FINAL FINAL FINAL

Cutaneous innervation of the chin and lower lip is mediated by which of the following? A. Mental nerve B. Facial nerve C. Inferior alveolar nerve D. Buccal nerve of V E. Branches of the maxillary division of V

A. Mental nerve

Which of the following mandibular molar proximal crown surfaces normally exhibits the LARGEST size? A. Mesial of the first B. Distal of the first C. Mesial of the second D. Distal of the second E. Mesial of the third

A. Mesial of the first

The cervical ridge would stand out most prominently as a distinct entity on which of the following primary maxillary molars? A. Mesiofacial of the first B. Distofacial of the first C. Mesiofacial of the second D. Distofacial of the second

A. Mesiofacial of the first

The metabolite, 25-hydroxycholecalciferol, is derived MOST immediately from A. ergosterol. B. cholesterol. C. 7-dehydro-sitosterol. D. 7-dehydro-cholesterol. E. 22-dihydro-ergosterol.

.D. 7-dehydro-cholesterol.

14) A sustained, severe carbohydrate deficiency in the diet will result in which of the following? A. Ketoacidosis B. Severe metabolic alkalosis C. A deficiency in prostaglandin formation D. An inability to synthesize ascorbic acid

A. Ketoacidosis

Glucose-6-phosphatase is found associated with which of the following? A. Kidneys and liver B. Liver and muscles C. Kidneys and brain D. Kidneys and muscles

A. Kidneys and liver

Which of the following acids represents both a product of bacterial glycolysis and is cariogenic? A. Lactic B. Acetic C. Succinic D. Propionic E. Phosphoric

A. Lactic

44) Bilateral contraction of which of the following muscles acts to protrude the mandible? A. Lateral pterygoid B. Digastric C. Buccinator D. Temporalis E. Mylohyoid

A. Lateral pterygoid

51) In unilateral balanced occlusion, contact between lower buccal cusps and upper buccal cusps, along with simultaneous contact between lower lingual cusps and upper lingual cusps, will MOST likely occur in which of the following types of mandibular movements? A. Laterotrusive B. Mediotrusive C. Straight retrusive D. Straight protrusive

A. Laterotrusive

Which of the following conditions is associated with the peripheral neuropathy? A. Lead poisoning B. Silver poisoning C. Mercury poisoning D. Bismuth poisoning E. Tetracycline intoxication

A. Lead poisoning

195) Clinical examination reveals that the lingual cusp on Tooth #5 is broken off. This is MOST likely due to which of the following mandibular movements during trauma? A. Left mesiotrusive B. Right mesiotrusive C. Protrusive D. Left laterotrusive E. Right laterotrusive

A. Left mesiotrusive

Which of the following can result if an individual having reactivation of latent varicella zoster virus transmits virus to a seronegative individual? A. Shingles B. Chickenpox C. Herpes labialis D. Infectious mononucleosis E. Herpetic gingivostomatitis

B. Chickenpox

41) Which of the following substances is LEAST polar? A. Ethanol B. Cholesterol C. Palmitic acid D. Glycocholic acid

B. Cholesterol

Which of the following diseases involves a deficiency of oxygen-dependent bactericidal activity by polymorphonuclear leukocytes? A. Chediak-Higashi syndrome B. Chronic granulomatous disease C. Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis D. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome

B. Chronic granulomatous disease

Oxygen-dependent killing of bacteria by neutrophils involves each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Superoxide B. Collagenase C. Myeloperoxidase D. Hydrogen peroxide E. NADP dehydrogenase

B. Collagenase

157) Cigarette smoking has been etiologically linked to each of the following cancers EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Lung B. Colon C. Oral cavity D. Esophagus E. Urinary bladder

B. Colon

Which of the following characterizes both active transport and facilitated diffusion? A. Hydrolysis of ATP B. Competitive inhibition C. Transport bidirectional D. Transport against a concentration gradient

B. Competitive inhibition

Which premolar has a facial cusp with a triangular ridge so uniquely prominent as to frequently separate its mesial pit from its distal pit? A. Maxillaryfirst B. Mandibular first C. Maxillary second D. Mandibular second

B. Mandibular first

Mesiolingual grooves can be found on which of the following permanent teeth? A. Maxillary canines B. Mandibular first premolars C. Maxillary first molars D. Mandibular second molars

B. Mandibular first premolars

Which of the following teeth more likely have only one or no pulp horns? A. Maxillary incisors B. Mandibular incisors C. Maxillary premolars D. Mandibular premolars E. Maxillary molars

B. Mandibular incisors

Which of the following passes through the foramen ovale of the cranium? A. Optic nerve B. Mandibular nerve C. Maxillary artery D. Greater petrosal nerve E. Middle meningeal artery

B. Mandibular nerve

Which of the following muscles position the condyles in the most superior anterior position? A. Masseters and digastrics B. Masseters and medial pterygoids C. Temporalis and sternocleidomastoids D. Temporalis and superior lateral pterygoids E. Medial pterygoids and sternocleidomastoids

B. Masseters and medial pterygoids

143) A 9-year-old boy has tinea capitis. If he is receiving appropriate therapy then he is MOST likely being treated with an A. anti-viral agent. B. anti-mycotic agent. C. anti-bacterial agent. D. anti-parasitic agent.

B. anti-mycotic agent.

Ameloblasts will not differentiate from preameloblasts unless they A. contact dentin B. are touched by odontoblast processes C. are touched by stratum intermedium D. contact stellate reticulum E. contact neural crest mesoderm

B. are touched by odontoblast processes

From a frontal view, which of the following describes the plane of occlusion of the mandibular arch in a normal dentition? A. lt is flat. B. It is a convex curve. C. lt is a concave curve. D. lt is the result of uniform perpendicular alignment of the teeth.

C. lt is a concave curve.

Coupled respiration requires each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. ADP B. Oxygen C. Carbon dioxide D. Electron donor E. Inorganic phosphate

C. Carbon dioxide

The parotid duct crosses the A. temporalis. B. facial artery. C. masseter muscle. D. zygomaticus major. E. lateral pterygoid.

C. masseter muscle.

The longest cusp in the mouth is present on the A. maxillary central incisor. B. mandibular lateral incisor. C. maxillary canine. D. mandibular canine.

C. maxillary canine.

50) The thinnest portion of the bony orbit is located in the A. roof. B. floor. C. medial wall. D. lateral wall. E. posterior wall.

C. medial wall.

7) When compared to the primary mandibular first molar, the primary mandibular second molar normally exhibits a GREATER number of which of the following? A. Oblique ridges B. Roots C. Cusps D. Cervical ridges E. Transverse ridges

C. Cusps

Which of the following represents the two pyrimidine bases in DNA? A. Uracil and thymine B. Adenosine and uracil C. Cytosine and thymine D. Guanine and cytosine E. Guanine and adenosine

C. Cytosine and thymine

97) Which of the following promotes edema? A. Increased blood proteins B. Increased sodium excretion C. Decreased lymphatic drainage D. Decreased venule blood pressure E. Increased plasma osmotic pressure

C. Decreased lymphatic drainage

The development of which of the following types of hepatitis depends on the host having been previously infected with hepatitis B virus? A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis C C. Hepatitis D D. Hepatitis E E. Hepatitis G

C. Hepatitis D

Which of the following organisms causes a granulomatous, tuberculosis-like infection? A. Aspergillus fumigatus B. Microsporum audouini C. Histoplasma capsulatum D. Epidermophyton floccosum E. Trichophyton schoenleinii

C. Histoplasma capsulatum

Each of the following foramina transmits nerves containing SVE fibers EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Foramen ovale B. Jugular foramen C. Hypoglossal canal D. Stylomastoid foramen

C. Hypoglossal canal

In a dry-heat oven, which of the following temperatures is aufficient for achieving sterilization in 1-2 hours? A. 81oC B. 100oC C. 121oC D. 160oC

D. 160oC

The erupted dentition of a normally developed 7year-old child usually consists of A. 8 primary and 8 permanent teeth. B. 10 primary and 10 permanent teeth. C. 12 primary and 8 permanent teeth. D. 18 primary and 6 permanent teeth. E. 20 primary teeth.

D. 18 primary and 6 permanent teeth.

Which of the following represents the primary mineral component of alveolar bone in the periodontium? A. Osteoid B. Elastin C. Collagen D. Hydroxyapatite E. Ground substance

D. Hydroxyapatite

100) A 43-year-old male patient presents with multiple bone radiolucencies. Laboratory results reveal elevated serum calcium, decreased serum phosphorus, and normal alkaline phosphatase levels. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Osteomalacia B. Paget disease C. Fibrous dysplasia D. Hyperparathyroidism E. Metastatic prostate carcinoma

D. Hyperparathyroidism

A positive tuberculin test always indicates which of the following? A. Active tuberculosis B. Chronic tuberculosis C. No exposure to tuberculosis D. Hypersensitivity to tuberculoproteins

D. Hypersensitivity to tuberculoproteins

150) Which of the following most often causes esophageal varices? A. Thrombosis B. Coarctation C. Cor pulmonale D. Portal hypertension E. Aging changes in the vessels

D. Portal hypertension

78) The cell membrane is LEAST permeable to which of the following substances? A. 2 B. CÓ C. H20 D. Sodium E. Ethanol

D. Sodium

The inferior parathyroid gland develops from which of the following structures? A. Second pharyngeal arch B. Fourth pharyngeal arch C. Fifth pharyngeal arch D. Third pharyngeal pouch E. Fourth pharyngeal pouch

D. Third pharyngeal pouch

If this patient's leukemia contributed to increased intraoral bleeding, then the increase is MOST likely due to which of the following conditions? A. Anemia B. Leukopenia C. Ca++ deficiency D. Thrombocytopenia E. Factor VllI deficiency

D. Thrombocytopenia

Which of the following substances is released by blood platelets and causes platelets to stick together? A. Thrombin B. Fibrinogen C. Phospholipids D. Thromboxane A2 E. Prostacyclin l2 (Pgl2)

D. Thromboxane A2

83) Epinephrine causes an elevation in cAMP levels in muscle cells which in turn activate A. ATPase. B. adenyl cyclase. C. glycogen synthetase. D. glycogen phosphorylase. E. glycogen phosphorylase phosphatase.

D. glycogen phosphorylase.

In advanced gingivitis, plaque is mainly A. gram-positive and facultative. B. gram-positive and anaerobic. C. gram-negative and facultative. D. gram-negative and anaerobic.

D. gram-negative and anaerobic.

Assuming that P50 = 26 torrs, under conditions where pO2 = 30 torrs, the average number of O2 molecules bound per hemoglobin molecule is closest to A. 0.5. B. less than 1. C. almost 2. D. greater than 2. E. greater than 3.

D. greater than 2.

Glutamate decarboxylase, an enzyme that catalyzes the formation of gamma-amino butyric acid (GABA), is unique to A. bone. B. skin. C. heart muscle. D. nervous tissue. E. connective tissue.

D. nervous tissue.

An animal is in negative nitrogen balance if its A. urine is nitrogen-free. B. nitrogen intake equals output. C. nitrogen intake exceeds output. D. nitrogen output exceeds intake. E. new tissue is being synthesized.

D. nitrogen output exceeds intake.

At age 8, the maxillary first molar has A. a mesial contact with the primary first molar. B. a distal contact with the second molar. C. no mesial contact. D. no distal contact. E. not yet erupted.

D. no distal contact.

97) Para-keratinized oral mucosa is often found on which of the following? A. Oral surface of the soft palate B. Ventral surface of the tongue C. Skin surface of the lips D. Floor of the mouth E. Attached gingiva

E. Attached gingiva

As this patient's supragingival plaque continues to form and move apically, it will FIRST disrupt which of the following tissues? A. Principal fiber groups of the PDL B. Sharpey's fibers of the cementum C. Attachment of gingival epithelium D. Attachment of sulcular epithelium E. Attachment of junctional epithelium

E. Attachment of junctional epithelium

Each of the following is a glycosaminoglycan EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Chondroitin sulfate B. Dermatan sulfate C. Hyaluronic acid D. Heparan sulfate E. Keratin

E. Keratin

ln which of the following are tonofibrils and desmosomes especially well-developed? A. Neurons B. Fibroblasts C. Ameloblasts D. Odontoblasts E. Keratinocytes

E. Keratinocytes

47) Which of the following groups of organs is retroperitoneal? A. Pancreas, transverse colon, and descending colon B. Pancreas, stomach, and ovary C. Kidney, transverse colon, and ovary D. Ureter, gallbladder, and transverse colon E. Kidney, adrenal, and rectum

E. Kidney, adrenal, and rectum

Protrusive movement is produced primarily because of contracture of which of the following muscles? A. Masseter B. Mylohyoid C. Temporalis D. Medial pterygoid E. Lateral pterygoid

E. Lateral pterygoid

130) Which of the following ligaments is MOST often damaged in an inferior alveolar nerve block? A. Lateral B. Capsular C. Stylohyoid D. Stylomandibular E. Sphenomandibular

E. Sphenomandibular

Red hepatization refers to which of the following? A. Early stage of acute hepatitis B. Late stage of acute hepatitis C. Cirrhosis caused by hemochromatosis D. Congestion of the liver caused by chronic right sided heart failure E. Stage of lobar pneumonia

E. Stage of lobar pneumonia

1. Warts are caused by which of the following? a. Papillomaviruses b. Herpesviruses c. Rhinoviruses d. Adenoviruses e. Rotaviruses

a. Papillomaviruses

Each of the following structures is bound by a membrane EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Nucleolus B. Lysosome C. Nucleus D. Mitochondrion E. Pinocytotic vesicle

A. Nucleolus

80) Blocking the hypothalamic-hypophyseal venous portal system increases the secretion of which of the following? A. Prolactin B. Oxytocin C. ACTH D. TSH

A. Prolactin

Enlargement of the third ventricle and both lateral ventricles is caused by obstruction of the A. cerebral aqueduct. B. foramen of Magendie. C. foramina of Luschka. D. interventricular foramina of Monro.

A. cerebral aqueduct.

The temporalis muscle inserts into the A. coronoid process. B. condylar process. C. fovea of the mandible. D. lateral aspect of the mandibular angle. E. articular disk of the temporomandibular joint.

A. coronoid process.

1. Excessive calcified tissue formation at the root apices is known as which of the following? a. Concrescence b. Enamel pearls c. Hypercementosis d. Cemental pearls

c. Hypercementosis

1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding glioblastoma multiforme? a. The tumor is most common before puberty. b. It is classified as a type of meningioma. c. It is the most common type of astrocytoma. d. Its prognosis is generally more favorable than Grade I astrocytoma. e. It is derived from the epithelial lining of the ventricles.

c. It is the most common type of astrocytoma.

1. In which of the following organs or tissues are ascending infections common? a. Bone b. Heart c. Kidney d. Peritoneum e. Subcutaneous connective tissue

c. Kidney

1. Which of the following disinfectants is effective against herpes simplex viruses but NOT rhinoviruses? a. Phenolics b. lodophores c. Glutaraldehydes d. Sodium hypochlorite e. 70% isopropyl alcohol

e. 70% isopropyl alcohol

Which of the following is the most common location for an atherosclerotic induced aneurysm? A. Thoracic aorta B. Abdominal aorta C. Coronary arteries D. Arch of the aorta E. Common iliac arteries

B. Abdominal aorta

111) Glucose can be made from each of the following substances EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Lactate B. Acetyl CoA C. Glycerol D. Pyruvate E. Fructose

B. Acetyl CoA

110) Which of the following is a branching, filamentous microorganism that is a normal inhabitant of the gingival crevice and tonsillar crypts? A. Aspergillus niger B. Actinomyces naeslundii C. Penicillium notatum D. Trichophyton mentagrophytes E. Lactobacillus casei

B. Actinomyces naeslundii

Each of the following is a risk factor in atherosclerosis EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Heredity B. Alcoholism C. Hypertension D. Diabetes mellitus E. Hyperlipoproteinemia

B. Alcoholism

102) Ordinarily, a 6-year-old child would have which of the following teeth clinically visible? A. All primary teeth only B. All primary teeth and permanent first molars C. Primary posterior teeth, permanent first molars, and central incisors D. Primary canines, permanent first molars, and permanent mandibular incisors

B. All primary teeth and permanent first molars

In which of the following is the largest amount of genetic information transferred from one cell to another? A. F-duction B. Conjugation C. Transduction D. Transformation E. Recombination

B. Conjugation

Vitamin C deficiency primarily affects which of the following tissues? A. Hematopoietic B. Connective C. Epithelial D. Muscular E. Nervous

B. Connective

Which of the following types of epithelium is well adapted for secretory or absorptive functions? A. Simple columnar B. Simple squamous C. Stratified cuboidal D. Stratified squamous E. Psuedostratified columnar

A. Simple columnar

Which of the following types of bronchogenic carcinoma is MOST commonly associated with paraneoplastic syndrome? A. Small cell carcinoma B. Large cell carcinoma C. Mesothelioma D. Adenocarcinoma

A. Small cell carcinoma

For a reaction catalyzed by an enzyme with a Km = 1 mM, which of the following represents the effect on the velocity if [S] is changed from 10 mM to 20 mM? (Assume that the enzyme obeys Michaelis-Menten kinetics.) A. Small decrease B. Small increase C. Twofold decrease D. Twofold increase E. Twentyfold increase

A. Small decrease

84) Which of the following predominates in steroid producing cells? A. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum C. Golgi apparatus D. Phagosomes E. Nucleolus

A. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Tetrodotoxin blocks which of the following channels in nerve-axon membranes? A. Sodium B. Calcium C. Hydrogen D. Chloride

A. Sodium

The bifurcation of the trachea lies at the level of which of the following structures? A. Sternal angle B. Xiphisternal junction C. Third thoracic vertebra D. Second thoracic vertebra E. Attachment of the fourth costal cartilage to the sternum

A. Sternal angle

11) Each of the following muscles usually appears in the floor of the posterior triangle EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Sternohyoid B. Medius scalene C. Splenius capitis D. Levator scapulae E. Anterior belly of omohyoid

A. Sternohyoid

Plasmid-mediated antibiotic resistance has been observed in diseases caused by each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae D. Bordetella pertussis E. Haemophilus influenzae

A. Streptococcus pyogenes

Which of the following structures lies directly anterior to the scalenus anterior muscle? A. Subclavian vein B. Vertebral artery C. Subclavian artery D. Costocervical trunk E. Superior trunk of the brachial plexus

A. Subclavian vein

The splenic artery is a branch of which of the following arteries? A. Celiac B. Left hepatic C. Left gastric D. Musculophrenic E. Superior mesenteric

A. Celiac

99) The largest amount of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in the A. proximal convoluted tubule. B. descending loop of Henle. C. ascending loop of Henle. D. distal convoluted tubule. E. collecting duct.

