Federal Requirements: Week 6
Which of the following is a valid DEA number? A. AD2865937 B. BD0865937 C. FD1865937 D. MD0865947
BD0865937 *How to solve a DEA number: 1. Add the first, third, and fifth digit 2. Add the second, fourth, and sixth digit. Multiply by 2. 3. Add the sum of Step 1 digits and Step 2 digits in order to get a final result. *If the second digit of the final result matches the seventh digit number of the DEA number, it is considered valid.
Determine which of the following DEA numbers are valid for Dr. Rachel White. a. AW5436789 b. BW5448899 c. AW6789450 d. Both B and C
Both B and C "A" is if the registrant is an older entity "B" is if it is a hospital/clinic "C" is if it is a practioner "D" is if it is a teaching institution "E" is if it is a manufacturer "F" is if it is a distributor "G" is if it is a researcher "H" is if it is an analytical lab "J" is if it is an importer "K" is if it is an exporter "L" is if it a reverse distributor "M" is if it is a mid-level practioner "N-U" is if it is a for a narcotic treatment program The second letter is usually the first letter of the doctor's last name. In this case it is a "W" Mathematical relationship: Add the first, third, and fifth digits: 5+3+7=15 Add the second, fourth, and sixth digits and then multiply the sum by 2: (4+6+8) x 2=36 Add the sum of the answers from step 1 and step 2: 36+15=51 If the last digit of the DEA number matches the last digit of the above sum, then the DEA number is valid. If the number is different, it is an invalid DEA.
How many different medication items can be ordered per each DEA form 222? a. 2 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10
10
How old must a person be to purchase an exempt narcotic? a. 12 years b. 16 years c. 18 years d.21 years
18 years
An individual wishes to purchase a 4-ounce bottle of guaifenesin with codeine, which is classified as an "exempt narcotic". How old must a person be to purchase this medication? A. 12 years B. 16 years C. 18 years D. 21 years
18 years *The Comprehensive Drug Abuse and Control Act of 1970 allows an individual age 18 years or older to purchase a 4-oz bottle of exempt narcotic every 48 hours.
What is the minimum age for an individual to purchase pseudoephedrine? a. 12 years of age b. 16 years of age c. 18 years of age d. 21 years of age
18 years of age *Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005
How long should records for controlled substances be stored? a. 30 days b. 1 year c. 2 years d. 7 years
2 years
A prescription for isotretinoin is presented to the pharmacy; what is the maximum number of refills permitted for this prescription? A. 0 B. 1 C. 6 D. 12
0 *Refills are no permitted on prescription isotretinoin.
What is the maximum number of refills permitted by law for the following prescription? Hydrocodone/acetaminophen 7.5 mg/325 mg #40 1 tab PO q 4-6 h prn pain A. 0 B. 1 C. 5 D. 12
0 *The Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970 does not permit refills for Schedule II controlled substances, which Hydrocodone/acetaminophen is classified as.
How many times can Schedule III-V controlled substances be transferred between pharmacies? a. 10 b. 5 c. 3 d. 1
1 *Schedule II drugs cannot be transferred
Which of the following is not true regarding the Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970? a. It requires most drugs to be packaged in child-resistant packages to prevent accidental child poisonings b. Exceptions to the law include oral medicines and controlled substances c. A patient may sign a release form to waive the right for childproof packaging d. Drugs dispensed in an institution may not required childproof packaging
Exceptions to the law include oral medicines and controlled substances
Which regulatory agency may issue a drug recall? a. BOP b. DEA c. FDA d. TJC
FDA (Food and Drug Administration)
Which organization is responsible for reviewing and approving REMS? a. CMS b. DEA c. FDA d. OSHA
FDA (Food and Drug Administration)
Which of the following organizations regulates medical devices? a. DEA b. CMS c. FDA d. TJC
FDA (Food and Drug Administration) *DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration): deals with regulations related to narcotics *CMS (Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services): administers laws and policies related to Medicare and Medicaid *TJC (The Joint Commission): accredits health institutions
Which standards must be followed during extemporaneous compounding? A. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) B. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) C. Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) D. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA)-90
Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) *Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) is responsible for the Controlled Substances Act. *Food and Drug Administration (FDA) ensures that food and medications are pure, safe, and effective. *OBRA '90 requires drug utilization evaluation and counseling patients.
