Final Exam

Which of the following is a modification of the simple columnar epithelium that allows for efficient absorption along portions of the digestive tract? A) dense microvilli B) thin and permeable C) fibroblasts D) cilia

A) dense microvilli

If a tRNA had an AGC anticodon, it could attach to a(n) ________ mRNA codon. A) AUG B) UCG C) TCG D) UGA

B) UCG

Which of the following would be regarded as an organic molecule? A) H2O B) NaCl C) NaOH D) CH4

D) CH4

17) The central (Haversian) canal that runs through the core of each osteon is the site of ________. A) cartilage and interstitial lamellae B) adipose tissue and nerve fibers C) yellow marrow and spicules D) blood vessels and nerve fibers

D) blood vessels and nerve fibers

6) Which of the following is the best explanation of how a stimulus' strength is transmitted to the central nervous system from sensory nerves? A) Action potential frequency is increased as stimulus' strength increases. B) An action potential will increase in strength as stimulus's strength increases. C) More than one type of receptor will respond to larger stimulus. D) Action potentials as well as graded potentials are sent to the central nervous system when stimulus strength increases.

A) Action potential frequency is increased as stimulus' strength increases.

28) Which of the following best describes the orbicularis oris? A) It closes, purses, and protrudes the lips. B) It pulls the lower lip down and back. C) It draws the eyebrows together. D) It closes the eye.

A) It closes, purses, and protrudes the lips.

35) Tendon sheaths ________. A) act as friction-reducing structures B) are lined with dense irregular connective tissue C) are extensions of periosteum D) help anchor the tendon to the muscle

A) act as friction-reducing structures

32) The sliding filament model of contraction involves ________. A) actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping B) the shortening of thick filaments so that thin filaments slide past C) actin and myosin lengthening in order to slide past each other D) the Z discs sliding over the myofilaments

A) actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping

A ciliated version of pseudostratified columnar epithelium containing mucus-secreting goblet cells ________. A) lines most of the respiratory tract B) aids in digestion C) is more durable than all other epithelia D) is found in some of the larger glands

A) lines most of the respiratory tract

18) If a lever operates at a mechanical disadvantage, it means that the ________. A) load is far from the fulcrum and the effort is applied near the fulcrum B) lever system is useless C) effort is farther than the load from the fulcrum D) load is near the fulcrum and the effort is at the distal end

A) load is far from the fulcrum and the effort is applied near the fulcrum

36) Prevention of water loss is a necessary function for life that would best fit in the category of ________. A) maintaining boundaries B) metabolism C) responsiveness D) excretion

A) maintaining boundaries

4) Tactile sensation is a combination of touch, pressure, stretch and vibration. Which of the following is most likely the receptor type that senses tactile stimulation? A) mechanoreceptors B) thermoreceptors C) nociceptors D) proprioceptors

A) mechanoreceptors

38) What part of the sarcolemma contains acetylcholine receptors? A) motor end plate B) end of the muscle fiber C) part adjacent to another muscle cell D) any part of the sarcolemma

A) motor end plate

cell engulfing a relatively large particle will likely utilize ________. A) phagocytosis B) pinocytosis C) receptor-mediated endocytosis D) exocytosis

A) phagocytosis

20) Starting at the spinal cord, the subdivisions of the brachial plexus are (in order) ________. A) roots, trunks, divisions, and cords B) roots, divisions, cords, and trunks C) divisions, roots, trunks, and cords D) trunks, divisions, cords, and roots

A) roots, trunks, divisions, and cords

28) Muscle tissue has all of the following properties except ________. A) secretion B) contractility C) extensibility D) excitability

A) secretion

15) Which group of muscles elevates the first two ribs and flexes and rotates the neck? A) the scalenes B) the iliocostalis C) the spinalis D) the splenius

A) the scalenes

30) After axonal injury, regeneration in peripheral nerves is guided by ________. A) Wallerian cells B) Schwann cells C) dendrites D) Golgi organs

B) Schwann cells

3) Most skeletal muscles contain ________. A) muscle fibers of the same type B) a mixture of fiber types C) a predominance of slow oxidative fibers D) a predominance of fast oxidative fibers

B) a mixture of fiber types

39) Although all the anatomical parts of muscle work together to give it it's characteristics, which of the following proteins listed below would be most associated with the characteristics of extensibility? A) acetylcholine receptors in the motor end plate B) elastic (titin) filaments C) thick (myosin) filaments D) potassium (K+) leak channels

B) elastic (titin) filaments

9) Which of the following is implicated in osteoporosis in older women? A) poor posture B) estrogen deficiency due to menopause C) heritage such as African or Mediterranean D) abnormal PTH receptors

B) estrogen deficiency due to menopause

16) Which of the following muscles is involved in crossing one leg over the other to produce the cross-legged position? A) the gastrocnemius B) the sartorius C) all of the hamstrings D) the quadriceps femoris

B) the sartorius

26) Which of these is NOT a way of classifying muscles? A) muscle location B) the type of muscle fibers C) the type of action they cause D) muscle shape

B) the type of muscle fibers

27) Smooth muscle is characterized by all of the following except ________. A) it appears to lack troponin B) there are more thick filaments than thin filaments C) there are no sarcomeres D) there are noncontractile intermediate filaments that attach to dense bodies within the cell

B) there are more thick filaments than thin filaments

29) Which muscle group is involved when a "pulled groin" occurs? A) quadriceps B) thigh adductors C) lateral rotators D) hamstrings

B) thigh adductors

19) Which of these is not part of the dorsal cavity? A) cranial cavity B) thoracic cavity C) spinal cord D) vertebral cavity

B) thoracic cavity

16) Synovial fluid is present in joint cavities of freely movable joints. Which of the following statements is true about this fluid? A) It contains enzymes only. B) It contains lactic acid. C) It contains hyaluronic acid. D) It contains hydrochloric acid.

C) It contains hyaluronic acid.

37) Of the list below select the one that gives the least explanation for the relatively high mobility of the arms. A) The clavicle articulates to the axial skeleton at only the sternal end. B) The scapula does not articulate to the axial skeleton directly. C) The subscapular notch is a passage way for nerves. D) The relatively open glenoid cavity of the glenohumeral joint.

C) The subscapular notch is a passage way for nerves.

Which of the following does NOT characterize proteins? A) They may be denatured or coagulated by heat or acidity. B) They have both functional and structural roles in the body. C) They appear to be the molecular carriers of coded hereditary information. D) Their function depends on their three-dimensional shape.

C) They appear to be the molecular carriers of coded hereditary information.

A gene can best be defined as ________. A) a three-base triplet that specifies a particular amino acid B) noncoding segments of DNA up to 100,000 nucleotides long C) a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain D) an RNA messenger that codes for a particular polypeptide

C) a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain

23) Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle? A) cholinesterase B) norepinephrine C) acetylcholine D) gamma aminobutyric acid

C) acetylcholine

41) Which vertebra does not have a body? A) last lumbar B) axis C) atlas D) last cervical

C) atlas

16) Autonomic ganglia contain ________. A) an outer connective tissue capsule around the cell bodies of preganglionic motor neurons B) synapses between postganglionic fibers and their effectors C) the cell bodies of motor neurons D) both somatic afferent and efferent neurons

C) the cell bodies of motor neurons

Which of the following does NOT describe enzymes? A) Some enzymes are purely protein. B) Some enzymes are protein plus a cofactor. C) Each enzyme is chemically specific. D) Enzymes work by raising the energy of activation.

D) Enzymes work by raising the energy of activation.

Which of the following elements is necessary for proper conduction of nerve impulses? A) Fe B) I C) P D) Na

D) Na

12) Which one of the following systems responds fastest to environmental stimuli? A) muscular B) lymphatic C) immune D) nervous

D) nervous

14) Fibrous joints are classified as ________. A) pivot, hinge, and ball and socket B) symphysis, sacroiliac, and articular C) hinge, saddle, and ellipsoidal D) sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses

D) sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses

5) On the basis of structural classification, which is a fibrous joint? A) symphysis B) synchondrosis C) pivot D) syndesmosis

D) syndesmosis

26) Which of the following is true about smooth muscle? A) Certain smooth muscle cells can actually divide to increase their numbers. B) Smooth muscle, in contrast to skeletal muscle, cannot synthesize or secrete any connective tissue elements. C) Smooth muscle cannot stretch as much as skeletal muscle. D) Smooth muscle has well-developed T tubules at the site of invagination.

A) Certain smooth muscle cells can actually divide to increase their numbers.

15) When a neurotransmitter like acetylcholine is acting in an excitatory manner which of the following is likely a result of the acetylcholine acting on the post synaptic cell? A) Chemically gated sodium channels will open. B) Chemically gated chloride channels will open. C) Chemically gated potassium channels will open. D) Chemically gated sodium channels will be closed.

A) Chemically gated sodium channels will open.

Which statement about enzymes is FALSE? A) Enzymes require contact with substrate in order to assume their active form. B) Most enzymes can catalyze millions of reactions per minute. C) Enzymes may use coenzymes derived from vitamins or cofactors from metallic elements. D) Enzymes may be damaged by high temperature.

A) Enzymes require contact with substrate in order to assume their active form.

19) Which of the following is a true statement regarding gliding movements? A) Gliding movements occur at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints. B) Gliding movements allow flexibility of the upper limbs. C) Gliding movements are multiaxial. D) An example of a gliding movement is nodding one's head.

A) Gliding movements occur at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints.

15) Water loss through the epidermis could cause a serious threat to health and well-being. Which of the following protects us against excessive water loss through the skin? A) Glycolipids that are secreted by keratinocytes into extracellular spaces. B) The size and shape of the cells that make up the stratum spinosum, as well as the thick bundles of intermediate filaments. C) The dermis is the thickest portion of the skin and water cannot pass through it. D) Fat associated with skin prevents water loss.

A) Glycolipids that are secreted by keratinocytes into extracellular spaces.

29) In addition to protection (physical and chemical barrier), the skin serves other functions. Which of the following is another vital function of the skin? A) It converts modified epidermal cholesterol to a vitamin D precursor important to calcium metabolism. B) It aids in the transport of materials throughout the body. C) The cells of the epidermis store glucose as glycogen for energy. D) It absorbs vitamin C so that the skin will not be subject to diseases.

A) It converts modified epidermal cholesterol to a vitamin D precursor important to calcium metabolism.

21) Which of the following statements is the most correct regarding homeostatic imbalance? A) It is considered the cause of most diseases. B) The internal environment is becoming more stable. C) Positive feedback mechanisms are overwhelmed. D) Negative feedback mechanisms are functioning normally.

A) It is considered the cause of most diseases.

7) Which statement correctly explains why hair appears the way it does? A) Kinky hair has flat, ribbonlike hair shafts. B) Perfectly round hair shafts result in wavy hair. C) Air bubbles in the hair shaft cause straight hair. D) Gray hair is the result of hormonal action altering the chemical composition of melanin.

A) Kinky hair has flat, ribbonlike hair shafts.

Which of the following is true about the mode of secretion of exocrine glands? A) Merocrine glands are not altered by the secretory process. B) Apocrine cells are destroyed, then replaced, after secretion. C) Holocrine cells are slightly damaged by the secretory process, but repair themselves. D) These glands are ductless.

A) Merocrine glands are not altered by the secretory process.

34) Which of the following statements is most accurate? A) Muscle tension remains relatively constant during isotonic contraction. B) T tubules may be sliding during isotonic contraction. C) The I band lengthens during isotonic contraction. D) Myofilaments slide during isometric contractions.

A) Muscle tension remains relatively constant during isotonic contraction.

Which of the following is a principle of the fluid mosaic model of cell membrane structure? A) Phospholipids form a bilayer that is largely impermeable to water-soluble molecules. B) Phospholipids consist of a polar head and a nonpolar tail made of three fatty acid chains. C) The lipid bilayer is a solid at body temperature, thus protecting the cell. D) All proteins associated with the cell membrane are contained in a fluid layer on the outside of the cell.

A) Phospholipids form a bilayer that is largely impermeable to water-soluble molecules.