A. proximal convoluted tubule.

Within a tooth crown, the space occupied by the dental pulp is properly referred to as the A. pulp chamber. B. pulp cavity. C. root trunk. D. pulp canal(s). E. interdental space.

A. pulp chamber.

When the mandible moves from maximum intercuspal position distally, any tooth contacts that occur are called A. retrusive contacts. B. protrusive contacts. C. mediostrusive side contacts. D. laterotrusive side contacts. E. lateral protrusive contacts.

A. retrusive contacts.

A primary molar lacks an identifiable A. root trunk. B. cervical line. C. cervical ridge. D. apical foramen. E. dentinoenamel junction.

A. root trunk.

The MOST important viral cause of gastroenteritis in children less than 2 old is A. rotavirus. B. echovirus. C. rhinovirus. D. coxsackievirus. E. cytomegalovirus.

A. rotavirus.

The hypophysis (pituitary gland) is located in the A. sella turcica. B. fourth ventricle. C. anterior cranial fossa. D. posterior cranial fossa. E. superior orbital fissure.

A. sella turcica.

31) Staphylococcus aureus MOST commonly causes A. skin infections. B. septicemia. C. sore throat. D. chronic infections. E. exogenous infections.

A. skin infections.

6) Calcium dipicolinate is present in large amounts in A. spores. B. flagella. C. mesosomes. D. ribosomes. E. mitochondria.

A. spores.

Cardiac output is expressed as a product of A. stroke volume and heart rate. B. venous pressure and heart rate. C. stroke volume and respiratory rate. D. stroke volume and diastolic filling. E. venous pressure and coronary blood flow

A. stroke volume and heart rate.

The patient's cardiovascular disease has resulted in chronic atrial fibrillation. Her physician has prescribed warfarin (Coumadin®) MOST likely to prevent A. stroke. B. hypertension. C. atherosclerosis. D. sudden cardiac death. E. left ventricular hypertrophy.

A. stroke.

Gram-positive cell walls differ from gram-negative cell walls in that gram-positive cell walls uniquely contain A. teichoic acids. B. lipopolysaccharides. C. acid-fast lipids. D. endotoxins.

A. teichoic acids.

An axon is stimulated by a threshold stimulus and then by a stimulus three times as strong as the first. The resulting impulse in the latter instance will have A. the same amplitude and velocity. B. the same amplitude but less velocity. C. less amplitude but the same velocity. D. one-third the amplitude and velocity. E. three times the amplitude and velocity.

A. the same amplitude and velocity.

55) The only purely serous minor salivary gland is located in the lamina propria of the A. tongue. (von Ebner) B. hard palate. C. soft palate. D. buccal mucosa. E. attached gingiva.

A. tongue. (von Ebner)

Intracellular and interstitial body fluids have similar A. total osmotic pressures. B. colloid osmotic pressures. C. sodium ion concentrations. D. chloride ion concentrations. E. potassium ion concentrations.

A. total osmotic pressures.

On molar depressions immediately distal to the mesial marginal ridge and immediately mesial to the distal marginal ridge are A. triangular fossae. B. central fossae. C. interdental spaces. D. proximal concavities. E. spillways.

A. triangular fossae.

142) Compared to a maxillary second premolar, a maxillary first premolar has A. two roots, one facial and one lingual. B. three developmental grooves. C. one root containing two root canals. D. a shorter central groove. E. two roots, one mesial and one distal.

A. two roots, one facial and one lingual.

17) Interstitial pulmonary inflammation is MOST characteristic of A. viral pneumonia. B. bacterial pneumonia. C. lung abscess. D. bronchial asthma. E. bronchopneumonia.

A. viral pneumonia.

100) How many anomeric carbons are present in a fructose molecule? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 5 E. 6

B. 1

The distobuccal root of a maxillary first molar usually has how many root canals? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

B. 1

Which of the following illustrations represents the mesial view of a mandibular right lateral incisor? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

B. 2

The primary dentition normally consists of how many teeth? A. 6 teeth per quadrant B. 20 total teeth C. 8 total premolars D. 12 total posterior teeth E. 32 total teeth

B. 20 total teeth

An autosomal dominant trait showing 50 percent penetrance will be phenotypically expressed in what percent of the offspring? A. 0 B. 25 C. 33 D. 50 E. 75

B. 25

66) If the molar percentage of A (adenine) in a native DNA specimen is 22%, then what is the molar content of G (guanine)? A. 22% B. 28% C. 44% D. 56% E. 78%

B. 28%

29) If the anticodon on transfer-RNA is 5'ACG3', then which of the following is its corresponding codon on messenger-RNA? A. 5' CGT 3' B. 5' CGU 3' C. 5' TGC 3' D. 5' UAG 3' E. 5' UGC 3'

B. 5' CGU 3'

If the anticodon on transfer-RNA is 5'ACG3', then which of the following is its corresponding codon on messenger-RNA? A. 5' CGT 3' B. 5' CGU 3' C. 5' TGC 3' D. 5' UAG 3' E. 5' UGC 3'

B. 5' CGU 3'

On the lingual crown surface of maxillary canines, which of the following is the structure located immediately mesial to the distolingual fossa? A. Cingulum B. Lingual ridge C. Mesiolingual fossa D. Mesial marginal ridge E. Distal marginal ridge

B. Lingual ridge

Which of the following substances is the predominant source of ATP at MODERATE levels (for greater than 60 minutes) of activity? A. Amino acids B. Fatty acids C. Carbohydrates D. Proteins

B. Fatty acids

90) Each of the following is a type of inflammatory exudate EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Suppurative B. Fibrous C. Purulent D. Fibrinous E. Pseudomembranous

B. Fibrous

58) Of the primary maxillary teeth, the cervical ridge would stand out MOST prominently as a distinct entity on which surface of which molar? A. First molar, distofacial surface B. First molar, mesiofacial surface C. Second molar, distofacial surface D. Second molar, mesiolingual surface E. Second molar, distolingual surface

B. First molar, mesiofacial surface

As demonstrated by the pattern of sensory innervation, which of the following branchial arches are concerned in development of the tongue? A. First and second only B. First, second, and third C. Second and third only D. Second, third, and fourth E. Third and fourth only

B. First, second, and third

Of the primary maxillary teeth, the cervical ridge would stand out most prominently as a distinct entity on which surface of which molar? A. First-Distofacial B. First-Mesiofacial C. Second-Distofacial D. Second-Mesiolingual E. Second-Distolingual

B. First-Mesiofacial

In the upper limb, which of the following represents a hallmark of lymphatic vessels? A. Contain valves B. Follow the veins C. Always travel in pairs D. Only found on the anterior surface of the limb E. Contain fenestrations to allow passage of fluids into the interstitium

B. Follow the veins

ln the upper limb, which of the following represents a hallmark of lymphatic vessels? A. Contain valves B. Follow the veins C. Always travel in pairs D. Only found on the anterior surface of the limb E. Contain fenestrations to allow passage of fluids into the interstitium

B. Follow the veins

19) Which of the following statements is correct with respect to mastication of food? A. Food is masticated primarily in a border movement. B. Food is masticated primarily in lateral contacting movement. C. An ideal occlusion is a requisite for masticatory efficiency. D. Proper incisor contact is a requisite for masticatory efficiency. E. Indigestion is generally related to inadequate mastication of food.

B. Food is masticated primarily in lateral contacting movement.

The superior laryngeal artery pierces the thyrohyoid membrane in company with which of the following laryngeal nerves? A. Inferior laryngeal B. Internal laryngeal C. External laryngeal D. Superior laryngeal E. Recurrent laryngeal

B. Internal laryngeal

When a brief period of hysterical hyperventilation causes respiratory alkalosis, tetany might be caused by a sudden decrease in which of the following kinds of calcium? A. Total serum B. Ionized serum C. Citrate bound D. Serum protein-bound

B. Ionized serum

A mandibular canine differs from a maxillary canine in which of the following? A. It is longer. B. It has a less pronounced cingulum. C. The crown is approximately the same length. D. It has a cusp tip more nearly centered mesiodistally when viewed from the facial.

B. It has a less pronounced cingulum.

4) Which of the following BEST explains the primary action of antidiuretic hormone? A. It decreases the activity of the Na-K pump in the distal tubule. B. It increases the H20 permeability of the collecting ducts and the distal tubules. C. It decreases the pore size of the distal tubules and the collecting ducts. D. It decreases the glomerular filtration rate. E. It inhibits the action of glutaminase.

B. It increases the H20 permeability of the collecting ducts and the distal tubules.

76) Which of the following BEST describes a centric holding cusp of a mandibular left second molar? A. It is the distofacial cusp and occludes in the embrasure between maxillary first and second molars. B. It is the distofacial cusp and occludes in the central fossa of a maxillary second molar. C. It is the distolingual cusp and occludes in the embrasure between maxillary first and second molars. D. It is the distolingual cusp and occludes in the central fossa of a maxillary second molar.

B. It is the distofacial cusp and occludes in the central fossa of a maxillary second molar.

Which of the following organisms represents a significant secondary invader of carious lesions? A. Bacillus subtilis B. Lactobacillus cased C. Streptococcus mutans D. Staphylococcus aureus

B. Lactobacillus cased

Malignant epithelial cells have an increased number and wider distribution of which of the following receptors? A. IL-1 B. Laminin C. Histamine D. Complement E. Immunoglobulin

B. Laminin

Fatty change is most commonly seen in which of the following organs? A. Brain B. Liver C. Heart D. Kidney E. Spleen

B. Liver

59) IL-1 is primarily produced by which of the following? A. Neutrophils B. Macrophages C. Plasma cells D. T-helper cells E. T-suppressor cells

B. Macrophages

The masticatory function of a mandibular first premolar is MOST similar to that of which of the following teeth? A. Mandibular incisor B. Mandibular canine C. Maxiliary first premolar D. Mandibular second premolar E. Mandibular molar

B. Mandibular canine

Which of the following incisors has its mesial and distal contact areas at the same incisocervical level? A. Maxillary central B. Mandibular central C. Maxillary lateral D. Mandibular lateral

B. Mandibular central

Which of the following is the first succedaneous tooth? A. Maxillary central incisor B. Mandibular central incisor C. Maxillary lateral incisor D. Mandibular first molar

B. Mandibular central incisor

Which of the following permanent roots is thin mesiodistally, wide faciolingually, and concave on both mesial and distal surfaces? A. Maxillary central incisor B. Mandibular central incisor C. Mandibular second premolar D. Facial root of a maxillary first premolar E. Lingual root of a maxillary first molar

B. Mandibular central incisor

The incisal embrasure is the smallest between which of the following two teeth? A. Maxillary central incisors B. Mandibular central incisors C. Maxillary central and lateral incisors D. Maxillary lateral incisor and canine E. Mandibular lateral incisor and central incisor

B. Mandibular central incisors

Which of the following premolars frequently has only one pulp horn? A. Maxillary first B. Mandibular first C. Maxillary second D. Mandibular second

B. Mandibular first

144) A pronounced developmental groove is usually present on a marginal ridge of which of the following teeth? A. Maxillary canine B. Maxillary first premolar C. Mandibular second premolar D. Mandibular first molar E. Maxillary second molar

B. Maxillary first premolar

A 6-year-old boy has minute white specks on the oral mucosa adjacent to his first molars. A bluish-red ring surrounds these spots. He appears to have a cold and his eyes are red and runny. There is a blotchy reddish rash behind his ears and on his face. This child has which of the following? A. Eczema B. Measles C. Chickenpox D. Scarlet fever

B. Measles

46) Which of the following connective tissue types is primarily found in the fetus, but not in the adult? A. Loose B. Mesenchyme C. Areolar D. Dense regular E. Dense irregular

B. Mesenchyme

181) A radiograph of the maxillary central incisors reveals a small, calcified radiopaque mass between the roots of Teeth #8 and #9. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this mass? A. Distodens B. Mesiodens C. Talon cusp D. Dens in dente E. Peg lateral incisor

B. Mesiodens

Which of the following represents the largest cusp of the mandibular first molar? A. Distal B. Mesiofacial C. Mesiolingual D. Distofacial E. Distolingual

B. Mesiofacial

127) Which of the following exhibits phagocytic activity in the central nervous system? A. Ependymal cell B. Microglial cell C. Oligodendrocyte D. Fibrous astrocyte E. Protoplasmic astrocyte

B. Microglial cell

Which of the following exhibits phagocytic activity in the central nervous system? A. Ependymal cell B. Microglial cell C. Oligodendrocyte D. Fibrous astrocyte E. Protoplasmic astrocyte

B. Microglial cell

What is the biological significance of the extensive degeneracy of the genetic code? A. Alters the amino acid sequence of proteins encoded by the DNA B. Minimizes the deleterious effect of mutations C. Maximizes the beneficial effect of mutations D. Increases chain termination E. Leads to active proteins

B. Minimizes the deleterious effect of mutations

The diploid number of chromosomes is maintained in proliferating somatic cells by which of the following processes? A. Meiosis B. Mitosis C. Budding D. Amitosis E. Cytokinesis

B. Mitosis

Which of the following enzymes is responsible for inactivating catecholamines? A. Phosphodiesterase B. Monoamine oxidase C. Amino decarboxylase D. Tyrosine hydroxylase

B. Monoamine oxidase

Recovery from an infection with mumps virus confers lifelong immunity. This describes which of the following types of immunity? A. Innate B. Natural active C. Natural passive D. Artificial active E. Artificial passive

B. Natural active

Chambers X and Y are separated by a biologic membrane. Initially, both chambers contain water. Addition of which of the following solutions will cause a net movement of water from X to Y? A. Non-permeating solute to X B. Non-permeating solute to Y C. Permeating solute to X D. Permeating solute to Y

B. Non-permeating solute to Y

On a mandibular first molar, the distofacial groove serves as an escapeway for the mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary first molar during which of the following mandibular movements? A. Working B. Non-working C. Protrusive D. Centric slide

B. Non-working

Which of the following mechanisms operates in liver cells to regulate breakdown of glycogen? A. Zymogen activation B. Phosphorylation of phosphorylase b to phosphorylase a C. Induction of phosphorylase b by an inducer D. lnhibition of adenylate cyclase

B. Phosphorylation of phosphorylase b to phosphorylase a

107) Which of the following epithelial types is normally associated with the internal lining of the majority of the tubular gastrointestinal tract? A. Simple columnar B. Simple cuboidal C. Simple squamous D. Stratified cuboidal E. Stratified squamous

A. Simple columnar

Which of the following represents the third pair of permanent teeth to erupt in normal sequence? A. Maxillary central incisors B. Maxillary lateral incisors C. Mandibular lateral incisors D. Mandibular canines

C. Mandibular lateral incisors

Which of the following represents the premolar most likely to be congenitally missing? A. Maxillary first B. Maxillary second C. Mandibular second D. Mandibular first

C. Mandibular second

Which of the following represents the first inflammatory cell to leave the vascular bed and remain at the site of injury through the acute phase? A. Monocyte B. Lymphocyte C. Neutrophil D. Eosinophil E. Plasma cell

C. Neutrophil

When in its normal position relative to the arch form, the crown of a mandibular first molar inclines A. distally and facially. B. mesially and facially. C. mesially and lingually. D. distally and lingually.

C. mesially and lingually.

In (at) which of the following is the mesial contact area of a maxillary canine located? A. The incisal third B. The junction of incisal and middle thirds C. The middle third D. The junction of middle and cervical thirds

B. The junction of incisal and middle thirds

As distinguished from a maxillary canine, a mandibular canine typically has A. a sharper facial cusp tip. B. contact areas located more incisally. C. a more pronounced cingulum. D. a more convex mesial border, when viewed facially.

B. contact areas located more incisally.

Which of the following is the most important chemotactic factor resulting from the activation of the pathway of complement? A. C2a B. C3a C. C3b D. C5a E. C5b

D. C5a

Which of the following represents the secretory product of the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland? A. Iodine B. Protease C. Thyroxine D. Calcitonin E. Thyroglobulin

D. Calcitonin

In an acquired Class III crossbite relationship, as the mandible retrudes, the maxillary lateral incisor contacts which of the following teeth? A. Central incisor B. Lateral incisor C. Central and lateral incisors D. Canine and lateral incisors

D. Canine and lateral incisors

Which of the following changes promotes the formation of extracellular edema? A. Increase in tissue fluid hydrostatic pressure B. Increase in plasma protein concentration C. Decrease in capillary hydrostatic pressure D. Capillary filtration exceeds capillary absorption E. Capillary absorption exceeds capillary filtration

D. Capillary filtration exceeds capillary absorption

Which of the following is least likely to produce acute abdominal symptoms? A. Cholelithiasis B. Acute pancreatitis C. Ampulla of Vater cancer D. Carcinoma of the tail of the pancreas

D. Carcinoma of the tail of the pancreas

Which of the following is MOST likely to cause a sudden arrest of heart function? A. Mitral stenosis B. Angina pectoris C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Cardiac tamponade E. Subacute bacterial endocarditis

D. Cardiac tamponade

Which of the following is the site of oxidative phosphorylation in bacteria? A. Nucleus B. Ribosome C. Cytoplasm D. Cell membrane E. Mitochondrion

D. Cell membrane

121) Cellular tropism by viruses is dependent on which of the following? A. Host cell DNA homology to viral DNA B. Temperature of host cell incubation C. Gamma-interferon production D. Cell surface receptors E. Viral enzyme synthesis

D. Cell surface receptors

Cellular tropism by viruses is dependent on which of the following? A. Host cell DNA homology to viral DNA B. Temperature of host cell incubation C. Gamma-interferon production D. Cell surface receptors E. Viral enzyme synthesis

D. Cell surface receptors

74) Following eruption and initial occlusal contact in the oral cavity, a tooth will continue to erupt in order to compensate for occlusal wear. In response to this continuous eruption, which of the following is deposited at the apex of the root? A. Primary dentin B. Secondary dentin C. Reparative dentin D. Cellular cementum E. Acellular cementum

D. Cellular cementum

Following eruption and initial occlusal contact in the oral cavity, a tooth will continue to erupt in order to compensate for occlusal wear. In response to this continuous eruption, which of the following is deposited at the apex of the root? A. Primary dentin B. Secondary dentin C. Reparative dentin D. Cellular cementum E. Acellular cementum

D. Cellular cementum

Which of the following has a persistent antimicrobial effect? A. Alcohol B. Anionic detergent C. Cationic detergent D. Chlorhexidine gluconate E. Quaternary ammonium compound

D. Chlorhexidine gluconate

Which of the following functions as part of the extracellular matrix? A. Mucin B. Heparin C. Collaginase D. Chondroitin sulfate E. Dolichol phosphate

D. Chondroitin sulfate

Each of the following describes hyaluronate EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Polyanion B. Highly polar C. Glycosaminoglycan D. Compact, folded structure E. Extracellular matrix component

D. Compact, folded structure

2) Chondroitin sulfate and hyaluronic acid are characterized by which of the following? A. Cell walls of caries-related streptococci decomposition end products of oral lactobacilli B. Byproducts of carbohydrate metabolism by oral streptococci C. Enzymes which break down gram-positive cell walls D. Components of extracellular matrix

D. Components of extracellular matrix

Which of the following can be used, on a histologic level, to distinguish between a section of the arch of the aorta and a section of the brachial artery? A. Type of endothelium B. Width of tunica intima C. Type of tissue in the tunica adventitia D. Composition of tissue in the tunica media E. Type of tissue directly underlying the endothelium

D. Composition of tissue in the tunica media

94) Bulging veins in the neck result from which of the following? A. Pulmonary edema B. Hemolytic anemia C. Systemic hypotension D. Congestive heart failure E. Intermittent claudication

D. Congestive heart failure

T lymphocytes are MOSTdirectly involved in which of the following? A. Immediate hypersensitivity B. Immune complex injury C. Complement synthesis D. Contact dermatitis E. Antibody formation

D. Contact dermatitis

lf the patient transmits the hepatitis C virus to the dentist, then it will MOST likely be via which of the following routes? A. Oral-fecal B. Saliva contamination C. lnhalation of aerosols D. Contaminated needle stick

D. Contaminated needle stick

99) Each of the following terms applies to a discussion of enamel structure EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Prisms B. Perikymata C. Striae of Retzius D. Contour lines of Owen E. lnterprismatic substance

D. Contour lines of Owen

Which of the following viruses is most likely to be isolated from feces? A. Rubella B. Hepatitis C C. Influenza A D. Coxsackievirus E. Herpes simplex

D. Coxsackievirus

Each of the following structures leaves the cranium by way of the jugular foramen EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Cranial nerve IX B. Cranial nerve X C. Cranial nerve XI D. Cranial nerve XII Sigmoid sinus - internal jugular vein

D. Cranial nerve XII

In which of the following conditions might the systolic blood pressure be abnormally high? A. Cardiac shock B. Heart failure C. Anaphylactic shock D. Decreased arterial compliance E. Ventricular fibrillation

D. Decreased arterial compliance

40) The spleen, the thymus, and lymph nodes are similar in that each A. filters blood. B. contains lymphocytes. C. has a medulla and a cortex. D. serves as a filter for tissue fluid. E. has afferent and efferent lymphatic vessels.