All of the following pieces of information are useful to verify that the correct medication has been selected from the shelf to fill a prescription EXCEPT A. Brand or generic name on the stock bottle B. Drug name on the prescription C. NDC number D. Lot number
Lot number *Not used in verifying the correct medication has been selected from the shelf to fill a prescription
What letter is used in a DEA number that indicates that the practitioner is a mid-level practitioner, such as a nurse practitioner or physician's assistant? A. A B. B C. F D. M
M *Midlevel practitioner (nurse practitioner or physician's assistant)
If a patient requests a partial filling of her Tylenol with codeine #3 prescription, what can the pharmacist do for the patient? a. The pharmacist may provide the patient with the requested amount and place the remaining tablets is a bottle for the patient to pick up at a later date b. The pharmacist may provide the patient with the requested amount and inform them that they must pick up the remaining quantity within 72 hours c. The pharmacist may provide the patient with the requested amount and inform them that they must pick up the remaining quantity within 6 months of the date on which the prescription was filled d. The pharmacist may provide the patient with the requested amount but can give them the balance only if there is a refill indicated on the prescription
The pharmacist may provide the patient with the requested amount but can give them the balance only if there is a refill indicated on the prescription *The Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970
Which organization establishes standards for the identity, strength, quality, and purity of medicines, food, ingredients, and dietary supplements? a. FDA b. ISMP c. USP d. TJC
USP (United States Pharmacopeia)
What term must appear on the physical prescription of a controlled substance that was transferred to another pharmacy? a. Copy b. Invalid c. Transferred d. Void
Void
(Yes/No) Is DEA number AC1234563 a valid number
Yes To solve a DEA number: Add the first, third and fifth number together (1+3+5=9) Add the second, fourth and sixth number together. Afterwards, multiply by 2. (2+4+6=12; 12x2=24) Add the answers from the first and second step to solve the final one. If the last number of this finalized answer matches the last number of the DEA number, it is valid 9+24=33 3 is the same number as the last one of the DEA number.
According to the Controlled Substance Act, which of the following statements is true regarding disposal of unused or expired controlled medications? a. They may be returned to the manufacturer b. They may be fleshed down the drain c. They may be returned to reverse distributors d. all of the above
all of the above
Which of the following drugs require(s) the distribution of a package insert to the patient? a. Accutane b. birth control pills c. metered dose inhalers d. all of the above
all of the above
Which of the following represents drug diversion cases? a. the use of addictive drugs for nontherapeutic purposes b. the illegal distribution of drugs c. prescription forgery d. all of the above
all of the above
Which of the following statements is true regarding the notice of privacy practices (NPP)? a. It discloses the patient's rights b. It is given to patient's at their first visit to a doctor's office or pharmacy c. It explains how the patient PHIs may be used d. all of the above
all of the above
The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005 regulated which of these drugs behind the counter? a. ephedrine b. pseudoephedrine c. phenylpropanolamine d. all of the above
all of the above *The law was created to stop the illegal production of crystal meth. It prohibits the sale of more than 3.6 g of the methamphetamine products for each customer per day and limits the sale to 9 g per 30 days. A log book must be kept with each customer's name, address, date and time of purchase, name of drug, quantity sold, and signature of customer. Also the customer must present the pharmacy with a photo ID.e of customer. Also the customer must present the pharmacy with a photo ID.
