final exam 3 review

Hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature falls below: A. 95°F (35°C). B. 90°F (32°C). C. 98°F (37°C). D. 88°F (31°C).

95°F (35°C)

The upper jawbones are called the: A. maxillae. B. mastoid. C. mandible. D. zygoma.

A. maxillae

Lacerations to the scalp: A. might be an indicator of deeper, more serious injuries. B. bleed minimally because the scalp has few vessels. C. are most commonly associated with skull fractures. D. uncommonly cause hypovolemic shock in the elderly.

A. might be an indicator of deeper, more serious injuries.

Common signs and symptoms of a chest injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. tachypnea. B. hematemesis. C. localized pain. D. chest wall ecchymosis.

B. hematemesis.

A sign of kidney damage after blunt trauma is: A. hematuria B. hemoptysis C. hematemesis D. hematochezia

hematuria

A patient who is complaining of seeing flashing lights, specks, or "floaters" in his or her field of vision has most likely experienced: A! a blow-out fracture. B! conjunctivitis. C! acute hyphema. D! a detached retina.

!D a detached retina.

During your assessment of a patient with a head injury, you note that he opens his eyes when you pinch his trapezius muscle, is mumbling, and has his arms curled in toward his chest. You should assign him a GCS score of: A. 9 B. 7 C. 8 D. 10

7

According to the rule of palm method for estimating the extent of a patient's burns, the palm of the patient's hand is equal to _____ of his or her total body surface area: A. 1% B. 4% C. 6% D. 2%

1%

Femoral shaft fractures can result in up to _____ mL of internal blood loss. A. 1,500 B. 2,000 C. 4,000 D. 1,000

1,000

The mastoid process is located approximately: A. 1 inch posterior to the external opening of the ear. B. ½ inch anterior to the external opening of the ear. C. 1 inch inferior to the external opening of the ear. D. 1 inch posterior to the angle of the mandible.

A. 1 inch posterior to the external opening of the ear.

A 5-year-old female pulled a pot of boiling water from the stove. She has superficial and partial-thickness burns to her head, face, and anterior trunk. What percentage of her body surface area has been burned? A. 30% B. 27% C. 18% D. 36%

A. 30%

A patient is bleeding severely from a severed femoral artery high in the groin region. Which of the following would most likely control the bleeding? A. Apply a topical hemostatic agent with direct pressure. B. Apply a pelvic binder device to stabilize the pelvis. C. Apply chemical ice packs to the wound and transport. D. Position the patient with his injured side down.

A. Apply a topical hemostatic agent with direct pressure.

Following a stab wound to the left anterior chest, a 25-year-old male presents with a decreased level of consciousness and signs of shock. Which of the following additional assessment findings should increase your index of suspicion for a cardiac tamponade? A. Engorged jugular veins B. Diminished breath sounds C. Widening pulse pressure D. A rapid, irregular pulse

A. Engorged jugular veins

Which of the following statements regarding penetrating injuries is correct? A. External bleeding may be minimal but internal injuries can be extensive. B. The degree of internal injury can often be estimated by the external injury. C. It is important to distinguish between entrance and exit wounds in the field. D. The depth of a penetrating injury should be thoroughly assessed by the EMT.

A. External bleeding may be minimal but internal injuries can be extensive.

You are dispatched to a residence for a young female who is sick. The patient complains of a rash to her lower extremities and truncal area. Your assessment reveals a small, painful blister on her inner thigh. As your partner is taking the patient's vital signs, she states that she and her family returned from a camping trip two days ago. On the basis of this patient's presentation, you should suspect: A. Lyme disease. B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. C. an allergic reaction. D. exposure to poison ivy.

A. Lyme disease.

Which of the following statements regarding the rule of nines is correct? A. The anterior trunk of an adult is equal to 18% of the body surface area. B. The anterior arm in the adult is equal to 9% of the total body surface area. C. A child's head is equal to 14% of his or her total body surface area. D. The posterior of a child's leg is equal to 13.5% of the body surface area.

A. The anterior trunk of an adult is equal to 18% of the body surface area.

Which of the following findings would be the most significant when assessing a patient with possible internal bleeding? A. The patient takes rivaroxaban (Xarelto). B. The patient has a history of hypertension. C. The patient had a stroke five years prior. D. The patient has not eaten in 24 hours.

A. The patient takes rivaroxaban (Xarelto).

You are assessing a 33-year-old male who complains of severe abdominal pain, weakness, and nausea. He tells you that he was gathering wood to build a fire when he felt a sudden, sharp pain on the back of his hand. Your assessment reveals that the patient's abdomen is rigid and painful to palpation. You should suspect: A. a black widow spider bite. B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. C. a brown recluse spider bite. D. envenomation from a pit viper.

A. a black widow spider bite.

Abnormal variations in pupil size and reaction would MOST likely be observed in a patient with: A. a brain injury. B. contact lenses. C. conjunctivitis. D. retinitis.

A. a brain injury.

Breath-holding syncope is caused by a decreased stimulus to breathe and occurs when: A. a swimmer hyperventilates prior to entering the water. B. a diver holds his or her breath for a long period of time. C. a diver holds his or her breath during a staged ascent. D. a swimmer breathes shallowly before entering the water.

A. a swimmer hyperventilates prior to entering the water.

The MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries is: A. airway compromise. B. damage to the eyes. C. cervical spine injury. D. mandibular immobility.

A. airway compromise.

An open fracture is most accurately defined as a fracture in which: A. an external wound is present over the fracture site. B. fractured bone ends protrude through the skin. C. the bone is broken but does not penetrate the skin. D. a bullet or other projectile shatters the underlying bone.

A. an external wound is present over the fracture site.

When evaluating the mechanism of injury of a car-versus-pedestrian collision, you should first: A. approximate the speed of the vehicle that struck the pedestrian. B. determine if the patient was propelled away from the vehicle. C. evaluate the vehicle that struck the patient for structural damage. D. determine if the patient was struck and pulled under the vehicle.

A. approximate the speed of the vehicle that struck the pedestrian.

In moving joints, the ends of the bones are covered with: A. articular cartilage. B. synovial tendons. C. muscular fascia. D. gliding cartilage.

A. articular cartilage.

The body's functions that occur without conscious effort are regulated by the _________ nervous system. A. autonomic B. somatic C. voluntary D. sensory

A. autonomic

When treating a patient who experienced a pulmonary blast injury, you should: A. avoid giving oxygen under positive pressure. B. administer large amounts of intravenous fluid. C. use a demand valve to ventilate the patient. D. suspect an accompanying cardiac tamponade.

A. avoid giving oxygen under positive pressure.

A 38-year-old male was electrocuted while attempting to wire a house. Your assessment reveals that he is unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. A coworker has shut off the power to the house. You should: A. begin CPR and apply the AED. B. begin CPR and transport at once. C. assess for entry and exit wounds. D. fully immobilize his spinal column.

A. begin CPR and apply the AED.

The _________ is the best-protected part of the CNS and controls the functions of the cardiac and respiratory systems. A. brain stem B. cerebellum C. cerebral cortex D. spinal cord

A. brain stem

All of the following should be addressed during the primary assessment except: A. capillary bleeding. B. slow, shallow breathing. C. severe hemorrhage. D. airway obstruction.

A. capillary bleeding.

The _________ contain(s) about 75% of the brain's total volume. A. cerebrum B. cerebellum C. brain stem D. meninges

A. cerebrum

A 39-year-old male accidentally cut his wrist while sharpening his hunting knife. He is conscious and alert with adequate breathing, but is bleeding significantly from the wound. You should: A. control the bleeding with direct pressure. B. apply oxygen with a nonrebreathing mask. C. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound. D. ensure the patient has a patent airway.

A. control the bleeding with direct pressure.

All of the following snakes are pit vipers, except for the: A. coral snake. B. rattlesnake. C. cottonmouth. D. copperhead.

A. coral snake.

Hemoptysis is defined as: A. coughing up blood. B. abnormal blood clotting. C. vomiting blood. D. blood in the pleural space.

A. coughing up blood.

A 40-year-old male was in his woodworking shop when he felt a sudden, sharp pain in his left eye. Your assessment reveals a small splinter of wood embedded in his cornea. You should: A. cover both of his eyes and transport to the hospital. B. scrape the splinter away with moist, sterile gauze. C. cover his right eye and flush the left eye with saline. D. remove the object with a cotton-tipped applicator.

A. cover both of his eyes and transport to the hospital.

When assessing a conscious patient with an MOI that suggests spinal injury, you should: A. determine if the strength in all extremities is equal. B. rule out a spinal injury if the patient denies neck pain. C. defer spinal immobilization if the patient is ambulatory. D. ask the patient to move his or her head to assess for pain.

A. determine if the strength in all extremities is equal.

The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess: A. eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. B. mental status, eye opening, and respiratory rate. C. sensory response, pupil reaction, and heart rate. D. verbal response, eye opening, and mental status.

A. eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.

You are assessing a 59-year-old male and note that his pupils are unequal. He is conscious and alert. When obtaining his medical history, it is MOST pertinent to ask him if he: A. has a history of eye surgeries. B. noticed the change during a meal. C. is allergic to any medications. D. regularly sees a family physician.

A. has a history of eye surgeries.

The cervical spine is MOST protected from whiplash-type injuries when the: A. headrest is appropriately positioned. B. air bag correctly deploys upon impact. C. rear end of the vehicle is initially struck. D. patient tenses up at the time of impact.

A. headrest is appropriately positioned.

Peritonitis usually occurs when: A. hollow abdominal organs are damaged and spill their contents into the peritoneal cavity. B. solid abdominal organs bleed secondary to penetrating trauma. C. the vessels that supply the abdominal organs become inflamed. D. bacteria or viruses invade the walls of the gastrointestinal tract.

A. hollow abdominal organs are damaged and spill their contents into the peritoneal cavity.

Functions of dressings and bandages include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. immobilization of the injury. B. prevention of contamination. C. protection from further injury. D. control of external hemorrhage.

A. immobilization of the injury.

In addition to external bleeding, the MOST significant risk that an open soft-tissue injury exposes a patient to is: A. infection. B. hypothermia. C. nerve damage. D. vessel damage.

A. infection.

A 22-year-old male was walking on the beach and had sand blown into his eyes. He complains of pain and decreased vision to his right eye. Treatment should include: A. irrigating his right eye laterally. B. flushing his eye starting laterally. C. irrigating both eyes simultaneously. D. covering both eyes and transporting.

A. irrigating his right eye laterally.

Hypovolemic shock occurs when: A. low fluid volume leads to inadequate perfusion. B. the patient's systolic BP is less than 100 mm Hg. C. the clotting ability of the blood is enhanced. D. at least 10% of the patient's blood volume is lost.

A. low fluid volume leads to inadequate perfusion.

As you approach a young male who was involved in an industrial accident, you note that his eyes are closed and that he is not moving. You can see several large contusions to his arms, a laceration to his forehead with minimal bleeding, and a closed deformity to his right leg. You should: A. open his airway and assess his breathing status. B. perform an immediate head-to-toe assessment. C. assess his pulse for rate, regularity, and quality. D. apply high-flow oxygen and assess his injuries.