B. contains lymphocytes.

200) Massive necrotizing lesions of the palate in a patient with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus are most likely a manifestation of A. candidiasis. B. mucormycosis. C. blastomycosis. D. cryptococcosis. E. histoplasmosis.

B. mucormycosis.

In terms of wall thickness, the relative proportion of smooth muscle is GREATEST in which of the following? A. Veins B. Venules C. Arterioles D. Capillaries E. Large arteries

C. Arterioles

During repair, which of the following substances is essential for precollagen fibers to transform into collagen fibers? A. Cortisone B. Carotene C. Ascorbic acid D. Prothrombin E. Thromboplastin

C. Ascorbic acid

Which of the following vitamins is essential for the normal elaboration and maintenance of bone matrix, cartilage, and dentin? A. Niacin B. Vitamin E C. Ascorbic acid D. Pantothenic acid

C. Ascorbic acid

189) Pain impulses from the patient's fractured mandible are carried by which of the following nerves? A. Lingual B. Inferior alveolar C. Auriculotemporal D. Zygomaticotemporal E. Nerve to lateral pterygoid

C. Auriculotemporal

In general, enzyme-deficiency diseases are inherited by which of the following modes? A. Polygenic B. X-linked dominant C. Autosomal recessive D. Autosomal dominant

C. Autosomal recessive

27) Blood from the cephalic vein drains into which of the following veins? A. Basilic B. Brachiocephalic C. Axillary D. Internal thoracic E. Superior vena cava

C. Axillary

Which of the following is MOST resistant to sterilizing conditions? A. Oral yeast B. Hepatitis B virus C. Bacterial endospore D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis E. Human immunodeficiency virus

C. Bacterial endospore

Inorganic crystals in enamel have their long axes parallel to the rods in which of the following? A. Centers of the bodies of the rods only B. Periphery of the bodies of the rods only C. Bodies of the rods and deviating increasingly in the tails D. Tails of the rods and deviating increasingly from the centers of the. bodies to the periphery E. Tails of the rods and deviating increasingly from the periphery of the bodies to the centers

C. Bodies of the rods and deviating increasingly in the tails

Sharpey's fibers from the periodontal ligament insert into which of the following structures? A. Bundle bone and dentin B. Cortical plates and dentin C. Bundle bone and cementum D. Cortical plates and cementum E. Haversian bone and cementum

C. Bundle bone and cementum

Which of the following molecules causes the activation of myosin kinase and the contraction of smooth muscle? A. Actin B. Troponin C. Calmodulin D. Calcitonin E. Cholecalciferol

C. Calmodulin

In protrusive movement, the mandibular canines in a Class II occlusal relationship articulate with which of the following maxil teeth? A. Canines only B. Lateral incisors only C. Canines and lateral incisors D. Canines and first premolars

C. Canines and lateral incisors

Each of the following is found in the epidermis EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Keratohyaline B. Desmosomes C. Capillaries D. Mitotic cells E. Free nerve endings

C. Capillaries

42) Coupled respiration requires each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. ADP B. Oxygen C. Carbon dioxide D. Electron donor E. Inorganic phosphate

C. Carbon dioxide

139) Which of the following pathogens is the single MOST common cause of sexually transmitted disease in the U.S.? A. Treponema pallidum B. Haemophilus ducrey C. Chlamydia trachomatis D. Herpes simplex virus E. Human immunodeficiency virus

C. Chlamydia trachomatis

Which of the following pathogens is the single most common cause of sexually transmitted disease in the U.S.? A. Treponema pallidum B. Haemophilus ducreyi C. Chlamydia trachomatis D. Herpes simplex virus E. Human immunodeficiency virus

C. Chlamydia trachomatis

6) GABA increases the permeability of postsynaptic membranes to which of the following ions? A. Sodium B. Calcium C. Chloride D. Magnesium E. Potassium

C. Chloride

39) Most endogenous cholesterol in the liver is usually converted into which of the following? A. Glucose B. Steroids C. Cholic acid D. Oxaloacetate E. Ketone bodies

C. Cholic acid

Which of the following conditions predisposes to lung cancer by causing squamous metaplasia of bronchial epithelium? A. Bronchiectasis B. Bronchial asthma C. Chronic bronchitis D. Bronchial carcinoid E. Pulmonary emphysema

C. Chronic bronchitis

79) Triglyceride absorbed into the lymphatic system is transported to the liver as which of the following? A. Very low density lipoprotein B. Low density lipoprotein C. Chylomicrons D. Liposomes E. Micelles

C. Chylomicrons

Which of the following risk factors is etiologically associated with transitional cell carcinoma of the urinary bladder? A. Syphilis B. Gonorrhea C. Cigarette smoking D. Human papillomavirus E. Benign prostatic hypertrophy

C. Cigarette smoking

Which of the following helps to regulate the overall rate of glycolysis by directly influencing the activity of phosphofructokinase? A. Malate B. Lactate C. Citrate D. Succinate E. Oxaloacetate

C. Citrate

49) Which of the following is the major protein component of cementum? A. Elastin B. Keratin C. Collagen D. Amelogenin E. Osteonectin

C. Collagen

The periodontal ligament fibers are primarily composed of which of the following connective tissues? A. Hyaline B. Elastic C. Collagenous D. Fibrocartilagenous

C. Collagenous

The maintenance of a polarized state in a resting nerve requires which of the following? A. Passage of nerve impulses B. Release of acetylcholine C. Continuous expenditure of energy D. Continuous presence of stimuli

C. Continuous expenditure of energy

Acute cyanide poisoning would most likely lead to which of the following? A. Increased oxygen concentration in arterial blood B. Increased carbon dioxide concentration in venous blood C. Decreased oxygen extraction by peripheral tissues D. Increased oxygen extraction by peripheral tissues E. Decreased carbon dioxide concentration in arterial blood

C. Decreased oxygen extraction by peripheral tissues

When viewed from the facial aspect, the crown of the mandibular first premolar has an occlusal outline that normally exhibits which of the following characteristics? A. Cusp tip which is offset to the distal B. Cusp tip which is centered mesiodistally C. Disto-occlusal slope which is longer than the mesio- occlusal slope D. Mesio-occlusal slope which is longer than the disto- occlusal slope

C. Disto-occlusal slope which is longer than the mesio- occlusal slope

Each of the following grooves originates in the central pit of the maxillary second molar (four cusp type) EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Buccal B. Central C. Distolingual D. Transverse grooves of oblique ridge

C. Distolingual

12) The maximal frequency of impulses that can be carried by a nerve fiber is limited by which of the following? A. Intensity of the stimulus B. Diameter of the nerve fiber C. Duration of the absolute refractory period D. Duration of the relative refractory period

C. Duration of the absolute refractory period

Which of the following is a natural opiate synthesized by the central nervous system? A. Dopamine B. Serotonin C. Enkephalin D. Substance P E. Acetylcholine

C. Enkephalin

Which of the following is an antimicrobial agent that primarily inactivates cellular DNA A. Phenols B. Chlorhexidine C. Ethylene oxide D. 70 percent isopropyl alcohol E. Alkaline glutaraldehyde

C. Ethylene oxide

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate sterilization method for a heat-labile item to be used in a surgical procedure? A. Dry heat B. Autoclaving C. Ethylene oxide D. Saturated chemical vapor E. lmmersion in chemical sterilant

C. Ethylene oxide

10) Which of the following cancers typically arises in teenagers and young adults? A. Wilms' tumor B. Angiosarcoma C. Ewing's sarcoma D. Multiple myeloma E. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

C. Ewing's sarcoma

The tensile strength of a healing mucosal wound depends on which of the following? A. Wound hormones B. Epithelial regeneration C. Formation of collagen fibers D. Activation of fibrinolysis E. Formation of elastic fibers

C. Formation of collagen fibers

Polyuridylic acid in a cell-free system capable of protein synthesis results in production of polyphenylalanine. In this system, polyuridylic acid functions as A. DNA. B. transfer RNA. C. messenger RNA. D. ribosomal RNA. E. mitochondrial RNA.

C. messenger RNA.

Histologically, the osteoclasts of bone resorption are typically A. anuclear. B. mononuclear. C. multinuclear. D. polymorphonuclear.

C. multinuclear.

Each of the following morphologic structures can be seen on any incisor EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Cingulum B. Mesial marginal ridge C. Lingual fossa D. Transverse ridge

D. Transverse ridge

Which of the following represents the geometric form of anterior teeth when viewed from the mesial or distal aspect? A. Rhomboidal B. Trapezoidal C. Elliptical D. Triangular E. Square

D. Triangular

ln an ideal intercuspal position, the mesiofacial groove of a mandibular first molar opposes which part of the maxillary first molar? A. Tip of the distofacial cusp B. Tip of the mesiofacial cusp C. Triangular ridge of the distofacial cusp D. Triangular ridge of the mesiofacial cusp

D. Triangular ridge of the mesiofacial cusp

Calcium stimulates muscle contraction. lts effect is mediated through binding to which of the following? A. Actin B. Tropomyosin C. Troponin I D. Troponin C E. Sarcoplasmic reticulum

D. Troponin C

147) Which of the following represents the number and the location of cusps on the Y-type mandibular second premolar? A. No lingual and one facial B. One lingual and one facial C. One lingual and two facial D. Two lingual and one facial E. Two lingual and two facial

D. Two lingual and one facial

Cells that will form the vertebrae have their origin in which of the following? A. Notochord B. Neural arch C. Dermamyotome D. Two pairs of somites E. Intermediate mesodermal plate

D. Two pairs of somites

8) Each of the following segments of the gastrointestinal tract consists of smooth muscle under autonomic nervous control EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Rectum B. Internal anal sphincter C. Antrum of the stomach D. Upper esophagus E. Gastro-esophageal sphincter

D. Upper esophagus

Blastocyst usually occurs in which of the following? A. Uterine tube B. Peritoneal cavity C. Cervix of the uterus D. Upper portion of the uterine cavity

D. Upper portion of the uterine cavity

94) During which of the following would blood flow to the coronary arteries be GREATEST in a resting individual? A. Isovolumic contraction B. Ventricular ejection C. Atrial contraction D. Ventricular relaxation

D. Ventricular relaxation

Each of the following statements about poliovirus infections is correct EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Most infections are subclinical. B. Paralysis is an uncommon outcome of infection. C. There are 3 types of poliovirus, making 3 infections possible. D. Virus is predominantly shed from the body and transmitted in respiratory secretions. E. Some damaged neurons may be repaired, restoring lost functions.

D. Virus is predominantly shed from the body and transmitted in respiratory secretions.

Difficulty in raising the shoulder might be the result of damage to which of the following cranial nerves? A. V B. VII C. X D. XI E. XII

D. XI

Which of the following nerves contributes to the motor innervation of intrinsic muscles of the tongue? A. V3 B. VII C. IX D. XII

D. XII

Which of the following pathogens is MOST often associated with infective endocarditis? A. Pneumococci B. Group A streptococci C. Group B streptococci D. a-hemolytic streptococci E. B-hemolytic streptococci

D. a-hemolytic streptococci

Parathyroid hormone acts in the body by A. stimulating gluconeogenesis in the liver. B. diminishing excretion of sodium and chloride. C. decreasing absorption of calcium in the intestinal tract. D. accelerating removal of calcium and phosphate from the skeleton.

D. accelerating removal of calcium and phosphate from the skeleton.

The first step in the pathway for fatty acid synthesis is catalyzed by an allosteric enzyme which is the principal regulator of the pathway. This enzyme is A. thiolase. B. pyruvate carboxylase. C. citrate synthetase. D. acetyl CoA carboxylase. E. pyruvate dehydrogenase.

D. acetyl CoA carboxylase.

46) Coenzyme A participates in A. formylation. B. protein synthesis. C. methionine activation. D. activation of carboxyl groups.

D. activation of carboxyl groups.

2) In fermentation, the final electron acceptor is A. water. B. oxygen. C. carbon dioxide. D. an organic compound. E. an inorganic compound.

D. an organic compound.

In the horizontal plane, as the mandible moves in a lateral excursion, the midline of the mandible moves A. straight anteriorly. B. straight posteriorly. C. straight laterally. D. anteriorly and laterally. E. posteriorly and laterally

D. anteriorly and laterally.

In osteomalacia, bones are weak because of the failure of A. remodeling of bone. B. bone matrix formation. C. osteoblast proliferation. D. bone matrix calcification. E. interstitial growth of cartilage.

D. bone matrix calcification.

An infection spreading by way of the lymphatic system from the vermiform appendix first enters the blood stream at the A. renal vein. B. appendicular vein. C. inferior vena cav D. brachiocephalic vein. E. internal thoracic vein.

D. brachiocephalic vein.

Acute biliary obstruction produces a rise in A. urobilinogen in urine. B. urobilinogen in stool. C. conjugated bilirubin in urine. D. conjugated bilirubin in serum. E. unconjugated bilirubin in serum.

D. conjugated bilirubin in serum.

87) On a comparative basis, bone and cellular cementum are similar in that both A. are difficult to resorb, heal well, and contain cement lines. B. contain concentric patterns, have Volkmann's canals, and can be cancellous. C. are deposited throughout life, acquire blood vessels during aging, and contain similar collagenous fibers. D. contain cells in lacunae with canaliculi that extend primarily toward the nutritional source.

D. contain cells in lacunae with canaliculi that extend primarily toward the nutritional source.

74) Hyperventilation alters the acid-base balance of arterial blood by A. increasing C02 and increasing pH. B. increasing C02 and decreasing pH. C. decreasing CO2 and decreasing pH. D. decreasing CO2 and increasing pH.

D. decreasing CO2 and increasing pH.

The articular disc of the temporomandibular joint consists of A. hyaline cartilage. B. loose fibrous connective tissue. C. an outer synovial layer and an inner fibrous layer. D. dense fibrous connective tissue. E. an outer layer of mesothelium and an inner core of hyaline cartilage.

D. dense fibrous connective tissue.

The OLDEST enamel in a fully erupted first molar is located at the A. cervix of the tooth. B. oral surface of a cusp. C. mesial and distal surfaces of the tooth. D. dentinoenamel junction underlying a cusp. E. dentinoenamel junction underlying a fissure.