Explored or unused medications can be returned to which of the following facilities? a. centralized warehouse b. manufacturer c. wholesaler d. all of the above can accept returns
all of the above can accept returns *Applies to medications that are pulled 3-4 months before they expire; medications with open seals or that are partially used cannot be returned and have to be discarded in a biohazard container
A pharmacy technician should receive hazardous drug training________. a. quarterly b. biannually c. annually d. biennially
annually
Which of the following healthcare professional cannot prescribe medications? a. nurse practitioner b. physician assistant c. podiatrist d. chiropractor
chiropractor
An FDA recall of a product that is not likely to result in any adverse health consequences is known as: a. class I recall b. class II recall c. class III recall d. class IV recall
class III recall *class I recall indicates a serious adverse health consequence or death may occur; class II recall indicates that a temporary or reversible adverse health consequence may occur; there is no such thing as a class IV recall
Which of the following medications requires a risk evaluation mitigation strategy (REMS)? a. amoxicillin b. ampicillin c. calcium carbonate d. clozapine
clozapine
Which of the following drugs is a Schedule II drug? a. cocaine b. phenobarbital c. lorazepam d. Marinol
cocaine *Schedule I drugs are street drugs that have no medicinal use and are highly abused; Schedule II drugs are highly abused drugs that have medicinal purpose; Schedule III drugs are less abused that Schedule II drugs; Schedule IV drugs are comprised of mainly all the benzodiazepines, phentermine, pentazocine, phenobarbital, and diethylpropion; Schedule V drugs or exempt narcotics are the least abused of all the scheduled drugs
Which of the following products can be purchased as an exempt narcotic if all conditions outlined by the federal Controlled Substances Act are met? A. butorphanol nasal B. chlorpheniramine/hydrocodone C. codeine/guaifenesin D. phenobarbital
codeine/guaifenesin *Exempt narcotic
How are pharmaceutical labels disposed in a long term care facility? a. regular trash b. hazardous waste container c. confidential data shredding bucket d. biohazard waste container
confidential data shredding bucket
According to the DEA, how often must a full inventory of controlled substances be taken? a. every 3 years b. every day c. every 2 years d. twice per year
every 2 years
Which of the following is not within the scope of a patient's protected health information (PHI)? a. name b. address c. telephone number d. eye color
eye color
What is the maximum number of refills permitted for a Schedule III medication? a. no refills are allowed b. six refills within 5 months, whichever occurs first c. five refills within 6 months, whichever occurs first d. three refills within 90 days
five refills within 6 months, whichever occurs first
Which of the following would not be an adequate reason for recalling medications? a. contamination b. mislabeling or mispackaging c. good manufacturing d. all of the above
good manufacturing
Which of the following DEA form 222 copies is sent by the supplier to the local DEA? a. green copy b. blue copy c. red copy d. brown copy
green copy *brown copy=forwarded to the supplier *blue copy= retained by the purchaser for a minimum of 2 years *there's no such thing as a red copy
Which of the following is not a Schedule III drug? a. Fioricet b. hydrocodone and acetaminophen c. codeine and acetaminophen d. testosterone
hydrocodone and acetaminophen (Schedule II drug)
The pharmacy filling systems include all of the following EXCEPT: a. a folder for all medications including Schedules II-V b. a folder for Schedule II, a folder for Schedule III-V stamped with a red C in the lower right hand corner, and a folder for all other prescriptions c. a folder for Schedule II-V with Schedule III-V prescriptions stamped with a red C in the lower right hand corner, and a folder for all other prescriptions d. a folder for Schedule II, a folder for Schedules III-V and all other prescriptions, with Schedule III-V being identified with a red C stamp lower in the right-hand corner
a folder for all medications including Schedules II-V *There is a three filing method system Filing system 1: one folder for Schedule II drugs; one folder for Schedules III-V drugs; one folder for all other prescriptions Filing system 2: one folder for Schedule II drugs; one folder for Schedules III-V drugs Filing system 3: one folder for controlled scheduled drugs (III-V need to be marked with a red C at the lower right hand corner for easy identification); one folder for all other prescriptions
What is the Orphan Drug Act of 1983? a. a law that allows the sale of discounted drugs to orphans b. a law that gives incentives to manufacturers to develop drugs for orphaned or rare diseases that affect a small portion of the population c. a law that requires pharmacists to counsel patients taking orphaned drugs that are rarely used d. a law that prohibited adulteration or addition of unlisted orphaned ingredients into drug recipes
a law that gives incentives to manufacturers to develop drugs for orphaned or rare diseases that affect a small portion of the population
Which of the following medications is exempted from being dispensed in a "child-resistant" container according to the Poison Prevention Act? A. amoxicillin B. digoxin C. levothyroxine D. nitroglycerin
nitroglycerin *The Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 permits nitroglycerin to be dispensed in a non-child resistant container.