A. open his airway and assess his breathing status.

When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that: A. osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position. B. any fall in the elderly is considered to be high-energy trauma. C. elderly patients who fall usually have a secondary head injury. D. bilateral hip fractures usually occur when an elderly person falls.

A. osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position.

The _________ nervous system consists of 31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves. A. peripheral B. central C. somatic D. autonomic

A. peripheral

A 45-year-old female was the unrestrained passenger of a small car that rear-ended another vehicle at a moderate rate of speed. She is conscious and alert but complains of pain to both of her knees. There is visible damage to the dashboard on the passenger's side of the vehicle. In addition to fractures or dislocations of the knees, you should be most suspicious for: A. posterior hip dislocation. B. anterior hip dislocation. C. fracture of the tibia or fibula. D. a thoracic spine fracture.

A. posterior hip dislocation.

The primary purpose for splinting a musculoskeletal injury is to: A. prevent further injury B. maximise distal circulation C. make the patient comfortable D. facilitate ambulance transport

A. prevent further injury

Following blunt trauma to the chest, an 18-year-old female presents with respiratory distress, shallow breathing, and cyanosis. Her blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and her pulse is 130 beats/min and thready. You should: A. provide ventilation assistance with a bag valve mask. B. perform a rapid head-to-toe physical assessment. C. apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. place her supine and elevate her lower extremities.

A. provide ventilation assistance with a bag valve mask.

When activated, the sympathetic nervous system produces all of the following effects, except: A. pupillary constriction. B. increase in heart rate. C. shunting of blood to vital organs. D. dilation of the bronchiole smooth muscle.

A. pupillary constriction.

A utility worker was trimming branches and was electrocuted when he accidentally cut a high-power line. He fell approximately 20′ and is lying unconscious on the ground; the power line is lying across his chest. You should: A. rapidly assess the patient after ensuring that the power line is not live. B. apply insulated gloves and assume manual control of his c-spine. C. quickly but carefully move the patient away from the power line. D. manually stabilize his head as your partner assesses for breathing.

A. rapidly assess the patient after ensuring that the power line is not live.

The spinal cord is encased in and protected by the: A. spinal canal. B. intervertebral disc. C. vertebral arch. D. vertebral body.

A. spinal canal

A 31-year-old male fell and landed on his left elbow. Your assessment reveals that the elbow is grossly deformed, his forearm is cool and pale, and the distal pulse is barely palpable. His vital signs are stable, and he denies any other injuries. Your transport time to the closest appropriate hospital is approximately 12 minutes. You should: A. splint the elbow in the position found and transport. B. gently straighten the elbow and apply an air splint. C. apply a heat pack to the elbow to reduce swelling. D. gently manipulate the elbow to improve circulation.

A. splint the elbow in the position found and transport.

Deformity caused by a fracture would most likely be masked by: A. swelling. B. ecchymosis. C. guarding. D. crepitus.

A. swelling

You are assessing a 30-year-old woman with multiple large bruises to her chest and abdomen that she experienced during an assault. She is conscious but restless, and her skin is cool and pale. You should be most concerned with: A. the fact that her clinical signs could indicate that she is bleeding internally. B. obtaining a complete set of vital signs to rule out the possibility of shock. C. assessing the bruises that overlie major organs in the chest and abdomen. D. performing a detailed secondary assessment to locate all of her injuries.

A. the fact that her clinical signs could indicate that she is bleeding internally.

Factors that should be considered when assessing a patient who has fallen include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. the speed of the fall. B. the primary impact point. C. the height of the fall. D. the surface struck.

A. the speed of the fall.

The act of pulling on a body structure in the direction of its normal alignment is called: A. traction. B. reduction. C. stabilization. D. immobilization.

A. traction.

The small, rounded, fleshy bulge immediately anterior to the ear canal is called the: A. tragus. B. pinna. C. incus. D. stapes.

A. tragus

The driver of a sport utility vehicle lost control and struck a utility pole head-on. The driver was killed instantly. The passenger, a young female, is conscious and alert and has several small abrasions and lacerations to her left forearm. Treatment for the passenger should include: A. transport to a trauma center. B. transport to a community hospital. C. a focused exam of her forearm. D. a secondary assessment at the scene.

A. transport to a trauma center.

If you do not have the appropriate size cervical collar, you should: A. use rolled towels to immobilize the patient's head. B. place sandbags on either side of the patient's head. C. ask the patient to keep his or her head in a neutral position. D. defer cervical immobilization and apply lateral head blocks.

A. use rolled towels to immobilize the patient's head.

Pleural fluid is contained between the: A. visceral and parietal pleurae. B. parietal pleura and the heart. C. visceral pleura and the lung. D. parietal pleura and the chest wall.

A. visceral and parietal pleurae.

Hyperextension injuries of the spine are most commonly the result of: A. compression. B. hangings. C. diving. D. falls.

B. hangings

Which of the following structures is regulated by smooth muscle? A: Blood vessels B: Heart C: Diaphragm D: Skeleton

A: Blood vessels

A reflex arc occurs when: A: a sensory nerve detects an irritating stimulus and bypasses the brain by sending a direct message to the motor nerve. B: the brain interprets sensory information that it receives from peripheral and cranial nerves and sends a signal to the muscles. C: the motor nerves function automatically without receiving a message from the CNS. D: a sensory nerve sends a message to the brain, but the motor nerve fails to send the appropriate response to the body.

A: a sensory nerve detects an irritating stimulus and bypasses the brain by sending a direct message to the motor nerve.

Subcutaneous emphysema is an indication that: A: air is escaping into the chest wall from a damaged lung. B: blood is slowly accumulating within the tissue of the lung. C: your patient is experiencing a pericardial tamponade. D: at least half of one lung has completely collapsed.

A: air is escaping into the chest wall from a damaged lung.

You are dispatched to a convenience store, where the clerk sustained a laceration to the side of his neck during a robbery attempt. During your assessment, you note bright red blood spurting from the laceration. You should: A: apply direct pressure above and below the wound. B: apply pressure to the closest arterial pressure point. C: apply direct pressure below the lacerated vessel. D: circumferentially wrap a dressing around his neck.

A: apply direct pressure above and below the wound.

An unresponsive trauma patient has a large open abdominal wound with massive external bleeding. You should: A: apply direct pressure to the wound. B: apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C: ventilate the patient with a bag-mask device. D: open the patient's airway.

A: apply direct pressure to the wound.

Most cases of external bleeding from an extremity can be controlled by: A: applying local direct pressure. B: compressing a pressure point. C: packing the wound with gauze. D: elevating the injured extremity.

A: applying local direct pressure.

A dysbarism injury refers to the signs and symptoms related to changes in: A: barometric pressure. B: rapid ascent. C: decompression. D: rapid descent.

A: barometric pressure.

A football player was struck by another player in the right flank area just below the posterior rib cage. He complains of severe pain and point tenderness to the area. Your assessment reveals that there is a small amount of blood in his underwear. You should be most suspicious for: A: blunt injury to the kidney. B: external genitalia injury. C: a lacerated liver or spleen. D: a ruptured urinary bladder.

A: blunt injury to the kidney.

Perfusion is most accurately defined as the: A: circulation of blood within an organ in adequate amounts to meet the body's metabolic needs. B: effective removal of carbon dioxide and other metabolic waste products from the body's cells. C: effective transfer of oxygen from the venules across the systemic capillary membrane walls. D: ability of the systemic arteries to constrict as needed to maintain an adequate blood pressure.

A: circulation of blood within an organ in adequate amounts to meet the body's metabolic needs.

When assessing a patient with a possible fracture of the leg, the EMT should: A: compare it to the uninjured leg. B: assess proximal circulation. C: carefully move it to elicit crepitus. D: ask the patient to move the injured leg.

A: compare it to the uninjured leg.

A 30-year-old male experienced a crushing injury when his forearm was trapped between the back of a truck and a loading dock. Upon your arrival, the man's arm has been freed. Your assessment reveals that his arm is obviously deformed and swollen and is cold and pale. Further assessment reveals an absent radial pulse. You should be most concerned that this patient has: A: compartment syndrome. B: damage to the radial nerve. C: a severe closed fracture. D: internal hemorrhage.

A: compartment syndrome.

When a warm hand is immersed in water that is 70°F (21°C), heat is transferred from the hand to the water through a process called: A: conduction. B: convection. C: evaporation. D: radiation.

A: conduction.

The hormone responsible for the actions of the sympathetic nervous system is: A: epinephrine. B: thyroxine. C: insulin. D: aldosterone.

A: epinephrine.

Two of the MOST common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are: A: falls and motor vehicle collisions. B: low-caliber gunshot wounds and falls. C: motor vehicle collisions and stabbings. D: gunshot wounds and vehicle ejections.

A: falls and motor vehicle collisions.

A 40-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain after blunt trauma. He is diaphoretic, intensely thirsty, and has a weak and rapid pulse. Appropriate treatment for this patient includes all of the following, except: A: giving him small sips of plain water. B: promptly transporting him to the hospital. C: covering him with a warm blanket. D: administering supplemental oxygen.

A: giving him small sips of plain water.

The effectiveness of positive pressure ventilations when treating a head-injured patient can only be determined by: A: immediate reassessment after the intervention. B: reassessing the patient's blood pressure after 10 minutes. C: a neurosurgeon or emergency department physician. D: noting a decrease in the heart rate during ventilations.

A: immediate reassessment after the intervention.

A hematoma develops when: A: large blood vessels beneath the skin are damaged. B: small amounts of blood leak into the epidermis. C: cells and small vessels in the dermis are damaged. D: severe swelling compromises arterial circulation.

A: large blood vessels beneath the skin are damaged.

Following direct trauma to the upper part of the anterior neck, a young male presents with labored breathing, loss of voice, and subcutaneous emphysema in the soft tissues around his neck. You should suspect a(n): A: laryngeal fracture. B: collapsed trachea. C: esophageal tear. D: crushed cricoid.

A: laryngeal fracture.

A 30-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the neck when he was attacked outside a nightclub. During your assessment, you should be MOST alert for: A: potential airway compromise. B: alterations in his mental status. C: injury to the cervical spine. D: damage to internal structures.

A: potential airway compromise.

When assessing a patient with a closed soft-tissue injury, it is most important to: A: remain alert for more severe underlying injuries. B: manipulate the injury site for signs of a fracture. C: assess circulation distal to the site of the injury. D: recognize that the integrity of the skin is broken.

A: remain alert for more severe underlying injuries.

Skeletal muscle is also referred to as __________ muscle. A: striated B: connective C: involuntary D: smooth

A: striated

A female patient with a suspected head injury has slow, shallow breathing. The most appropriate treatment for her includes: A: ventilation assistance to maintain an ETCO 2 of 30 to 35 mm Hg. B: administering oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C: ventilation assistance to maintain an oxygen saturation of 90%. D: hyperventilating her at 30 breaths/min.

A: ventilation assistance to maintain an ETCO 2 of 30 to 35 mm Hg.

Which of the following is a severe burn in a 2-year-old child? A. Superficial burn that covers 25% of the BSA B. Any full-thickness burn, regardless of its location on the body C. Any burn that involves the arms, legs, or posterior part of the body D. Partial-thickness burn that covers 10% of the BSA

Any full-thickness burn, regardless of its location on the body

Which of the following statements regarding cervical collars is correct? A. Once a cervical collar is applied, you can cease manual head stabilization. B. A cervical collar is used in addition to, not instead of, manual immobilization. C. Cervical collars are contraindicated in patients with numbness to the extremities. D. The patient's head should be forced into a neutral position to apply a cervical collar.