D. dentinoenamel junction underlying a cusp.

The histamine that is released by mast cells is responsible for the principal symptoms of which of the following? A. A delayed hypersensitivity B. Tuberculin reaction C. Contact dermatitis D. Arthus reaction E. Anaphylaxis

E. Anaphylaxis

The presence of mamelons on a 19-year-old patient suggests which of the following conditions? A. Fluorosis B. Malformation C. Malnutrition D. Delayed eruption E. Anterior open bite

E. Anterior open bite

Which group of fibers of the periodontal ligament is the first to offer resistance to movement of the tooth in an occlusal direction? A. Alveolar crest B. lnterradicular C. Horizontal D. Oblique E. Apical

E. Apical

Each of the following enters the orbit by way of the superior orbital fissure EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Abducens nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Oculomotor nerve D. Ophthalmic artery E. Ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve

D. Ophthalmic artery

The composition of plaque is most similar to which of the following? A. Bone B. Enamel C. Calculus D. Oral bacteria E. Saliva

D. Oral bacteria

If the facial nerve were to be cut just after it exited the stylomastoid foramen, it would cause loss of innervation to which of the following? A. Lacrimal gland B. Mylohyoid muscle C. Submandibular gland D. Orbicularis oculi muscle E. Anterior belly of the digastric muscle

D. Orbicularis oculi muscle

Which of the following amino acids is required for enzymatic conversion of alpha-amino nitrogen to urea? A. Lysine B. Glycine C. Cystine D. Ornithine E. Methionine

D. Ornithine

Which of the following conditions increase the risk of developing osteosarcoma? A. Osteomalacia B. Osteoporosis C. Osteoblastoma D. Osteitis deformans E. Osteogenesis imperfecta

D. Osteitis deformans

50) Which of the following is caused by vitamin D deficiency in adults? A. Rickets B. Myxedema C. Acromegaly D. Osteomalacia E. Osteitis fibrosa cystica

D. Osteomalacia

Which of the following is surrounded partly by connective tissue and epithelium, contains lymphoid follicles, has no sinuses, and is penetrated by a number of crypts? A. Spleen B. Thymus C. Lymph node D. Palatine tonsil E. Bursa of Fabricius

D. Palatine tonsil

Where is the thickest stratum corneum found in the integument? A. Lip B. Anterior body wall C. Scalp D. Palm E. Interscapular region of the back

D. Palm

Eosinophils are characteristically seen in which of the following conditions? A. Bacterial infections B. Viral infections C. Fungal infections D. Parasitic infestations

D. Parasitic infestations

Which of the following attaches the root surface to the alveolar bone? A. Cementum B. Attached gingiva C. Dentinal tubules D. Periodontal ligament E. Cementoenamel junction

D. Periodontal ligament

Each of the following mechanisms is activated in response to heat EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? A. Panting B. Sweating C. Loss of appetite D. Peripheral vasoconstriction E. Decrease in voluntary activity

D. Peripheral vasoconstriction

18) Each of the following is a mechanism in humans helping to raise body temperature EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Shivering B. ATP hydrolysis C. Exothermic reactions D. Peripheral vasodilation E. Increased thyroxine release

D. Peripheral vasodilation

Each of the following enzymes functions in association with a membrane EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Succinate dehydrogenase B. Na+ /K+ ATPase C. Adenylate cyclase D. Phosphofructokinase E. Coenzyme Q reductase

D. Phosphofructokinase

Protein kinase regulate the activities of key enzymes through which of the following? A. Oxidation B. Hydrolysis C. Acetylation D. Phosphorylation E. Dephosphorylation

D. Phosphorylation

37) The major sensory nerve to the parietal pericardium branches from which of the following nerves? A. Vagus B. Musculophrenic C. Intercostal D. Phrenic E. Internal thoracic

D. Phrenic

100) Which of the following is the characteristic immunoglobulin present in human external secretions (i.e. saliva, tears, intestinal juice)? A. Monomeric IgE B. Monomeric IgA C. Polymeric IgG4 D. Polymeric IgA E. Secretory IgD

D. Polymeric IgA

Which of the following represents the anaerobic organism that is cultured from gingival scrapings and that forms black colonies on hemin-containing culture media? A. Sarcina lutea B. Bacillus anthracis C. Veillonella alcalescens D. Porphyromonas gingivalis E. Alpha-hemolytic streptococcus

D. Porphyromonas gingivalis

146) Glucose reabsorption in the nephron is usually completed in which of the following? A. Distal tubule B. Loop of Henle C. Collecting duct D. Proximal tubule

D. Proximal tubule

Glucose reabsorption in the nephron is usually completed in which of the following? A. Distal tubule B. Loop of Henle C. Collecting duct D. Proximal tubule

D. Proximal tubule

Each of the following statements correctly describes similar characteristics of the chemical senses of taste and smell EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Receptor cells are replaced regularly. B. There are primary classes of taste and of odor. C. Receptors are located on cilia or microvilli at the apical ends of cells. D. Receptors initiate action potentials directly to respective cranial nerve sensory fibers. E. Molecules must be dissolved in saliva or mucus to interact with receptor membrane proteins.

D. Receptors initiate action potentials directly to respective cranial nerve sensory fibers.

Which of the following will most likely be INCREASED in this patient? A. Intestinal calcium absorption B. Intestinal organic phosphate absorption C. Renal calcitriol production D. Renal calcium excretion E. Renal organic phosphate excretion

D. Renal calcium excretion

Which of the following muscles is totally denervated as a result of a section of spinal nerve C5? A. Trapezius B. Teres major C. Subscapularis D. Rhomboid major E. Latissimus dorsi

D. Rhomboid major

From the occlusal aspect, which of the following represents the most frequently seen form of a maxillary second molar? A. Round B. Square C. Trapezoidal D. Rhomboidal E. Heart-shaped

D. Rhomboidal

6) Sensations from the left face and teeth are interpreted in which of the following lobes? A. Left frontal B. Right frontal C. Left parietal D. Right parietal E. Right temporal

D. Right parietal

Proteins for extracellular use can be synthesized in which of the following structures? A. Nucleolemma B. Mitochondria C. Heterochromatin D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum E. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

Which of the following proteins is involved with bacterial aggregation and subsequent elimination from the oral cavity? A. Gustin B. Statherin C. Lactoferrin D. Secretory IgA

D. Secretory IgA

Stimulation of the posterior hypothalamus by a reduction in core temperature will produce which of the following? A. Panting B. Sweating C. Vomiting D. Shivering E. Vasodilation

D. Shivering

24) Which of the following factors MOST influences the lingual concavity of the maxillary anterior teeth and groove direction of the posterior teeth? A. Anterior guidance B. Angle of the eminence C. Curve of the occlusion D. Sideshift of the mandible (Bennett movement) E. Direction of movement of the rotating condyle

D. Sideshift of the mandible (Bennett movement)

Salivary gland striated ducts are composed of which of the following types of epithelium? A. Simple squamous B. Simple cuboidal C. Stratified squamous D. Simple low columnular E. Psuedostratified ciliated columnar

D. Simple low columnular

The branches of the maxillary artery supply each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Nasal septum B. Mandibular incisors C. Hard and soft palate D. Skin of the forehead E. Muscles of mastication

D. Skin of the forehead

Which of the following represents the correct size and characteristic of the nerve fibers that conduct sensory input of pain from the oral-facial region? A. Large diameter, myelinated B. Small diameter, myelinated C. Large diameter, unmyelinated D. Small diameter, unmyelinated E. Intermediate diameter, myelinated

D. Small diameter, unmyelinated

The hypophysis is situated in a fossa of which of the following bones? A. Ethmoid B. Frontal C. Temporal D. Sphenoid E. Palatine

D. Sphenoid

179) If there is a fracture of the maxillary bone adjacent to the traumatized central incisors, then nociception terminates centrally within which of the following? A. Trigeminal ganglion B. Spinal tract of V C. Spinal subnucleus oralis of V D. Spinal subnucleus caudalis of V E. Main (chief) sensory nucleus of V

D. Spinal subnucleus caudalis of V

31) Each of the following appears in the glomerular filtrate in concentrations approximately equal to those in plasma EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Urea B. Glucose C. Amino acids D. Steroid hormones E. Plasma electrolytes

D. Steroid hormones

Maxillary tooth crowns exhibit concavities on which of the following surfaces? A. The mesial of central incisor and first premolar B. The mesial of canine and first molar C. The distal of first premolar and the mesial surface of second molar D. The mesial of first premolar and the distal of first molar The distal of the first molar and the mesial of the second molar

D. The mesial of first premolar and the distal of first molar The distal of the first molar and the mesial of the second molar

Which of the following is characteristic of primary maxillary canines? A. Crown height < mesiodistal width. B. Cusp is low and rounded. C. The mesioincisal cusp ridge is shorter than the distoincisal cusp ridge. D. The mesioincisal cusp ridge is longer than the distoincisal cusp ridge.

D. The mesioincisal cusp ridge is longer than the distoincisal cusp ridge.

193) Muscular contractions might result in displacement of the left condyle. Into which of the following areas will the condyle MOST likely be displaced? A. Oral cavity B. Maxillary sinus C. Temporal fossa D. Middle ear cavity E. Infratemporal fossa

E. Infratemporal fossa

Which of the following teeth would more frequently have a mesial concavity on its crown? A. Maxillary central incisor B. Mandibular lateral incisor C. Mandibular canine D. Mandibular second premolar E. Mandibular first molar

E. Mandibular first molar

Which of the following teeth have long axes positioned with their root apices facial and their crowns lingual? A. Maxillary incisors B. Mandibular incisors C. Maxillary premolars D. Maxillary molars E. Mandibular molars

E. Mandibular molars

Which of the following teeth might possess three cusps? A. Maxillary second premolar and maxillary first molar B. Maxillary second premolar and mandibular first premolar C. Maxillary first molar and mandibular second molar D. Maxillary second molar and mandibular first premolar E. Maxillary second molar and mandibular second premolar

E. Maxillary second molar and mandibular second premolar

Which of the following terms refers to the presence of digested blood in the stool? A. Hemosiderosis B. Hemochromatosis C. Hematoma D. Icterus E. Melena

E. Melena

43) A terminal branch of the mandibular nerve emerges through which of the following foramina? A. Supraorbital B. lnfraorbital C. Stylomastoid D. Rotundum E. Mental

E. Mental

On permanent teeth, the greatest incisal curvature of a cervical line is on which surface of which incisor? (surface --> incisor) A. Mesial surface --> Mandibular central B. Distal surface --> Mandibular central C. Mesial surface --> Mandibular lateral D. Distal surface --> Maxillary lateral E. Mesial surface --> Maxillary central

E. Mesial surface --> Maxillary central

136) Which of the following represents the slight incisocervical concavity on the labial crown surface of the canines that is found in the incisal third, just mesial to the labial ridge? A. Mesial fossa B. Mesiolingual fissa C. Mesial marginal ridge D. Mesiolabial line angle E. Mesiolabial developmental depression

E. Mesiolabial developmental depression

Each of the following is considered a supporting cusp EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Buccal cusp of mandibular first premolar B. Lingual cusp of maxillary first premolar C. Distobuccal cusp of mandibular first molar D. Distolingual cusp of maxillary first molar E. Mesiolingual cusp of a mandibular second molar

E. Mesiolingual cusp of a mandibular second molar

190) Each of the following events will occur during fracture repair EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Blood clot forms. B. Bridging callus forms C. Periosteal callus forms. D. New endochondral bone forms. E. New osteons grow across the callus.

E. New osteons grow across the callus.

Which of the following substances represents an unsaturated fatty acid? A. Cholesterol B. Palmitate C. Stearate D. Choline E. Oleate

E. Oleate

154) Atretic follicles are characteristic of which of the following? A. Integument of scalp B. Thyroid C. Pituitary D. Lymph gland E. Ovary

E. Ovary

124) Which of the following BEST describes the normal root of the mandibular canine, in cross section at the CEJ? A. Circular, symmetrical B. Triangular, symmetrical C. Ovoid, symmetrical D. Ovoid, but wider mesiodistally at the lingual E. Ovoid, but wider mesiodistally at the labial

E. Ovoid, but wider mesiodistally at the labial

If protein is catabolized for energy, then MOST of the energy is derived from which of the following? A. Urea production B. Oxidative deamination C. Transamination reactions D. Cleavage of peptide bonds E. Oxidation of a-keto acids derived from amino acids

E. Oxidation of a-keto acids derived from amino acids

Edema as a result of a hemodynamic disorder commonly occurs in each of the following locations EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Lungs B. Brain C. Subcutaneous tissues D. Peritoneal cavity E. Pancreas

E. Pancreas

38) Oxyphil cells are present in which of the following? A. Thymus B. Spleen C. Fundic stomach D. Neurohypophysis E. Parathyroid gland

E. Parathyroid gland

The bone resorption seen in elderly patients with low dietary calcium is enhanced by which of the following hormones? A. Insulin B. Estrogen C. Aldosterone D. Thyroid stimulating hormone E. Parathyroid hormone

E. Parathyroid hormone

Which of the following represents the condition in which a radiograph of a 10-year-old patient's maxilla shows that two succedaneous teeth are absent? A. Mesiodens B. Gemination C. Dens in dente D. Latent odontogenesis E. Partial anodontia (hypodontia)

E. Partial anodontia (hypodontia)

Which of the following represents the term "characteristic of a single disease"? A. Pathogenic B. Pathologic C. Idiopathic D. latrogenic E. Pathognomonic

E. Pathognomonic

Chlamydia trachomatis might cause each of the following diseases EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Trachoma B. Lymphogranuloma venereum C. Inclusion conjunctivitis D. Non-gonococcal urethritis E. Primary atypical pneumonia

E. Primary atypical pneumonia

Which of the following is MOST likely to precede an impending atherosclerotic cerebral infarction? A. Angina pectoris B. Pulmonary embolus C. Myocardial infarction D. Ruptured berry aneurysm E. Transient ischemic attacks

E. Transient ischemic attacks

Which of the following is most likely to be a warning sign of an impending atherosclerotic brain infarction? A. Angina pectoris B. Pulmonary embolus C. Myocardial infarction D. Ruptured berry aneurysm E. Transient ischemic attacks

E. Transient ischemic attacks

The ulna articulates with which of the following parts of the humerus? A. Head B. Lateral epicondyle C. Capitulum D. Greater tubercle E. Trochlea

E. Trochlea

Which of the following groups includes only amino acids essential for humans? A. Valine, serine, leucine B. Leucine, lysine, glycine C. Tyrosine, threonine, tryptophan D. Phenylalanine, methionine, proline E. Tryptophan, methionine, isoleucine

E. Tryptophan, methionine, isoleucine

Which of the following diseases is caused by an agent that produces neither exotoxins nor endotoxins? A. Cholera B. Tetanus C. Brucellosis D. Gas gangrene E. Tuberculosis

E. Tuberculosis

Which of the following produce surfactant? A. Monocytes B. Clara cells C. Goblet cells D. Type I pneumocytes E. Type ll pneumocytes

E. Type ll pneumocytes

Parasympathetic innervation controlling salivation originates with which of the following cranial nerves? A. V, VII, IX, X, and XII B. V, VII, IX, and X C. V, IX, and X D. VII, IX, and XI E. VII and IX

E. VII and IX

Which of the following represents the usual color of the crowns of primary teeth? A. Grayish-white B. Yellowish-white C. Darker than the crowns of permanent teeth D. Same color as the crowns of permanent teeth E. Whiter than the crowns of permanent teeth

E. Whiter than the crowns of permanent teeth

A deviation of the tongue, when protruded, away from the midline results from damage to which of the following cranial nerves? A. V B. VII C. X D. XI E. XII

E. XII

The capacity of the tongue for forceful movement depends on striated muscle supplied by which of the following cranial nerves? A. V B. VII C. IX D. X E. XII

E. XII

On the occlusal surface of a maxillary first molar, the total number of pits is normally the same as found on the occlusal surface of which premolar? A. Maxillary first B. Mandibular first C. Maxillary second D. U-type mandibular second E. Y-type mandibular second

E. Y-type mandibular second

From the facial aspect, the crown of a primary canine normally has an incisal outline that exhibits A. 2 mamelons. B. no slopes, because it is straight. C. mesioincisal and distoincisal slopes of equal length. D. notching due to labial developmental depressions. E. a mesioincisal slope that is longer than the distoincisal slope.

E. a mesioincisal slope that is longer than the distoincisal slope.

70) How is a large vein different from its companion artery? The vein has A. a smaller lumen. B. a less extensive vasa vasorum. C. a more prominent tunica media D. an indistinct endothelial lining. E. a more prominent tunica adventitia.

E. a more prominent tunica adventitia.

A distinguishing characteristic of a maxillary second premolar is the presence of A. two distinct roots. B. a mesiolingual groove. C. longer lingual cusp than facial cusp. D. a concavity of the mesial crown surface. E. a short central groove mesiodistally.

E. a short central groove mesiodistally.

In the glycolytic sequence, the enzyme that brings about the transition from 6-carbon metabolites to 3-carbon metabolites is A. phosphoglucoisomerase. B. phosphofructokinase. C. phosphorylase. D. hexokinase. E. aldolase.

E. aldolase.

The atoms of purines are most directly derived from A. glucose. B. steroids. C. pyrimidines. D. fatty acids. E. amino acids.

E. amino acids.

When compared to a maxillary first molar, the roots of a maxillary second molar A. are longer. B. are more divergent. C. are fewer in number. D. have less potential for fusion. E. are greater in distal inclination.

E. are greater in distal inclination.

105) Virulence of the pneumococcus is associated with its A. pyrogenic exotoxin. B. C-reactive protein. C. content of nucleoprotein. D. production of streptolysin. E. capsular polysaccharide.

E. capsular polysaccharide.

20) Human papillomaviruses 16 and 18 are strongly correlated with the appearance of A. genital warts. B. plantar warts. C. cutaneous warts. D. uterine cancer. E. cervical cancer.

E. cervical cancer.

Gel electrophoresis is used to separate molecules by A. shape. B. charge. C. viscosity. D. mass and shape. E. charge and size.

E. charge and size.

58) Which of the following changes in lung compliance and vital capacity would be observed in the absence of pulmonary surfactant? A. increase lung compliance; increase vital capacity B. increase lung compliance; decrease vital capacity C. increase lung compliance; no change vital capacity D. decrease lung compliance; increase vital capacity E. decrease lung compliance; decrease vital capacity

E. decrease lung compliance; decrease vital capacity

Each of the following is associated with Tetralogy of Fallot EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Dextroposed aorta B. Pulmonic stenosis C. Ventricular septal defect D. Left ventricular hypertrophy E. Right ventricular hypertrophy

D. Left ventricular hypertrophy

A viremia is characterized by which of the following? A. Infected cells are transformed. B. Infected cells are no longer releasing virus. C. The virus is most easily spread via gastrointestinal secretions. D. The virus is most susceptible to circulating antibodies.