How often can a patient refill a Schedule II prescription? a. one time b. twice within 1 year c. as needed d. no refills
no refills *the prescription may be partially filled if the pharmacy is unable to supply the full quantity because of stock shortage, for example. However, the remainder should be supplied to the patient within 72 hours or a new prescription will be needed.
According to the Combat Methamphetamine Act, which medication must be kept behind the pharmacy counter? A. diphenhydramine B. guaifenesin C. loperamide D. pseudoephedrine
pseudoephedrine *The Combat Methamphetamine Act requires that OTC medications containing pseudoephedrine be kept behind the counter.
The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act restricts the sale of which OTC medication? A. ibuprofen B. loratadine C. loperamide D. pseudoephedrine
pseudoephedrine *The sale of pseudoephedrine is regulated through the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act.
Where should Schedule II narcotics be stored? a. separately in a secure place b. on the shelf with other prescription medications c. stored next to oral chemotherapy medications d. in the same compartment as investigational drugs
separately in a secure place *Preferably in a locked compartment because they are highly abused
Which law distinguished between legend and non legend drugs? a. the 1951 Durham-Humphrey Amendment b. the 1962 Kefauver-Harris Amendment c. the 1983 Orphan Drug Act d. the 1914 Harrison Narcotics Act
the 1951 Durham-Humphrey Amendment *the 1962 Kefauver-Harris Amendment requires drugs to be proven pure, safe, and effective *the Orphan Drug Act encourages finding drug treatments for rare (orphaned) diseases *the Harrison Narcotics Act limits the transport, manufacture, and sale of opium and any of its derivatives
A certified pharmacy technician can perform which of the following duties? a. drug utilization review (DUR) b. contacts prescribers regarding drug therapy modificaiton c. perform dispensing process validation d. with the approval of the pharmacist, transfer prescriptions issued for nonscheduled drugs between pharmacies
with the approval of the pharmacist, transfer prescriptions issued for nonscheduled drugs between pharmacies
Within how many days does a pharmacy have to fill a prescription of isotretinoin? A. 1 day B. 7 days C. 30 days D. 180 days
7 days *A pharmacy has 7 days from the date the prescription is written to fill isotretinoin, according to the Isotretinoin Safety and Risk Management Act of 2004
If an emergency Schedule II drug is ordered by a physician, a written order must be submitted to the pharmacy within how much time? a. 4 hours after calling in the order b. 24 hours after calling in the order c. 48 hours after calling in the order d. 7 days after calling in the order
7 days after calling in the order
The remainder of a partial filling for a Schedule II drug must be available for the patient within how many hours? a. 12 b. 24 c. 48 d. 72
72
A pharmacist receives a prescription for 40 Percocet tablets, but the pharmacy has only 15 tablets in stock. The patient accepts the 15 tablets. How much time does the pharmacist have to provide the remaining 25 tablets? a. 24 hours b. 72 hours c. 96 hours d. 6 months
72 hours *The Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970
A risk evaluation and mitigation strategy (REMS) may require which of the following? A. Counseling by the pharmacist B. A medication guide to be given to the patient C. Medication reconciliation D. Medication therapy management
A medication guide to be given to the patient *A Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) may required a medication guide to be given to the patient.
Which of the following pieces of information is useful to verify that the correct medication has been selected from the shelf to fill a prescription? A. Expiration date B. Lot number C. NDC number D. NPI number
NDC number *Identifies the drug manufacturer, drug entity, and packaging. *It should be used when selecting the correct medication from the shelf.