Which of the following would NOT assist in establishing a resting membrane potential? A) Selective diffusion allowing more uncharged particles into the cell. B) Selective diffusion allowing more positively charged ions to diffuse out of the cell. C) Selective diffusion allowing fewer positively charged ions to diffuse into the cell. D) Having greater concentration of glycolipids on the outside surface of the membrane.

A) Selective diffusion allowing more uncharged particles into the cell.

24) Select the most correct statement. A) The immune system is closely associated with the lymphatic system. B) Organ systems operate independently of each other to maintain life. C) The endocrine system is not a true structural organ system. D) Organ systems can be composed of cells or tissues, but not both.

A) The immune system is closely associated with the lymphatic system.

33) One of the descriptions below is from the perspective of anatomical study, the rest are from a physiological perspective. Select the description below that comes from an anatomical perspective. A) The innermost lining of the lungs is composed primarily of a thin tissue called simple squamous epithelium. B) The extremely thin tissue (simple squamous epithelium) of the lungs allows for the quick diffusion of respiratory gases into and out of the body. C) The direction of blood flow through the heart is directed by one way valves. D) The cell-to-cell connections between heart (cardiac) muscle cells are strong. They hold the tissue together for a life time of forceful contractions.

A) The innermost lining of the lungs is composed primarily of a thin tissue called simple squamous epithelium.

7) When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part of a muscle's name, what does it tell you about the muscle? A) The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively. B) The muscle is able to change direction twice, three times, or four times faster than other muscles, respectively. C) The muscle has two, three, or four functions, respectively. D) The muscle has two, three, or four insertions, respectively.

A) The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively.

22) Changes in the color of skin are often an indication of a homeostatic imbalance. Which of the following changes would suggest that a patient is suffering from Addison's disease? A) The skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance. B) Black-and-blue marks become evident for no apparent cause. C) The skin appears to have an abnormal, yellowish tint. D) It is impossible to suggest Addison's disease from an inspection of a person's skin.

A) The skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance.

Choose the answer that best describes HCO3-. A) a bicarbonate ion B) common in the liver C) a weak acid D) a proton donor

A) a bicarbonate ion

1) Which type of lever is demonstrated by using scissors? A) a first-class lever B) a second-class lever C) a third-class lever D) a fourth-class lever

A) a first-class lever

14) If a post synaptic cell is stimulated to threshold by temporal summation this implies that ________. A) a presynaptic neuron is sending frequent EPSP B) the presynaptic neuron is sending frequent IPSP C) the postsynaptic cell is sending frequent action potential D) the postsynaptic cell can be influenced by only one presynaptic cell

A) a presynaptic neuron is sending frequent EPSP

18) What is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle called? A) a sarcomere B) a myofilament C) a myofibril D) the sarcoplasmic reticulum

A) a sarcomere

20) What is moving a limb away from the midline of the body along the frontal plane called? A) abduction B) adduction C) flexion D) extension

A) abduction

40) Although all the anatomical parts of muscle work together to give it it's characteristics, which of the following proteins listed below would be most associated with the characteristics of excitability? A) acetylcholine receptors in the motor end plate B) elastic (titin) filaments C) actin of thin filaments D) the Na+-K+ pump

A) acetylcholine receptors in the motor end plate

29) Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are ________. A) afferent nerves B) efferent nerves C) motor nerves D) mixed nerves

A) afferent nerves

5) Where would you NOT find a cholinergeric nicotinic receptor? A) all parasympathetic target organs B) all postganglionic neurons (cell bodies and dendrites) C) adrenal medulla hormone producing cells D) sarcolemma of skeletal muscle cells at neuromuscular junctions

A) all parasympathetic target organs

7) Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are ________. A) amphiarthroses B) synarthroses C) diarthroses D) synovial joints

A) amphiarthroses

20) A muscle that opposes, or reverses, a particular movement is a(n) ________. A) antagonist B) fixator C) synergist D) agonist (prime mover)

A) antagonist

Edema (swelling) occurs when ________. A) areolar tissue soaks up excess fluid in an inflamed area B) adipose cells enlarge by pinocytosis C) collagen fibers enlarge as they change from dehydrated to hydrated shape D) reticular connective tissue invades the area

A) areolar tissue soaks up excess fluid in an inflamed area

What happens in redox reactions? A) both decomposition and electron exchange occur B) the electron acceptor is oxidized C) the organic substance that loses hydrogen is usually reduced D) the reaction is uniformly reversibl

A) both decomposition and electron exchange occur

Cancerous cells can divide so rapidly that they will often produce a glycocalyx that is different than the other cells in the body. This may result in ________. A) cells of the immune system recognizing the tumorous cells as foreign and destroying them B) the cancer cells conserving energy for more growth C) allowing the cancer cells to bind to their healthy, neighboring cells D) a decrease in the permeability of the tumor cell's plasma membrane preventing the uptake of chemotherapy drugs

A) cells of the immune system recognizing the tumorous cells as foreign and destroying them

33) When looking at the range of motion of the various sections of the vertebral column the ________ has the most flexibility A) cervical spine B) thoracic spine C) lumbar spine D) sacral spine

A) cervical spine

22) In an isotonic contraction, the muscle ________. A) changes in length and moves the "load" B) does not change in length but increases tension C) never converts pyruvate to lactate D) rapidly resynthesizes creatine phosphate and ATP

A) changes in length and moves the "load"

Cell type NOT found in areolar connective tissue. A) chondrocyte B) fibroblast C) macrophage D) mast cell

A) chondrocyte

6) The parasympathetic ganglion that serves the eye is the ________. A) ciliary ganglion B) pterygopalatine ganglion C) submandibular ganglion D) otic ganglion

A) ciliary ganglion

10) The ligaments that protect the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles and limit the movement of the femur anteriorly and posteriorly are called ________. A) cruciate ligaments B) patellar ligaments C) anterior ligaments D) tibial collateral ligaments

A) cruciate ligaments

Arteries, veins, and lymphatics keep clots from sticking as long as their ________ is intact and healthy. A) endothelium B) mesothelium C) transitional epithelium D) simple cuboidal epithelium

A) endothelium

20) These cells in the CNS have cilia that move in order to circulate cerebrospinal fluid ________. A) ependymal cells B) Schwann cells C) oligodendrocytes D) astrocytes

A) ependymal cells

A substance received or given off by your body will likely pass through which tissue type? A) epithelial tissue B) connective tissue C) nervous tissue D) muscle tissue

A) epithelial tissue

2) What muscle is primarily responsible for preventing foot drop? A) extensor digitorum longus B) tibialis anterior C) extensor hallucis longus D) fibularis tertius

A) extensor digitorum longus

2) Yellow bone marrow contains a large percentage of ________. A) fat B) blood-forming cells C) elastic tissue D) Sharpey's fibers

A) fat

23) A major nerve of the lumbar plexus is the ________. A) femoral B) iliohypogastric C) sciatic D) ilioinguinal

A) femoral

28) What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior regions called? A) frontal B) median C) sagittal D) transverse

A) frontal

Select which reactions will usually be irreversible regarding chemical equilibrium in human bodies. A) glucose to CO2 and H2O B) ADP + Pi to make ATP C) H2O + CO2 to make H2CO3 D) glucose molecules joined to make glycogen

A) glucose to CO2 and H2O

22) Which of the following is NOT a member of the hamstrings? A) gracilis B) semitendinosus C) semimembranosus D) biceps femoris

A) gracilis

What are the three main components of connective tissue? A) ground substance, fibers, and cells B) alveoli, fibrous capsule, and secretory cells C) collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers D) fibroblasts, chondroblasts, and osteoblasts

A) ground substance, fibers, and cells

40) Paralysis of which of the following muscles would make an individual unable to flex the knee? A) hamstring muscles B) gluteal muscles C) brachioradialis D) soleus

A) hamstring muscles

Which is true concerning muscle tissue? A) highly cellular and well vascularized B) cuboidal shape enhances function C) contains contractile units made of collagen D) is a single-celled tissue

A) highly cellular and well vascularized

15) In symphysis joints the articular surfaces of the bones are covered with ________. A) hyaline cartilage B) synovial membranes C) fibrocartilage D) tendon sheaths

A) hyaline cartilage

14) Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because ________. A) inactivation of ACh is fairly slow B) NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response C) preganglionic fibers are short D) preganglionic fibers are long

A) inactivation of ACh is fairly slow

Salts are always ________. A) ionic compounds B) single covalent compounds C) double covalent compounds D) hydrogen bonded

A) ionic compounds

43) The hyoid bone is unique because it ________. A) is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone B) is composed of three bones joined together C) is the only bone formed by the fusion of right and left halves D) is the only irregular bone found in the neck

A) is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone

2) Some large arteries that are proximal to the heart are sensitive to the stretch of the blood vessels. This stretch indicates the blood's pressure. Which of the following pairs of classifications below best fit the receptor type that is being described above? A) mechanoreceptors that are also interoceptors B) thermoreceptors that are also interoceptors C) mechanoreceptors that are also exteroceptors D) thermoreceptors that are also exteroceptors

A) mechanoreceptors that are also interoceptors

8) Meningitis can be caused by infection of the central nervous system by bacteria. Which cells would be most responsible for removing the infection? A) microglia B) satellite cells C) Schwann cells D) oligodendrocytes

A) microglia

19) Which of the choices below describes the ANS? A) motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands B) motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles C) sensory neurons that convey information from somatic receptors in the head, body wall, and limbs and from receptors from the special senses of vision, hearing, taste, and smell to the CNS D) sensory and motor neurons that supply the digestive tract

A) motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

23) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for muscle contractions? A) motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments B) neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, motor neuron action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, sliding of myofilaments, ATP-driven power stroke C) muscle cell action potential, neurotransmitter release, ATP-driven power stroke, calcium ion release from SR, sliding of myofilaments D) neurotransmitter release, motor neuron action potential, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke

A) motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments

The functions of centrioles include ________. A) organizing the mitotic spindle in cell division B) providing a whiplike beating motion to move substances along cell surfaces C) serving as the site for ribosomal RNA synthesis D) producing ATP

A) organizing the mitotic spindle in cell division

21) Bones are constantly undergoing resorption (breaking bone down) for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process? A) osteoclast B) osteocyte C) osteoblast D) stem cell

A) osteoclast

9) The "resting and digesting" division of the autonomic nervous system is the ________. A) parasympathetic division B) sympathetic division C) somatic division D) peripheral division

A) parasympathetic division

15) In which body cavities are the lungs located? A) pleural, ventral, and thoracic B) mediastinal, thoracic, and ventral C) pleural, dorsal, and abdominal D) pericardial, ventral, and thoracic

A) pleural, ventral, and thoracic

If active transport establishes a concentration gradient with the use of ATP, then the concentration gradient can be looked at as ________. A) potential energy that can be harnessed when molecules passively diffuse down the concentration gradient B) an unusable byproduct of active transport that will simply diffuse away C) unwanted pressure that will be alleviated by channel mediated facilitated diffusion D) a byproduct of active transport that will be alleviated by pinocytosis

A) potential energy that can be harnessed when molecules passively diffuse down the concentration gradient

12) What is the primary function of wave summation? A) produce smooth, continuous muscle contraction B) increase muscle tension C) prevent muscle relaxation D) prevent muscle fatigue

A) produce smooth, continuous muscle contraction

39) Moving your jaw forward, causing an underbite, is called ________. A) protraction B) pronation C) adduction D) retraction

A) protraction

8) The most powerful muscle in the body is the ________. A) quadriceps femoris B) rectus abdominis C) gastrocnemius D) gluteus maximus

A) quadriceps femoris

2) Nerve impulses leading to the brain carry information about cool temperatures on the skin. The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system? A) sensory (afferent) division B) somatic nervous system C) sympathetic division D) parasympathetic division

A) sensory (afferent) division

4) Cranial nerve II, the optic nerve sends nerve impulses to the brain carrying information about the things we see. These nerve fibers most likely belong to which division of the nervous system? A) sensory (afferent) division B) somatic nervous system C) sympathetic division D) parasympathetic division