D. The virus is most susceptible to circulating antibodies.

Which of the following characterizes exergonic reactions? A. Decreased entropy B. Increased enthalpy C. Decreased enthalpy D. Negative free energy change E. Positive free energy change

D. Negative free energy change

Melanocytes migrate to the lamina propria of the oral mucosa from which of the following? A. Myotome B. Dermatome C. Sderotome D. Neural crest E. Rathke's pouch

D. Neural crest

An anemic individual is expected to have which of the following conditions in systemic arterial blood? A. Elevated oxygen tension, normal oxygen content B. Elevated oxygen tension, reduced oxygen content C. Reduced oxygen tension, normal oxygen content D. Normal oxygen tension, reduced oxygen content E. Reduced oxygen tension, reduced oxygen content

D. Normal oxygen tension, reduced oxygen content

91) Which group of fibers of the periodontal ligament offers the MOST resistance to movement of the tooth in an apical direction? A. Alveolar crest B. Interradicular C. Horizontal D. Oblique E. Apical

D. Oblique

On a maxillary molar, which of the following ridges is formed by the union of the distal cusp ridge of the mesiolingual cusp and the triangular ridge of the distofacial cusp? A. Cuspal B. Central C. Marginal D. Oblique E. Transverse

D. Oblique

1. From a facial view, where would the cementoenamel junction be MOST apically positioned on the crown of a primary mandibular first molar? a. Mesial one-third b. Middle one-third c. Distal one-third d. Equally positioned in all thirds

a. Mesial one-third

1. A crown concavity, which is confluent with a longitudinal groove of the root, is a rather common feature of which surface of which premolar? a. Mesial surface of the maxillary first premolar tooth b. Distal surface of the maxillary first premolar tooth c. Mesial surface of the mandibular first premolar tooth d. Distal surface of the mandibular first premolar tooth e. Mesial surface of the mandibular second premolar tooth

a. Mesial surface of the maxillary first premolar tooth

1. The central pit of the maxillary first molar is formed at the bases of the triangular ridges of which cusps? a. Mesiobuccal, mesiolingual, and distobuccal b. Mesiobuccal, mesiolingual, and distolingual c. Mesiobuccal, distobuccal, and distolingual d. Mesiolingual, distobuccal, and Distolingual

a. Mesiobuccal, mesiolingual, and distobuccal

1. If a maxillary first molar has a fourth pulp canal, it is located in which of the following roots? a. Mesiofacial b. Distofacial c. Palatal d. Fourth

a. Mesiofacial

1. Which of the following grooves on a mandibular first premolar originates in an occlusal pit and extends onto a proximal surface? a. Mesiolingual developmental b. Distolingual developmental c. Mesial marginal d. Linguogingival

a. Mesiolingual developmental

1. Which of the following is the MOST important function of bacterial pili in causing human infectious disease? a. Making the bacteria motile b. Allowing bacteria to adhere to human cells c. Transferring DNA from one bacterium to another d. Destroying phagocytic macrophages and neutrophils

b. Allowing bacteria to adhere to human cells

1. Which of the following represents the classic microscopic lesion of rheumatoid arthritis? a. Tophus b. Pannus c. Aschoff body d. Heberden node e. Wire-loop lesion

b. Pannus

1. Penicillin is usually non-toxic to human cells because human cells LACK which of the following? a. Mitochondria b. Peptidoglycans c. Topoisomerases d. Nuclear membranes

b. Peptidoglycans

Which of the following genera is MOST likely involved in bacillary dysentery? A. Vibrio B. Shigella C. Entamoeba D. Salmonella E. Escherichieae

. Shigella

Which of the following anemias results from drug-induced bone marrow suppression? A. Aplastic B. Sickle cell C. Pernicious D. Hemolytic E. Myelophthisic

A. Aplastic

67) During an isotonic contraction, which of the following bands or structures do NOT change in width or length? A. A band B. I band C. Muscle sarcomeres D. Two consecutive Z lines E. Series elastic elements

A. A band

Which of the following contains the largest hydroxyapatite crystals? A. Enamel B. Dense bone C. Calculus D. Cementum E. Spongy bone

A. Enamel

53) Each of the following secretes HCO3 into the gastrointestinal tract EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Chief cells B. Colon mucosa C. Salivary glands D. Stomach mucosa

A. Chief cells

Which of the following represents normal glucose clearance? A. 0 mg/min B. 44 mg/min C. 125 mg/min D. 600 mg/min

A. 0 mg/min

11) A patient's pain from the temporomandibular joint was referred to the skin over the parotid region and to the side of the head. This referral pattern is based on the distribution of which of the following nerves? A. Auriculotemporal B. Greater auricular C. Temporal branch of the facial D. Superior alveolar E. Inferior alveolar

A. Auriculotemporal

Which of the following strata of the epidermis is the LEAST cytodifferentiated? A. Basale B. Corneum C. Spinosum D. Granulosum

A. Basale

Which of the following is a genetic condition that involves sweat and mucous glands and results in impaired transport of their secretions? A. Cystic fibrosis B. Marian syndrome C. Neurofibromatosis I D. Mucopolysaccharidosis I E. Cytomegalic inclusion disease

A. Cystic fibrosis

Enzymes that catalyze the anaerobic processes of carbohydrate metabolism are found predominantly in which part of a cell? A. Cytoplasm B. Membrane C. Cell wall D. Nucleus E. Mitochondria

A. Cytoplasm

Ingestion of which of the following MOST markedly DECREASES gastric emptying? A. Fats B. Water C. Minerals D. Proteins, E. Carbohydrates

A. Fats

Natural killer cells capable of destroying malignant cells MUST be first activated with which of the following? A. IL-2 B. Kinin C. Tryposin D. Complement E. Histamine

A. IL-2

A patient reports breaking a lower right central incisor while eating a cookie. Which of the following mandibular movements was the patient MOST likely making when this occurred? A. Protrusive B. Retrusive C. Straight closure D. Right working E. Left working

A. Protrusive

54) Which of the following streptococcal virulence factors acts as a superantigen, mediating a variety of cytokine-induced effects that can result in life-threatening disease? A. Pyrogenic exotoxin B. Hyaluronidase C. Streptokinase D. Streptolysin

A. Pyrogenic exotoxin

26) Which of the following base pairs promotes helix stabilization in DNA but does NOT do so in RNA? A. G-C B. A-T C. G-U D. C-T E. A-U

B. A-T

Which of the following will inactivate human immune deficiency virus (HIV) reverse transcriptase? A. ATP B. AZT C. dATP D. Fluorouracil E. Methotrexate

B. AZT

Aflatoxin is produced by A. Mucor. B. Candida. C. Tricophyton. D. Penicillium. E. Aspergillus.

E. Aspergillus.

The kidney dialysis machine is an example of which of the following mechanical systems? A. Sorting B. Cotransport C. Countercurrent D. Active transport

C. Countercurrent

53) The apex of the horizontal plane Gothic-arch tracing represents which of the following positions? A. Maximum opening B. Centric relation C. Lateral protrusive D. Rest position

B. Centric relation

Each of the following substances is a glycosaminoglycan EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Heparin B. Ceramide C. Hyaluronate D. Dermatan sulfate E. Chondroitin sulfate

B. Ceramide

Following prophylactic administration of amoxicillin, a patient becomes hypotensive and itchy and is having difficulty breathing. Which of the following is MOST probably occurring? A. CD4 lymphocytes are secreting lymphokines resulting in edem B. Amoxicillin reacts with IgE and activates cytotoxic T cells to release lymphokines. C. IgG and complement are inducing the chemotaxis of neutrophils out of vessels. D. IgE bound to antigen results in histamine release from mast cells.

B. Amoxicillin reacts with IgE and activates cytotoxic T cells to release lymphokines.

Intensity of sound is dependent mainly on which of the following physical characteristics of sound waves? A. Frequency B. Amplitude C. Wavelength D. Secondary waves E. Sympathetic vibrations

B. Amplitude

54) The chemical energy generated by mitochondrial electron transport results from which of the following? A. Excess H+ in the matrix B. An H+ gradient across the inner membrane C. The formation of thioesters in the matrix D. A conformational change in the inner membrane

B. An H+ gradient across the inner membrane

As the mouth is opened widely, the articular disk moves in what direction in relation to the articular eminence? A. Laterally B. Anteriorly C. Posteriorly D. Medially E. Superiorly

B. Anteriorly

In a newly erupted tooth, the junction between tooth surface and the crevicular epithelium consists of which of the following? A. Interstitial crevicular fluid B. Basal lamina-like structure between enamel and epithelium C. Basal lamina-like structure between cementum and epithelium D. Basal lamina-like structure between dentin and epithelium E. Keratin fibers, running from the epithelium deeply into the enamel

B. Basal lamina-like structure between enamel and epithelium

Which of the following represents the MOST potent carcinogen? A. Estrogen B. Benzpyrene C. Folic acid D. Cholic acid

B. Benzpyrene

185) Which of the following cells found in the pancreas is responsible for secreting insulin? A. Alpha B. Beta C. Delta D. Acinar E. Centroacinar

B. Beta

128) Each of the following coenzymes is a component of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. NAD B. Biotin C. Coenzyme A D. Thiamine pyrophosphate

B. Biotin

Which of the following features distinguishes bone from osteoid? A. Bone is not resorbed. B. Bone has a mineralized matrix. C. Osteoid contains fewer lacunae per unit area. D. Osteoid contains a different type of fiber in its matrix.

B. Bone has a mineralized matrix.

65) The movement in the upper compartment of the temporomandibular joint is rotation and translation. A. The movement in the lower compartment is translation. B. Both statements are TRUE. C. Both statements are FALSE. D. The first statement is TRUE, and the second is FALSE. E. The first statement is FALSE, and the second is TRUE.

B. Both statements are TRUE.

Which of the following conditions represents an intoxication rather than an infection? A. Anthrax B. Botulism C. Chancroid D. Bacteroidosis E. Salmonellosis septicemia

B. Botulism

20) Which of the following veins is formed by the union of the internal jugular and subclavian veins? A. Superior vena cava B. Brachiocephalic C. Pulmonary D. Cephalic E. Azygos

B. Brachiocephalic

Sympathetic stimulation most likely produces which of the following? A. Glycogen synthesis B. Bronchial dilation C. Decreased mental activity D. Decreased metabolic rate E. Increased blood flow to the skin

B. Bronchial dilation

The total number of premolars in one arch of the dentition is normally the same as the total number of which of the following? A. Primary premolars in one arch B. Canines in the primary dentition C. Molars in the primary dentition D. Permanent molars in one quadrant E. Permanent anterior teeth in one quadrant

B. Canines in the primary dentition

Which of the following characterize(s) sickle cell anemia? A. Hypoplastic bone marrow B. Capillary stasis and thrombosis C. Decreased formation of bilirubin D. Increased F hemoglobin that does not sickle

B. Capillary stasis and thrombosis

48) Which of the following structures directly develops from the cells remaining in the remnants of the preovulatory follicle after ovulation? A. Theca interna B. Corpus luteum C. Corpus albicans D. Atretic follicle E. Interstitial gland

B. Corpus luteum

Which of the following structures directly develops from the cells remaining in the remnants of the preovulatory follicle after ovulation? A. Theca intema B. Corpus luteum C. Corpus albicans D. Atretic follicle E. lnterstitial gland

B. Corpus luteum

Lingual convergence is important for each of the following reasons EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Reduces the size of the occlusal table on posterior teeth B. Creates proper light deflection to produce good esthetics C. Influences the size of the contact areas between teeth D. Allows the teeth to be put into arch forms E. Allows proper embrasure formation

B. Creates proper light deflection to produce good esthetics

Prostacyclin and thromboxane are products of which pathway? A. Complement cascade B. Cyclooxygenase C. Lipoxygenase D. Fibrinolytic

B. Cyclooxygenase

Which of the following primary grooves uniting in the distal pit on the occlusal surface of the mandibular second molar represents the one that normally has no counterpart in the distal pit of the first molar? A. Distolingual B. DF triangular C. DL triangular D. Distal marginal E. Distal portion of the central

B. DF triangular

Which of the following represents the major pathway for metabolism of excessive intraneuronal free norepinephrine? A. Hydrolysis by cholinesterase B. Deamination by monoamine oxidase C. Hydroxylation by monoamine oxidase D. Hydroxylation by dopamine beta hydroxylase E. Methylation by catechol-0-methyl transferase

B. Deamination by monoamine oxidase

The extracellular edema in patients with cirrhosis of the liver is caused by which of the following? A. Decreased capillary permeability B. Decreased plasma proteins C. Decreased capillary pressure D. Increased lymphatic return E. Increased plasma proteins

B. Decreased plasma proteins

A. ileum and colon. In which of the following would fenestrated capillary plexi be found? A. Predentin B. Dental pulp C. Cellular cementum D. Periodontal ligament E. Reduced enamel epithelium

B. Dental pulp

Which of the following generates a slowly developing long-term response in target tissues by binding to an intracellular receptor? A. Glucagon B. Estrogen C. Prolactin D. Growth hormone E. Parathyroid hormone

B. Estrogen

63) Which of the following stimulates vagal nerve endings in the lung parenchyma and inhibits inspiration? A. Decreased arterial pH B. Expansion of the lungs C. Decreased alveolar 02 tension D. Increased alveolar C02 tension

B. Expansion of the lungs

56) The maxillary artery is MOST often a branch of which of the following arteries? A. Facial B. External carotid C. Internal carotid D. Common carotid E. Superficial temporal

B. External carotid

The carotid sheath encloses each of the following structures EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Vagus nerve B. External carotid C. Internal jugular vein D. Common carotid artery

B. External carotid

In hypersecretion of growth hormone, which of the following conditions will determine whether gigantism or acromegaly will result? A. Fusion of the spheno-occipital and basioccipital-sphenoid synchondroses B. Fusion of epiphyses of the long bones C. Nutritional state of the individual D. Genetic make-up of the individual E. Concomitant excess of thyroxine

B. Fusion of epiphyses of the long bones

91) Which of the following controls the excitability of the muscle spindle? A. Load on the muscle B. Gamma efferent system C. Alpha efferent discharge D. Length of the extrafusal fibers

B. Gamma efferent system

What single substance is effective in reversing ketosis in a non-diabetic patient? A. Urea B. Glucose C. Insulin D. Leucine E. Palmitic acid

B. Glucose

In addition to phosphoric acid, which of the following are the products of hydrolysis of lecithin? A. Glycerol, fatty acids, serine B. Glycerol, fatty acids, choline C. Sphingosine, acetic acid, inositol D. Glyceraldehyde, fatty acids, choline E. Glyceraidehyde, fatty acids, ethanolamine

B. Glycerol, fatty acids, choline

MOST of the CO2 in blood is combined as A. H2CO3 B. HCO3- C. CH3-COOH. D. carbonic acid. E. carbaminohemoglobin.

B. HCO3-

The human immunodeficiency virus preferentially infects which of the following cells? A. NK B. Helper T C. Cytotoxic T D. Suppressor T

B. Helper T

The gastroduodenal artery is usually a direct branch of which of the following arteries? A. Celiac B. Hepatic C. Splenic D. Superior mesenteric

B. Hepatic

The Reed-Sternberg cell is pathognomonic for which of the following conditions? A. Thalassemia B. Hodgkin disease C. Burkitt lymphoma D. Sickle cell anemia E. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

B. Hodgkin disease

41) Which of the following represents the MOST common cartilage found in the embryo and in the adult? A. Fibrocartilage B. Hyaline cartilage C. Elastic cartilage D. Calcified cartilage

B. Hyaline cartilage

Which of the following represents the main support of the wall of a bronchus? A. Smooth muscle B. Hyaline cartilage C. Elastic membranes D. Dense irregular connective tissue E. Elastic and collagenous connective tissue

B. Hyaline cartilage

Alpha-ketoglutarate, oxygen, and ascorbic acid are essential for which of the following processes? A. Incorporation of proline B. Hydroxylation of proline C. Gamma-Carboxylation of proline D. Oxidative deamination of lysine E. Activation of procollagen peptidase

B. Hydroxylation of proline

Urolithiasis is associated with each of the following conditions EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Gout B. Hypertension C. Hypercalcemia D. Renal infection E. Hyperparathyroidism

B. Hypertension

Which of the following nerves travels from the carotid triangle into the submandibular triangle of the neck? A. Lingual B. Hypoglossal C. Great auricular D. Ansa cervicalis E. Recurrent laryngeal

B. Hypoglossal

High levels of Porphyromonas gingivalis-specific antibodies are seen in MOST of the serum samples from patients with adult periodontitis. These antibodies which of the following? A. IgM B. IgG C. IgE D. IgA E. IgD

B. IgG

Healing is retarded by each of the following conditions EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Trauma B. Immobilization C. Infection D. Hemorrhage E. Ischemia

B. Immobilization

74) Which of the following is a pulpal change associated with increasing age? A. Increased cellularity B. Increased collagenous components C. Development of more extensive subodontoblastic nerve plexus D. Development of more extensive subodontoblastic capillary plexus E. Development of more extensive lymphatic plexus

B. Increased collagenous components

48) In respiratory acidosis, arterial C02 content and pH become abnormal. Which of the following BEST describes their respective changes? A. Increases C02; increases pH B. Increases C02; decreases pH C. Decreases C02; increases pH D. Decreases C02; decreases pH

B. Increases C02; decreases pH

The nasolacrimal duct drains into which of the following? A. Middle meatus B. Inferior meatus C. Superior meatus D. Sphenoethmoidal recess

B. Inferior meatus

71) Fiber tracts passing from the thalamus to the cortex are found in which of the following? A. Corpus callosum B. Internal capsule C. Medial lemniscus D. Lateral lemniscus E. Anterior commissure

B. Internal capsule

72) Which of the following represents the main arterial supply to the brain? A. Internal jugular B. Internal carotid C. External carotid D. Middle meningeal

B. Internal carotid

The nerves of the internal thoracic wall lie immediately deep to which layer of the wall? A. External intercostal B. Internal intercostal C. Transversus thoracis D. Parietal pleura E. Subcostals

B. Internal intercostal

23) Which of the following structures is retroperitoneal? A. Spleen B. Kidney C. Stomach D. Sigmoid colon E. Transverse colon

B. Kidney

Which of the following membrane components consists of glycerol, phosphate, fatty acids, and choline? A. Cephalin B. Lecithin C. Ganglioside D. Cerebroside E. Sphingomyelin

B. Lecithin

After an automobile accident, a patient's chin deviates to the left on opening his mouth widely. His mandible is probably fractured at which of the following points? A. Genial tubercle B. Left condylar neck C. Right condylar neck D. Left mental foramen E. Right mental foramen

B. Left condylar neck

Which groove of the mandibular first molar does the maxillary mesiolingual cusp pass through in a lateral excursive movement on the working side? A. Buccal B. Lingual C. Central D. Distobuccal

B. Lingual

Which of the following nerves is located directly on the lateral surface of the medial pterygoid muscle? A. Facial B. Lingual C. Masseteric D. (Long) buccal E. Auriculotemporal

B. Lingual

Each of the following structures lies between the hyoglossus and the mylohyoid muscles EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Lingual nerve B. Lingual artery C. Sublingual gland D. Submandibular duct E. Hypoglossal nerve

B. Lingual artery

In an ideal intercuspal relation in a normal dentition, each of the following teeth contacts each other EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Maxillary first premolar and mandibular second premolar B. Maxillary first molar and mandibular second premolar C. Maxillary second premolar and mandibular first molar D. Maxillary second molar and mandibular third molar

B. Maxillary first molar and mandibular second premolar

65) Right-sided lesions of the spinal cord result in loss of which of the following (below the level of the lesion)? A. Motor activity and pain and temperature sensations on the same side B. Motor activity on the same side and pain and temperature sensations on the opposite side C. Motor activity and pain and temperature sensations on the opposite side D. Motor activity on the opposite side and pain and temperature sensations on the same side

B. Motor activity on the same side and pain and temperature sensations on the opposite side

Which of the following represents the sensory organs concerned with maintenance of skeletal muscle tonus? A. Sarcomeres B. Muscle spindles C. Gamma efferents D. Pacinian corpuscles E. Golgi tendon organs

B. Muscle spindles

White matter of the spinal cord consists chiefly of which of the following? A. Perineurium B. Myelinated axons C. Unmyelinated axons D. Nerve cell bodies E. Loose connective tissue

B. Myelinated axons

The patient's mandibular denture is determined to be pressing too far inferiorly, so that contraction of the muscular floor renders the denture unusable. Which of the following muscles is responsible for this circumstance? A. Mentalis B. Mylohyoid C. Geniohyoid D. Genioglossus E. Medial pterygoid

B. Mylohyoid

165) Swelling at the angle of the mandible and the lateral neck MOST likely resulted from deflection of exudates by which of the following structures? A. Sublingual gland B. Mylohyoid muscle C. Hyoglossus muscle D. Buccopharyngeal fascia E. Pterygomandibular raphe

B. Mylohyoid muscle

50) Which of the following is a component of bacterial cell wall peptidoglycan? A. Chitin B. N-acetyl-muramic acid C. Cellulose D. Lipopolysaccharide E. Glucans

B. N-acetyl-muramic acid

Each of the following structures is found in the posterior mediastinum EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Vagus nerve B. Phrenic nerve C. Thoracic duct D. Greater splanchnic nerve E. Sympathetic chain ganglia

B. Phrenic nerve

Which of the following represents the location of the lingual height of contour on the crown of the mandibular second premolar? A. Middle third B. Occlusal third C. Same third as that tooth's buccal height of contour D. Same third as the lingual height of contour on the crown of the maxillary premolars E. Same third as the lingual height of contour on the crown of the mandibular first premolar

B. Occlusal third

Which of the following is derived from ectomesenchyme? A. Ameloblasts B. Odontoblasts C. Stellate reticulum D. Stratum intermedium E. Reduced enamel epithelium

B. Odontoblasts

78) Which of the following glands is purely mucous? A. Parotid B. Palatine C. Sublingual D. von Ebner's E. Submandibular

B. Palatine

During an outbreak of gastroenteritis caused by Salmonella, a strain of the species suddenly appears to be resistant to several antibiotics. Which of the following best explains why? A. Parent strain has undergone several mutations. B. Parent strain has acquired a plasmid. C. There are several species of Salmonella present, each resistant to one antibiotic. D. New strain is a species of Escherichia coli, which has acquired virulence by mutation.

