Final

Excessive vomiting in pregnant women is known as a. placenta previa. b. hyperemesis gravidarum. c. abruptio placentae. d. spontaneous abortion.

b. hyperemesis gravidarum

A patient with cold and clammy extremities, low cardiac output, and profound hypotension is likely to be experiencing a progressive stage of shock. a. cardiogenic b. hypovolemic c. obstructive d. septic

d. septic

The most common types of uterine tumors are known as a. ovarian cysts. b. endometriomas. c. hydatidiform moles. d. leiomyomas.

d. leiomyomas

Which conditions are risk factors for the development of cerebral palsy? (Select all that apply.) a. Birth trauma b. Seizure disorder c. Kernicterus d. Prenatal maternal infection e. Scoliosis

a. Birth trauma c. Kernicterus d. Prenatal maternal infection

A patient in septic shock is getting IV fluids but remains hypotensive and the nurse notes third spacing of fluids. What is the mechanism behind these observations? a. Capillary leaking of fluids b. Inadequate fluid administration c. Ongoing vasoconstriction d. Destruction of CAM molecules

a. Capillary leaking of fluids

Low cardiac output in association with high preload is characteristic of shock. a. hypovolemic b. cardiogenic c. anaphylactic d. septic

b. cardiogenic

Treatment of a uterine prolapse may involve the insertion of a _____ to hold the uterus in place. a. catheter. b. IUD. c. pessary. d. endopelvic mesh implant.

C. Pessary

Characteristics of scoliosis include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Involvement of lateral curvature of the spine b. Increase during periods of rapid growth c. More common in boys d. Identifiable by uneven shoulders or scapular prominence e. Possibility of leading to respiratory complications

a. Involvement of lateral curvature of the spine b. Increase during periods of rapid growth d. Identifiable by uneven shoulders or scapular prominence e. Possibility of leading to respiratory complications

Cervical cancer can be detected in the early, curable stage by the test. a. Papanicolaou b. human papillomavirus c. gonorrhoeae d. vaginal pH

a. Papanicolaou

Widespread atelectasis, noncardiogenic pulmonary edema, and diffuse, fluffy alveolar infiltrates on chest radiograph are characteristic of a. acute respiratory distress syndrome. b. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. c. asthma. d. cor pulmonale.

a. acute respiratory distress syndrome

Absence of menstruation is called a. amenorrhea. b. metrorrhagia. c. menorrhagia. d. dysmenorrhea.

a. amenorrhea

Uterine prolapse is caused by a relaxation of the a. cardinal ligaments. b. abdominal organs. c. cervix. d. vaginal musculature.

a. cardinal ligaments.

A 32-year-old female complaining of severe pain with menstruation and inability to participate in her routine household activities is likely experiencing a. dysmenorrhea. b. menorrhagia. c. amenorrhea. d. metrorrhagia.

a. dysmenorrhea

17. Infection by accounts for nearly half of all reported cases of vulvovaginitis. a. Chlamydia trachomatis b. Candida albicans c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae d. Pseudomonas

b. Candida albicans

Septic shock is commonly associated with Gram-negative infections and Gram-positive organisms that enter the body through which body systems? (Select all that apply.) a. Eyes b. Genitourinary tract c. Gastrointestinal tract d. Respiratory tract e. Skin

b. Genitourinary tract c. Gastrointestinal tract d. Respiratory tract e. Skin

A patient experiences anaphylactic shock. The nurse expects to observe which signs and symptoms in the patient? (Select all that apply.) a. Stupor b. Hypotension c. Urticaria d. Angioedema e. Wheezing

b. Hypotension c. Urticaria d. Angioedema e. Wheezing

Which causes of shock are considered to be obstructive? (Select all that apply.) a. Ventricular rupture b. Pulmonary embolus c. Cardiac tamponade d. Tension pneumothorax e. Acute hemorrhage ANS: B, C, D

b. Pulmonary embolus c. Cardiac tamponade d. Tension pneumothorax

A patient presenting with fever, hypotension, and lactic acidosis is most likely to be experiencing what type of shock? a. Cardiogenic b. Septic c. Anaphylactic d. Neurogenic

b. Septic

A risk factor for osteoporosis is: a. endometriosis. b. early menopause. c. late menopause. d. ovarian cysts.

b. early menopause

A patient presenting with a severe, pounding headache accompanied by nausea and photophobia is likely experiencing a headache. a. tension b. migraine c. sinus d. chronic

b. migraine

A patient who was involved in a fall from a tree becomes short of breath. The lung sounds are absent on one side. This patient is experiencing _ shock. a. cardiogenic b. obstructive c. hypovolemic d. distributive

b. obstructive

Hypotension associated with neurogenic and anaphylactic shock is because of a. hypovolemia. b. peripheral pooling of blood. c. poor cardiac contractility. d. high afterload.

b. peripheral pooling of blood

What reproductive tract disorder is most likely to be associated with urinary incontinence? a. Rectocele b. Menopause c. Cystocele d. Cervicitis

c. Cystocele

In contrast to all other types of shock, the hyperdynamic phase of septic shock is associated with a. high afterload. b. low cardiac output. c. high cardiac output. d. reduced contractility.

c. high cardiac output.

Tumor necrosis factor- and interleukin-1 contribute to shock states because they induce production of a. catecholamines. b. clotting factors. c. nitric oxide. d. vasopressin.

c. nitric oxide

Cardiogenic shock is characterized by a. hypovolemia. b. reduced systemic vascular resistance. c. reduced cardiac output. d. elevated SvO2.

c. reduced cardiac output.

Improvement in a patient with septic shock is indicated by an increase in a. cardiac output. b. SvO2. c. systemic vascular resistance. d. serum lactate level.

c. systemic vascular resistance

Overproduction of nitric oxide is an important aspect of the pathophysiologic process of what type of shock? a. Cardiogenic b. Hypovolemic c. Anaphylactic d. Septic

d. Septic

The majority of cases of anaphylactic shock occur when a sensitized individual comes in contact with a. perfumes. b. incompatible blood products. c. animal proteins or dander. d. antibiotics.

d. antibiotics