A) sensory (afferent) division

30) The hypothalamus is a region of the brain controlling many aspects of the endocrine system. It works closely with the pituitary gland. The hypothalamus is directly superior to the pituitary and is therefore ________. A) superior to the sella turcica B) superior to the crista galli C) inferior to the cribriform plate D) the only region of the brain that is outside of the skull

A) superior to the sella turcica

3) Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response is the role of the ________. A) sympathetic division B) cerebrum C) parasympathetic division D) somatic nervous system

A) sympathetic division

27) A reflex that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle tension is called a ________. A) tendon reflex B) flexor reflex C) crossed-extensor reflex D) plantar reflex

A) tendon reflex

38) The proximal end of the ulna illustrates the relationship of form and function. The rounded trochlear notch articulates with the hourglass shape of the trochlea. This forms a joint that allows for ________. A) the hinge like motion of the forearm B) the rotational motion of the forearm C) the curling of the fingers D) the hyper extension of the forearm

A) the hinge like motion of the forearm

33) Saltatory conduction is made possible by ________. A) the myelin sheath B) large nerve fibers C) diphasic impulses D) erratic transmission of nerve impulses

A) the myelin sheath

34) The range of motion as well as the direction of motion for the various regions of the spine differs. For example the lumbar spine is capable of flexion and extension but little rotational movement. While the thoracic spine rotates with little flexion or extension. This is due to variation in ________. A) the orientation of the superior and inferior articular facets B) the thickness of the intervertebral disc C) the composition of the intervertebral disks D) the arrangement of muscular attachment to the spinous processes

A) the orientation of the superior and inferior articular facets

25) Which ligament of the knee initiates the knee-jerk reflex when tapped? A) the patellar ligament B) the medial patellar retinacula C) the lateral patellar retinacula D) the extracapsular ligament

A) the patellar ligament

13) If a post synaptic neuron is stimulated to threshold by spatial summation this implies that ________. A) the postsynaptic cells has many synapses with many presynaptic neurons B) the post synaptic cell has a lower than normal threshold C) the post synaptic cell has many voltage gated ion channels D) the post synaptic cell is slow to repolarize

A) the postsynaptic cells has many synapses with many presynaptic neurons

A chemical reaction in which bonds are broken is usually associated with ________. A) the release of energy B) the consumption of energy C) a synthesis D) forming a larger molecule

A) the release of energy

17) The dermis has two major layers. Which layer constitutes 80% of the dermis and is responsible for the tension lines in the skin? A) the reticular layer B) the subcutaneous layer C) the hypodermal layer D) the papillary layer

A) the reticular layer

24) Which of the bones of the skull would you most associate with hearing and balance? A) the temporal bone B) the parietal bone C) the occipital bone D) the zygomatic bone

A) the temporal bone

13) Dermatome maps are useful to clinicians because ________. A) they can help pinpoint the location of spinal injury B) they show doctors how to avoid striking spinal nerves during surgery C) they show the routes of motor nerves D) they outline the location of the numerous nerve plexus

A) they can help pinpoint the location of spinal injury

38) Which of the following muscles is involved in inversion at the ankle joint? A) tibialis anterior B) extensor digitorum longus C) fibularis (peroneus) tertius D) fibularis (peroneus) longus

A) tibialis anterior

45) What are the major functions of the intervertebral discs? A) to absorb shock and provide flexibility to the spine B) to hold together the vertebra and support the body C) to prevent hyperextension and allow rotation of the spine D) to remove curvatures of the spine and provide springiness to the spinal column

A) to absorb shock and provide flexibility to the spine

Which of the following is a general function for a fibrous protein? A) transport B) protein management C) body defense D) catalysis E) structural framework

A) transport

31) Baseball pitchers often require "Tommy John" surgery to repair damage to their elbow. Which ligament would this surgery target? A) ulnar collateral ligament B) anular ligament C) acetabular labrum D) lateral ligament

A) ulnar collateral ligament

Which statement best describes connective tissue? A) usually contains a large amount of matrix B) typically arranged in a single layer of cells C) primarily concerned with secretion D) usually lines a body cavity

A) usually contains a large amount of matrix

27) Which of the following muscles is NOT a member of the hamstrings group? A) vastus intermedius B) semitendinosus C) semimembranosus D) biceps femoris

A) vastus intermedius

20) Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that ________. A) visceral arcs contain two sensory neurons B) somatic arcs contain one additional component that visceral arcs do not possess C) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons D) visceral arcs do not use integration centers

A) visceral arcs contain two sensory neurons

17) Place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex: 1. molecules 2. atoms 3. tissues 4. cells 5. organs A) 1-2-3-4-5 B) 2-1-4-3-5 C) 2-1-3-4-5 D) 1-2-4-3-5

B) 2-1-4-3-5

26) The composition of the secretions of the eccrine glands is ________. A) primarily uric acid B) 99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C C) fatty substances, proteins, antibodies, and trace amounts of minerals and vitamins D) metabolic wastes

B) 99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C

35) Which of the following is false or incorrect? A) An excitatory postsynaptic potential occurs if the excitatory effect is greater than the inhibitory effect but less than threshold. B) A nerve impulse occurs if the excitatory and inhibitory effects are equal. C) An inhibitory postsynaptic potential occurs if the inhibitory effect is greater than the excitatory, causing hyperpolarization of the membrane.

B) A nerve impulse occurs if the excitatory and inhibitory effects are equal.

10) An action potential is regarded as an example of a positive feedback. Which of the following examples below best illustrates the positive feedback aspect of an action potential? A) Voltage gated potassium ion channels open slowly and remain open long enough to cause hyperpolarization. B) A threshold stimulus will cause the opening of voltage gated sodium ion channels that will cause further depolarizing stimulus. This stimulus will open still more voltage gated sodium ion channels. C) The sodium potassium pump consistently moves ions as long as ATP is available, and regardless of membrane potential changes. D) Potassium permeability is about 25 times greater than sodium ions.

B) A threshold stimulus will cause the opening of voltage gated sodium ion channels that will cause further depolarizing stimulus. This stimulus will open still more voltage gated sodium ion channels.

12) In the classification of joints, which of the following is true? A) Immovable joints are called amphiarthroses. B) All synovial joints are freely movable. C) Synarthrotic joints are slightly movable. D) In cartilaginous joints, a joint cavity is present.

B) All synovial joints are freely movable.

Bone is a connective tissue that provides support for the body with its strength and rigidity. Which of the following provides the best explanation for how this is so? A) Bone cells have extensive cytoskeleton that makes them ridged. B) Bones cells secrete an extracellular matrix that when combined with minerals becomes rock hard. C) The bone cell's plasma membrane contains a high degree of cholesterol that stabilizes the cell membrane, giving it strength. D) Bone cells are very dense and therefore resist physical stress.

B) Bones cells secrete an extracellular matrix that when combined with minerals becomes rock hard.

17) The effect of acetylcholine can be stimulating or inhibiting. Which of the following gives the best explanation for why this is so? A) Acetylcholine has many different forms. B) Different post synaptic cells will have different receptors. C) Postsynaptic cells have a dynamic and changing metabolism and respond differently at different times. D) Acetylcholine has a "dose effect". Larger doses are stimulating while small doses inhibit.

B) Different post synaptic cells will have different receptors.

Which of the following would be of most importance to goblet cells and other glandular epithelia? A) microvilli B) Golgi apparatus C) lysosomes D) multiple nuclei

B) Golgi apparatus

40) Antibiotic treatment would be recommended for ________. A) gout B) Lyme disease C) rheumatoid arthritis D) osteoarthritis

B) Lyme disease

19) For intramembranous ossification to take place, which of the following is necessary? A) A bone collar forms around the cartilage model. B) Ossification centers form in the fibrous connective tissue membrane. C) The cartilage matrix begins to deteriorate. D) A medullary cavity forms.

B) Ossification centers form in the fibrous connective tissue membrane.

10) A bit of dust blows into and touches the cornea of the eye. Which of the following is likely to happen? A) Nothing, because there is no sensory information sent from the cornea. B) Stimulation of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (V) will cause blinking. C) Stimulation of the optic nerve (II) will cause tears to flow from the lacrimal gland. D) Stimulation of the facial nerve (VII) will be perceived as pain.

B) Stimulation of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (V) will cause blinking.

A type of transport protein found in the plasma membrane of cells lining the inside of the intestine allows sodium ions to diffuse down their concentration gradient. The ions move through the transport protein, and into the cell. These transport proteins will use the kinetic energy of the diffusing sodium ions to bring glucose into the cells as well. Which of the following would stop transport of glucose through this transport protein? A) Increasing the concentration of glucose outside of the cell. B) Stopping the activity of the sodium potassium pump. C) Increasing the number of digestive enzymes in the digestive tract. D) Lowering the energy of activation.

B) Stopping the activity of the sodium potassium pump.

32) The study of anatomy and physiology assumes and describes a healthy body. Select the description below that does NOT explain why this approach is useful. A) A healthy body provides a common standard to compare to. B) Study of a healthy body is less intimidating and more familiar new students. C) A healthy body establishes what "normal" is. D) Study of a healthy body provides a foundation for a more complete understanding of all human bodies.

B) Study of a healthy body is less intimidating and more familiar new students.

13) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Sympathetic origin is craniosacral; parasympathetic is thoracolumbar. B) Sympathetic ganglia are within a few centimeters of the CNS; parasympathetic ganglia are close to the visceral organs served. C) Sympathetic division has short preganglionic and long postganglionic fibers; parasympathetic has long preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers. D) Sympathetic has extensive branching of preganglionic fibers; parasympathetic has minimal branching of preganglionic fibers.

B) Sympathetic ganglia are within a few centimeters of the CNS; parasympathetic ganglia are close to the visceral organs served.

20) The friction ridges seen in finger, palm and foot prints are different among various people but very similar between identical twins. This evidence suggests which of the following? A) That friction ridges allow for better tactile sensation. B) That friction ridges are genetically determined. C) That friction ridges aid in griping. D) That friction ridges change over time.

B) That friction ridges are genetically determined.

18) Despite its apparent durability, the dermis is subject to tearing. How might a person know that the dermis has been previously stretched and/or torn? A) There is an episode of acute pain due to the large number of tactile corpuscles. B) The appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis. C) The blood vessels in the dermis rupture and the blood passes through the tissue, causing permanent "black-and-blue marks." D) The stretching causes the tension lines to disappear.

B) The appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis.

9) An emergency medical technician is examining a trauma victim by shining a pen light into her patient's eye. She records the reactivity of the patents pupils as they constrict when stimulated by the light. This test supports which of the following? A) The patient has suffered brain damage. B) The patient has function of the oculomotor nerve (III). C) The patient has lost function of the optic nerve (II). D) The patient has function of the trochlear nerve (IV).

B) The patient has function of the oculomotor nerve (III).

10) Which of the following describes the suprahyoid muscles? A) They depress the larynx and hyoid bone if the mandible is fixed. B) They are a group of muscles that lie superior to the hyoid bone and help form the floor of the oral cavity. C) They move the pharynx superiorly during swallowing. D) They are often called strap muscles.

B) They are a group of muscles that lie superior to the hyoid bone and help form the floor of the oral cavity.

1) What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles? A) Tropomyosin is the chemical that activates the myosin heads. B) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules. C) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the actin binding sites on the myosin molecules. D) Tropomyosin is the receptor for the motor neuron neurotransmitter.

B) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules.

14) Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains ________. A) the lowest possible energy usage B) a relatively stable internal environment, within limits C) a static state with no deviation from preset points D) a dynamic state within an unlimited range, depending on circumstances

B) a relatively stable internal environment, within limits

2) Which of the following does NOT describe the ANS? A) a system of motor neurons that innervates smooth and cardiac muscle and glands B) a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells C) involuntary nervous system D) general visceral motor system

B) a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells

21) The cranial nerve with a cervical origin (spinal cord) is the ________. A) hypoglossal B) accessory C) vagus D) glossopharyngeal

B) accessory

13) Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin from UV damage when keratinocytes ________. A) provide the melanocyte with nutrients necessary for melanin synthesis B) accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer C) maintain the appropriate pH in order for the melanocyte to synthesize melanin granules D) maintain the appropriate temperature so the product of the melanocyte will not denature

B) accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer

13) During muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which active sites? A) myosin filaments B) actin filaments C) Z discs D) thick filaments

B) actin filaments

6) What is a muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement called? A) a synergist B) an agonist (prime mover) C) an antagonist D) a fixator

B) an agonist (prime mover)

24) Which of the following describes the nervous system integrative function? A) senses changes in the environment B) analyzes sensory information, stores information, makes decisions C) responds to stimuli by gland secretion or muscle contraction

B) analyzes sensory information, stores information, makes decisions

Choose the answer that best describes fibrous proteins. A) rarely exhibit secondary structure B) are very stable and insoluble in water C) are usually called enzymes D) are cellular catalysts

B) are very stable and insoluble in water

5) The concentration of ions in the chemical environment surrounding the neurons must be tightly regulated for neurons to function properly. Which of the following cells is most responsible for this? A) satellite cells B) astrocytes C) Schwann cells D) oligodendrocytes

B) astrocytes

6) The concentration neurotransmitters in the fluid of the synaptic cleft must be tightly regulated for neurons to function properly. Which of the following cells is most responsible for aiding in this regulation? A) satellite cells B) astrocytes C) Schwann cells D) oligodendrocytes

B) astrocytes

7) Bacteria in the blood can be prevented entry to the fluids surrounding the brain. Which cells are most responsible for preventing bacteria from entering the fluids of the brain? A) satellite cells B) astrocytes C) Schwann cells D) oligodendrocytes

B) astrocytes

5) A splinter penetrated into the skin of the sole of the foot, almost to the papillary region of the dermis. Which layer of the epidermis would be the final layer injured? A) granulosum B) basale C) lucidum D) spinosum

B) basale

23) The dorsal body cavity is the site of which of the following? A) intestines B) brain C) lungs D) liver

B) brain

6) Connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membrane that act as cushions in places where friction develops are called ________. A) menisci B) bursae C) ligaments D) tendons

B) bursae

The fiber type that gives connective tissue great tensile strength is ________. A) elastic B) collagen C) reticular D) muscle

B) collagen

The reason that intervertebral discs exhibit a large amount of tensile strength, which allows them to absorb shock, is because they possess ________. A) hydroxyapatite crystals B) collagen fibers C) reticular fibers D) elastic fibers

B) collagen fibers

50) Thoracic vertebrae differ from the other vertebrae in that they have ________. A) no transverse processes B) costal facets C) transverse foramina D) no intervertebral discs

B) costal facets

29) The body cavities that protect the nervous system are located in the ________ cavity. A) cranial B) dorsal C) vertebral D) thoracic E) ventral

B) dorsal

The shape of the external ear is maintained by ________. A) adipose tissue B) elastic cartilage C) hyaline cartilage D) fibrocartilage

B) elastic cartilage

14) Which of the following surrounds the individual muscle cell? A) perimysium B) endomysium C) epimysium D) fascicle

B) endomysium

19) What is the functional role of the T tubules? A) stabilize the G and F actin B) enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction C) hold cross bridges in place in a resting muscle D) synthesize ATP to provide energy for muscle contraction

B) enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction

3) Expiration (breathing out) is how the body removes excessive carbon dioxide from the blood. This is an example of ________. A) maintaining boundaries B) excretion of metabolic waste C) responsiveness D) metabolism

B) excretion of metabolic waste

21) The terms inversion and eversion pertain only to the ________. A) hands B) feet C) arms D) hands and the feet

B) feet

Connective tissue extracellular matrix is composed of ________. A) cells and fibers B) fibers and ground substance C) ground substance and cells D) all organic compounds

B) fibers and ground substance

30) Extracapsular ligaments stabilizing the knee include ________. A) the patellar ligament extending from femur to patella B) fibular and tibial collateral ligaments, which prevent lateral or medial rotation C) cruciate ligaments, which help secure the articulating bones together D) the oblique popliteal crossing the knee anteriorly

B) fibular and tibial collateral ligaments, which prevent lateral or medial rotation

32) Curvatures of the spine serve the body by ________. A) providing space for soft organs in the various body cavities B) giving additional springiness and flexibility to the spine which absorbs shock C) limiting the flexibility of the spine and preventing hyperextension D) applying greater pressure to the intervertebral disks preventing them from slipping

B) giving additional springiness and flexibility to the spine which absorbs shock

30) An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATPs per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is ________. A) the citric acid cycle B) glycolysis C) hydrolysis D) the electron transport chain

B) glycolysis

2) The study of large body structures, visible to the naked eye, such as the heart is called ________ anatomy. A) microscopic B) gross C) developmental D) systemic

B) gross

49) Which bone acts as a moveable base for the tongue? A) mandible B) hyoid bone C) zygomatic bone D) palatine

B) hyoid bone

40) An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is associated with ________. A) a change in sodium ion permeability B) hyperpolarization C) opening of voltage-regulated channels D) lowering the threshold for an action potential to occur

B) hyperpolarization

16) When a neurotransmitter like GABA is acting in an inhibitory manner which of the following is likely a result of the GABA acting on the post synaptic cell? A) depolarization of the postsynaptic cell membrane B) hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic cell membrane C) opening of chemically gated sodium channels D) influx of positively charged ions into the postsynaptic cell

B) hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic cell membrane

Heart muscle cells would tend to separate without ________. A) myofilaments B) intercalated discs C) flana D) stroma

B) intercalated discs

32) Which muscle(s) is (are) contracted to exhale forcibly? A) diaphragm alone B) internal intercostals and rectus abdominus C) external intercostals and diaphragm D) rectus abdominis and diaphragm

B) internal intercostals and rectus abdominus

25) Inborn or intrinsic reflexes are ________. A) rapid, predictable, and can be learned responses B) involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior C) autonomic only D) always mediated by the brain

B) involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior

37) Which of the following correctly describes a graded potential? A) it travels long distances B) it can have amplitudes of various sizes C) it is initiated by voltage changes in the membrane D) it has a depolarization, repolarization and hyperpolarization phase

B) it can have amplitudes of various sizes

12) Which of the following muscles is NOT a rotator cuff muscle? A) supraspinatus B) levator scapulae C) teres minor D) subscapularis

B) levator scapulae

11) The parietal pleura would represent a serous membrane ________. A) covering individual lungs B) lining the thoracic cavity C) covering the heart D) lining the abdominal cavity

B) lining the thoracic cavity

36) Of the following muscle types, which has only one nucleus, no sarcomeres, and few gap junctions? A) visceral smooth muscle B) multiunit smooth muscle C) cardiac muscle D) skeletal muscle

B) multiunit smooth muscle

37) Hypothetically, if a muscle were stretched to the point where thick and thin filaments no longer overlapped, ________. A) cross bridge attachment would be optimum because of all the free binding sites on actin B) no muscle tension could be generated C) maximum force production would result because the muscle has a maximum range of travel D) ATP consumption would increase because the sarcomere is "trying" to contract

B) no muscle tension could be generated

17) The parasympathetic fibers of the ________ nerves innervate smooth muscles of the eye that cause the lenses to bulge to accommodate close vision. A) optic (II) B) oculomotor (III) C) trochlear (IV) D) abducens (VI)

B) oculomotor (III)

3) The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the ________. A) osteocyte B) osteoblast C) osteoclast D) chondrocyte

B) osteoblast

23) A dendritic or Langerhan cell is a specialized ________. A) squamous epithelial cell B) phagocytic cell C) nerve cell D) melanocyte

B) phagocytic cell

18) Which of the following nerves does not arise from the brachial plexus? A) median B) phrenic C) radial D) ulnar

B) phrenic

If a cell is non-selectively engulfing samples of extracellular fluid, for example to absorb nutrients, it will likely utilize ________. A) phagocytosis B) pinocytosis C) receptor-mediated endocytosis D) exocytosis

B) pinocytosis

9) The gliding motion of the wrist uses ________ joints. A) hinge B) plane C) pivot D) condyloid

B) plane

7) Pointing the toes is an example of ________. A) circumduction B) plantar flexion C) pronation D) protraction

B) plantar flexion

39) Positive feedback differs from negative feedback because ________. A) positive feedback is generally beneficial while negative feedback is typically harmful B) positive feedback tends to enhance the triggering stimulus while negative feedback tends to return the body to a homeostatic balance or "ideal" level C) positive feedback is critical to health while negative feedback serves only to alert us to potential health threats D) positive feedback provides moment-to-moment wellbeing while negative feedback causes a cascade effect

B) positive feedback tends to enhance the triggering stimulus while negative feedback tends to return the body to a homeostatic balance or "ideal" level

30) What are the levers that operate at a mechanical advantage called? A) speed levers B) power levers C) functional levers D) dysfunctional levers

B) power levers

28) Which receptors adapt most slowly? A) smell receptors B) pressure receptors C) nociceptors D) touch receptors

B) pressure receptors

44) Along with support, the anterior longitudinal ligament of the vertebral column also acts to ________. A) hold the discs in place B) prevent hyperextension of the spine C) hold the spine erect D) protect the spinal cord

B) prevent hyperextension of the spine

8) Which of the following is a bone marking name that indicates an armlike bar of bone? A) meatus B) ramus C) foramen D) fossa E) epicondyle

B) ramus

24) Compared to the shoulder, displacements of the hip joints are ________. A) common due to the weight bearing the hip endures B) rare because of the ligament reinforcement C) common in all people who are overweight D) rare because the rotator cuff stabilizes the hip joint

B) rare because of the ligament reinforcement

21) When a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods? A) relaxation period B) refractory period C) latent period D) fatigue period

B) refractory period

42) The suture that connects the two parietal bones together is the ________. A) coronal B) sagittal C) lambdoid D) squamous

B) sagittal

47) Which of the following is an abnormal lateral curvature of the vertebral column often seen in the thoracic region? A) kyphosis B) scoliosis C) lordosis D) swayback

B) scoliosis

What structural level is represented by the coiling of the protein chain backbone into an alpha helix? A) primary structure B) secondary structure C) tertiary structure D) quaternary structure

B) secondary structure

25) One of the functional characteristics of life is excitability or responsiveness. This refers to ________. A) indigestible food residues stimulating the excretory system B) sensing changes in the environment and then reacting or responding to them C) the nervous system causing all living things to sometimes experience anger D) the necessity for all organisms to reproduce

B) sensing changes in the environment and then reacting or responding to them

The genetic information is coded in DNA by the ________. A) regular alteration of sugar and phosphate molecules B) sequence of the nucleotides C) three-dimensional structure of the double helix D) arrangement of the histones

B) sequence of the nucleotides

11) Which type of skin cancer appears as a scaly reddened papule and tends to grow rapidly and metastasize? A) melanoma B) squamous cell carcinoma C) basal cell carcinoma D) adenoma

B) squamous cell carcinoma

1) The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of ________. A) parasympathetic innervation B) sympathetic stimulation C) vagus (X) nerve activity D) somatic stimulation

B) sympathetic stimulation

6) Which of the following is a skin sensory receptor for touch? A) Pacinian corpuscle B) tactile corpuscle C) Ruffini body D) free nerve ending

B) tactile corpuscle

36) Which of the following is NOT strictly a part of a synovial joint? A) joint (articular) cavity B) tendon sheath C) articular cartilage D) articular (joint) capsule

B) tendon sheath

25) Which of the following would be most associated with housing the special sense organs? A) hyoid bone B) the facial bones C) the cranial bones D) the bones of the inner ear

B) the facial bones

12) As a cook chops red onions he begins to tear up due to activation of the lacrimal gland. Which of the following nerves provided the stimulus? A) the olfactory nerve (I) B) the facial nerve (VII) C) the vagus nerve (X) D) the optic nerve (II)

B) the facial nerve (VII)

36) The glenohumeral joint that articulates the humerus to the pectoral girdle is a highly mobile joint. This mobility comes at a cost because ________. A) the blood vessels that lead to the arm and hand can easily be cut off by the free range of motion B) the joint is relatively unstable and can easily dislocate C) muscles that span this mobile joint will only provide a reduced amount of power D) these type of joints are harder to control and coordinate