B. Parent strain has acquired a plasmid.

In humans, which of the following cells produce gastric intrinsic factor? A. Chief B. Parietal C. Mucous neck D. Enteroendocrine E. Surface mucous

B. Parietal

200) One piece of examined soft tissue contains obvious glandular tissue. Histological examination reveals that it is composed of purely serous acini. This is MOST likely which' of the following glands? A. Buccal B. Parotid C. Sublingual D. Submandibular E. Posterior palatal

B. Parotid

Which of the following prevent(s) the synthesis of peptidoglycans? A. Lysozymes B. Penicillin C. Tetracyclines D. Erythromycin E. Teichoic acids

B. Penicillin

Which of the following represents the rough outline of the mandibular first premolar from the buccal aspect? A. Hexagonal B. Pentagonal C. Rhomboidal D. Triangular E. Diamond-shaped

B. Pentagonal

Which of the following is least likely to contribute to or affect stability of the dental arch form? A. Periodontal health B. Plane of occlusion C. Occlusal contact forces D. Interproximal contact form E. Forces exerted by the lips and tongue

B. Plane of occlusion

73) Granulation tissue is comprised of each of the following components EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Fibroblasts B. Plasma cells C. Capillary buds D. Endothelial cells E. Newly formed collagen

B. Plasma cells

Each of the following is required for normal blood clot formation EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Ca++ B. Plasmin C. Thrombin D. Vitamin K E. Proteolysis

B. Plasmin

28) The hepatic triad consists of which of the following? A. Central vein, hepatic vein, and bile duct B. Portal vein, bile duct, and hepatic artery C. Portal vein, bile canaliculi, and hepatic vein D. Central vein, bile canaliculi, and hepatic artery E. Hepatic artery, hepatic vein, and bile duct

B. Portal vein, bile duct, and hepatic artery

Where in the autonomic nervous system is norepinepherine stored? A. Preganglionic sympathetic nerve endings B. Postganglionic sympathetic nerve endings C. Preganglionic parasympathetic nerve endings D. Postganglionic parasympathetic nerve endings

B. Postganglionic sympathetic nerve endings

Which of the following anatomic characteristics distinguishes a maxillary canine from a mandibular first premolar? A. Presence of a facial cusp B. Presence of an occlusal table C. Presence of a bifurcated root D. Mesiodistal width of the crown E. Steepness of the mesial cusp angles

B. Presence of an occlusal table

The occlusal view of a normal dental arch segment is shown below. The arrow points to which of the following mandibular teeth? A. Primary right first molar B. Primary left first molar C. Permanent right first premolar D. Permanent left second premolar

B. Primary left first molar

In which of the following teeth is the mesial portion MOST distinctly separated from the remainder of the occlusal table by a transverse ridge? A. Primary maxillary first molar B. Primary mandibular first molar C. Primary mandibular second molar D. Mandibular second premolar E. Mandibular first molar

B. Primary mandibular first molar

The cusp of Carabelli occurs with sufficient frequency to be considered normal in which of the following molars? A. Primary maxillary first B. Primary maxillary second C. Mandibular first D. Maxillary second

B. Primary maxillary second

MOST fluid reabsorption by the kidney occurs in which of the following? A. Distal tubule B. Proximal tubule C. Collecting duct D. Ascending loop of Henle E. Descending loop of Henle

B. Proximal tubule

Oxygen tension is GREATEST in which of the following blood vessels? A. Aorta B. Pulmonary vein C. Pulmonary artery D. Coronary artery E. Coronary vein

B. Pulmonary vein

Gout results from a metabolic defect in which of the following? A. Fat B. Purine C. Pigment D. Glucose E. Calcium

B. Purine

Each of the following is involved in gene cloning EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. DNA ligase B. RNA polymerase C. DNA polymerase I D. Restriction nucleases E. Reverse transcriptase

B. RNA polymerase

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infection differs from influenza infections in that A. RSV can be treated with amantadine. B. RSV causes disease primarily in infants. C. influenza virus is cliffficult to transmit. D. RSV can be prevented with effective vaccines. E. secretory IgA is not effective in preventing disease.

B. RSV causes disease primarily in infants

Which of the following nerves is the MOST likely to become injured in fractures of the mid-humeral shaft? A. Ulnar B. Radial C. Median D. Axillary E. Musculocutaneous

B. Radial

160) A practitioner administers a 90:10 nitrous oxide-oxygen mixture to a patient, causing respiratory depression. Which of the following conditions is likely to result? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

B. Respiratory acidosis

27) Which of the following structures travels just posterior to the arch of the azygos vein? A. Hemiazygos vein B. Right vagus nerve C. Right phrenic nerve D. Right lymphatic duct E. Greater splanchnic nerve

B. Right vagus nerve

Which of the following structures travels just posterior to the arch of the azygos vein? A. Hemiazygos vein B. Right vagus nerve C. Left vagus nerve D. Right lymphatic duct E. Greater splanchnic nerve

B. Right vagus nerve

135) Each of the following structures increases the surface area of the small intestine EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? A. Villi B. Rugae C. Microvilli D. Brush border E. Circular folds

B. Rugae

Each of the following structures increases the surface area of the small intestine EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Villi B. Rugae C. Microvilli D. Brush border E. Circular folds

B. Rugae

82) Which of the following sweeteners is non-nutritive as well as non-cariogenic? A. D-fructose B. Saccharin C. Galactose D. Sorbitol E. Maltose

B. Saccharin

Which of the following represents the function of the interstitial cells (of Leydig) in the testis? A. Form the acrosome B. Secrete testosterone C. Inhibit spermatogenesis D. Supply nutrients to sex cells E. Support the germinal epithelium

B. Secrete testosterone

In the developing spinal cord, the marginal layer of the alar plate develops into which of the following adult structures? A. Motor axons B. Sensory axons C. Motor neurons D. Sensory neurons

B. Sensory axons

The crescents or demilunes of the mucous alveoli of the sublingual gland are composed of which of the following cells? A. Mucous B. Serous C. Neural D. Striated E. Myoepithelial

B. Serous

The absolute refractory period of a nerve action potential is determined by the duration of which of the following? A. Sodium activation gate opening B. Sodium inactivation gate closure C. Potassium activation gate opening D. Potassium inactivation gate closure

B. Sodium inactivation gate closure

A lipid bilayer membrane is least permeable to which of the following? A. Water B. Sodium ions C. Glycerol D. Cholesterol E. Palmitic acid

B. Sodium ions

Which of the following types of blotting can be used to identify DNA restriction fragments? A. Eastern B. Southern C. Northern D. Western

B. Southern

The three divisions of the trigeminal nerve pass through openings in which of the following bones? A. Frontal B. Sphenoid C. Temporal D. Parietal E. Occipital

B. Sphenoid

83) In the mid-palatal raphe region of the hard palate, which of the following represents the layer of the epithelium of the oral mucosa which is deep to the stratum spinosum? A. Stratum lucidum B. Stratum basale C. Lamina propria D. Stratum granulosum E. Stratum corneum

B. Stratum basale

Ameloblasts will form enamel if which of the following cells are present? A. Stellate reticulum B. Stratum intermedium C. Langerhans and Merkel D. Outer enamel epithelium E. Reduced enamel epithelium

B. Stratum intermedium

If serial dilutions of human saliva are inoculated on blood agar plates, then incubated in air for 24 hours at 37oC, which of the following groups of microorganisms will grow in the greatest number? A. Actinomycetes B. Streptococcus C. Lactobacillus D. Staphylococcus E. Fusobacterium

B. Streptococcus

Which extrinsic muscle of the tongue functions to retract the tongue? A. Hyoglossus B. Styloglossus C. Genioglossus D. Palatoglossus

B. Styloglossus

Cell bodies of sympathetic fibers in the nerve of the pterygoid canal come from which of the following? A. Facial nerve B. Superior cervical ganglion C. Greater petrosal nerve D. Glossopharyngeal nerve E. Otic ganglion

B. Superior cervical ganglion

Which of the following is expected to occur when T-lymphocytes from a patient with chronic periodontitis are cultured in vitro with dental plaque antigen? A. Release of histamine B. Synthesis of lymphokines C. Production of specific IgG D. Release of lysosomal enzymes

B. Synthesis of lymphokines

103) Which of the following is the lobe of the cerebral hemisphere that lies in the middle cranial fossa? A. Frontal B. Temporal C. Occipital D. Parietal

B. Temporal

169) If Tooth #32 is infected, then the infection will typically spread to each of the following fascial spaces EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Parotid B. Temporal C. Masseteric D. Buccopharyngeal

B. Temporal

30) Which of the following ligaments helps resist posterior movement of the mandibular condyles? A. Pterygomandibular raphe B. Temporomandibular C. Anterior cruciate D. Sphenomandibular E. Stylomandibular

B. Temporomandibular

Which of the following represents a medial rotator at the glenohumeral joint? A. Teres minor B. Teres major C. Infraspinatus D. Supraspinatus E. Long head of the triceps brachii

B. Teres major

The proximal contact areas between anterior teeth are incisal to the middle third of the teeth. Which of the following is an EXCEPTION to this rule? A. The mesial contact of a maxillary canine B. The distal contact of a maxillary canine C. The mesial contact of a maxillary lateral incisor D. The mesial contact of a mandibular lateral incisor

B. The distal contact of a maxillary canine

During a working movement of the mandible, the facial cusp ridges of the maxillary first premolar on the working side oppose which of the following mandibular structures? A. The facial embrasure between the canine and the first premolar B. The distal cusp ridge of the first premolar and the mesial cusp ridge of the second premolar C. The distal cusp ridge of the second premolar and the mesial cusp ridge of the first molar D. The mesiofacial groove of the first molar.

B. The distal cusp ridge of the first premolar and the mesial cusp ridge of the second premolar

89) Pieces of dog parotid gland and pancreas are transplanted under the skin of the donor animal. After re-establishment of circulation, ingestion of food will result in secretion from which of the following? A. Parotid and pancreatic transplants B. The fragment of the pancreas only C. The fragment of the parotid only D. Neither fragment

B. The fragment of the pancreas only

The occlusal surface of the primary mandibular second molar closely resembles the occlusal surface of which of the following mandibular teeth? A. The permanent second molar B. The permanent first molar C. The second premolar D. The primary first molar

B. The permanent first molar

Which of the following explains penicillin resistance in Neisseria gonorrhoeae? A. A spontaneous chromosomal mutation of gonorrhea organisms B. The production of a plasmid-encoded lactamase C. A change in the permeability of the cell wall D. Efflux mechanism to export drug from the cell E. Mutational alteration of the drug target

B. The production of a plasmid-encoded lactamase

88) The rate of diffusion across the alveolar wall is inversely proportional to which of the following? A. The surface area for gaseous exchange B. The thickness of the alveolar wall C. The difference in the partial pressures of the gas D. The solubility of the gas

B. The thickness of the alveolar wall

The oral lesions of herpangina can often be distinguished from hand-foot-and-mouth disease by which of the following? A. Their physical appearance B. Their intraoral locations C. Their density and number D. Their gradual confluence

B. Their intraoral locations

Each of the following substances is correctly paired with the type of covalent bond it contains EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Protein; amide B. Triglyceride; ether C. Amylose; glycosidic D. RNA; phosphodiester E. Phospholipid; ester

B. Triglyceride; ether

The atherosclerotic condition of this patient's arteries likely involves hypertrophy of which of the following? A. Tunica media B. Tunica intima C. Tunica adventitia D. lnternal elastic membrane

B. Tunica intima

A mandibular first molar usually has how many roots and canals? A. Two roots and two canals B. Two roots and three canals C. Three roots and two canals D. Three roots and three canals

B. Two roots and three canals

A mandibular first molar usually has how many roots and canals? Roots: Canals A. Two: Two B. Two: Three C. Three: Two D. Three: Three

B. Two: Three

11) Which of the following is required for vitamin D3 synthesis? A. Decarboxylation in the liver B. UV activation of precursors in skin C. Metabolism by gut bacteria D. Deamination in the kidney

B. UV activation of precursors in skin

Special visceral afferent fibers for taste are conveyed in which of the following cranial nerves? A. V, VII, and IX B. VII, IX, and X C. VII, IX, and XII D. XII only

B. VII, IX, and X

Cell bodies of the somatic motor system lie in which of the following locations? A. Dorsal horn B. Ventral horn C. Autonomic ganglia D. Dorsal root ganglia E. Intermediolateral horn

B. Ventral horn

Each of the following venous channels has direct connections with the pterygoid venous plexus EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Maxillary vein B. Vertebral vein C. Deep facial vein D. Infraorbital vein E. Posterior superior alveolar vein

B. Vertebral vein

Most cases of encephalitis are caused by which of the following? A. Fungi B. Viruses C. Protozoa D. Bacteria E. Rickettsia

B. Viruses

Calcium ions initiate contraction in skeletal muscle when they A. bind to T tubules. B. bind to troponin. C. interact with actin. D. interact with myosin. E. bind to sarcoplasmic reticulum.

B. bind to troponin.

Because of the presence of a fissured groove cavity preparations MOST frequently need to be extended from the occlusal surface to the A. facial surface of maxillary molars. B. lingual surface of maxillary molars. C. lingual surface of mandibular molars. D. lingual surface of mandibular first premolars.

B. lingual surface of maxillary molars.

The foramen magnum serves as a port of entry to the cranial cavity for A. the basilar artery. B. the vertebral artery. C. the vagus and accessory nerves. D. the spinal portion of accessory nerve and the posterior meningeal artery. E. the anterior spinal artery and the bulbar portion of the eleventh cranial nerve.

B. the vertebral artery.

72) Atoms are isotopes of each other only if A. their nuclei contain the same number of neutrons. B. their atomic numbers are the same, but their mass numbers differ. C. their mass numbers are the same, but their atomic numbers differ. D. one is a beta emitter, but the other is an alpha emitter.

B. their atomic numbers are the same, but their mass numbers differ.

34) Streptomycin is an antibiotic which inhibits the process of A. translation in eukaryotes. B. translation in prokaryotes. C. transcription in eukaryotes. D. transcription in prokaryotes. E. DNA replication in prokaryotes.

B. translation in prokaryotes.

How many lobes does the right lung usually have? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

C. 3

Which of the following illustrates the occlusal view of a primary maxillary right first molar? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

C. 3

Which of the following normally describes the general crown form of canines when viewed from the facial or lingual aspect? A. 3-sided B. 4-sided C. 5-sided D. 6-sided E. 7-sided

C. 5-sided

Calcification of the mandibular third molars generally begins at A. 3-4 years. B. 5-7 years. C. 8-10 years. D. 11-13 years. E. 14-16 years.

C. 8-10 years

Which of the following represents the normal eruption age (years) of the maxillary lateral incisors? A. 4-5 years B. 6-7 years C. 8-9 years D. 10-11 years

C. 8-9 years

Mandibular canines normally erupt at age A. 5-6. B. 7-8. C. 9-10. D. 11-12. E. 13-14.