B. A cervical collar is used in addition to, not instead of, manual immobilization.

In which of the following patients should you remove an impaled object? A. A conscious and alert patient with a fishhook impaled in the eye B. A pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the back C. A semiconscious patient with an ice pick impaled in the chest D. An apneic patient with a shard of glass impaled in the abdomen

B. A pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the back

Which of the following statements regarding crush syndrome is correct? A. With crush syndrome, massive blood vessel damage occurs following severe soft-tissue injuries, such as amputation of an extremity. B. Compromised arterial blood flow leads to crush syndrome and can occur when an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours. C. Tissue damage that occurs in crush syndrome is severe, but kidney injury is unlikely because toxins are quickly eliminated from the body. D. Provided that a patient with a crush injury is freed from entrapment within 6 hours, the amount of tissue damaged is generally minimal.

B. Compromised arterial blood flow leads to crush syndrome and can occur when an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours.

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would MOST likely result in deformity? A. Severe strain B. Displaced fracture C. Moderate sprain D. Hairline fracture

B. Displaced fracture

Which of the following conditions would be the least likely to increase a person's risk of hypothermia? A. Severe infection B. Hyperglycemia C. Spinal cord injury D. Head injury

B. Hyperglycemia

Which of the following would be the least likely cause of an altered level of consciousness in a patient with a burn? A. Head injury B. Hypertension C. Hypoglycemia D. Hypoperfusion

B. Hypertension

Which of the following statements regarding secondary brain injury is correct? A. Because cerebral edema develops quickly, it is considered to be a primary brain injury. B. Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury. C. Signs are often present immediately after an impact to the head. D. It results from direct brain trauma following an impact to the head.

B. Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury.

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life? A. Bilateral femur fractures B. Pelvic fracture with hypotension C. An amputated extremity D. Nondisplaced long bone fractures

B. Pelvic fracture with hypotension

Which of the following statements regarding low-energy penetrating injuries is correct? A. Exit wounds are typically easy to locate with low-energy penetrating injuries. B. The area of injury is usually close to the path the object took through the body. C. It is usually easy to differentiate between an entrance wound and an exit wound. D. Internal injuries caused by low-velocity bullets are usually easy to predict.

B. The area of injury is usually close to the path the object took through the body.

Which of the following statements regarding abdominal eviscerations is correct? A. Most eviscerations occur to the left upper quadrant. B. The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist. C. Adherent material is preferred when covering an evisceration. D. The organs should be replaced carefully to avoid heat loss.

B. The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist.

The MOST reliable sign of a head injury is: A. a pulse that is rapid and thready. B. a decreased level of consciousness. C. an abnormally low blood pressure. D. decreased sensation in the extremities.

B. a decreased level of consciousness.

A 54-year-old male experienced an avulsion to his penis when his foreskin got caught in the zipper of his pants. He was able to unzip his pants and remove the foreskin prior to your arrival. Your assessment reveals that he is in severe pain and that the avulsion is bleeding moderately. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. covering the avulsion with moist, sterile dressings. B. applying direct pressure with a dry, sterile dressing. C. administering 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. requesting a paramedic to administer pain medication.

B. applying direct pressure with a dry, sterile dressing.

A short backboard or vest-style immobilization device is indicated for patients who: A. are found supine and have stable vital signs. B. are in a sitting position and are clinically stable. C. require prompt extrication from an automobile. D. are sitting in their car and are clinically unstable

B. are in a sitting position and are clinically stable.

You have applied a dressing and roller-gauze bandage to a laceration on the arm of a young female. During transport, she begins to complain of numbness and tingling in her hand. You should: A. remove the gauze bandage and replace it with an elastic one. B. assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed. C. carefully manipulate her arm until the symptoms subside. D. remove the bandage and dressing and apply another one.

B. assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed.

You receive a call to a local gymnasium for a basketball player with a dislocated shoulder. Upon arrival, you find the patient, a 17-year-old male, sitting on the ground. He is holding his left arm in a fixed position away from his body. There is an obvious anterior bulge to the area of injury. You should: A. gently attempt to move his arm toward his body. B. assess distal pulse, motor, and sensory functions. C. flex his arm at the elbow and then apply a sling. D. place a pillow under his arm and apply a swathe.

B. assess distal pulse, motor, and sensory functions.

A 30-year-old male was rescued after being lost in the woods for approximately 18 hours. The outside temperature is 30°F (-1°C). He is immediately placed in the warmed ambulance, where you perform a primary assessment. He is unresponsive, pale, and apneic. You should: A. apply chemical heat packs to his groin and axillae. B. assess for a carotid pulse for up to 60 seconds. C. open his airway and give two rescue breaths. D. apply an AED and assess his cardiac rhythm.

B. assess for a carotid pulse for up to 60 seconds.

A young male was shot in the abdomen by an unknown type of gun. Law enforcement personnel have ensured that the scene is safe. The patient is semiconscious, has shallow breathing, and is bleeding externally from the wound. As you control the external bleeding, your partner should: A. obtain baseline vital signs. B. assist the patient's ventilations. C. apply a nonrebreathing mask. D. perform a secondary assessment.

B. assist the patient's ventilations.

The diving reflex might allow a person to survive extended periods of submersion in cold water secondary to: A. laryngospasm that protects the lungs from water. B. bradycardia and a slowing of the metabolic rate. C. tachycardia and a lowering of the blood pressure. D. increases in the metabolic rate and oxygen demand.

B. bradycardia and a slowing of the metabolic rate.

Common signs and symptoms of an airway burn include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hoarseness. B. chest pressure. C. singed nasal hair. D. soot around the mouth.

B. chest pressure.

In nontrauma patients, an early indicator of internal bleeding is: A. a decreasing blood pressure. B. dizziness upon standing. C. rapid, shallow breathing. D. a rapid, thready pulse.

B. dizziness upon standing.

What layer of the skin forms a watertight, protective seal for the body? A. dermis B. epidermis C. muscular layer D. subcutaneous layer

B. epidermis

A 67-year-old male presents with weakness, dizziness, and melena that began approximately two days ago. He denies a history of trauma. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his pulse is 120 beats/min and thready. You should be most suspicious that this patient is experiencing: A. acute appendicitis. B. gastrointestinal bleeding. C. intrathoracic hemorrhaging. D. an aortic aneurysm.

B. gastrointestinal bleeding.

Evaluation of the interior of a crashed motor vehicle during extrication will allow the EMT to: A. determine the vehicle's speed at the time of impact. B. identify contact points and predict potential injuries. C. assess the severity of the third collision of the crash. D. recognize if the driver hit the brakes before impact.

B. identify contact points and predict potential injuries.

During your secondary assessment of a 19-year-old female with multiple traumas, you note bilateral humeral deformities and a deformity to the left midshaft femur. Her skin is diaphoretic, and her pulse is rapid and weak. Your partner has appropriately managed her airway and is maintaining manual stabilization of her head. The most appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. carefully splinting each of her deformed extremities. B. immobilizing her to a backboard and rapidly transporting. C. applying a traction splint to immobilize her femur. D. splinting her femur fracture with padded board splints.

B. immobilizing her to a backboard and rapidly transporting.

You are transporting a 42-year-old male who experienced blunt abdominal trauma. He is receiving oxygen at 12 L/min via a nonrebreathing mask and full spinal precautions have been applied. During your reassessment, you note his level of consciousness has decreased and his respirations have become shallow. You should: A. suction his oropharynx to ensure it is clear of secretions and then increase the oxygen flow rate to 15 L/min. B. insert an airway adjunct if he will tolerate it and begin assisting his ventilations with a BVM. C. perform a comprehensive secondary assessment to determine why his clinical status has changed. D. reassess his vital signs and then notify the receiving hospital of the change in his clinical status.

B. insert an airway adjunct if he will tolerate it and begin assisting his ventilations with a BVM.

Bleeding within the brain tissue itself is called a(n): A. epidural hematoma. B. intracerebral hematoma. C. subdural hematoma. D. intracranial hematoma.

B. intracerebral hematoma.

In contrast to the brown recluse spider, the black widow spider: A. has a bite that usually produces local pain but no systemic signs or symptoms. B. is large and has a red-orange hourglass mark on its abdomen. C. is very small and has a violin-shaped marking on its back. D. has a bite that is typically painless until a blister develops.

B. is large and has a red-orange hourglass mark on its abdomen.

The cricoid cartilage: A. lies superior to the thyroid cartilage in the neck. B. is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea. C. is easier to see and palpate than the thyroid cartilage. D. lies superior to the cricothyroid membrane in the neck.

B. is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea.

You are dispatched to a residence for a young female who was kicked in the abdomen. While en route to the scene, you should ask the dispatcher if: A. the severity of the injury is known. B. law enforcement is at the scene. C. the patient is conscious. D. there are other patients involved.

B. law enforcement is at the scene.

Which of the following organs would most likely bleed profusely when injured? A. Stomach B. Liver C. Bladder D. Intestine

B. liver

When a patient experiences a severe spinal injury, he or she: A. will likely be paralyzed from the neck down. B. may lose sensation below the level of the injury. C. most commonly has a palpable spinal deformity. D. often loses motor function on one side of the body.

B. may lose sensation below the level of the injury.

Atrophy is a condition that occurs when: A. carbon dioxide, lactic acid, and other wastes accumulate in the muscle. B. muscle decreases in size and function because of disease or trauma. C. the tendons that attach muscle to bone become stretched or injured. D. increased use of skeletal muscle causes an increase in its strength.

B. muscle decreases in size and function because of disease or trauma.

A 44-year-old male sustained a laceration to his left ear during a minor car accident. Your assessment reveals minimal bleeding. Appropriate care for this injury includes: A. applying a tight pressure dressing. B. padding between the ear and the scalp. C. packing the ear with sterile gauze pads. D. covering the wound with a moist dressing.

B. padding between the ear and the scalp.

Early signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding include: A. significant hypotension. B. pain and distention. C. widespread ecchymosis. D. bruising only.

B. pain and distention.

Applying ice to and elevating an injured extremity are performed in order to: A. prevent further injury B. reduce pain and swelling C. enhance tissue circulation D. maintain extremity perfusion

B. reduce pain and swelling

When the parasympathetic nervous system is activated: A. hormones are released that prepare the body for stress. B. the heart rate decreases and the blood vessels dilate. C. heart rate and blood pressure increase. D. blood is shunted away from the digestive organs.

B. the heart rate decreases and the blood vessels dilate.

Regardless of the type of tourniquet used, it is important to remember that: A. you should try to control the bleeding by applying pressure to a proximal arterial pressure point first. B. the tourniquet should only be removed at the hospital because bleeding might return if the tourniquet is released. C. the tourniquet should be applied directly over a joint if possible because this provides better bleeding control. D. bulky dressings should be securely applied over the tourniquet to further assist in controlling the bleeding.