(Yes/No) Is DEA number AC1244563 a valid number
No To solve a DEA number: Add the first, third and fifth number together (1+4+5=10) Add the second, fourth and sixth number together. Afterwards, multiply by 2. (2+4+6=12; 12x2=24) Add the answers from the first and second step to solve the final one. If the last number of this finalized answer matches the last number of the DEA number, it is valid 10+24=34 4 is the NOT same number as the last one of the DEA number. Since they don't match, this DEA number is not considered valid.
Which piece of legislation requires that a pharmacy maintain patient profiles for all patients? A. Kefauver-Harris amendment B. MMA C. OBRA-87 D. OBRA-90
OBRA-90 *OBRA-90 requires a pharmacy to maintain patient profiles
What piece of legislation requires drug utilization evaluation (DUE) be performed with each prescription? A. HIPAA B. OBRA-87 C. OBRA-90 D. MMA
OBRA-90 *One of the requirements of OBRA-90 is that drug utilization evaluation be performed on all prescription during the prescription filling process.
Which federal agency is responsible for the oversight of safety data sheets? a. DEA b. FDA c. OSHA d. TJC
OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration)
Which of the following organizations enforce health and safety in the workplace? a. OSHA b. FDA c. DEA d. TJC
OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) *FDA (Food and Drug Administration): regulates prescription and OTC drugs *DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration): deals with controlled substances *TJC (The Joint Commission): accredits healthcare organizations
Which of the following is required of pharmacists under the Omnibus Budge Reconciliation Act of 1990 (OBRA '90)? A. Be immunized yearly against influenza B. Offer to counsel patients C. Provide emergency medication to a patient so their drug therapy is not interrupted D. Provide medication to a patient in EZ open container if requested
Offer to counsel patients *The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990 (OBRA '90) requires that an offer is made to the patient to be counseled by the pharmacist.
An Element to Assure Safe Use (ETASU) is associated with______________. a. Drug utilization evaluation b. Medication reconciliation c. Medication Therapy Management d. Risk evaluation mitigation strategies
Risk evaluation mitigation strategies (REMS) *Food and Drug Administration Amendment Act (FDAAA) of 2007
How many continuing education credits are required over the course of 2 years by a certified pharmacy technician? a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40
20
According to DEA, the original and transferred prescription for a controlled substance must be maintained for a minimum period of _______ from the date of the last refill a. 6 months b. 12 months c. 18 months d 24 months
24 months
What is the maximum amount of pseudoephedrine base that may be purchased in 1 day? a. 2.4 g b. 3.6 g c. 9 g d. 10 g
3.6 g *Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005
What is the minimum amount of time that a patient must wait before purchasing another bottle of an exempt narcotic? A. 24 hr B. 48 hr C. 72 hr D. 96 hr
48 hr *A person must wait 48 hours after purchasing an "exempt" controlled substance before purchasing another bottle.
Alprazolam is a schedule IV controlled substance. What is the maximum number of allowable refills on a prescription of alprazolam if authorized by a physician? A. None B. 5 C. 12 D. Unlimited
5 *Alprazolam is classified as Schedule IV medication under the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970 Permitted to be refilled at the maximum five times within 6 months of the prescription being written
What is the maximum number of refills for a prescription of zolpidem if authorized by the physician? A. None B. 5 C. 6 D. 12
5 *Zolpidem is a Schedule IV controlled substance and may be refilled up to five times within 6 months of the date it was written
How long is a DEA form 222 valid after its execution by the purchaser? a. 30 days b. 60 days c. 120 days d. 360 days
60 days
For how long is a DEA form 222 valid? a. 1 week b. 1 month c. 60 days d. 6 months
60 days *The Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970
Which of the following is a correct DEA number for a Dr. Andrea J. Shedlock, who was Dr. Andrea Costello when she requested her DEA number before she was married? a. AC1234563 b. AS1234563 c. JC1234563 d. JS1234563
AC1234563
A 58 year old patient is prescribed morphine sulfate CR 15 mg tablets following major surgery. He comes to the pharmacy for a refill 1 week after his medication was originally filled and indicates that he misplaced the container of medication and he is in severe pain. Which of the following would be the most appropriate action to take as a pharmacy technician? a. Advise the patient that he cannot obtain a refill unless he receives a new prescription from his physician b. Fill a limited emergency dose for the patient to take care of his pain c. Fill the prescription and advise the patient that he needs to call his physician to fax a refill order to the pharmacy d. none of the above
Advise the patient that he cannot obtain a refill unless he receives a new prescription from his physician *Morphine sulfate or MS-Contin is a Schedule II narcotic and cannot be refilled
What classification of drug recall will cause serious adverse health consequences or death? a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. Class IV
Class I
Which drug recall is classified as one in which there is a reasonable probability that the use of the medication will cause or lead to a serious adverse event or even death? A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV
Class I *Class I shows that there is a reasonable probability that use of the product will cause or lead to serious adverse effects or death. *Class II is one in which the probability exists that the use of the product will cause adverse health events that are temporary or medically reversible. *Class III means that the drug will probably not cause an adverse health event. *There is no such thing as a Class IV.