B) the joint is relatively unstable and can easily dislocate

26) Which of the following would be most associated with process of warming and humidifying inhaled air? A) hyoid bone B) the paranasal sinuses C) the cranial bones D) the bones comprising the orbits

B) the paranasal sinuses

32) An example of an interosseous fibrous joint is ________. A) the clavicle and the scapula at the distal ends B) the radius and ulna along its length C) between the vertebrae D) between the humerus and the glenoid cavity

B) the radius and ulna along its length

8) A patient has lost vision on the left side of both eyes. The patient has likely suffered damage to ________. A) the optic nerves B) the right optic tract C) the retinas of the eyes D) the optic chiasm

B) the right optic tract

39) The proximal end of the radius illustrates the relationship of form and function. The cup-like surface of the radial head articulates with the rounded shape of the capitulum. This forms a joint that allows for ________. A) the hinge like motion of the forearm B) the rotational motion of the forearm C) the curling of the fingers D) the hyper extension of the forearm

B) the rotational motion of the forearm

28) The sphenoid bone is sometimes referred to as a "key stone" of the skull. This is due to the fact that ________. A) the sphenoid bone is solid like a stone and provides the strength necessary to support the skull B) the sphenoid is in the center of the skull and it articulates (joins) with all of the other bones of the skull (excluding the mandible) C) the sphenoid is wedged in the superior most portion of the skull and supports all of the other bones below (excluding the mandible) D) the intricate shape of the sphenoid makes it critical to the district characteristics of the individual human face

B) the sphenoid is in the center of the skull and it articulates (joins) with all of the other bones of the skull (excluding the mandible)

11) A doctor asks her patient to follow the motion of her finger as she moves it up and down, left and right. Which of the following cranial nerves is not being tested? A) the abducens (VI) B) the vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII) C) the oculomotor nerve (III) D) the trochlear nerve (IV)

B) the vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)

Groups of cells that are similar in structure and perform a common or related function form a(n) ________. A) organ B) tissue C) organism D) organ system

B) tissue

1) Histology would be best defined as a study of ________. A) cells B) tissues C) cell chemistry D) the gross structures of the body

B) tissues

11) The supraspinatus is named for its location on the posterior aspect of the scapula above the spine. What is its action? A) to help hold the head of the humerus in the glenoid cavity and rotate the humerus laterally B) to initiate abduction of the arm, to stabilize the shoulder joint and to help prevent downward dislocation of the humerus C) to extend and medially rotate the humerus and to act as a synergist of the latissimus dorsi D) to flex and adduct the humerus and to act as a synergist of the pectoralis major

B) to initiate abduction of the arm, to stabilize the shoulder joint and to help prevent downward dislocation of the humerus

4) Generally what is the result of the negative feedback process? A) to control body movement B) to maintain homeostasis C) to keep the body's blood sugar level high D) to regulate excretion via the kidneys

B) to maintain homeostasis

27) Which ion channel opens in response to a change in membrane potential and participates in the generation and conduction of action potentials? A) mechanically gated channel B) voltage-gated channel C) leakage channel D) ligand-gated channel

B) voltage-gated channel

Chondroblasts ________. A) are mature cartilage cells located in spaces called lacunae B) within the cartilage divide and secrete new matrix C) remain in compact bone even after the epiphyseal plate closes D) never lose their ability to divide

B) within the cartilage divide and secrete new matrix

35) What do the genioglossus, hyoglossus, and styloglossus muscles have in common? A) All names reflect direction of muscle fibers. B) Each acts synergistically to elevate the jaw. C) All act on the tongue. D) All names indicate the relative size of the muscle.

C) All act on the tongue.

22) The bones in the skull have many different names but what are the boundaries of each bone? Where do they start and stop? A) Boundaries for skull bones are seen only in the infant skull. B) The boundaries are indistinct and are simply vague generalized regions. C) Bones of the skull are separated by immobile joints called sutures. D) Bones of the skull are continuous but named for their specific markings.

C) Bones of the skull are separated by immobile joints called sutures.

When tissues are injured or infected, chemical signals can be releases that affect the plasma membrane of cells that line the nearby blood vessels. These blood vessels cells (endothelial cells) respond to the chemical signals by displaying a type of glycoproteins on their surface. These proteins will attach to circulating white blood cells bringing them to the site of injury or infection. These glycoproteins would best be described as ________. A) transport proteins B) G-proteins C) Cell Adhesion Molecules (CAMs) D) desmosomes

C) Cell Adhesion Molecules (CAMs)

Which of the following statements is true of connective tissue? A) Elastin fibers are sometimes called white fibers. B) When connective tissue is stretched, collagen gives it the ability to snap back. C) Collagen fibers provides high tensile strength. D) Reticular fibers form thick, ropelike structures.

C) Collagen fibers provides high tensile strength.

Which of the following statements is most correct regarding the intracellular chemical signals known as "second messengers"? A) Second messengers act through receptors called K-proteins. B) Second messengers usually inactivate protein kinase enzymes. C) Cyclic AMP and calcium may be second messengers. D) Second messengers usually act to remove nitric oxide (NO) from the cell.

C) Cyclic AMP and calcium may be second messengers.

13) Choose the anatomical topic and definition that is not correctly matched. A) Gross anatomy: study of structures visible to the eye. B) Microscopic anatomy: study of structures too small to be seen by the naked eye. C) Cytology: study of the structures in a particular region. D) Embryology: study of the changes in an individual from conception to birth.

C) Cytology: study of the structures in a particular region.

Which of the following will NOT speed up the net rate of diffusion for glucose into a cell? A) Increasing the concentration of glucose outside of the cell. B) Increasing the number of glucose transport proteins within the plasma membrane. C) Decreasing the number of phospholipids in the plasma membrane D) Decreasing the concentration of glucose within the cell.

C) Decreasing the number of phospholipids in the plasma membrane

Which of the following is true about epithelia? A) Simple epithelia are commonly found in areas of high abrasion. B) Stratified epithelia are associated with filtration. C) Endothelium provides a slick surface lining all hollow cardiovascular organs. D) Pseudostratified epithelia are commonly keratinized.

C) Endothelium provides a slick surface lining all hollow cardiovascular organs.

How is hyaline cartilage different from elastic cartilage or fibrocartilage? A) It is more vascularized. B) It contains more nuclei. C) Fibers are not normally visible. D) It allows great flexibility.

C) Fibers are not normally visible.

17) Bill is a mechanic that works with vibrating tools. He also exerts force on his wrists when twisting wrenches and screws. Bill has a tingling sensation in the lateral portion of his hand. The doctor suspects carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following test might the doctor try on her patient? A) Have bill flex and extend his arm against resistance. B) Check for reflex on the medial condyle of the humerus with a rubber mallet. C) Have bill grip an object with his thumb and index finger and try to pull the object away. D) Check for hyperextension at the knuckles of the little and ring finger.

C) Have bill grip an object with his thumb and index finger and try to pull the object away.

Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Chemical reactions proceed more quickly at higher temperatures. B) Chemical reactions progress at a faster rate when the reacting particles are present in higher numbers. C) Larger particles move faster than smaller ones and thus collide more frequently and more forcefully. D) Catalysts increase the rate of chemical reactions, sometimes while undergoing reversible changes in shape.

C) Larger particles move faster than smaller ones and thus collide more frequently and more forcefully.

23) Which of the following can be considered a function of the paranasal sinuses? A) The paranasal sinuses are passageways for nerves to pass through. B) Sinuses have rough patches that aid in muscle attachment. C) Sinuses take away a minimal amount of strength from bones while reducing the weight of bones. D) Sinuses are often referred to as vestigial, anatomical features with no know function.

C) Sinuses take away a minimal amount of strength from bones while reducing the weight of bones.

29) Which of the following statements is true? A) Cardiac muscle cells have many nuclei. B) Smooth muscle cells have T tubules. C) Striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei. D) Cardiac muscle cells are found in the heart and large blood vessels.

C) Striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei.

19) The papillary layer of the dermis is composed of loosely packed connective tissue with numerous peg-like projections that provide a great deal of surface area connecting the dermis to the epidermis. Which of the statements below do not represent benefits provided by the papillary layer's anatomy? A) The looseness allows for phagocytes to roam through the tissue and search for infection. B) The spaces in the connective tissue allow many small blood vessels to deliver nutrients and pickup waste diffusing from the superficial epidermal layers. C) The looseness allows for easy separation of the dead cell layer of epidermis to be shed. D) The high surface area allows for a stronger connection of dermis to epidermis.

C) The looseness allows for easy separation of the dead cell layer of epidermis to be shed.

9) The names of muscles often indicate the action of the muscle. What does the term levator mean? A) The muscle flexes and rotates a region. B) The muscle is a fixator and stabilizes a bone or joint. C) The muscle elevates. D) The muscle functions as a synergist.

C) The muscle elevates.

If a human cell were to increase the amount of cholesterol embedded within its plasma membrane which of the following would most likely happen? A) The cell would form a plaque that could potential block a blood vessel. B) The plasma membrane would become more fluid and the phospholipids less stable. C) The plasma membrane would become more stable, less fluid and less permeable. D) The plasma membrane would become more permeable to ions and less permeable to lipids.

C) The plasma membrane would become more stable, less fluid and less permeable.

22) Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the occurrence of a sensation? A) The stimulus energy must match the specificity of the receptor. B) The stimulus energy must occur within the receptor's receptive field. C) The stimulus energy must be converted into the energy of a graded potential called a transduction potential. D) A generator potential in the associated sensory neuron must reach threshold.

C) The stimulus energy must be converted into the energy of a graded potential called a transduction potential.

26) Which of the following is not characteristic of neurons? A) They conduct impulses. B) They have extreme longevity. C) They are mitotic. D) They have an exceptionally high metabolic rate.

C) They are mitotic.

25) Which of the following describes the cells of unitary smooth muscle? A) They depend upon recruitment using the autonomic nervous system. B) They are used for vision and hair raising. C) They exhibit spontaneous action potentials. D) They consist of muscle fibers that are structurally independent of each other.

C) They exhibit spontaneous action potentials.

11) The depolarization phase of an action potential is punctuated by the closing of inactivation gates in the voltage gated sodium ion channels. All of the following are consequences of this inactivation except one. Choose the statement below that is not a consequence of the closing of inactivating gates. A) This allows for the one way transmission of action potential down the axon. B) This stops the depolarization of the axon membrane. C) This allows for the efflux (diffusion out) of potassium ions, resulting in the repolarization of the cell. D) This limits the frequency of action potentials down the axon.

C) This allows for the efflux (diffusion out) of potassium ions, resulting in the repolarization of the cell.

16) Choose the following statement that is not completely correct regarding serous membranes. A) Serosa are very thin, double-layered structures. B) Serous membranes are divided into parietal and visceral membranes with a virtual space between the two. C) Visceral pericardium covers the outer surface of the heart, and parietal pericardium lines the internal walls of the heart. D) Serous membranes secrete a watery lubricating fluid.

C) Visceral pericardium covers the outer surface of the heart, and parietal pericardium lines the internal walls of the heart.

Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) When acids and bases are mixed, they react with each other to form water and a salt. B) The more hydrogen ions in a solution, the more acidic the solution. C) When the hydrogen ion concentration decreases, the hydroxyl ion concentration also decreases. D) The pH of blood is slightly basic.

C) When the hydrogen ion concentration decreases, the hydroxyl ion concentration also decreases.