C. 9-10.

Which of the following represent(s) the matrix proteins of enamel? A. Carboxylglutamic acid containing proteins B. Type I collagen C. Amelogenins D. Proteoglycans E. Elastin

C. Amelogenins

22) Which of the following muscles participates in flexion at the gleno-humeral and the humero-ulnar joints? A. Deltoid B. Brachialis C. Biceps brachii D. Triceps brachii E. Coracobrachialis

C. Biceps brachii

35) Which of the following represents the primary supinator at the radio-ulnar joint? A. Supinator B. Brachialis C. Biceps brachii D. Brachioradialis E. Coracobrachialis

C. Biceps brachii

Which of the following muscles participates in flexion at the gleno-humeral and the humero-ulnar joints? A. Deltoid B. Brachialis C. Biceps brachii D. Triceps brachii E. Coracobrachialis

C. Biceps brachii

Which of the following represents the most common type of root anomaly on the mandibular first premolar? A. Dwarfing B. Elongation C. Bifurcation D. Concrescence E. Trifurcation

C. Bifurcation

Each of the following characterizes a peptide hormone EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Stored in secretary granules B. Synthesized in a precursor form C. Binds to intracellular receptors D. Acts by generating a second messenger E. Usually transported unbound in plasma

C. Binds to intracellular receptors

Which of the following controls parathyroid gland function? A. Thyroxin B. Calcitonin C. Blood levels of calcium D. Blood levels of magnesium E. Thyroid stimulating hormone

C. Blood levels of calcium

Pain in inflamed tissues is associated with the release of which of the following mediators? A. Histamine B. Serotonin C. Bradykinin D. Leukotrienes E. Complement components

C. Bradykinin

Chondroitin sulfate is a major component of which of the following? A. Hair B. Mucin C. Cartilage D. Bacterial cell walls E. Blood group substance

C. Cartilage

80) Each of the following can be found in the dental pulp EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Nerve tissue B. Blood vessels C. Cementoblasts D. Lymph vessels

C. Cementoblasts

Each of the following can be found in the dental pulp EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Nerve tissue B. Blood vessels C. Cementoblasts D. Lymph vessels

C. Cementoblasts

In viewing the crown of a canine from the incisal aspect, one normally sees each of following structures EXCEPT one. Which is this EXCEPTION? A. Cingulum B. Lingual fossa C. Cervical line D. Distal cusp ridge E. Mesiofacial developmental depression

C. Cervical line

When viewed from the incisal aspect, each of the following features of an incisor is visible EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Cingulum B. Lingual fossa C. Cervical line D. Marginal ridges E. Mesiofacial developmental depression

C. Cervical line

Which of the following describes a major effect of sickle cell anemia? A. Absence of biphosphoglycerate binding of hemoglobin B. Substitution of 2 proximal histidines C. Decreased solubility of the deoxy form of hemoglobin D. A P50 value for hemoglobin similar to that of myoglobin E. Decreased number of subunits in hemoglobin

C. Decreased solubility of the deoxy form of hemoglobin

173) During the initial oral examination, the dentist suspects onset of an acute asthmatic attack. Each of the following is a common manifestation of an asthmatic attack EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Airway edema B. Bronchospasm C. Decreased surfactant D. Increased mucous secretion E. Increased airway resistance

C. Decreased surfactant

Which of the following is a function of the enterogastric reflex? A. Decreases the opening of the gastroesophageal sphincter B. Increases motility of the esophagus C. Decreases motility of the stomach D. Increases motility of the ileum E. Increases gallbladder emptying

C. Decreases motility of the stomach

170) Lymphatic fluid from the area of infected Tooth #32 will drain INITIALLY to which of the following nodes? A. Buccal B. Submental C. Deep cervical D. Submandibular E. Superficial cervical

C. Deep cervical

Tendons are comprised of which of the following types of collagenous connective tissue? A. Areolar B. Reticular C. Dense regular D. Dense irregular

C. Dense regular

98) Glucosuria with hyperglycemia usually occurs in which of the following? A. Pellagra B. Addison's disease C. Diabetes mellitus D. Diabetes insipidus E. Parkinson's disease

C. Diabetes mellitus

58) Postganglionic fibers from the superior cervical ganglion innervate which of the following muscles? A. Ciliary B. Inferior oblique C. Dilator pupillae D. Sphincter pupillae E. Levator palpebrae superioris

C. Dilator pupillae

Which of the following is an essential element found in all cytochromes? A. Co B. Cu C. Fe D. Mg E. Zn

C. Fe

21) Which of the following is the MOST numerous cell type in the normal dental pulp? A. Adipocyte B. Mast cell C. Fibroblast D. Macrophage E. Odontoblast

C. Fibroblast

Which of the following types of tissues can be demonstrated on the posterior slope of the articular eminence? A. Hyaline cartilage B. Fibrocartilage C. Fibrous connective tissue D. Articular cartilage E. Elastic cartilage

C. Fibrous connective tissue

In a Class II occlusal relationship, the tip of the facial cusp of a mandibular first premolar lies directly below the contacting area between which maxillary teeth? A. Canine and lateral incisor B. Canine and first premolar C. First and second premolars D. Second premolar and first molar

C. First and second premolars

A radiograph of the maxillary posterior teeth should demonstrate which of the following calcifications completed in this patient? A. First premolar root B. Second premolar root C. First molar root D. Third molar crown

C. First molar root

In a CUSP TO FOSSA contacting relationship in intercuspal position, the maxillary first premolar is most likely to articulate with which of the following mandibular teeth? A. Lateral incisor B. Lateral incisor and canine C. First premolar D. Canine and first premolar E. First premolar and second premolar

C. First premolar

ln a CUSP TO FOSSA contacting relationship in intercuspal position, the maxillary first premolar is MOST likely to articulate with which of the following mandibular teeth? A. Lateral incisor B. Lateral incisor and canine C. First premolar D. Canine and first premolar E. First premolar and second premolar

C. First premolar

During the life span of a multirooted tooth, dentin continues to form MOST rapidly at which of the following locations? A. Within the root canals B. At the dentinoenamel junction C. Floor and roof of the pulp chamber D. Mesial and distal walls of the pulp chamber E. Facial and lingual walls of the pulp chamber

C. Floor and roof of the pulp chamber

Which of the following coenzymes is required for the synthesis of pyrimidines, such as thymine? A. Niacin B. Thiamine C. Folic acid D. Riboflavin E. Pyridoxine

C. Folic acid

Which of the following BEST describes the result of continued abrasion of the dentures on the underlying alveolar mucosa? A. Lining mucosa becoming gingival mucosa B. Lining mucosa becoming masticatory mucosa C. Gingival mucosa becoming orthokeratinized D. Masticatory mucosa becoming parakeratinized E. Orthokeratinized mucosa becoming parakeratinized

C. Gingival mucosa becoming orthokeratinized

Which of the following represents the major force that causes glomerular filtration? A. Tubular hydrostatic pressure B. Tubular colloid osmotic pressure C. Glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure D. Glomerular capillary colloid osmotic pressure

C. Glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure

65) Which nerve enters the pharynx in the gap between the superior and middle constrictors? A. Lingual B. Hypoglossal C. Glossopharyngeal D. Inferior laryngeal E. Superior laryngeal

C. Glossopharyngeal

72) Which of the following chemical agents is approved as an immersion sterilant? A. lodophors B. Ethyl alcohol C. Glutaraldehydes D. Synthetic phenolics E. Sodium hypochlorite

C. Glutaraldehydes

In which of the following structures are glycoproteins assembled for extracellular use? A. Nucleolemma B. Polyribosomes C. Golgi apparatus D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum E. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

C. Golgi apparatus

99) A mature ovum is expelled from which of the following? A. Corpus luteum B. Corpus albicans C. Graafian follicles D. Corpus hemorrhagicum

C. Graafian follicles

164) Which of the following histopathologic findings will characterize lymph node involvement with Mycobacterium tuberculosis in the lateral neck? A. Fibrosis and scarring of the lymph node cortex B. Hyperplasia of the cortex and presence of Reed-Sternberg cells C. Granulomas with multinucleate giant cells and caseation necrosis D. Hyperplasia of the cortex and a focally dense infiltrate of neutrophils

C. Granulomas with multinucleate giant cells and caseation necrosis

Which of the following primary teeth is likely to be mobile in this patient due to the eruption of the succedaneous tooth? A. F B. G C. H D. I E. J

C. H

Protective antibodies produced as a result of recovery from hepatitis B infection include which of the following? A. HBc Ag B. HBe Ag C. HBs Ag D. HDV Ag

C. HBs Ag

Damage to the liver from hepatitis C infection might impair bilirubin metabolism. Bilirubin is a product of which of the following pathways? A. Albumin synthesis B. Cholesterol synthesis C. Heme degradation D. Copper degradation

C. Heme degradation

120) Which of the following represents the total number of teeth in the permanent dentition that normally possess a cingulum? A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 12 E. 16

D. 12

37) Loss of the gag reflex suggests damage to which of the following cranial nerves? A. V B. VII C. IX D. XII

C. IX

174) Which of the following immunoglobulin classes is MOST active in this patient's respiratory difficulties? A. IgD B. IgA C. IgE D. IgM E. IgG

C. IgE

Which immunoglobin is associated with inflamed gingiva of patients with adult periodontitis? A. IgM B. IgD C. IgG D. IgE E. IgA

C. IgG

9) The movement of Ca++ across a membrane is characterized by which of the following? A. A facilitated diffusion B. An example of a cotransport system C. In many cell membranes involves a Ca++ - Na+ countertransport system D. Maintains Ca++ concentration very much higher in the cell than in the extracellular fluid

C. In many cell membranes involves a Ca++ - Na+ countertransport system

Where is the channel of communication between the maxillary sinus and the nasal cavity situated? A. In the superior nasal meatus B. In the sphenoethmoidal recess C. In the middle nasal meatus, at the semilunar hiatus D. At the anterior extremity of the inferior nasal meatus E. At the posterior extremity of the inferior nasal meatus

C. In the middle nasal meatus, at the semilunar hiatus

To properly align the maxillary central incisor and the maxillary lateral incisor, the orthodontist will ensure that the distal surface of the maxillary central incisor contacts what area of the mesial surface of the maxillary lateral incisor? A. Cervical line B. Mesio-incisal line angle C. Incisal third D. Middle third E. Cervical third

C. Incisal third

Which of the following has the most effect in stimulating respiration? A. Increase in blood pH B. Decrease in arterial p02 C. Increase in arterial pCO2 D. Decrease in blood pH E. Decrease in arterial pCO2

C. Increase in arterial pCO2

Which of the following normally describes the pulp cavity in a mesiodistal section of a maxillary canine? A. It exhibits 2 pulp horns. B. It is widest at its incisal limit. C. It is pointed at its incisal limit. D. It is widest at the midroot level. E. It is generally wider than in a faciolingual section.

C. It is pointed at its incisal limit.

From a proximal view, which of the following describes the crown outline on a mandibular posterior tooth? A. It is designed to protect against root fracture by having the crown structure serve as root support. B. It is designed to allow for a minimum amoun of chewing efficiency on the coronal surface of the tooth. C. It is usually rhomboidal and has a design flaw that encourages cusp fracture. D. It is usually trapezoidal and has a design flaw that encourages cusp fracture.

C. It is usually rhomboidal and has a design flaw that encourages cusp fracture.

From a proximal view, which of the following describes the crown outline on a mandibular posterior tooth? A. It is designed to protect against root fracture by having the crown structure serve as root support. B. It is designed to allow for a minimum amount of chewing efficiency on the coronal surface of the tooth. C. It is usually rhomboidal and has a design flaw that encourages cusp fracture. D. It is usually trapezoidal and has a design flaw that encourages cusp fracture.

C. It is usually rhomboidal and has a design flaw that encourages cusp fracture.

Which of the following acids is the chief product of carbohydrate metabolism of Streptococcus mutans? A. Acetic B. Formic C. Lactic D. Butyric E. Propionic

C. Lactic

Which amino acid possesses a hydrophobic side chain? A. Lysine B. Cysteine C. Leucine D. Hydroxyproline E. Glycine

C. Leucine

Which of the following pairs of amino acids is expected to be found on the interior of a globular protein? A. Lysine and arginine B. Arginine and leucine C. Leucine and valine D. Valine and glutamic acid E. Glutamic acid and lysine

C. Leucine and valine

Radiographs of a patient's skull show "punched-out" areas. Laboratory studies reveal hyperproteinemia and proteinuria. Which of the following represents the probable diagnosis of this condition? A. Osteosarcoma B. Chondrosarcoma C. Multiple myeloma D. Metastatic carcinoma

C. Multiple myeloma

Which of the following can decrease the concentration of creatine phosphate in a skeletal muscle fiber? A. Glycolysis B. Cori cycle C. Muscle contraction D. Oxidative decarboxylation E. Oxidative phosphorylation

C. Muscle contraction

The patient was found to be severely anemic, showing normocytic, normochromic erythrocytes. Which of the following BEST characterizes this anemia? A. Hemolytic B. Pernicious C. Myelophthisic D. Chronic blood loss

C. Myelophthisic

Each of the following statements correctly describes myocardial infarction (MI) EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Most acute MIs are caused by coronary artery thrombosis. B. Acute MI is the most common cause of death in industrialized nations. C. Pain from MI can usually be relieved by vasodilators such as nitroglycerin. D. Thrombolytic agents such as streptokinase often limit the size of infarction. E. Myocardial necrosis usually begins 20-30 minutes after coronary artery occlusion.

C. Pain from MI can usually be relieved by vasodilators such as nitroglycerin.

During swallowing, muscular contraction results in movements that seal off the oropharynx from the nasopharynx. Which of the following muscles cause movements that result in a fold in the posterior wall of the pharynx? A. Levator veli palatini B. Tensor veli palatini C. Palatopharyngeus D. Musculus Uvulae E. Palatoglossus

C. Palatopharyngeus

The retromandibular vein is formed within the parotid gland by the union of which of the following veins? A. Posterior auricular and deep facial B. Posterior auricular and posterior deep temporal C. Superficial temporal and maxillary D. Superficial temporal and transverse facial E. External jugular and transverse facial

C. Superficial temporal and maxillary

Which of the following portions of the cardiovascular system contains the greatest volume of blood? A. Arterioles B. Capillaries C. Systemic veins D. Chambers of the heart E. Pulmonary vasculature

C. Systemic veins

Each of the following cells is an antigen-specific cell EXCEPT one. Which is this EXCEPTION? A. B cells B. Macrophages C. T helper cells D. Langerhans cells E. Dendritic cells

C. T helper cells

Fracture of the hamulus affects the action of which of the following muscles? A. Superior constrictor of the pharynx B. Levator veli palatini C. Tensor veli palatini D. Salpingopharyngeus E. Buccinator

C. Tensor veli palatini

Given her reported hyperparathyroidism, this patient is likely to show each of the following signs or symptoms EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Urolithiasis B. Elevated serum calcium C. Tetanic muscular convulsions D. Central giant-cell bone lesions E. Loss of lamina dura surrounding multiple teeth

C. Tetanic muscular convulsions

Which of the following cells are responsible for delayed-type hypersensitivity (Type lV hypersensitivity)? A. B cells, Th2 cells B. B cells, neutrophils C. Th1 cells, macrophages D. Mast cells, eosinophils E. IgE, mast cells, histamine

C. Th1 cells, macrophages

The concept of using a lateral checkbite record to set a respective condylar inclination implies which of the following? A. That the non-working side condyle has traveled against the posterior wall of the fossa B. That the working side condyle has traveled down the slope of the articular eminence C. That the non-working side condyle has moved anteriorly and medially D. That the working side condyle has moved toward the medial wall of the glenoid fossa

C. That the non-working side condyle has moved anteriorly and medially

Each of the following characterizes a chlamydial infection EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Large numbers of asymptomatic carriers B. Frequent co-infection with gonorrhea C. The ability of the organism to survive in the host extracellularly D. The greater likelihood that younger women will acquire salpingitis

C. The ability of the organism to survive in the host extracellularly

In an ideal intercuspal position, the distofacial cusp of a maxillary first molar opposes which feature on a mandibular first molar? A. The distal cusp B. The distofacial cusp C. The distofacial developmental groove D. The mesiofacial developmental groove

C. The distofacial developmental groove

Which of the following is CORRECT for obligate anaerobic microorgansims in the oral cavity? A. They do not exist in this area. B. Only gram-positive organisms are found. C. They are normal flora and opportunistic. D. They are seldom isolated in the laboratory. E. They can be completely controlled by using antibiotics.

C. They are normal flora and opportunistic.

90) Which of the following structures may be found within the posterior mediastinum? A. Heart B. Phrenic nerve C. Thoracic duct D. Arch of the aorta E. Recurrent laryngeal nerve

C. Thoracic duct

Which of the following structures contacts posteriorly with the isthmus of the thyroid gland? A. Larynx B. Pharynx C. Trachea D. Esophagus E. Carotid sheath

C. Trachea

47) Which of the following is the FIRST step in the catabolism of many amino acids? A. Formation of a dipeptide with glutamate B. Conjugation of the alpha amino to glucuronate C. Transamination of the alpha amino to a keto acid D. Conjugation of the alpha carboxyl group to glucuronate E. Decarboxylation of the alpha carboxyl group to form a primary amine

C. Transamination of the alpha amino to a keto acid

88) Which of the following cranial nerves supplies the muscles derived from the first pair of branchial arches? A. Vagus B. Facial C. Trigeminal D. Hypoglossal E. Glossopharyngeal

C. Trigeminal

64) Plasmid vectors suitable for cloning have which of the following characteristics? A. Must be able to replicate synchronously with the host chromosome B. Several unique recognition sequences for one restriction enzyme C. Two genes conferring resistance to different antibiotics D. Large size to facilitate plasmid's entry into cells

C. Two genes conferring resistance to different antibiotics

98) Which of the following represents the major fibrillar component of mature dentin? A. Elastin B. Reticulin C. Type I collagen D. Type II collagen E. Type Ill collagen

C. Type I collagen

123) Odontoblasts secrete the organic components of the dentin matrix. The fibrous matrix is MOSTLY A. keratin. B. reticular fibers. C. Type I collagen. D. Type II and Ill collagen. E. reabsorbed as the dentin matures.

C. Type I collagen.

The major grooves of the mandibular second molar form which of the following patterns? A. H B. Y C. X D. + E. -

D. +

in an aqueous solution at pH 7, a peptide containing 1 amino group side chain and 2 carboxyl group side chains would have which of the following net charges? A. 2+ B. 1+ C. 0 D. 1- E. 2-

D. 1-

A drug (D) has a pK of 6.4. At a pH of 7.4, which of the following approximates the ratio of the unprotonated form to the protonated form (i.e., D-/HD)? A. 0 B. 0.1 C. 1 D. 10

D. 10

In the DNA molecule, guanine on 1 strand is joined to cytosine on the complementary strand by which of the following bonds? A. Amide B. 1 hydrogen C. 2 hydrogen D. 3 hydrogen E. Phosphodiester

D. 3 hydrogen

A subject consumes 250 ml of oxygen per minute with a tidal volume of 400 ml and a respiratory rate of 18 per minute. Which of the following represents this subject's respiratory minute volume in liters? A. 1.8 B. 4.5 C. 5.4 D. 7.2 E. 10.0

D. 7.2

Which of the following represents the number of molars that is normally found in the entire primary dentition? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 E. 12

D. 8

From the incisal aspect, the crown of a maxillary canine normally exhibits which of the following? A. A trapezoidal outline B. Symmetry between its mesial and distal portions C. A mesial portion that is thinner faciolingually than the distal portion D. A distal portion that displays some concavity in its facial outline E. Less faciolingual thickness than the crown of a mandibular canine

D. A distal portion that displays some concavity in its facial outline

The likelihood that oral bacteria play an important role in gingival inflammation is evidenced by which of the following? A. An increase in salivary hyaluronidase B. An increased number of bacteria in saliva C. An increase of neutralizing antibodies in saliva D. A reduction of inflammation with reduction of plaque

D. A reduction of inflammation with reduction of plaque

5) Which of the following takes place as proinsulin is converted to insulin? A. Disulfide bonds are formed. B. Disulfide bonds are broken. C. The polypeptide chain is lengthened. D. A segment of the polypeptide chain is removed.