B. the tourniquet should only be removed at the hospital because bleeding might return if the tourniquet is released.

Very young children tend to breathe predominantly with their diaphragm because: A. their chest wall and ribs are very pliable. B. their intercostal muscles are not fully developed. C. they require less tidal volume per breath. D. there is no nerve innervation of the intercostal muscles.

B. their intercostal muscles are not fully developed.

Immediate death from blunt chest trauma following a motor vehicle crash is MOST often the result of: A. a tension pneumothorax. B. traumatic aortic rupture. C. penetrating lung injuries. D. a massive cardiac contusion.

B. traumatic aortic rupture.

You are transporting an immobilized patient with severe facial trauma. As you are preparing to give your radio report to the hospital, the patient begins vomiting large amounts of blood. You should: A. quickly suction his oropharynx. B. turn the backboard onto its side. C. reassess his breathing adequacy. D. alert the hospital of the situation.

B. turn the backboard onto its side.

The cervical spine is composed of _____ vertebrae. A: 6 B: 5 C: 7 D: 8

C: 7

A patient with a head injury presents with abnormal flexion of his extremities. What numeric value should you assign to him for motor response? A: 5 B: 3 C: 2 D: 4

B: 3

Which of the following interventions may be used to help reduce intracranial pressure? A: Supine with the legs elevated B: 30-degree elevation of the head C: Increasing the patient's body temperature D: Maintaining the SpO 2 at 90%

B: 30-degree elevation of the head

Which of the following head injuries would cause the patient's condition to deteriorate most rapidly? A: Subdural hematoma B: Intracerebral hematoma C: Cerebral contusion D: Cerebral concussion

B: Intracerebral hematoma

Which of the following statements regarding drowning is correct? A: Artificial ventilations can easily be performed in patients with a laryngospasm. B: Patients with a submersion injury might deteriorate rapidly because of pulmonary injury and cerebral hypoxia. C: Large amounts of water enter the lungs in a small number of drowning victims. D: Hypoxia in the drowning victim initially occurs due to water in the lungs.

B: Patients with a submersion injury might deteriorate rapidly because of pulmonary injury and cerebral hypoxia.

During an altercation in a bar, two patrons got into a fist fight. The first patient, a 44-year-old female, was struck in the mouth and refuses EMS care. The second patient, a 39-year-old female, has a small laceration to her left knuckle and also refuses EMS care. Which of the following statements regarding this scenario is correct? A: The patient struck in the mouth should be immobilized. B: The 39-year-old female is at high risk for an infection. C: You should contact the police and have the patients arrested. D: The 44-year-old female is at high risk for an infection.

B: The 39-year-old female is at high risk for an infection.

Regarding musculoskeletal injuries, the zone of injury is defined as the: A: exact part of the bone or joint that was disrupted. B: area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury. C: area of obvious deformity over the site of impact. D: part of the body that sustained secondary injury.

B: area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury.

To obtain the most accurate reading of a patient's core body temperature, you should place a special hypothermia thermometer: A: under the patient's armpit. B: into the patient's rectum. C: behind the patient's knee. D: under the patient's tongue.

B: into the patient's rectum.

Because the depth of an open abdominal wound is often difficult to determine: A: vital signs should be monitored frequently. B: prompt transport to the hospital is essential. C: the abdomen must be vigorously palpated. D: the EMT must perform a thorough exam.

B: prompt transport to the hospital is essential.

A man called EMS 12 hours after injuring his chest. Your assessment reveals a flail segment to the right side of the chest. The patient is experiencing respiratory distress, and his oxygen saturation is 78%. His breath sounds are equal bilaterally, and his jugular veins are normal. You should suspect: A: traumatic asphyxia. B: pulmonary contusion. C: massive hemothorax. D: tension pneumothorax.

B: pulmonary contusion.

The presence of tachycardia following a significant abdominal injury: A: is always accompanied by hypotension. B: should be assumed to be a sign of shock. C: is most commonly caused by severe pain. D: indicates a state of decompensated shock.

B: should be assumed to be a sign of shock.

In which of the following situations should the EMT splint an injured limb in the position of deformity? A. When distal circulation and neurological functions are absent B. If transport time to the hospital is greater than 20 to 30 minutes C. If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain D. If a traction splint will be used to immobilize the injured extremity

C. If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain

Who is the captain of the straw hat pirates? A. Zoro B. Chopper C. Luffy D. Nami

C. Luffy

Which of the following statements regarding shoulder dislocations is MOST correct? A. Posterior dislocations are most common. B. They are caused by forced arm adduction. C. Most shoulder dislocations occur anteriorly. D. They involve the acromion process and humerus.

C. Most shoulder dislocations occur anteriorly.

Which member of the group is the meanest? A. Goofy B. Peywei C. Sally D. Tyriqdafreak

C. Sally

A ____________ is a musculoskeletal injury in which there is partial or temporary separation of the bone ends as well as partial stretching or tearing of the supporting ligaments. A. Strain B. Fracture C. Sprain D. Dislocation

C. Sprain

Which of the following statements regarding a basilar skull fracture is correct? A. Bloody CSF commonly leaks from the nose. B. In most cases, mastoid bruising occurs. C. The absence of raccoon eyes or Battle's sign does not rule it out. D. They are typically the result of local, low-energy trauma to the head.

C. The absence of raccoon eyes or Battle's sign does not rule it out.

Which of the following statements regarding the dermis is correct? A. The cells of the dermis are worn away and are constantly replaced. B. The dermis produces a substance that provides color to the skin. C. The dermis lies above the germinal layer and provides protection. D. The dermis contains hair follicles, sweat glands, and nerve endings.

C. The dermis contains hair follicles, sweat glands, and nerve endings.

Which of the following processes occurs during the inflammation phase of the healing process? A. The blood vessels in and around the injury site constrict, which forces bacteria and other microorganisms away, thus preventing significant infection. B. White blood cells are forced away from the injury site, thus allowing an increase in the flow of red blood cells, resulting in increased blood flow. C. The immune system releases histamines, which cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, resulting in local redness and swelling. D. The veins and arteries at the injury site constrict and platelets aggregate, which stops bleeding and causes a temporary increase in the size of the wound.

C. The immune system releases histamines, which cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, resulting in local redness and swelling.

Which of the following organs is at MOST risk for injury as a result of a pelvic fracture? A. Pancreas B. Fallopian tubes C. Urinary bladder D. Liver or spleen

C. Urinary bladder

Compression injuries to the abdomen that occur during a motor vehicle crash are typically the result of: A. failure to wear seat belts. B. airbag deployment. C. a poorly placed lap belt. D. rapid vehicle deceleration.

C. a poorly placed lap belt.

After direct trauma to the left upper back, a 44-year-old male presents with diaphoresis and restlessness. His blood pressure is 100/50 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 120 beats/min and weak, and his respirations are 24 breaths/min and labored. Your assessment reveals abrasions and contusions over the left scapula. You should: A. apply high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed secondary assessment, and transport. B. focus your assessment on his scapulae and clavicles and apply high-flow oxygen. C. apply high-flow oxygen, consider spinal precautions, and transport without delay. D. hyperventilate him with a bag valve mask and monitor his oxygen saturation.

C. apply high-flow oxygen, consider spinal precautions, and transport without delay.

During your assessment of a patient with blunt chest trauma, you note that the patient has shallow breathing and paradoxical movement of the left chest wall. You should: A. request a paramedic to decompress the chest. B. make note of it and continue your assessment. C. assist ventilations with a bag valve mask. D. apply high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.

C. assist ventilations with a bag valve mask.

When documenting a call involving a female patient who was sexually assaulted, the EMT should: A. theorize as to why the sexual assault occurred. B. include the results of the internal vaginal exam. C. avoid speculation and document only factual data. D. include a description of the suspected perpetrator.

C. avoid speculation and document only factual data.

An injury that separates various layers of soft tissue, resulting in complete detachment or a flap of skin, is called a(n): A. incision. B. avulsion. C. amputation. D. laceration.

C. avulsion.

A man jumped from the roof of his house and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his heels, knees, and lower back. This mechanism of injury is an example of: A. distraction. B. hyperflexion. C. axial loading. D. hyperextension.

C. axial loading.

When caring for a patient whose arm is covered with a dry chemical, you should: A. use forceful streams of water to remove the chemical. B. quickly irrigate the arm with large amounts of water. C. brush away the chemical before flushing with water. D. deactivate the chemical with a 5% vinegar solution.

C. brush away the chemical before flushing with water.

When caring for a patient with a possible fracture of the scapula, the EMT should: A. apply rigid board splints across the chest and back. B. recognize that scapular fractures are life threatening. C. carefully assess the patient for breathing problems. D. assume that minimal force was applied to the back.

C. carefully assess the patient for breathing problems.

In contrast to animal bites, the bite of a human: A. is usually less severe because the human mouth is cleaner. B. typically results in a minor infection that is slow-spreading. C. carries with it a wide variety of virulent bacteria and viruses. D. is associated with a much higher incidence of rabies infection.

C. carries with it a wide variety of virulent bacteria and viruses.

Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of the presence of high-energy trauma? A: Steering wheel collapse B: Intrusion into the vehicle C: Deployment of the airbag D: Dismounted seats

C: Deployment of the airbag

The phenomenon of pressure waves emanating from the bullet, causing damage remote from its path, is known as: A. capitation. B. conversion. C. cavitation. D. congruent.

C. cavitation.

The inner surface of the eyelids and the exposed surface of the eye itself are covered by a delicate membrane called the: A. sclera. B. cornea. C. conjunctiva. D. retina.

C. conjunctiva

A closed soft-tissue injury characterized by swelling and ecchymosis is called a(n): A. abrasion. B. crush injury. C. contusion. D. hematoma.

C. contusion.

Difficulty breathing and a sunken appearance of the anterior abdominal wall is MOST indicative of a ruptured: A. stomach. B. aorta. C. diaphragm. D. spleen.

C. diaphragm.

When a driver is in a car equipped with an air bag, but is not wearing a seatbelt, he or she will MOST likely strike the __________ when the air bag deploys upon impact. A. dashboard B. steering wheel C. door D. windshield

C. door

When placing a patient onto a long backboard, the EMT at the patient's _________ is in charge of all patient movements. A. waist B. lower extremities C. head D. chest

C. head

A 17-year-old football player collided with another player and has pain to his left clavicle. He is holding his arm against his chest and refuses to move it. Your assessment reveals obvious deformity to the midshaft clavicle. After assessing distal pulse, sensory, and motor functions, you should: A. straighten his arm and apply a board splint. B. perform a rapid secondary assessment. C. immobilize the injury with a sling and swathe. D. place a pillow under his arm and apply a sling.

C. immobilize the injury with a sling and swathe.

The most critical treatment for a tension pneumothorax involves: A. placing a bulky dressing over the affected side of the chest. B. assisting the patient's breathing with increased tidal volume. C. inserting a needle through the rib cage into the pleural space. D. surgically removing the portion of the lung that is damaged.

C. inserting a needle through the rib cage into the pleural space.

A factory worker was splashed in the eyes with a strong acid chemical. He complains of intense pain and blurred vision. Your ambulance does not carry bottles of sterile saline or water. You should: A. flush both eyes with an alcohol-based solution and transport. B. neutralize the acid chemical in his eye with an alkaline chemical. C. irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water. D. mix baking soda with water and irrigate his eyes with the solution.

C. irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water.

A tight-fitting motorcycle helmet should be left in place unless: Select one: A. the patient complains of severe neck or back pain. B. the helmet is equipped with a full face shield or visor. C. it interferes with your assessment of the airway. D. the patient must be placed onto a long backboard.

C. it interferes with your assessment of the airway.

Which of the following statements regarding rebound tenderness is correct? A. it should be assesed for by vigorously palpating the abdomen. B. rebound tenderness is a sign found with a spleen injury C. it is often discovered when the patient is jarred or moved suddenly D. the absence of rebound tenderness rules out intra-abdominal injury.

C. it is often discovered when the patient is jarred or moved suddenly

Which of the following areas of the body has the thinnest skin? A: Scalp B: Back C: Ears D: Soles of the feet

C: Ears

A high school football player was injured during a tackle and complains of neck and upper back pain. He is conscious and alert and is breathing without difficulty. The EMT should: A. remove his helmet, but leave his shoulder pads in place. B. remove his helmet and shoulder pads. C. leave his helmet and shoulder pads in place. D. leave his helmet in place, but remove his shoulder pads.

C. leave his helmet and shoulder pads in place.

You and your partner are standing by at a large social event at a river resort when a frantic woman tells you that she found a young male floating face-down in the water. Nobody claims to have witnessed the event. After you and your partner enter the water and reach the patient, you should: A. open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver. B. immediately secure him to a longboard. C. move him as a unit to a supine position. D. begin ventilations with a barrier device.

C. move him as a unit to a supine position.

A rapid, irregular pulse following blunt trauma to the chest is most suggestive of a: A. tension pneumothorax. B. pericardial tamponade. C. myocardial contusion. D. ruptured aorta.

C. myocardial contusion.

During the normal wound-healing process, bleeding might occur from even a minor injury because: A. there is a substantial decrease in the number of platelets in and around the wound, which increases the risk of bleeding. B. histamines released by the immune system constrict the blood vessels, which increases the pressure within them. C. new capillaries that stem from intact capillaries are delicate and take time to become as stable as the preexisting capillaries. D. bacteria and other microorganisms invade the wound site and damage the capillaries, which makes them more prone to bleeding.

C. new capillaries that stem from intact capillaries are delicate and take time to become as stable as the preexisting capillaries.

Irritation or damage to the pleural surfaces that causes sharp chest pain during inhalation is called: A. dyspnea. B. pneumonitis. C. pleurisy. D. pneumothorax.

C. pleurisy.

When assessing a patient who experienced a blast injury, it is important to remember that: A. solid organs usually rupture from the pressure wave. B. secondary blast injuries are usually the least obvious. C. primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked. D. primary blast injuries are typically the most obvious.

C. primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked.

A 20-year-old male was pulled from cold water by his friends. The length of his submersion is not known and was not witnessed. You perform a primary assessment and determine that the patient is apneic and has a slow, weak pulse. You should: A. suction his airway for 30 seconds, provide rescue breathing, keep him warm, and transport at once. B. ventilate with a bag-valve mask, apply a rigid cervical collar, remove his wet clothing, and transport rapidly. C. provide rescue breathing, remove his wet clothing, immobilize his entire spine, keep him warm, and transport carefully. D. apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, immobilize his spine, keep him warm, and transport rapidly.

C. provide rescue breathing, remove his wet clothing, immobilize his entire spine, keep him warm, and transport carefully.

During your assessment of a patient who was shot in the abdomen, you notice a large entrance wound with multiple small puncture wounds surrounding it. This wound pattern is most consistent with a: A. .22-caliber pistol. B. .357 magnum. C. shotgun. D. handgun.

C. shotgun.

You and your partner are preparing to apply a traction splint to a patient's deformed thigh. As you apply manual traction, the patient resists your efforts and states that the pain is getting worse. You should: A. assess distal pulses and continue pulling traction B. flex the knee and place a pillow under the thigh C. stop and splint the leg in the deformed position D. gently massage the thigh muscles to relax them

C. stop and splint the leg in the deformed position

During your primary assessment of a 19-year-old unconscious male who experienced severe head trauma, you note that his respirations are rapid, irregular, and shallow. He has bloody secretions draining from his mouth and nose. You should: A. assist his ventilations with a BVM. B. pack his nostrils to stop the drainage of blood. C. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds. D. immobilize his spine and transport immediately.

C. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds.

A 31-year-old male was bitten on the leg by an unidentified snake. The patient is conscious and alert and in no apparent distress. Your assessment of his leg reveals two small puncture marks with minimal pain and swelling. In addition to administering oxygen and providing reassurance, further care for this patient should include: A. applying ice to the wound and transporting quickly. B. transporting only with close, continuous monitoring. C. supine positioning, splinting the leg, and transporting. D.elevating the lower extremities and giving antivenin.

C. supine positioning, splinting the leg, and transporting.

If one or more occupants in the same vehicle are killed in a crash, the AEMT should: A. rapidly assess only the survivors who have experienced obvious trauma. B. allow the survivors to refuse transport if they have no obvious injuries. C. suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious trauma. D. transport the survivors only if they have injuries or complain of pain.

C. suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious trauma.

The two MOST efficient ways for the body to eliminate excess heat are: A. respiration and bradycardia. B. perspiration and tachycardia. C. sweating and dilation of skin blood vessels. D. hyperventilation and tachycardia.

C. sweating and dilation of skin blood vessels.

Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike fibrous structures called: A. ligaments. B. fascia. C. tendons. D. cartilage.

C. tendons

Patients with full-thickness (third-degree) burns generally do not complain of pain because: A. blister formation protects the burn. B. he or she is generally not conscious. C. the nerve endings have been destroyed. D. subcutaneous vessels are usually clotted.

C. the nerve endings have been destroyed.

Functions of the skin include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. maintenance of water balance. B. regulation of body temperature. C. the production of key antibodies. D. sending information to the brain.

C. the production of key antibodies.

Capillaries link the arterioles and the: A. cells. B. veins. C. venules. D. aorta.

C. venules.

Force acting over a distance is the definition of: A. kinetic energy. B. potential energy. C. work. D. latent energy.

C. work

Which of the following is a severe burn in a 65-year-old patient? A: Second-degree burn covering 10% of the body surface area B: Superficial burn to 30% of the body surface area C: Partial-thickness burn to 20% of the body surface area D: Full-thickness burn to 1% of the body surface area

C: Partial-thickness burn to 20% of the body surface area

A 21-year-old male was working in an auto repair shop and sustained radiator burns to the anterior aspect of both arms and to his anterior chest. According to the rule of nines, this patient has burns that cover _____ of his body surface area. A: 27% B: 36% C: 18% D: 45%

C: 18%

The mesentery is: A: a layer of thick skeletal muscles that protects the abdominal organs. B: the point of attachment between the small and large intestines. C: a membranous fold that attaches the intestines to the walls of the body. D: a complex network of blood vessels that supply blood to the liver.

C: a membranous fold that attaches the intestines to the walls of the body.

If direct pressure fails to immediately stop severe bleeding from an extremity, you should apply: A: a splint and elevate the extremity. B: additional sterile dressings. C: a tourniquet proximal to the injury. D: digital pressure to a proximal artery.

C: a tourniquet proximal to the injury.

A 48-year-old male has a suspected open-book pelvic fracture. He is conscious but restless, and his skin is pale and diaphoretic. His respirations are 22 breaths/min and his pulse rate is 120 beats/min. There is no external bleeding noted. The EMT should: A: stabilize his pelvis by placing him onto his side. B: elevate his legs, keep him warm, and transport. C: apply a compression device around his pelvis. D: assess his blood pressure to detect hypotension.

C: apply a compression device around his pelvis.

A construction worker's arm was severed just above the elbow when a steel girder fell on it. The stump is covered with a blood-soaked towel. The patient's skin is cool, clammy, and pale. The EMT should: A: remove the towel and inspect the wound. B: wrap the severed arm in a sterile dressing. C: apply a tourniquet just below the shoulder. D: administer high-flow oxygen to the patient.

C: apply a tourniquet just below the shoulder.

You have applied a zippered air splint to a patient's left arm. During transport, the patient complains of increased numbness and tingling in his left hand. You reassess distal circulation and note that it remains present. Your most appropriate action should be to: A: elevate the injured arm and reassess distal sensory function. B: inflate the splint with more air until the patient is comfortable. C: assess the amount of air in the splint and let air out as necessary. D: remove the air splint and re-immobilize with padded board splints.

C: assess the amount of air in the splint and let air out as necessary.

The musculoskeletal system refers to the: A: connective tissue that supports the skeleton. B: involuntary muscles of the nervous system. C: bones and voluntary muscles of the body. D: nervous system's control over the muscles.

C: bones and voluntary muscles of the body.

You are transporting a patient with blunt abdominal trauma. The patient is unstable and is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of shock. Your estimated time of arrival at the hospital is less than 10 minutes. After treating the patient appropriately, you should: A: begin documenting the call on the patient care form. B: forgo the hospital radio report because of his condition. C: closely monitor him and reassess him frequently. D: perform a comprehensive secondary assessment.

C: closely monitor him and reassess him frequently.

A man has a large laceration across his lower abdominal wall and a loop of bowel is protruding from the wound. He is conscious and alert and there is minimal bleeding from the wound. You should: A: cover the bowel with a dry sterile dressing, elevate his lower extremities, and cover him with a blanket. B: gently irrigate the exposed bowel with sterile saline and then cover the wound with a dry sterile dressing. C: cover the exposed bowel with a moist sterile dressing and then secure it in place with a dry bandage. D: make one attempt to replace the bowel back into the abdomen and then cover the wound with a sterile dressing.

C: cover the exposed bowel with a moist sterile dressing and then secure it in place with a dry bandage.

Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries to the face is most effectively controlled with: A: ice packs and elevation of the patient's head. B: pressure dressings and chemical ice packs. C: direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings. D: digital pressure to an adjacent pulse point.

C: direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings.

A(n) __________ fracture occurs in the growth section of a child's bone and might lead to bone growth abnormalities. A: metaphyseal B: diaphyseal C: epiphyseal d: greenstick

C: epiphyseal

Geriatric patients, newborns, and infants are especially prone to hyperthermia because they: A: have less body fat. B: have relatively smaller heads. C: exhibit poor thermoregulation. D: have smaller body surface areas.

C: exhibit poor thermoregulation.

Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless: A: lateral immobilization has been applied. B: sensory and motor functions remain intact. C: it causes a problem managing the airway. D: the patient adamantly denies neck pain.

C: it causes a problem managing the airway.

A fracture caused by minimal force that is associated with diseases such as cancer and osteoporosis is called a __________ fracture. A: transverse B: comminuted C: pathologic D: greenstick

C: pathologic

The most reliable indicator of an underlying fracture is: A: guarding. B: obvious bruising. C: point tenderness. d: severe swelling.

C: point tenderness.

The pectoral girdle consists of the: A: sternum and scapulae. B: clavicles and rib cage. C: scapulae and clavicles. D: acromion and clavicles.

C: scapulae and clavicles.