8) Over 90% of all parasympathetic fibers are derived from cranial nerves ________. A) V (trigeminal) B) VII (facial) C) X (vagus) D) XII (hypoglossal)

C) X (vagus)

Crenation (shrinking) is likely to occur in blood cells immersed in ________. A) an isotonic solution B) a hypotonic solution C) a hypertonic solution D) blood plasma

C) a hypertonic solution

31) Muscle tone is ________. A) the ability of a muscle to efficiently cause skeletal movements B) the feeling of well-being following exercise C) a state of sustained partial contraction D) the condition of athletes after intensive training

C) a state of sustained partial contraction

A type of transport protein found in the plasma membrane of cells lining the inside of the intestine allows sodium ions to diffuse down their concentration gradient. The ions move through the transport protein, and into the cell. These transport proteins will use the kinetic energy of the diffusing sodium ions to bring glucose into the cells as well. This transport protein would best be described as ________. A) a pump B) a channel C) a symporter D) a carrier protein

C) a symporter

21) What type of muscle assists an agonist by causing a like movement or by stabilizing a joint over which an agonist acts? A) an antagonist B) a prime mover C) a synergist D) an agonist

C) a synergist

38) Performing "jumping jacks" requires ________. A) flexion and extention B) pronation and supination C) abduction and adduction D) inversion and eversion

C) abduction and adduction

33) After nervous stimulation stops, what prevents ACh in the synaptic cleft from continuing to stimulate contraction? A) calcium ions returning to the terminal cisternae B) the tropomyosin blocking the myosin once full contraction is achieved C) acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh D) the action potential stops going down the overloaded T tubules

C) acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh

37) Which of the following muscles is a flexor of the thigh? A) tibialis posterior B) vastus lateralis C) adductor magnus D) gluteus maximus

C) adductor magnus

9) Which of the following describes a parasagittal plane? A) a transverse cut just above the knees B) two cuts dividing the body into left and right halves C) any sagittal plane except in the midline D) any cut dividing the body into anterior and posterior portions

C) any sagittal plane except in the midline

20) The process of bones increasing in thickness is known as ________. A) closing of the epiphyseal plate B) epiphyseal plate closure C) appositional growth D) concentric growth

C) appositional growth

13) Synarthrotic joints ________. A) are found only in adults B) characterize all cartilaginous joints C) are immovable joints D) have large joint cavities

C) are immovable joints

Which of the following is NOT found in cartilage but is found in bone? A) living cells B) lacunae C) blood vessels D) organic fibers

C) blood vessels

What tissue has lacunae, calcium salts, and blood vessels? A) cartilage tissue B) fibrocartilaginous tissue C) bone (osseous tissue) D) areolar tissue

C) bone (osseous tissue)

31) The term central nervous system refers to the ________. A) the spinal nerves B) sensory (afferent) nerves C) brain and spinal cord D) the somatic nerves

C) brain and spinal cord

28) The sebaceous glands are simple alveolar glands that secrete a substance known as sebum. The secretion of sebum is stimulated ________. A) by high temperatures B) when the air temperature drops C) by hormones, especially androgens D) as a protective coating when one is swimming

C) by hormones, especially androgens

9) Which glands produce ear wax? A) merocrine glands B) apocrine glands C) ceruminous glands D) eccrine glands

C) ceruminous glands

The single most abundant protein in the body is ________. A) DNA B) hemoglobin C) collagen D) glucose

C) collagen

1) The structure of bone tissue suits the function. Which of the following bone tissues is adapted to support weight and withstand torsion stresses? A) spongy bone B) irregular bone C) compact bone D) trabecular bone

C) compact bone

31) During concussion (a type of traumatic brain injury) the brain will move within the cranial cavity. Damage is caused to the brain as it crashes into parts of the bony cavity walls. Ironically one of the bone markings that can cause serious damage to the brain is the ________. This is ironic because one of the functions of this bone marking is to ________. A) pterygoid processes; anchor important chewing muscles B) styloid process; attach to and support the hyoid bone C) crista galli; attach to the dura matter holding the brain in place D) perpendicular plate; separate the left and right halves of the nasal cavity

C) crista galli; attach to the dura matter holding the brain in place

5) What can a deficiency of growth hormone during bone formation cause? A) inadequate calcification of bone B) decreased osteoclast activity C) decreased epiphyseal plate activity D) increased osteoclast activity

C) decreased epiphyseal plate activity

12) Which of the following cells and their functions are correctly matched? A) keratinocytes — provide sense of touch and pressure B) melanocytes —protects cells in the stratum corneum from damaging effects of sun's rays C) dendritic cells — activate the immune system D) tactile cells — protection

C) dendritic cells — activate the immune system

The myocardium (cardiac muscle tissue) undergoes a significant amount of physical stress due to its contractions. You would expect to see relatively large numbers of which of the following embedded within their plasma membrane? A) transport proteins B) tight junctions C) desmosomes D) glycolipids

C) desmosomes

6) A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the ________. A) epiphysis B) metaphysis C) diaphysis D) articular cartilage

C) diaphysis

25) Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized as two distinct types. Which of the following are the two types of sweat glands? A) sebaceous and merocrine B) mammary and ceruminous C) eccrine and apocrine D) holocrine and mammary

C) eccrine and apocrine

8) A good example of a positive feedback mechanism would be ________. A) body temperature regulation B) regulating glucose levels in the blood C) enhancement of labor contractions D) blood calcium level regulation

C) enhancement of labor contractions

11) Which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood? A) lacuna B) osteon C) epiphyseal plate D) epiphyseal line

C) epiphyseal plate

3) The major regions of a hair shaft include all of the following except ________. A) medulla B) cortex C) external root sheath D) cuticle

C) external root sheath

16) The dermis is a strong, flexible connective tissue layer. Which of the following cell types are likely to be found in the dermis? A) goblet cells, parietal cells, and chondrocytes B) monocytes, reticulocytes, and osteocytes C) fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells D) osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and epithelial cells

C) fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells

25) In general, a muscle that crosses on the anterior side of a joint produces ________. A) extension B) abduction C) flexion D) adduction

C) flexion

21) What does the central nervous system use to determine the strength of a stimulus? A) origin of the stimulus B) type of stimulus receptor C) frequency of action potentials D) size of action potentials

C) frequency of action potentials

30) Collections of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system are called ________. A) nuclei B) nerves C) ganglia D) tracts

C) ganglia

Carbohydrates are stored in the liver and skeletal muscles in the form of ________. A) glucose B) triglycerides C) glycogen D) cholesterol

C) glycogen

37) Anabolic reactions are chemical reactions of the body that build things, make them bigger or more complex. Catabolic reactions break things down making them smaller or less complex. If the rate of anabolic reaction in the body is much faster than the rate of catabolic reactions which of the following necessary life function will be accomplished? A) movement B) responsiveness C) growth D) digestion

C) growth

12) Which of the following is the single most important stimulus for epiphyseal plate activity during infancy and childhood? A) parathyroid hormone B) calcium C) growth hormone D) thyroid hormone

C) growth hormone

11) Bending your head back until it hurts is an example of ________. A) flexion B) extension C) hyperextension D) circumduction

C) hyperextension

10) Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the ________. A) medulla B) cerebellum C) hypothalamus D) thalamus

C) hypothalamus

27) Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal influence, seem to play little role in thermoregulation. Where would we find these glands in the human body? A) in all body regions and buried deep in the dermis B) beneath the flexure lines in the body C) in the axillary and anogenital area D) in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet

C) in the axillary and anogenital area

34) First-class levers ________. A) have load at one end of the lever, fulcrum at the other, and effort applied somewhere in the middle B) are typified by tweezers or forceps C) in the body can operate at a mechanical advantage or mechanical disadvantage, depending on specific location D) are used when standing on tip-toe

C) in the body can operate at a mechanical advantage or mechanical disadvantage, depending on specific location

28) Loss of function in the enzyme acetylcholine esterase would result in which of the following? A) inability to release acetylcholine B) amplify or enhance the effect of ACh C) inability to destroy and remove acetylcholine from the synaptic cleft D) stimulation of the production of acetylcholine

C) inability to destroy and remove acetylcholine from the synaptic cleft

12) Which of the following is NOT a result of parasympathetic stimulation? A) salivation B) dilation of the pupils C) increased peristalsis of the digestive viscera D) elimination of urine

C) increased peristalsis of the digestive viscera

4) The strongest muscle contractions are normally achieved by ________. A) increasing stimulus above the threshold B) increasing stimulus above the treppe stimulus C) increasing the stimulation up to the maximal stimulus D) recruiting small and medium muscle fibers

C) increasing the stimulation up to the maximal stimulus

19) Which of the following is NOT a plexus of the vagus (X) nerve? A) cardiac B) pulmonary C) inferior hypogastric D) esophageal

C) inferior hypogastric

The first step in tissue repair involves ________. A) replacement of destroyed tissue by the same kind of cells B) proliferation of fibrous connective tissue C) inflammation D) formation of scar tissue

C) inflammation

8) What structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage? A) sarcoplasmic reticulum B) mitochondria C) intermediate filament network D) myofibrillar network

C) intermediate filament network

7) The term diploë refers to the ________. A) double-layered nature of the connective tissue covering the bone B) fact that most bones are formed of two types of bone tissue C) internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones D) two types of marrow found within most bones

C) internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones

32) A neuron that has as its primary function the job of connecting other neurons is called a(n) ________. A) efferent neuron B) afferent neuron C) interneuron D) glial cell

C) interneuron

10) Ossification of the ends of long bones ________. A) is a characteristic of intramembranous bone formation B) involves medullary cavity formation C) is produced by secondary ossification centers D) takes twice as long as diaphysis ossification

C) is produced by secondary ossification centers

38) Anatomical position is important because ________. A) it is the position most comfortable to hospital patients B) it provides the greatest circulation to the extremities C) it allows a common point of reference for body position to help communicate anatomical relationships D) it allows diagrams within textbooks to display a greater surface area of the body with one simple diagram

C) it allows a common point of reference for body position to help communicate anatomical relationships

10) Immediately following the arrival of the stimulus at a skeletal muscle cell there is a short period called the ________ period during which the neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis, diffuses across the synaptic cleft, and binds to its receptors. A) contraction B) relaxation C) latent D) refractory

C) latent

20) In which quadrant of the abdominopelvic cavity is the stomach located? A) right upper quadrant B) right lower quadrant C) left upper quadrant D) left lower quadrant

C) left upper quadrant

6) Which of the following is a factor that affects the velocity and duration of muscle contraction? A) number of muscle fibers stimulated B) size of the muscle fibers stimulated C) load on the fiber D) muscle length

C) load on the fiber

16) The oxygen-binding protein found in muscle cells is ________. A) hemoglobin B) ATP C) myoglobin D) immunoglobin

C) myoglobin

9) Like all cells, the neurons' internal organization dictates its function. Neurons have relatively many mitochondria, an extensive network of rough endoplasmic reticulum and many clusters of ribosomes. These cellular features indicate all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) neurons must meet a high demand for ATP B) neurons have a relatively high consumption of oxygen C) neurons have stable, relatively unchanging internal environments D) neurons produce many proteins

C) neurons have stable, relatively unchanging internal environments

Rigor mortis occurs because ________. A) the cells are dead B) sodium ions leak into the muscle causing continued contractions C) no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules D) proteins are beginning to break down, thus preventing a flow of calcium ions

C) no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules

1) If someone spills very hot coffee (200°F) on their skin, they will likely perceive much pain. Which of the following receptor types is causing this sensation? A) mechanoreceptors B) thermoreceptors C) nociceptors D) chemoreceptors

C) nociceptors

38) Schwann cells are functionally similar to ________. A) ependymal cells B) microglia C) oligodendrocytes D) astrocytes

C) oligodendrocytes

6) A structure that is composed of two or more tissue types that work together to perform specific functions for the body is a(n) ________. A) complex tissue B) organ system C) organ D) complex cell

C) organ

Which of the following would not be restricted (limited) by low levels of ATP? A) pinocytosis B) exocytosis C) osmosis D) phagocytosis

C) osmosis

15) Bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner (osteogenic) layer consists primarily of ________. A) cartilage and compact bone B) dense irregular connective tissue C) osteogenic cells D) chondrocytes and osteocytes

C) osteogenic cells

40) The lungs deliver a regular supply of oxygen to the blood, which is in turn circulated to most all the cells of the body. At the same time oxygen is consumed during aerobic cellular respiration within these cells. This implies that ________. A) the concentration gradient for oxygen is steepness inside of the cell B) the rate of oxygen diffusion is independent of concentration C) oxygen will passively diffuse into the cells D) oxygen requires active transport to enter most cells

