend D. Sharp, radiating pain down the back of the leg E. Pain with only forward flexion
D
A leading cause of hypothyroidism is Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which is an autoimmune disorder. What is the primary symptom of this disease? A. Depression B. "Butterfly" rash C. Atrophic skin D. Deviated trachea E. Goiter
E
A loos of water equaling what percent of body weight will begin to threaten athletic performance? A. 10% to 20% B. .5% to 1% C. 1% to 2% D. 1% to 1.5% E. 2% to 3%
E
A soccer player has fractured his right lower leg, been placed in a cast, and given crutches. The addition of crutches does what to his center of gravity? A. Moves it to the left B. Moves it to the mid abdominal area C. Moves it to the right D. There is no effect on the center of gravity E. Enlarges the base of support
E
An athlete who sustains a severe or career ending injury may go through a progression of emotional reactions, which are frequently seen with an individual who has experienced a significant loss. All of the following are included in this series of reactions except: A. Bargaining B. Anger C. Acceptance D. Denial E. Guilt
E
Changes in cognition and behavior and disorientation after a traumatic head injury are indicative of dysfunction of which part of the brain? A. Basal ganglia B. Pons C. Cerebellum D. Occipital lobe E. Cerebrum
E
During an upper quarter screen, checking the strength of thumb extension correlates to what nerve root? A. T1 B. T3 C. C5 D. C4 E. C8
E
During digestion, food passes through the small intestine as it is being broken dow into smaller components. Which area of the small intestine does it pass through first? A. Ileum B. Esophagus C. Jejunum D. Cecum E. Duodenum
E