Passengers who are seated in the rear of a vehicle and are wearing only lap belts have a higher incidence of injuries to the _____________ spine during a rear-end crash. A: lumbar and sacral B: thoracic and sacral C: thoracic and lumbar D: lumbar and coccygeal

C: thoracic and lumbar

What did Sally hit Tyriq with? A. Water bottle B. Car trunk C. Brick D. Chair

Car trunk

Which of the following is a severe burn in a 35-year-old patient? A. Full-thickness burn to 5% of the body surface area B. Superficial burn covering 50% of the body surface area C. Partial-thickness burn to 20% of the body surface area D. Circumferential partial-thickness burn to the chest

Circumferential partial-thickness burn to the chest

An infant with a total blood volume of 800 mL would start showing signs of shock when as little as ______ of blood is lost. A. 50 mL B. 150 mL C. 200 mL D. 100 mL

D. 100 mL

Following a head injury, a 20-year-old female opens her eyes spontaneously, is confused, and obeys your commands to move her extremities. You should assign her a GCS score of: A. 15 B. 13 C. 12. D. 14.

D. 14.

Which of the following statements regarding the clotting of blood is correct? A. Bleeding begins to clot when the end of a damaged vessel dilates. B. Direct contact with the environment prevents blood from clotting. C. Venous and capillary blood typically do not clot spontaneously. D. A person taking blood thinners will experience slower blood clotting.

D. A person taking blood thinners will experience slower blood clotting.

Which of the following open soft-tissue injuries is limited to the superficial layer of the skin and results in the least amount of blood loss? A. Laceration B. Incision C. Avulsion D. Abrasion

D. Abrasion

Which of the following is not considered a basic technique when controlling bleeding? A. Pack the wound with a hemostatic impregnated gauze. B. Apply a tourniquet to an extremity above the level of the bleeding. C. Apply direct pressure over the wound with a dry, sterile dressing. D. Apply a cervical collar and place the patient on a long backboard.

D. Apply a cervical collar and place the patient on a long backboard.

Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of a head injury? A. Failure of the eyes to move in the same direction B. Failure of the eyes to follow movement of an object C. One pupil larger in size than the other pupil D. Briskly constricting pupils when exposed to light

D. Briskly constricting pupils when exposed to light

The phrenic nerves control the diaphragm and exit the spinal cord at: A. C1, C2, and C3. B. C1 and C2. C. C3 and C4. D. C3, C4, and C5.

D. C3, C4, and C5.

Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is correct? A. Compartment syndrome occurs because of increased pressure within the bone cavity. B. Most cases of compartment syndrome occur following a severe fracture of the pelvis. C. In most cases, compartment syndrome develops within a few minutes after an injury. D. Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury.

D. Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury.

A small compact car was involved in a rollover crash. As you are approaching the vehicle, you note that the roof is significantly collapsed. The patient, a 29-year-old male, is complaining of severe pain in his neck and to the top of his head as well as numbness and tingling in his extremities. Witnesses who removed the patient from the vehicle state that he was wearing his seatbelt. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for this patient's condition? A. Lateral bending of the neck during the crash B. Whiplash injury to the neck during the rollover C. Impact of the head against the steering wheel D. Compression of the head against the roof

D. Compression of the head against the roof

Which of the following statements regarding severe burns is correct? A. Severe burns involving the airway have a 100% mortality rate. B. The majority of severe burns involve full-thickness burns only. C. Patients with severe burns are especially prone to hyperthermia. D. Severe burns are typically a combination of all degrees of burn.

D. Severe burns are typically a combination of all degrees of burn.

Which of the following joints allows no motion? A. Sacroiliac joint B. Shoulder joint C. Sternoclavicular joint D. Skull sutures

D. Skull sutures

Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following, except: A. widening pulse pressure. B. decerebrate posturing. C. cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ears. D. a rapid, thready pulse.

D. a rapid, thready pulse.

To assess a patient's general body temperature, pull back on your glove and place the back of your hand on his or her skin at the: A. neck. B. chest. C. forehead. D. abdomen.

D. abdomen

Blood stasis, changes in the vessel wall, and certain medications affect the: A. systolic blood pressure exclusively. B. white blood cells' ability to fight infection. C. ability of red blood cells to carry oxygen. D. ability of the blood to effectively clot.

D. ability of the blood to effectively clot.

After being stung on the leg by a jellyfish, a man complains of severe pain to his leg, dizziness, and difficulty breathing. He has a red rash covering his trunk, and his blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. The EMT should: A. begin transport and immerse his leg in hot water to help reduce pain. B. apply warmth to the sting area and cover it with a dry sterile dressing. C. remove the stingers from his leg by scraping them with a stiff object. D. administer oxygen and epinephrine and prepare for rapid transport.

D. administer oxygen and epinephrine and prepare for rapid transport.

After your partner assumes manual in-line stabilization of the patient's head, you should: A. use four people to log roll the patient onto a backboard. B. thoroughly palpate the patient's head for deformities. C. apply an appropriately sized rigid cervical collar. D. assess distal neurovascular status in the extremities.

D. assess distal neurovascular status in the extremities.

A young male sustained a gunshot wound to the abdomen during an altercation. As your partner is assessing and managing his airway, you should control the obvious bleeding and then: A. apply a cervical collar. B. obtain baseline vital signs. C. auscultate bowel sounds. D. assess for an exit wound.

D. assess for an exit wound.

When treating a partial-thickness burn, you should: A. immerse the affected part in warm water. B. rupture any blisters to prevent an infection. C. cover the burn with a moist, sterile dressing. D. avoid the use of creams, lotions, or antiseptics.

D. avoid the use of creams, lotions, or antiseptics.

A 21-year-old male was thrown over the handlebars of his motorcycle when he rear-ended a car that was stopped at a red light. He was wearing a helmet, which he removed prior to your arrival. He is conscious but restless and has closed deformities to both of his femurs. His skin is pale, his heart rate is rapid and weak, and his respirations are rapid and shallow. You should: A. splint each of his deformed femurs with long board splints and transport without delay. B. splint each of his deformed femurs with air splints, elevate his lower extremities, and transport. C. apply traction splints to both of his legs, keep him warm, and transport without delay. D. bind his legs together on the backboard, keep him warm, and transport without delay.

D. bind his legs together on the backboard, keep him warm, and transport without delay.

Bone marrow produces: A. electrolytes. B. lymphocytes. C. platelets. D. blood cells.

D. blood cells.

Hypothermia can worsen internal bleeding secondary to: A. cardiac arrhythmias. B. a decreased heart rate. C. severe muscular rigidity. D. blood-clotting abnormalities.

D. blood-clotting abnormalities.

The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the: A. thoracic, cervical, lumbar, coccygeal, and sacral. B. cervical, coccygeal, thoracic, sacral, and lumbar. C. coccygeal, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical. D. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal.

D. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal.

Your presence is requested by law enforcement to assess a 33-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious and obviously upset. As you are talking to her, you note an impressive amount of blood on her clothes in the groin area. Her blood pressure is 98/58 mm Hg, her pulse is 130 beats/min, and her respirations are 24 breaths/min. You should: A. allow her to change her clothes and take a shower before you transport. B. arrange for a rape crisis center representative to speak with the patient. C. visualize the vaginal area and pack the vagina with sterile dressings. D. control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once.

D. control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once.

The MOST significant hazard associated with splinting is: A. aggravation of the injury or worsened pain. B. reduction in circulation distal to the injury site. C. compression of nerves, tissues, and vasculature. D. delaying transport of a critically injured patient.

D. delaying transport of a critically injured patient.

The tough, fibrous outer meningeal layer is called the: A. arachnoid mater. B. gray mater. C. pia mater. D. dura mater.

D. dura mater

The most important immediate treatment for patients with a head injury, regardless of severity, is to: A. administer high-flow oxygen. B. transport to a trauma center. C. immobilize the entire spine. D. establish an adequate airway.

D. establish an adequate airway.

The eyeball itself is referred to as the: A. cornea. B. orbit. C. sclera. D. globe.

D. globe.

Contraction or tensing of the abdominal muscles in an effort to ease pain is called: A. flexing. B. referring. C. withdrawing. D. guarding.

D. guarding.

Gastrointestinal bleeding should be suspected if a patient presents with: A. dyspnea. B. hemoptysis. C. hematuria. D. hematemesis.

D. hematemesis.

You respond to a residence for a 40-year-old female who was assaulted by her husband; the scene has been secured by law enforcement. Upon your arrival, you find the patient lying supine on the floor in the kitchen. She is semiconscious with severely labored breathing. Further assessment reveals a large bruise to the left anterior chest, jugular venous distention, and unilaterally absent breath sounds. As your partner is supporting her ventilations, you should: A. insert an oropharyngeal airway. B. obtain a set of baseline vital signs. C. perform a focused secondary exam. D. immediately request ALS support.

D. immediately request ALS support.

Bones are connected to other bones by bands of tough fibrous tissues called: A. bursa. B. tendons. C. cartilage. D. ligaments.

D. ligaments.

Which of the following organs or structures does not reside within the mediastinum? A. Vena cavae B. Trachea C. Esophagus D. Lungs

D. lungs

If a person's tidal volume decreases, but his or her respiratory rate remains unchanged: A. minute volume will remain unchanged. B. excess carbon dioxide will be eliminated. C. minute volume will increase. D. minute volume will decrease

D. minute volume will decrease

The ________ nerves supply the diaphragm. A. costal B. intercostal C. vagus D. phrenic

D. phrenic

After applying a pressure dressing to a laceration on a patient's arm, you notice that blood is slowly beginning to saturate it. You should: A. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound. B. splint the arm and keep it below heart level. C. replace the dressing with another dressing. D. place additional dressings over the wound.

D. place additional dressings over the wound.

Crepitus and false motion are: A. indicators of a severe sprain. B. only seen with open fractures. C. most common with dislocations. D. positive indicators of a fracture.

D. positive indicators of a fracture.

The EMT must assume that any unwitnessed water-related incident is accompanied by: A. cold-water immersion. B. alcohol intoxication. C. an air embolism. D. possible spinal injury.

D. possible spinal injury.

A 22-year-old male was kicked in the abdomen multiple times during an assault. He is conscious but restless and his pulse is rapid. His skin is cold and moist. Your assessment reveals a large area of bruising to the right upper quadrant of his abdomen. The most appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. applying oxygen via nasal cannula. B. performing a focused physical exam. C. a detailed assessment of his abdomen. D. preparing for immediate transport.

D. preparing for immediate transport.

A "hip" fracture is actually a fracture of the: A. pelvic girdle. B. femoral shaft. C. pubic symphysis. D. proximal femur.

D. proximal femur.

Early bruising following abdominal trauma often manifests as: A. dark-purple marks. B. gross distention. C. localized pain. D. red areas of skin.

D. red areas of skin.

An 8-year-old male was bitten by a stray dog. He has a large laceration to the back of his left hand, which your partner covered with a sterile dressing and bandage. In addition to transporting the child to the hospital, you should: A. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. ask the child's father to try to locate the dog. C. advise the child that he will need rabies shots. D. report the incident to the appropriate authorities.

D. report the incident to the appropriate authorities.

A patient who cannot remember the events that preceded his or her head injury is experiencing: A. prograde amnesia. B. anterograde amnesia. C. posttraumatic amnesia D. retrograde amnesia.