Which type of drug recall may cause temporary health problems and have a low risk of creating a serious problem? A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV
Class II *A class II drug recall causes reversible harm and is temporary A class I drug recall causes permanent harm or may be fatal to the patient A class III drug recall does not cause any harm to the patient There is no such thing as a class IV drug recall
Which of the following organizations enforces the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970? a. FDA b. DEA c. TJC d. FBI
DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration) *FDA (Food and Drug Administration): regulates prescription and OTC drugs *TJC (The Joint Commission): accredits healthcare organizations *FBI (Federal Bureau of Investigation): investigates crimes
What form is used to report the theft of controlled substances? a. DEA form 41 b. DEA form 106 c. DEA form 222 d. DEA form 224
DEA form 106
Which of the following DEA forms allows for the manufacturing and distribution of controlled substances? a. DEA form 41 b. DEA form 363 c. DEA form 222 d. DEA form 106
DEA form 222 *DEA form 41 is used to document destruction of controlled substances; DEA form 363 is used for registration of a controlled substance treatment program; DEA form 106 is used to report lost or stolen controlled substances
You are working for a chain pharmacy and another member of the chain has run out of DEA form 222. They ask to borrow one of your DEA form 222s. What would you do? a. Because you are members of the same pharmacy chain, you are allowed to let them use yours because you have the same DEA number b. Given them one of your DEA form 222s with the agreement that they will replace it after they receive their new ones c. DEA form 222s are for a specific pharmacy and can be used only by the pharmacy to which they were issued d. Tell them to place an emergency order with the wholesaler and that you will provide them with a properly completed DEA form 222 in 72 hours
DEA form 222s are for a specific pharmacy and can be used only by the pharmacy to which they were issued *The Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970
Which of the following forms is used to document the destruction of controlled substances? a. DEA form 222 b. DEA form 106 c. DEA form 41 d. DEA form 224
DEA form 41 *DEA form 222 is used for purchasing or returning expired Schedule II drugs; DEA form 106 is used to report lost or stolen controlled substances; DEA form 224 is a registration form that enables a pharmacy to dispense controlled substances
What do the last two numbers of a National Drug Code (NDC) number indicate? A. Drug manufacturer B. Drug product C. Drug package D. Drug quantity
Drug package *The last two digits of a NDC number indicates the drug package.
Which of the following organizations governs the management of pharmaceutical hazardous waste? a. FDA b. DEA c. EPA d. TJC
EPA (Environmental Protection Agency) *FDA (Food and Drug Administration): regulates prescriptions and OTC drugs *DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration): deals with controlled substances *TJC (The Joint Commission): accredits healthcare organizations
What is the maximum number of allowable refills for a prescription of acetaminophen/codeine? A. None B. One C. Five D. Six
Five *Acetaminophen/codeine is considered a Schedule III; maximum number of refills is 5 within 6 months of the date the prescription was written
If a manufacturer markets sugar pills as a cure for headache, which law would the manufacturer violate? a. Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 b. Durham-Humphrey Amendment c. Kefauver-Harris Amendment d. Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 *Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 prohibits the manufacture, sale, or transportation of adulterated or misbranded foods, liquors, and drugs *Durham-Humphrey Amendment distinguished between prescription and OTC drugs prohibiting the sale of legend drugs without a prescription *Kefauver-Harris Amendment requires drugs to be proven pure, safe, and effective
Which of the following provided for the first comprehensive federal protection for the privacy of health information? A. HIPAA Electronic Health Care Transactions and Code Set standards B. HIPAA Privacy Rule C. HIPAA Security Rule D. HIPAA Transaction Rule
HIPAA Privacy Rule *Addresses a patient's health information. Requires that provider does business electronically to use the same health care transactions, code sets, and identification. *Compels administrative, technic and physical safeguards to protect the patient's health information.