C) oxygen will passively diffuse into the cells

7) The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except ________. A) body erect B) arms at sides C) palms turned posteriorly D) thumbs pointed laterally

C) palms turned posteriorly

16) The periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by ________. A) Volkmann's canals B) a bony matrix with hyaline cartilage C) perforating (Sharpey's) fibers D) the struts of bone known as spicules

C) perforating (Sharpey's) fibers

31) It is wise to study anatomy alongside with physiology because ________. A) it makes for more efficient use of students' and teachers' time B) to understand anatomy requires complete understanding of physiology C) physiology is only explainable in terms of the underlying anatomy D) anatomy and physiology are practically the same thing

C) physiology is only explainable in terms of the underlying anatomy

2) The cruciate ligaments of the knee ________. A) tend to run parallel to one another B) are also called collateral ligaments C) prevent hyperextension of the knee D) attach to each other in their midportions

C) prevent hyperextension of the knee

27) Which is the best description for the function of the cranial bones? A) house the special sense organs B) allowing introduction of food into the digestive system C) protection of the brain D) providing passageways for respiratory gases to move into and out of the body

C) protection of the brain

What is a chain of more than 50 amino acids called? A) triglyceride B) polysaccharide C) protein D) nucleic acid

C) protein

The basic structural material of the body consists of ________. A) carbohydrates B) lipids C) proteins D) nucleic acids

C) proteins

3) Articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to ________. A) attach tendons B) produce red blood cells (hemopoiesis) C) provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints D) form the synovial membrane

C) provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints

51) What is the major function of the axial skeleton? A) give the body resilience B) provide an attachment point for muscles that allow movement C) provide central support for the body and protect internal organs D) provide a space for the major digestive organs

C) provide central support for the body and protect internal organs

If a cell is selectively reducing the concentration of a particular enzyme in the extracellular fluid it will likely utilize ________. A) phagocytosis B) pinocytosis C) receptor-mediated endocytosis D) exocytosis

C) receptor-mediated endocytosis

Carbohydrates and proteins are built up from their basic building blocks by the ________. A) addition of a water molecule between each two units B) addition of a carbon atom between each two units C) removal of a water molecule between each two units D) removal of a carbon atom between each two units

C) removal of a water molecule between each two units

23) Which of the following movements does NOT increase or decrease the angle between bones? A) abduction B) extension C) rotation D) circumduction

C) rotation

24) Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the ________. A) lumbar plexus B) femoral plexus C) sacral plexus D) thoracic plexus

C) sacral plexus

18) The resilience of bone is thought to come from which of the following? A) amount of mineral salts in the bone B) presence of osteoblasts in the bone C) sacrificial bonds in or between collagen molecules D) amount of mineral salt and protein in the bone

C) sacrificial bonds in or between collagen molecules

27) What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into left and right, called? A) frontal B) regional C) sagittal D) transverse

C) sagittal

Inability to absorb digested nutrients and secrete mucus might indicate a disorder in which epithelial tissue? A) simple squamous B) transitional C) simple columnar D) stratified squamous

C) simple columnar

Which of the following epithelia forms the walls of the air sacs across which gas exchange occurs in the lungs? A) pseudostratified columnar B) simple columnar C) simple squamous D) simple cuboidal

C) simple squamous

11) Which of these effectors is NOT directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system? A) smooth muscle B) cardiac muscle C) skeletal muscle D) most glands

C) skeletal muscle

2) Which muscle cells have the greatest ability to regenerate? A) skeletal B) cardiac C) smooth D) no muscle can regenerate

C) smooth

29) The sella turcica is part of the ________ bone and houses the ________ gland. A) sphenoid; thymuss B) ethmoid; pituitary C) sphenoid; pituitary D) ethmoid; thymus

C) sphenoid; pituitary

7) Myoglobin ________. A) breaks down glycogen B) is a protein involved in the direct phosphorylation of ADP C) stores oxygen in muscle cells D) produces the end plate potential

C) stores oxygen in muscle cells

14) The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, well-being, and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for cell division and replacement? A) stratum corneum B) stratum granulosum C) stratum basale D) stratum lucidum

C) stratum basale

3) Nerve impulses leading to the skeletal muscle carry information to direct movement. The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system? A) sensory (afferent) division B) somatic nervous system C) sympathetic division D) parasympathetic division

C) sympathetic division

4) A joint united by fibrocartilage tissue that usually permits a slight degree of movement is a ________. A) suture B) syndesmosis C) symphysis D) gomphosis

C) symphysis

8) Which of the following are cartilaginous joints? A) syndesmoses B) sutures C) synchondroses D) gomphoses

C) synchondroses

5) A person picks up a heavy suitcase in order to estimate its weight and reflexively drops it. Which of the following receptors has initiated this reflex? A) free nerve ending B) lamellae corpuscle C) tendon organ D) bulbous corpuscle

C) tendon organ

9) What does excess postexercise oxygen consumption represent? A) amount of oxygen needed for aerobic activity to accomplish the same amount of work B) the difference between the amount of oxygen needed for totally aerobic muscle activity and the amount actually used C) the amount of oxygen equal to the oxygen already used D) the amount of oxygen taken into the body immediately after the exertion

C) the amount of oxygen equal to the oxygen already used

31) Tennis players often complain about pain in the arm (forearm) that swings the racquet. What muscle is usually strained under these conditions? A) the triceps brachii B) the anconeus C) the brachioradialis D) the flexor digitorum profundus

C) the brachioradialis

13) Which of the following muscles is involved in producing horizontal wrinkles in the forehead? A) the medial pterygoid B) the zygomaticus major C) the frontal belly of the epicranius D) the temporalis

C) the frontal belly of the epicranius

35) The anatomy of the thoracic cage provides ridged support and protection but at the same time is also flexible and mobile. Of the list below, which feature does not aid in the flexibility and movement of the thoracic cage? A) the sternal angle B) the costal cartilages C) the jugular notch D) the costal spaces occupied by costal muscle

C) the jugular notch

48) Which part of the vertebral column receives the most stress by bearing most of the weight of the body? A) the sacrum B) the cervical region C) the lumbar region D) the sacral promontory

C) the lumbar region

10) The reason the hypodermis acts as a shock absorber is that ________. A) it is located just below the epidermis and protects the dermis from shock B) it has no delicate nerve endings and can therefore absorb more shock C) the major part of its makeup is adipose, which serves as an effective shock absorber D) the cells that make up the hypodermis secrete a protective mucus

C) the major part of its makeup is adipose, which serves as an effective shock absorber

15) Injury to cervical vertebra C3-C4 is particularly problematic because ________. A) part of the brain stem is located here B) several ganglia are near this region that serve the heart C) the phrenic nerve that serves the diaphragm receives its fibers from here D) the greater auricular nerve that serve the parotid gland receive there fibers from here

C) the phrenic nerve that serves the diaphragm receives its fibers from here

24) The mechanism of contraction in smooth muscle is different from skeletal muscle in that ________. A) actin and myosin interact by the sliding filament mechanism B) the trigger for contraction is a rise in intracellular calcium C) the site of calcium regulation differs D) ATP energizes the sliding process

C) the site of calcium regulation differs

40) The axial skeleton includes ________. A) the skull, vertebral column, and pelvis B) arms, legs, hands, and feet C) the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage D) the skull, the scapula and the vertebral column

C) the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage

14) A patient has an injury of the spine and is now suffering from a loss of motor function in his right arm. However, he still has normal sensory function in the arm. Based on this information it is likely that the patient has nervous tissue damage located at ________. A) spinal nerves of the cervical vertebra B) the dorsal root located at one or more of the cervical vertebra C) the ventral root located at one or more of the cervical vertebra D) the dorsal rootlets located at one of the thoracic vertebra

C) the ventral root located at one or more of the cervical vertebra

36) If L = load, F = fulcrum, and E = effort, what type of lever system is described as LEF? A) first-class lever B) second-class lever C) third-class lever D) fourth-class lever

C) third-class lever

19) The posterior side of the thigh, leg, and foot is served by the ________ nerve. A) obturator B) common fibular C) tibial D) femoral

C) tibial

26) Striking the "funny bone" is actually stimulation of (or injury to) the ________. A) radial nerve B) sciatic nerve C) ulnar nerve D) median nerve

C) ulnar nerve

18) What are menisci (articular discs)? A) cavities lined with cartilage B) small sacs containing synovial fluid C) wedges of fibrocartilage that partially or completely divide the synovial cavity D) tendon sheaths

C) wedges of fibrocartilage that partially or completely divide the synovial cavity

12) The numbers listed represent the number of electrons in the first, second, and third energy levels, respectively. On this basis, which of the following is an unstable or reactive atom? A) 2, 8, 8 B) 2, 8 C) 2 D) 2, 8, 1

D) 2, 8, 1

35) Which of the following is the best explanation for why cells are considered the smallest units of living things. A) Cells cannot be seen with the naked eye and are considered microscopic. B) Cells are highly ordered and complex. C) Cells have the ability to reproduce identical copies of themselves in a process called mitosis. D) Cells are the simplest structure to fit all of the characteristic necessary to be considered alive.

D) Cells are the simplest structure to fit all of the characteristic necessary to be considered alive.

18) Which of the following imaging devices would best localize a tumor in a person's brain? A) X ray B) DSA C) PET D) MRI

D) MRI

1) Select the most correct statement concerning skin cancer. A) Most tumors that arise on the skin are malignant. B) Squamous cell carcinomas arise from the stratum corneum. C) Basal cell carcinomas are the least common but most malignant. D) Melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing.

D) Melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing.

21) Which of the following statements indicates the way in which the body's natural defenses protect the skin from the effects of UV damage? A) The skin is protected by the synthesis of three pigments that contribute to the skin's color. B) Carotene, which accumulates in the stratum corneum and hypodermal adipose tissue, is synthesized in large amounts in the presence of sunlight. C) The skin is protected by increasing the number of epidermal dendritic cells, which help to activate the immune system. D) Prolonged exposure to the sun induces melanin dispersion, which in turn acts as a natural sunscreen.

D) Prolonged exposure to the sun induces melanin dispersion, which in turn acts as a natural sunscreen.

________ epithelium appears to have two or three layers of cells, but all the cells are in contact with the basement membrane. A) Stratified cuboidal B) Stratified columnar C) Transitional D) Pseudostratified columnar

D) Pseudostratified columnar

28) Which of the following is a true statement? A) The head of the humerus articulates with the acromion process. B) The greater tubercle of the humerus articulates at the coracoid process of the scapula. C) The rotator cuff is responsible for the flexible extensions at the elbow joint. D) The annular ligament surrounds the head of the radius.

D) The annular ligament surrounds the head of the radius.

34) One of the descriptions below is from the perspective of physiological study, the rest are from an anatomical perspective. Select the description below that comes from physiological perspective. A) The skull is formed by 22 facial and cranial bones. B) The chambers of the heart and blood vessels leading to and from the heart are separated by valves composed of fibrous connective tissue. C) The pancreas lies deep to the stomach within the abdominal cavity. D) The contraction of smooth muscle in blood vessels (vasoconstriction) can reduce the flow of blood through the vessel.

D) The contraction of smooth muscle in blood vessels (vasoconstriction) can reduce the flow of blood through the vessel.

36) Select the correct statement regarding chemical synapses. A) Cells with gap junctions use chemical synapses. B) The release of neurotransmitter molecules gives cells the property of being electrically coupled. C) Neurotransmitter receptors are located on the axons terminals of cells. D) The synaptic cleft uses the action potential to transmit a chemical signal to the post synaptic cell.

D) The synaptic cleft uses the action potential to transmit a chemical signal to the post synaptic cell.

33) Which of the following statements best describes angular movements? A) They allow movement only in one plane. B) They turn a bone along its own long axis. C) They occur only between bones with flat articular processes. D) They change (increase or decrease) the angle between two bones.

D) They change (increase or decrease) the angle between two bones.