D. retrograde amnesia.

Which of the following nerves carries information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord? A. Somatic B. Central C. Motor D. Sensory

D. sensory

When assessing a patient with a hemothorax, you will most likely find: A. jugular venous engorgement. B. ipsilateral tracheal deviation. C. distant or muffled heart tones. D. signs and symptoms of shock.

D. signs and symptoms of shock.

You should be most suspicious that a patient has experienced a significant head injury if his or her pulse is: A. weak B. irregular. C. rapid D. slow

D. slow

What type of muscle contracts and relaxes to control the movement of the contents within its structures? A. cardiac B. skeletal C. striated D. smooth

D. smooth

A 30-year-old female was robbed and assaulted as she was leaving a nightclub. She has massive facial trauma and slow, gurgling respirations. As your partner manually stabilizes her head, you should: A. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. visualize her mouth for obvious wounds. C. begin immediate ventilatory assistance. D. suction her oropharynx.

D. suction her oropharynx.

Heatstroke occurs when: A. a person's core body temperature rises above 103°F (39°C). B. the ambient temperature exceeds 90°F (32°C) and the humidity is high. C. a person becomes dehydrated secondary to excess water loss. D. the body's heat-eliminating mechanisms are overwhelmed.

D. the body's heat-eliminating mechanisms are overwhelmed.

Elevation of the rib cage during inhalation occurs when: A. the diaphragm descends. B. abdominal contents descend. C. intrathoracic pressure decreases. D. the intercostal muscles contract.

D. the intercostal muscles contract.

In which of the following situations would external bleeding be the most difficult to control? A: Carotid artery laceration and a systolic blood pressure of 60 mm Hg B: Jugular vein laceration and a systolic blood pressure of 90 mm Hg C: Antecubital vein laceration and a blood pressure of 138/92 mm Hg D: Femoral artery laceration and a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg

D: Femoral artery laceration and a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg

A 66-year-old male presents with dark red rectal bleeding and abdominal pain. He is conscious and alert; however, his skin is cool and clammy and his pulse is rapid. Further assessment reveals that his blood pressure is 112/60 mm Hg. Which of the following questions would be most pertinent to ask him? A: What does your blood pressure normally run? B: Do you take any over-the-counter medications? C: Has blood soaked through your undergarments? D: Have you experienced recent abdominal trauma?

D: Have you experienced recent abdominal trauma?

Which of the following breathing patterns is most indicative of increased intracranial pressure? A: Increased rate and depth with the distinct odor of acetone on the patient's breath B: Increased rate with a normal inspiratory time and a prolonged expiratory time C: Slow, shallow occasional gasps that progress to prolonged periods of apnea D: Irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea

D: Irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea

In which of the following situations would the EMT be the least likely to immobilize a patient's spine? A: Unresponsive, but moving all extremities equally B: No spinal pain, but tingling in the extremities C: Pain to the c-spine, but no numbness or tingling. D: No distracting injuries or evidence of intoxication

D: No distracting injuries or evidence of intoxication

Which of the following statements regarding hemophilia is correct? A: Hemophiliacs take aspirin to enhance blood clotting. B: Hemophilia is defined as a total lack of platelets. C: Approximately 25% of the population has hemophilia. D: Patients with hemophilia might bleed spontaneously.

D: Patients with hemophilia might bleed spontaneously.

What part of the nervous system controls the body's voluntary activities? A: Autonomic B: Sensory C: Central D: Somatic

D: Somatic

Which of the following statements regarding motor nerves is correct? A: They perform special functions such as sight, smell, and hearing. B: They transmit information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord. C: They are part of the CNS and control reflexes. D: They carry information from the CNS to the muscles.

D: They carry information from the CNS to the muscles.

A flail chest occurs when: A: more than three ribs are fractured on the same side of the chest. B: a segment of fractured ribs bulges during the inhalation phase. C: multiple ribs are fractured on both sides of the thoracic cage. D: a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage.

D: a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage.

Signs of late heatstroke include: A: hot, moist skin. B: nausea and vomiting. C: a change in behavior. D: a weak, rapid pulse.

D: a weak, rapid pulse.

The most prominent symptom of decompression sickness is: A: difficulty with vision. B: dizziness and nausea. C: tightness in the chest. D: abdominal or joint pain.

D: abdominal or joint pain.

The meninges, along with the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) that circulates in between each meningeal layer, function by: A: producing leukocytes that protect the brain from infection. B: delivering oxygen directly to the CNS. C: regenerating brain cells after they have been damaged. D: acting as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord.

D: acting as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord.

An injured brain begins to swell initially due to: A: an epidural hematoma. B: a coup-contrecoup injury. C: intracranial pressure. D: cerebral edema.

D: cerebral edema.

The transfer of heat to circulating air, such as when cool air moves across the body's surface, is called: A: evaporation. B: radiation. C: conduction. D: convection.

D: convection.

Airbags are designed to: A: be used with or without a shoulder harness. B: prevent the driver from sustaining head trauma. C: prevent a second collision inside the car. D: decrease the severity of deceleration injuries.

D: decrease the severity of deceleration injuries.

A driver involved in a rollover motor vehicle crash will MOST likely experience serious injuries or death if he or she: A: experiences multiple impacts. B: remains within the vehicle. C:is wearing only a lap belt. D: is ejected or partially ejected.

D: is ejected or partially ejected.

The superficial temporal artery can be palpated: A: at the angle of the jaw. B: slightly above the ear. C: over the mastoid process. D: just anterior to the tragus.

D: just anterior to the tragus.

Facial injuries should be identified and treated as soon as possible because: A: the spine might be injured as well. B: swelling might mask hidden injuries. C: bleeding must be controlled early. D: of the risk for airway problems.

D: of the risk for airway problems.

During your secondary assessment of a 30-year-old male who fell 25 feet, you note crepitus when palpating his pelvis. Your partner advises you that the patient's blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg, and his heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak. After completing your assessment, you should: A: perform a focused physical exam with emphasis on the pelvis. B: defer spinal immobilization and transport to a trauma center. C: log roll the patient onto a long backboard and transport at once. D: stabilize the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine.

D: stabilize the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine.

The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: A: the detection of less obvious life-threatening injuries. B: a predictable pattern that leads to serious injuries. C: the way in which traumatic injuries occur. D: your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries.

D: your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries.

Which of the following medications increases a person's risk of a heat-related emergency? A. Motrin B. Diuretics C. Tylenol D. Aspirin

Diuretics

Which of the following statements regarding the cranium is correct? A. The cranium protects the structures of the face. B. Thirty percent of the cranium is occupied by blood. C. Eighty percent of the cranium is occupied by brain tissue. D. The skull is a subdivision of the cranium.

Eighty percent of the cranium is occupied by brain tissue

A 40-year-old unrestrained female impacted the steering wheel of her vehicle with her chest when she hit a tree while traveling at 45 mph. She is conscious and alert, but is experiencing significant chest pain and shortness of breath. Which of the following injuries is the LEAST likely? A. Head injury B. Multiple rib fractures C. Pulmonary contusion D. Cardiac contusion

Head injury

A 70-year-old man presents with a severe nosebleed. His medical history includes chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, depression, and a hemorrhagic stroke three years ago. His BP is 190/110 mm Hg, his pulse is 100 beats/min, and his respirations are 24 breaths/min. His medications include albuterol, sertraline (Zoloft), and multivitamins. Which of the following is most likely causing his nosebleed today? A. High blood pressure B. His prescribed albuterol C. Diabetic complications D. Hemorrhagic stroke

High blood pressure

How do you ACTUALLY pronounce Kaitlyns last name? A. Hawk B. Hulk C. How-k D. Don't say it Henry...

Its How-k bitches

Which of the following is a sign of compartment syndrome? A. Extreme redness to the injury site B. Absence of pain at the injury site C. A bounding pulse distal to the injury site D. Pain upon passive movement of the injury site

Pain upon passive movement of the injury site

Assuming that no obvious signs of intra-abdominal injury are present, which of the following injuries would most likely cause an injury to the liver or spleen to be overlooked? A. Femur fracture B. Lumbar spine fracture C. Shoulder fracture D. Pelvic fracture

Shoulder fracture

Which of the following types of muscle is under direct voluntary control of the brain? A. Cardiac B. Skeletal C. Smooth D. Autonomic

Skeletal

Which of the following organs can tolerate inadequate perfusion for two to three hours? A. Heart B. Brain C. Skeletal muscle D. Kidneys

Skeletal muscle

Which of the following statements regarding abdominal trauma is correct? A. Most of the vital abdominal organs lie within the retroperitoneal space. B. The liver is well protected and is rarely injured during a traumatic event. C. The absence of abdominal pain does not rule out intra-abdominal bleeding. D. Hollow abdominal organs are vascular and bleed profusely when injured.

The absence of abdominal pain does not rule out intra-abdominal bleeding

Which of the following body systems or components is the least critical for supplying and maintaining adequate blood flow to the body? A. An effectively pumping heart B. Adequate blood in the vasculature C. The filtering of blood cells in the spleen D. An intact system of blood vessels

The filtering of blood cells in the spleen

Which of the following statements regarding anterior nosebleeds is correct? A. They are usually caused by a fracture of the basilar skull. B. They cause blood to drain into the posterior pharynx. C. They usually originate from the septum area and bleed slowly. D. They are usually severe and require aggressive treatment to control.

They usually originate from the septum area and bleed slowly

For electricity to flow through the body and cause damage: A. the part of the body that is in contact with the electrical source must be dry. B. the person must make direct physical contact with the source of electricity. C. a complete circuit must exist between the electrical source and the ground. D. an insulator must exist between the electrical source and the patient.

a complete circuit must exist between the electrical source and the ground

Pneumothorax is defined as: A. blood collection within the lung tissue. B. blood collection within the pleural space. C. accumulation of air in the pleural space. D. accumulation of air between the lungs.

accumulation of air in the pleural space

While jogging, a 19-year-old male experienced an acute onset of shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Your assessment reveals that he has diminished breath sounds over the left side of the chest. You should: A. immediately perform a rapid head-to-toe exam. B. circumferentially tape a dressing around his chest. C. administer oxygen and transport to the hospital. D. recognize that he needs a needle decompression.

administer oxygen and transport to the hospital

When immobilizing a seated patient with a short backboard or vest-style immobilization device, you should apply a cervical collar: A. after assessing distal neurovascular functions. B. before manually stabilizing the patient's head. C. after moving the patient to a long backboard. D. after the torso has been adequately secured.after assessing distal

after assessing distal neurovascular functions

A 37-year-old male was pinned between a flatbed truck and a loading dock. On exam, you find bruising to the chest, distended neck veins, bilaterally diminished breath sounds, and bilateral scleral hemorrhaging. You should: A. request a paramedic ambulance. B. suspect a severe hemopneumothorax. C. perform a secondary assessment. D. aggressively manage his airway.

aggressively manage his airway

In addition to severe bleeding, the most life-threatening complication associated with an open neck injury is: A. nerve fiber damage. B. an air embolism. C. a spinal fracture. D. an ischemic stroke.

an air embolism

An open pneumothorax is: A. an open chest wound through which air moves during breathing. B. the entry of air into the pleural space from a perforated lung. C. extreme pleural pressure that causes the lung to rupture. D. a fractured rib that perforates the tissue of the lung surface.