Patient's right to confidentiality in healthcare-related practices is primarily protected by which of the following laws? a. discretionary law b. HIPAA privacy rule c. compliance rules d. standard code of ethics
HIPAA privacy rule
Which types of substances requires an SDS (formerly known as MSDS)? a. Hazardous drugs and chemicals b. Investigational drugs c. Intravenous admixtures d. OTC drugs
Hazardous drugs and chemicals
What does the abbreviation HIPAA stand for? a. heparin-inducted platelet activation assay b. High Individual Privacy and Accountability Act c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act d. Health Information Protecting and Accounting Act
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
Where must recalled medications be stored in the pharmacy? a. In a locked cabinet b. In the narcotic safe c. Isolated from the other medications d. Spread throughout the pharmacy
Isolated from the other medications
Who is responsible for notifying a patient that a medication they have been prescribed has been recalled by the drug manufacturer? A. Drug manufacturer B. FDA C. Pharmacy D. Physician
Pharmacy *Responsible for notifying the patient of a drug recall for a medication that was prescribed to them.
Which color of C should the pharmacy technician stamp on filed-paper, controlled substance prescriptions? A. Black B. Blue C. Green D. Red
Red *The Controlled Substances Act requires that a red C be stamped on a filed-paper, controlled substance prescriptions.
A pharmacy technician comes in contact with a hazardous material. Where would they obtain information in treating the affected area? A. Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations B. Drug Facts and Comparisons C. Physician's Desk Reference D. Safety data sheets
Safety data sheets *Contains instructions for the safe use and potential hazards associated with a particular material or product and appropriate treatment for exposure to the substance.
Which of the following must be maintained for each hazardous product contained in the pharmacy? A. Counseling log for each purchase B. Drug administration record C. Pharmacy invoices D. Safety data sheets
Safety data sheets *Must be maintained for each hazardous product contained in the pharmacy
Which drug schedule is meperidine classified? A. Schedule II B. Schedule III C. Schedule IV D. Schedule V
Schedule II *Meperidine is classified as a Schedule II control substance
Which piece of legislation permits a pharmacy to accept the return of unused controlled substances? A. Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act B. Drug Supply Chain Security Act C. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act D. Secure and Responsible Drug Disposal Act
Secure and Responsible Drug Disposal Act *Permits the return of unused controlled substances to the pharmacy
Which organization issues the "do not use list" for health care organizations? A. APHA B. ASHP C. ISMP D. TJC
TJC *The Joint Commission (TJC) issues the "Do Not Use" list
Which of the following programs is a means for an individual to dispose of unused controlled substance? a. Brown bag program b. REMS c. Take-back program d. White bag program
Take-back program
The STEPS program addresses which medication? a. Clozaril b. Isotretinoin c. Marijuana d. Thalidomide
Thalidomide
When must an SDS (formerly known as MSDS) be provided to the patient? a. When dispensing a controlled substance b. When dispensing a hazardous substance c. When dispensing an investigational drug d. On request from the patient
When dispensing a hazardous substance
A prescription for 40 tablets of hydrocodone/acetaminophen is presented to the pharmacy. The pharmacy has 20 tablets in stock. Within what time frame must the pharmacy provide the remainder of the prescription to the patient? A. Within 24 hours B. Within 72 hours C. Within one week D. Within six months
Within 72 hours *The pharmacy has 72 hours to provide the balance of the prescription to the patient.