25) The period after an initial stimulus when a neuron is not sensitive to another stimulus is the ________. A) resting period B) repolarization C) depolarization D) absolute refractory period

D) absolute refractory period

8) The function of the root hair plexus is to ________. A) serve as a source for new epidermal cells for hair growth after the resting stage has passed B) bind the hair root to the dermis C) cause apocrine gland secretion into the hair follicle D) allow the hair to assist in touch sensation

D) allow the hair to assist in touch sensation

23) A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that adults also use for whistling. What is this muscle called? A) platysma B) masseter C) zygomaticus D) buccinator

D) buccinator

30) Burns are devastating and debilitating because of loss of fluids and electrolytes from the body. How do physicians estimate the extent of burn damage associated with such dangerous fluid loss? A) by measuring urinary output and fluid intake B) by observing the tissues that are usually moist C) through blood analysis D) by using the "rule of nines"

D) by using the "rule of nines"

30) Which of the following describes the operation of the heart and blood vessels? A) systemic anatomy B) cardiovascular anatomy C) systemic physiology D) cardiovascular physiology

D) cardiovascular physiology

34) Saddle joints have concave and convex surfaces. Identify a saddle joint of the skeleton. A) interphalangeal joint of the finger B) metacarpophalangeal joint of the finger C) carpometacarpal joint of the phalanges D) carpometacarpal joint of the thumb

D) carpometacarpal joint of the thumb

The movement of water across the plasma membrane can be described by all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) simple diffusion. B) facilitated diffusion through aquaporins. C) passive membrane transport. D) carrier-mediated facilitated diffusion.

D) carrier-mediated facilitated diffusion.

17) Which of the following statements defines synchondroses? A) amphiarthrotic joints designed for strength and flexibility B) interphalangeal joints C) joints that permit angular movements D) cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones

D) cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones

Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than through ducts are classified as ________. A) exocrine B) endocrine C) sebaceous D) ceruminous

D) ceruminous

13) Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system? A) support B) storage of minerals C) production of blood cells (hematopoiesis) D) communication

D) communication

2) A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order? A) basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum B) basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum C) granulosum, basale, spinosum, corneum D) corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale

D) corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale

7) Cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) constriction of most blood vessels B) weak dilation of the blood vessels of skeletal muscles during exercise C) increase of heart rate and force D) dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera

D) dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera

The primary blast cell for connective tissue proper is the ________. A) osteoblast B) chondroblast C) hemocytoblast D) fibroblast

D) fibroblast

15) Sympathetic nerves may leave the spinal cord at which vertebra? A) second cervical B) third lumbar C) first coccyx D) first thoracic

D) first thoracic

22) Bipolar neurons are commonly ________. A) motor neurons B) called neuroglial cells C) found in ganglia D) found in the retina of the eye

D) found in the retina of the eye

14) At the grocery store a cute, little curly-haired child is standing behind you in line. You turn around for a moment and she sticks her tongue out at you. Which tongue muscle did she use? A) orbicularis oris B) stylohyoid C) hyoglossus D) genioglossus

D) genioglossus

1) A fibrous joint that is a peg-in-socket is called a ________ joint. A) syndesmosis B) suture C) synchondrosis D) gomphosis

D) gomphosis

29) Presence of a synovial cavity, articular cartilage, synovial membrane, and ligaments are characteristics of what type of joint? A) suture B) synchondrosis C) symphysis D) hinge joint

D) hinge joint

5) The coxal joint is most likely found in ________ region of the body. A) hand B) groin C) foot D) hip

D) hip

4) What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo? A) elastic connective tissue B) dense fibrous connective tissue C) fibrocartilage D) hyaline cartilage

D) hyaline cartilage

33) Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the thigh? A) biceps femoris B) vastus medialis C) soleus D) iliopsoas and rectus femoris

D) iliopsoas and rectus femoris

16) Complicated interlacing of the ventral rami form networks called nerve plexus. The crisscrossing of the nerve fibers from the various spinal nerves is advantageous because ________. A) viruses that infect us by moving through PNS nerves are prevented entry to the CNS B) having several nerve fibers unite enhances motor function C) having several nerve fibers unite enhances sensory function D) injury to any single spinal nerve will be less damaging as there is less chance of total loss of innervation to any particular organ

D) injury to any single spinal nerve will be less damaging as there is less chance of total loss of innervation to any particular organ

29) Which of the following is not a function of the autonomic nervous system? A) innervation of smooth muscle of the digestive tract B) innervation of cardiac muscle C) innervation of glands D) innervation of skeletal muscle

D) innervation of skeletal muscle

10) Which of the following organs or structures would be found in the left iliac region? A) appendix B) stomach C) liver D) intestines

D) intestines

20) During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to ________. A) a strong base B) stearic acid C) hydrochloric acid D) lactic acid

D) lactic acid

4) Which of the following is NOT a muscle primarily involved in the breathing process? A) diaphragm B) external intercostal C) internal intercostal D) latissimus dorsi

D) latissimus dorsi

24) The sternocleidomastoid muscle inserts on the ________. A) sternum B) clavicle C) platysma D) mastoid process of the temporal bone

D) mastoid process of the temporal bone

46) Paranasal sinuses are found in which of these facial bones? A) zygomatic bones B) nasal conchae C) vomer D) maxillae

D) maxillae

5) Which of the following would be recruited later in muscle stimulation when contractile strength increases? A) motor units with the longest muscle fibers B) many small motor units with the ability to stimulate other motor units C) large motor units with small, highly excitable neurons D) motor units with larger, less excitable neurons

D) motor units with larger, less excitable neurons

22) The hip joint is a good example of a(n) ________ synovial joint. A) nonaxial B) uniaxial C) biaxial D) multiaxial

D) multiaxial

17) The contractile units of skeletal muscles are ________. A) microtubules B) mitochondria C) T tubules D) myofibrils

D) myofibrils

34) Which of the following is not a chemical class of neurotransmitters? A) amino acid B) biogenic amine C) ATP and other purines D) nucleic acid

D) nucleic acid

37) All of the following are factors that influence synovial joint stability EXCEPT? A) structure and shape of the articulating bone B) arrangement and tension of the muscles C) strength and tension of joint ligaments D) number of bones in the joint

D) number of bones in the joint

26) Which of the following are survival needs of the body? A) nutrients, water, movement, and reproduction B) nutrients, water, growth, and reproduction C) water, atmospheric pressure, growth, and movement D) nutrients, water, atmospheric pressure, and oxygen

D) nutrients, water, atmospheric pressure, and oxygen

24) What are the most important factors influencing hair growth? A) sex and hormones B) age and glandular products C) the size and number of hair follicles D) nutrition and hormones

D) nutrition and hormones

7) A patient is suffering from the inability to distinguish various types of odors. This patient may have damage to which of the following? A) hypoglossal nerve (XII) B) vagus nerve (X) C) facial nerve (VIII) D) olfactory nerve (I)

D) olfactory nerve (I)

4) The single most important risk for skin cancer is ________. A) race B) genetics C) use of farm chemicals D) overexposure to UV radiation

D) overexposure to UV radiation

1) Nerve impulses are sent to slow the heart's rate of contraction. The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system? A) sensory (afferent) division B) somatic nervous system C) sympathetic division D) parasympathetic division

D) parasympathetic division

Which of the following does NOT describe uses for the ATP molecule? A) chemical work B) mechanical work C) transport across membranes D) pigment structure

D) pigment structure

40) When a baby suckles at its mother's breast the stimulus at the breast is sent to the mother's brain (a region called the hypothalamus). The brain responds by releasing hormones to stimulate the production and the ejection of milk from the breast. This helps the newborn to receive nourishment and encourages more suckling. This example is best described as a ________. A) negative feedback B) loss of homeostasis C) necessary life function D) positive feedback

D) positive feedback

3) We can touch our finger to our nose while our eyes are closed in part because we can sense the position and movement of our joints as well as the length of stretch in our muscles. These sensations create awareness of our body's positioning. The following receptors are most likely responsible for this ability. A) nociceptors B) exteroceptors C) interoceptors D) proprioceptors

D) proprioceptors

18) Which of the following is not a function of astrocytes? A) support and brace neurons B) anchor neurons to blood vessels C) guide the migration of young neurons, synapse formation, and helping to determine capillary permeability D) provide the defense for the CNS

D) provide the defense for the CNS

41) Some of the nerve endings in the skin are sensitive to changes in temperature. They are part of a negative feedback mechanism regulating body temperature. These nerve endings represent a(n) ________ in the negative feedback mechanism. A) homeostatic balance or "ideal" value B) effector C) control center D) receptor

D) receptor

Some hormones enter cells via ________. A) exocytosis B) primary active transport C) pinocytosis D) receptor-mediated endocytosis

D) receptor-mediated endocytosis

19) Which of the following muscles fixes and depresses the ribs and stabilizes the pelvis during walking? A) internal oblique B) external oblique C) transversus abdominis D) rectus abdominis

D) rectus abdominis

4) The somatic and autonomic nervous systems differ in all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) their effectors B) their efferent pathways and ganglia C) target organ responses to their neurotransmitters D) regulation of activity by higher brain centers

D) regulation of activity by higher brain centers

Which of the following is the major positive ion outside cells? A) magnesium B) hydrogen C) potassium D) sodium

D) sodium

18) Fibers that enter and leave the sympathetic trunks without synapsing form structures called ________. A) white rami communicantes B) gray rami communicantes C) spinal nerves D) splanchnic nerves

D) splanchnic nerves

11) Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________. A) forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin B) forming a chemical compound with actin C) inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments D) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP

D) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP

A many-layered epithelium with cuboidal basal cells and flat cells at its surface would be classified as ________. A) simple cuboidal B) simple squamous C) transitional D) stratified squamous

D) stratified squamous

In which stage of mitosis do the identical sets of chromosomes uncoil and resume their chromatin form? A) prophase B) metaphase C) anaphase D) telophase

D) telophase

35) What is the most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue? A) it is composed of multiple cells working together B) the ability to respond to nervous stimulation C) its cells' in ability to reproduce by mitosis D) the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy to move the body

D) the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy to move the body

3) What is the major factor controlling how levers work? A) the structural characteristics of the muscles of the person using the lever B) the weight of the load C) the direction the load is being moved D) the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum

D) the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum

17) Which of the following muscles inserts to the posterior calcaneus via the calcaneal tendon? A) the semitendinosus B) the sartorius C) the tibialis anterior D) the gastrocnemius

D) the gastrocnemius

14) What is the structural unit of compact bone? A) osseous matrix B) spongy bone C) lamellar bone D) the osteon

D) the osteon

5) What is the main factor that determines the power of a muscle? A) the length B) the shape C) the number of neurons innervating it D) the total number of muscle fibers (cells) available for contraction

D) the total number of muscle fibers (cells) available for contraction

39) Which of the following muscles serves as a common intramuscular injection site, particularly in infants as the buttocks and arm muscles are poorly developed? A) the vastus intermedius B) the vastus medialis C) rectus femoris D) the vastus lateralis

D) the vastus lateralis

12) During the relative refractory period of an action potential, a larger than normal stimulus is needed to cause another action potential. This is due to the fact that ________. A) the membrane is now impermeable to all ions B) the inactivation gates on voltage gated sodium ion channels are closed C) the sodium potassium pump will stop working during relative refractory D) the voltage gated potassium ion channels remain open long enough to hyperpolarize the axon membrane

D) the voltage gated potassium ion channels remain open long enough to hyperpolarize the axon membrane

22) The term pollex refers to the ________. A) great toe B) calf C) fingers D) thumb

D) thumb

26) Football players often sustain lateral blows to the extended knee. Which of the following is (are) damaged as a result? A) oblique popliteal and extracapsular ligaments B) suprapatellar ligament C) arcuate popliteal and the posterior cruciate ligaments D) tibial collateral ligament, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate ligament

D) tibial collateral ligament, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate ligament

In general, the lipids that we refer to as oils have ________. A) a high water content B) long fatty acid chains C) saturated fatty acids D) unsaturated fatty acids

D) unsaturated fatty acids

39) Immediately after an action potential has peaked, which of the following channels will open? A) voltage gated sodium channels B) chemically gated chloride channels C) voltage gated calcium channels D) voltage gated potassium channels

D) voltage gated potassium channels

The main component of the cytosol is ________. A) proteins B) sugars C) salts D) water

D) water