an open chest wound through which air moves during breathing

A young female was involved in a motor vehicle crash. She complains of pain to her left eye, which appears to have a piece of glass impaled in it. Further assessment reveals a large laceration to her left forearm with active venous bleeding. As your partner manually stabilizes the patient's head, you should: A. carefully remove the glass from her eye. B. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. C. stabilize the impaled glass in her eye. D. apply direct pressure to her arm wound.

apply direct pressure to her arm wound

A 76-year-old male experienced sudden pain to his left thigh when he was standing in line at the grocery store. Your assessment reveals ecchymosis and deformity to the distal aspect of his left femur, just above the knee. Distal circulation and sensory and motor functions are intact. You should: A. flex the knee slightly and apply a formable splint. B. apply padded board splints to both sides of the leg. C. apply a traction splint to realign the deformity. D. bind the legs together and elevate them six feet to eight feet.

apply padded board splints to both sides of the leg

When controlling bleeding from a scalp laceration with a suspected underlying skull fracture, you should: A. apply firm compression for no longer than five minutes. B. avoid excessive pressure when applying the bandage. C. apply manual pressure and avoid applying a bandage. D. elevate the patient's head and apply an ice pack.

avoid excessive pressure when applying the bandage

The term "hyphema" is defined as: A. an acute rupture of the globe of the eye. B. compression of one or both optic nerves. C. inflammation of the iris, cornea, and lens. D. blood in the anterior chamber of the eye.

blood in the anterior chamber of the eye

A fracture is most accurately defined as a(n): A. abnormality in the structure of a bone. B. disruption in the midshaft of a bone. C. break in the continuity of the bone. D. total loss of function in a bone.

break in the continuity of the bone

While assessing a young male who was struck in the chest with a steel pipe, you note that his pulse is rapid and irregular. You should be MOST suspicious for: A. a lacerated coronary artery. B. underlying cardiac disease C. bruising of the heart muscle. D. traumatic rupture of the aorta.

bruising of the heart muscle

The germinal layer of the epidermis contains pigment granules that are responsible for skin: A. texture B. color C. moisture D. temperature

color

A construction worker fell approximately 30 feet and landed in a pile of steel rods. Your assessment reveals that he is pulseless and apneic and has a 10-foot steel rod impaled in his left leg. You should: A. control the bleeding, carefully remove the steel rod, begin CPR, and transport as soon as possible. B. stabilize the steel rod, control the bleeding, begin CPR, and rapidly transport to a trauma center. C. remove the steel rod, control the bleeding, apply an automated external defibrillator, begin CPR, and transport to a trauma center. D. control the bleeding, begin CPR, stabilize the steel rod, immobilize his spine, and transport immediately.

control the bleeding, begin CPR, stabilize the steel rod, immobilize his spine, and transport immediately

The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the: A. Intercostal margin. B. anterior rib cage. C. diaphragm. D. costovertebral angle.

diaphragm

A supracondylar or intercondylar fracture is also known as a fracture of the: A. olecranon process. B. proximal radius. C. radial head. D. distal humerus.

distal humerus

Accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity will most likely cause: A. distention B. nausea or vomiting C. referred pain D. diffuse bruising

distention

When the body loses sweat, it also loses: A. nutrients. B. plasma. C. erythrocytes. D. electrolytes.

electrolytes

A 52-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her face when her truck collided with another vehicle. She has obvious swelling to her face and several dislodged teeth. A visual exam of her mouth reveals minimal bleeding. She is conscious and alert with a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, a pulse of 110 beats/min, and respirations of 22 breaths/min with adequate tidal volume. You should: A. fully immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport. B. fully immobilize her spine, irrigate her empty tooth sockets, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, and transport. C. assist ventilations with a BVM device, immobilize her spine, suction her oropharynx for 30 seconds, and transport. D. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, suction her airway as needed, disregard the dislodged teeth, and transport.

fully immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport

According to the American College of Surgeons Committee on Trauma (ACS-COT), an adult trauma patient should be transported to the highest level of trauma center if he or she: A. was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another patient in the same vehicle was killed. B. has a GCS score of less than or equal to 13 with a mechanism attributed to trauma. C. has a bleeding disorder or takes anticoagulant medications and has any blunt or penetrating injury. D. has a systolic blood pressure of less than 110 mm Hg or a heart rate greater than 110 beats/min.

has a GCS score of less than or equal to 13 with a mechanism attributed to trauma

Following a blunt injury to the head, a 22-year-old female is confused and complains of a severe headache and nausea. On the basis of these signs and symptoms, you should be MOST concerned with the possibility of: A. intracranial bleeding. B. airway compromise. C. spinal cord injury. D. a fracture of the skull.

intracranial bleeding

In contrast to a cerebral concussion, a cerebral contusion: A. usually does not cause a loss of consciousness. B. involves physical injury to the brain tissue. C. results from a laceration to the brain tissue. D. does not cause pressure within the skull.

involves physical injury to the brain tissue

A simple pneumothorax: A. is commonly caused by blunt chest trauma. B. is caused by penetrating chest trauma. C. often has a nontraumatic cause. D. heals on its own without any treatment.

is commonly caused by blunt chest trauma

When a light is shone into the pupil: A. it should become smaller in size. B. it should become larger in size. C. both pupils should dilate together. D. the opposite pupil should dilate.

it should become smaller in size

When opening the airway of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, you should use the: A. jaw-thrust maneuver. B. head tilt-chin lift maneuver. C. tongue-jaw lift maneuver. D. head tilt-neck lift maneuver.

jaw-thrust maneuver

17-year-old female dislocated her patella while playing soccer. Her knee is flexed, and she complains of severe pain. You should: A. keep her knee flexed and secure it with padded board splints. B. flex her knee slightly more and assess for distal circulation. C. make one attempt to return the patella to its normal position. D. gently straighten her knee and apply a padded board splint.

keep her knee flexed and secure it with padded board splints

Care for a patient with a fractured tibia and suspected compartment syndrome includes: A. applying chemical hot packs to the leg. B. applying traction to maintain distal pulses. C. keeping the leg at the level of the heart. D. immobilizing the leg with an air splint.

keeping the leg at the level of the heart

When caring for a patient with a possible head injury, it is most important to monitor the patient's: A. pulse regularity. B. pupil size. C. blood pressure. D. level of consciousness.

level of consciousness

Placing a pregnant patient in a supine position during the third trimester of pregnancy: A. results in spontaneous urinary incontinence if the bladder is full. B. is recommended if the patient has severe abdominal discomfort. C. might decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart. D. often causes hypotension secondary to cardiac compression.

might decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart

Signs and symptoms that might be found in a patient who has experienced a concussion include: A. hypotension and nosebleed. B. nausea and ringing in the ears. C. tachycardia and diaphoresis. D. anxiety and restlessness.

nausea and ringing in the ears

The most common and significant complication associated with fractures or dislocations of the knee is: A. neurovascular compromise. B. internal bleeding and shock. C. total depletion of synovial fluid. D. ligament and cartilage damage.

neurovascular compromise

Signs and symptoms of an air embolism include all of the following, except: A. dysphasia. B. pale skin. C. joint pain. D. dizziness.

pale skin

A spinal cord injury at the level of C7 would most likely result in: A. paralysis of the diaphragm. B. paralysis of the intercostal muscles. C. paralysis of all the respiratory muscles. D. immediate cardiac arrest.

paralysis of the intercostal muscles

Which of the following fractures has the greatest potential for internal blood loss and shock? A. Humerus B. Hip C. Pelvis D. Femur

pelvis

A 77-year-old woman slipped and fell on a throw rug and landed on her left hip. She denies striking her head or losing consciousness. Assessment of her left leg reveals that it is shortened and externally rotated. Distal pulses, sensory, and motor functions are intact. You should: A. bind both of her legs together with triangular bandages and carefully secure her onto the ambulance stretcher. B. carefully slide a long backboard underneath her, keep her in a supine position, and apply a splint to her leg. C. place her onto a scoop stretcher, pad around her left hip with pillows, and secure her to the scoop with straps. D. manually stabilize her left leg, apply a traction splint, and then secure her to a long backboard or scoop.

place her onto a scoop stretcher, pad around her left hip with pillows, and secure her to the scoop with straps

When immobilizing a child on a long backboard, you should: A. defer cervical collar placement to avoid discomfort. B. place padding under the child's shoulders as needed. C. place the child's head in a slightly extended position. D. secure the head prior to securing the torso and legs.

place padding under the child's shoulders as needed

To avoid exacerbating a patient's injury, it is especially important to use extreme caution when providing positive-pressure ventilation to patients with a: A. myocardial contusion. B. cardiac tamponade. C. pneumothorax. D. flail chest.

pneumothorax

You are transporting a 28-year-old man with a frostbitten foot. The patient's vital signs are stable, and he denies any other injuries or symptoms. The weather is treacherous, and your transport time to the hospital is approximately 45 minutes. During transport, you should: A. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. cover his foot with chemical heat compresses. C. rewarm his foot in 102°F to 104°F (38.9°C to 40°C) water. D. protect the affected part from further injury.

protect the affected part from further injury

When the speed of a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy: A. quadruples B. is not affected C. doubles D. triples

quadruples

When caring for an occupant inside a motor vehicle equipped with an airbag that did not deploy upon impact, you should: A. suspect that the patient may have experienced serious injuries. B. remember that it could still deploy and seriously injure you. C. realize that the airbag malfunctioned at the time of impact. D. recognize that the force of impact was most likely not severe.

remember that it could still deploy and seriously injure you

The optic nerve endings are located within the: A. retina B. cornea C. pupil D. sclera

retina

Burns associated with lightning strikes are typically: A. third-degree B. superficial C. partial-thickness D. full-thickness

superficial

A burn that is characterized by redness and pain is classified as a: A. full-thickness burn. B. superficial burn. C. second-degree burn. D. partial-thickness burn.

superficial burn

When immobilizing a trauma patient's spine, the EMT manually stabilizing the head should not let go until: A. the head has been stabilized with lateral immobilization. B. an appropriately sized cervical collar has been applied. C. the patient has been completely secured to the backboard. D. the patient has been secured to the ambulance stretcher.

the patient has been completely secured to the backboard

You arrive at the home of a 50-year-old female with severe epistaxis. As you are treating her, it is most important to recall that: A. the patient might be significantly hypertensive. B. a detailed exam is needed to determine the cause. C. the patient is at risk for vomiting and aspiration. D. many medications interfere with blood clotting.

the patient is at risk for vomiting and aspiration

In general, musculoskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless: A. the patient is in severe pain. B. transport time is less than 15 minutes. C. the patient is clinically unstable. D. deformity and swelling are present.

the patient is clinically unstable

The Adam's apple is: A. the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage. B. the small indentation in between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages. C. the lower part of the larynx that is formed by the cricoid cartilage. D. below the thyroid cartilage and forms the upper part of the trachea.

the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage

A 4-year-old female has a peanut lodged in the external auditory canal of her right ear. You should: A. use tweezers to try to remove the object. B. remove the peanut with a cotton-tipped swab. C. transport her to the emergency department. D. thoroughly flush her ear with sterile saline.

transport her to the emergency department