D. A segment of the polypeptide chain is removed.

Which of the following is a ketone body? A. Glycerol B. Glucagon C. Acetyl CoA D. Acetoacetate E. Phosphatidylcholine

D. Acetoacetate

22) The tricarboxylic acid cycle is initiated by the condensation of which of the following two molecules? A. Pyruvate and malate B. NAD and oxaloacetate C. NAD and oxalosuccinate D. Acetyl coenzyme A and oxaloacetate E. Acetyl coenzyme Aand oxalosuccinate

D. Acetyl coenzyme A and oxaloacetate

109) Which of the following skin lesions is generally considered precancerous? A. Psoriasis B. Verruca vulgaris C. Intradermal nevus D. Actinic keratosis E. Seborrheic keratosis

D. Actinic keratosis

59) Which of the following represents a decrease in the frequency of action potentials in an afferent neuron despite a constant stimulus intensity? A. Refraction B. Potentiation C. Perception D. Adaptation E. Accommodation

D. Adaptation

85) Intravenous injections of KCl solution would increase the secretion of which of the following? A. Insulin B. Cortisol C. Calcitonin D. Aldosterone E. Parathyroid hormone

D. Aldosterone

The presence of mamelons in a 10-year-old patient suggests which of the following conditions? A. Fluorosis B. Malnutrition C. Malformation D. Anterior open bite E. Retained primary teeth

D. Anterior open bite

Which of the following BEST describes the similarity between Streptococcus pneumoniae and Cryptococcus neofommans? A. Commonly found in soil samples B. Readily prevented by a vaccine C. Readily treated by tetracycline D. Antiphagocytic polysaccharide capsules

D. Antiphagocytic polysaccharide capsules

In the presence of a constant heart rate, blood pressure changes may be chiefly attributed to alterations in resistance. Which of the following offer this resistance? A. Veins B. Venules C. Arteries D. Arterioles E. Capillaries

D. Arterioles

When horse serum is injected intravenously into a rabbit and again into the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs at the site of the second injection? A. Atopy B. Anaphylaxis C. Serum sickness D. Arthus phenomenon E. Prausnitz-Kustner reaction

D. Arthus phenomenon

The lateral pterygoid muscle inserts into which of the following? A. Condylar process only B. Medial aspect of the mandibular ramus C. Articular disk of the temporomandibular joint only D. Articular disk of the temporomandibular joint and neck of the mandible E. Articular disk of the temporomandibular joint and coronoid process

D. Articular disk of the temporomandibular joint and neck of the mandible

Administration of tetanus toxoid provides what type of immunity? A. Innate B. Natural active C. Natural passive D. Artificial active E. Artificial passive

D. Artificial active

Examination reveals diminished parotid salivation due to middle ear involvement. Which of the following nerves is MOST likely involved? A. Facial B. Lesser petrosal C. Greaterpetrosal D. Auriculotemporal

D. Auriculotemporal

Which of the following represents the type of maxillofacial bone graft having the BEST chance of success? A. Isograft B. Homograft C. Allograft D. Autograft E. Xenograft

D. Autograft

28) The junction between the tooth surface and the crevicular epithelium is composed of which of the following? A. Cementoid B. Tight junction C. Intermediate filaments D. Basal lamina-like structure E. Interstitial crevicular fluid

D. Basal lamina-like structure

The junction between the tooth surface and the crevicular epithelium is composed of which of the following? A. Cementoid B. Tight junction C. Intermediate filaments D. Basal lamina-like structure E. Interstitial crevicular fluid

D. Basal lamina-like structure

Each of the following is expected to be active during fatty acid biosynthesis EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Tricarboxylic acid cycle B. Pyruvate dehydrogenase C. Amino acid catabolism D. Beta oxidation E. Glycolysis

D. Beta oxidation

Each of the following is expected to be active during fatty acid biosynthesis EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Tricarboxylic acid cycle B. Pyruvate dehydrogenase C. Amino acid catabolism D. Beta oxidation E. Glycolysis

D. Beta oxidation

39) Which of the following represents the MOST vascular portion of the articular disc of the temporomandibular joint? A. Anterior thick zone (band) B. Posterior thick zone (band) C. Intermediate thin zone (band) D. Bilaminar zone

D. Bilaminar zone

57) Which of the following structures runs directly adjacent to, and parallel with, the median nerve in the arm? A. Ulnar artery B. Radial artery C. Cephalic vein D. Brachial artery E. Medial brachial cutaneous nerve

D. Brachial artery

The jaw jerk reflex is an example of which of the following reflexes? A. Load B. Flexor C. Withdrawal D. Dynamic stretch

D. Dynamic stretch

During oxidative phosphorylation, the energetically unfavorable proton gradient is created using energy from which of the following? A. ATP hydrolysis B. ATP synthesis C. ADP transport D. Electron transfers E. The reduction of NAD+

D. Electron transfers

In a right working movement, the lingual cusp of a maxillary right second premolar passes through which of the following mandibular structures? A. Facial groove of the right first molar B. Lingual groove of the right first molar C. Embrasure between the right first premolar and the right second premolar D. Embrasure between the right second premolar and the right first molar

D. Embrasure between the right second premolar and the right first molar

113) Which of the following oral tissues contains the LEAST collagen? A. Bone B. Dentin C. Mucosa D. Enamel E. Cementum

D. Enamel

180) On a panoramic radiograph of this patient, the dentist will expect to see each of the following features EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Primary maxillary lateral incisors with partially resorbed roots. B. Partially erupted maxillary central incisors with incomplete root closure at the apex. C. Partially erupted mandibular lateral incisors with incomplete root closure at the apex. D. Fully erupted mandibular central incisors with complete root formation and closure at the apex. E. Fully erupted mandibular first molars with incomplete root formation and non-closure at the apex.

D. Fully erupted mandibular central incisors with complete root formation and closure at the apex.

184) Which of the following glucose transporters was responsible for the patient's "insulin reaction"? A. GLUT-1 B. GLUT-2 C. GLUT-3 D. GLUT-4 E. GLUT-5

D. GLUT-4

The submucosa is present in each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Colon B. Stomach C. Jejunum D. Gallbladder E. Duodenum

D. Gallbladder

Which of the following comprise the arterial branches of the common hepatic artery? A. Splenic and the left gastroepiploic B. Short gastrics and the gastroduodenal C. Gastroduodenal, the right gastroepiploic, and the proper hepatic D. Gastroduodenal, the right gastric, and the proper hepatic E. Gastroduodenal, the left gastric, and the cystic

D. Gastroduodenal, the right gastric, and the proper hepatic

77) Which of the following structures are found in the infratemporal fossa? A. Temporalis muscle and parotid gland B. Masseter and lateral pterygoid muscles C. Superficial temporal artery and parotid lymphatic nodes D. Mandibular division of V and chorda tympani branch of VII

D. Mandibular division of V and chorda tympani branch of VII

Between which of the following permanent teeth is the lingual embrasure smaller than the facial embrasure? A. Maxillary first premolar and maxillary second premolar B. Maxillary second molar and maxillary third molar C. Mandibular first molar and mandibular second molar D. Mandibular first premolar and mandibular second premolar

D. Mandibular first premolar and mandibular second premolar

Which of the following teeth in the permanent dentition normally have bifurcations? A. Mandibular canines B. Mandibular second premolars C. Maxillary molars and maxillary first premolars D. Mandibular molars and maxillary first premolars E. Maxillary first and second molars

D. Mandibular molars and maxillary first premolars

Which premolar MOST likely possesses a crescent-shaped central developmental groove? A. Maxillaryfirst B. Mandibular first C. Maxillary second D. Mandibular second

D. Mandibular second

4) Each of the following structures is found in the infratemporal fossae EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Lingual nerve B. Medial pterygoid muscle C. Inferior alveolar nerve D. Pterygopalatine ganglion E. Pterygoid venous plexus

D. Pterygopalatine ganglion

Regulation of each of the following mechanisms is associated with the hypothalamus EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Sleep B. Water balance C. Body temperature D. Pupillary diameter E. Carbohydrate metabolism

D. Pupillary diameter

In order for RNA oncogenic viruses to be integrated into the host genome, they must possess A. translation enzymes. B. restriction endonuclease. C. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase. D. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase.

D. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase.

Peptide hormones generally exert their effect through which of the following? A. Intracellular receptors and stimulating protein synthesis B. Receptors on the cell membrane and stimulating protein synthesis C. Intracellular receptors and altering the specific activity of certain enzymes D. Receptors on the cell membrane and altering the specific activity of certain enzymes

D. Receptors on the cell membrane and altering the specific activity of certain enzymes

61) Which of the following statements BEST applies to saliva? A. Phosphate is the main pH buffer B. Supplies sialate for additional mucins C. Main source of enzymes for protein digestion D. Supplies calcium and phosphate for remineralization E. Undersaturated with respect to hydroxyapatite at neutral pH

D. Supplies calcium and phosphate for remineralization

51) The nerve of the pterygoid canal contains which of the following fibers? A. Taste and vision B. Pressure and touch sensation C. Pain and temperature sensation D. Sympathetic and parasympathetic E. Proprioception and touch sensation

D. Sympathetic and parasympathetic

Which of the following ligaments has an outer oblique portion which limits the extent of jaw opening and initiates translation of the condyle down the articular eminence? A. Capsular B. Collateral C. Stylomandibular D. Temporomandibular

D. Temporomandibular

16) Which of the following are two muscles that prevent food from entering the nasopharynx during swallowing? A. Mylohyoid and the palatoglossus B. Styloglossus and the palatoglossus C. Tensor tympani and the stylopharyngeus D. Tensor veli palatini and the levator veli palatini E. Musculus uvulae and the inferior pharyngeal constrictor

D. Tensor veli palatini and the levator veli palatini

In an ideal intercuspal relation, the oblique ridge of the maxillary first molar opposes which structure of the mandibular molar? A. The interproximal area between first and second B. The developmental groove between the mesiofacial and distofacial cusps of the first C. The developmental groove between the mesiolingual and distolingual cusps of the first D. The developmental groove between the distofacial and distal cusps of the first

D. The developmental groove between the distofacial and distal cusps of the first

In normal occlusion, and in a left working movement, the mesiofacial cusp of the maxillary left second molar passes through which of the following mandibular structures? A. The embrasure between the left first and second premolars B. The embrasure between the left first and second molars C. The facial groove of the left first molar D. The facial groove of the left second molar E. The distofacial groove of the left first molar

D. The facial groove of the left second molar

As a general rule, maxillary teeth precede mandibular teeth in the process of eruption. A. The teeth in both jaws erupt in pairs, one on the right and one on the left. B. Both statements are true. C. Both statements are false. D. The first statement is true, the second is false. E. The first statement is false, the second is true.

D. The first statement is true, the second is false.

Which of the following can adversely affect the self-cleaning quality of a dentition in normal alignment? A. Contact of adjacent teeth B. Effficient use of a toothbrush C. Friction of food material during mastication D. Too great a contour of the cervical enamel ridge

D. Too great a contour of the cervical enamel ridge

161) Rifampin (Rifadin®) is effective in treating active tuberculosis because it targets which of the following pathways? A. Mitosis B. Replication C. Translation D. Transcription E. mRNA splicing

D. Transcription

81) Which of the following represents the plasma protein that transports ferrous iron? A. Ferritin B. Myoglobin C. Hemoglobin D. Transferrin E. Cytochrome-c

D. Transferrin

Which of the following kinds of mutations is caused by base analogues? A. Deletions B. Inversions C. Frameshifts D. Transitions E. Transversions

D. Transitions

Which of the following represents genes that often encode proteins necessary for antibiotic resistance, and that can change positions on a chromosome or "jump" from a plasmid to a chromosome? A. Tryptophan operon B. Lysogens C. Prophage D. Transposons

D. Transposons

A protein in solution is at its isoelectric point when the A. pH is the same as that of the blood. B. logarithm of the concentration is zero. C. pH allows for maximum solubility. D. pH is such that no migration occurs during electrophoresis. E. pH is produced by a 1:1 mixture of the protein solution with isotonic saline.

D. pH is such that no migration occurs during electrophoresis.

18) The occlusal outline of a mandibular first molar is similar to a A. circle. B. square. C. hexagon. D. pentagon E. rhomboid.

D. pentagon

Colloid osmotic pressure of the blood is important because it A. nourishes blood cells. B. aids in blood clotting. C. prevents loss of erythrocytes from the blood. D. prevents excess loss of fluid from capillaries. E. prevents entrance of tissue fluid into capillaries.

D. prevents excess loss of fluid from capillaries.

In humans, the mumps virus is transferred by A. food. B. feces. C. flies. D. saliva.

D. saliva.

32) If an axonal membrane transiently becomes very permeable to Na ions, then the membrane potential of the cell will approach A. -70 mV. B. -60 mV. C. -50 mV. D. 0 mV. E. +60 mV.

E. +60 mV.

When both dentitions of the human are considered, which of the following represents, in years, the life span of the dental lamina? (this question was considered defective and was not scored) A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 9 E. 12

E. 12

Which of the following is normally exhibited by maxillary second premolars? A. Two roots B. A mesial concavity of the crown C. A facial crown contour that is greatly inclined to the lingual D. A lingual height of contour in the cervical third of the crown E. A crown that is wider faciolingually than mesiodistally

E. A crown that is wider faciolingually than mesiodistally

50) Which of the following do elastin and collagen have in common? A. Easily stretched B. Absence of proline C. Disulfide crosslinking D. Triple helix structure E. About one-third glycine

E. About one-third glycine

The apical cytoplasm of active serous glandular cells is typically filled with which of the following? A. Large amount of DNA B. Abundance of ribosomes C. Abundance of mitochondria D. Abundance of lipid droplets E. Abundance of zymogen granules

E. Abundance of zymogen granules

Which of the following represents the basis for the topical application of fluorides in dental caries prevention? A. Fluoride penetrates the enamel through the lamellae. B. Keratin content of the enamel is made more insoluble. C. Fluoride coats the tooth forming a uniform protective barrier. D. The primary cuticle, being less calcified, absorbs the fluoride. E. Acid solubility of the surface enamel is reduced by the fluoride

E. Acid solubility of the surface enamel is reduced by the fluoride

Which of the following represents the basis for the topical application of fluorides in dental caries prevention? A. Fluoride penetrates the enamel through the lamellae. B. Keratin content of the enamel is made more insoluble. C. Fluoride coats the tooth forming a uniform protective barrier. D. The primary cuticle, being less calcified, absorbs the fluoride. E. Acid solubility of the surface enamel is reduced by the fluoride.

E. Acid solubility of the surface enamel is reduced by the fluoride.

Which of the following is an endogenous bacterial infection? A. Trachoma B. Candidiasis C. Shigellosis D. Brucellosis E. Actinomycosis

E. Actinomycosis

Interleukin-1 and tumor necrosis factor in inflammation are produced by which of the following? A. Platelets B. Mast cells C. Lymphocytes D. Plasma cells E. Activated macrophages

E. Activated macrophages

15) The anticaries effect of fluoride is LEAST related to which of the following? A. Ion exchange B. Decreased solubility C. Facilitation of remineralization D. Its presence during enamel formation E. Activation of plaque polysaccharide hydrolysis

E. Activation of plaque polysaccharide hydrolysis

Which of the following represents the chemical substance that is the immediate source of energy for muscle contraction? A. Glycogen B. Acetyl CoA C. Lactic acid D. Creatine phosphate E. Adenosine triphosphate

E. Adenosine triphosphate

40) Which of the following could be beneficial in reducing edema in the arms of women who have had radical mastectomy with removal of axial lymph nodes? A. Hypertensive agents B. Avoidance of all diuretic agents C. Increase interstitial oncotic pressure D. Decrease interstitial hydrostatic pressure E. Administration of a plasma volume expander

E. Administration of a plasma volume expander

Ten days after being hospitalized for a large, incapacitating myocardial infarct, a 50-year-old man suddenly develops a paralysis of the right side of his body. Which of the following best explains the damage to his brain? A. Rupture of a congenital aneurysm of the circle of Willis B. Brain abscess from necrosis of myocardium C. Formation of a bacterial embolus from the pulmonic valve D. Embolization of a mural thrombus from the right ventricle E. Detachment of a mural thrombus from the left ventricle

E. Detachment of a mural thrombus from the left ventricle

In a complete heart block, the electrocardiograph shows which of the following? A. An increased PQ interval B. An increase in height of the P wave C. One QRS complex for every three P waves D. An increase in amplitude of the QRS complex E. Dissociation of the P wave and the QRS. complex

E. Dissociation of the P wave and the QRS. complex

Which of the following tracts in the spinal cord contains both ascending and descending collaterals of pain and thermal afferent axons (presumably for the purpose of facilitating spinal reflex activity)? A. Tract of Cuneatus B. Lateral corticospinal tract C. Lateral spinothalamic tract D. Anterior spinothalamic tract E. Dorsolateral tract (fasciculus) of Lissauer

E. Dorsolateral tract (fasciculus) of Lissauer

Cancer of the colon has been linked etiologically to which of the following? A. Laxative use B. Diverticulosis C. High fiber diet D. Asbestos exposure E. Intestinal polyps

E. Intestinal polyps

149) Pernicious anemia is characterized by each of the following symptoms EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Easy fatigability B. Atrophic glossitis C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Atrophy of the gastric mucosa E. Microcytic hypochromic red blood cells

E. Microcytic hypochromic red blood cells

2) The core of a microvillus consists of which of the following? A. 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules B. 9 triplets of microtubules C. Intermediate filaments D. Vimentin filaments E. Microfilaments

E. Microfilaments

On the crowns of maxillary canines, which lobe includes the cusp tip? A. Mesiolingual B. Distofacial C. Mesiofacial D. Lingual E. Middle facial

E. Middle facial

134) Neurofibromatosis type I is characterized by which of the following conditions? A. Multiple mucosal neuromas B. Perioral melanotic freckles C. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid D. Development of visceral carcinoma E. Multiple pigmented macules of the skin

E. Multiple pigmented macules of the sk

Melanocytes are derived from which of the following? A. Ectoderm B. Endoderm C. Mesoderm D. Dermatomes E. Neural crest

E. Neural crest

33) The clinical symptoms of dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia suggest a deficiency in which of the following vitamins? A. Retinol B. Riboflavin C. Tocopherol D. Ascorbic acid E. Niacin

E. Niacin

Which of the following statements describes an example of innate immunity? A. An allergic reaction to insect venom B. The classical pathway of complement C. The destruction of virus-infected cells by T-killer cells D. The production of IgG in response to insect venom E. Phagocytosis of microbes by neutrophils and macrophages

E. Phagocytosis of microbes by neutrophils and macrophages

Which of the following bonds link the monomeric units of nucleic acids? A. Ionic B. Peptide C. Thioester D. Glycosidic E. Phosphodiester

E. Phosphodiester

Which of the following structures can be palpated by way of the external auditory (acoustic) meatus? A. Zygomatic arch B. Mandibular notch C. Lateral pterygoid muscle D. Coronoid process of the mandible E. Posterior aspect of the mandibular condyle

E. Posterior aspect of the mandibular condyle

In the temporomandibular joint, a very dense collection of organized elastic fibers is found in which of the following areas of the articular disc? A. Anterior band B. Posterior band C. Intermediate band D. Posterior-inferior lamina of the bilaminar zone E. Posterior-superior lamina of the bilaminar zone

E. Posterior-superior lamina of the bilaminar zone

In the developing embryo the palate is separated from the lip by a shallow suicus in the depths of which two epithelial laminae arise. The outer lamina is the A. dental lamina for primary teeth. B. dental lamina for permanent teeth. C. primordium of the parotid gland. D. primordium of the buccal frenula. E. vestibular lamina.

E. vestibular lamina.

27) Both systemic and pulmonary circulations have the same A. pulse pressure. B. total capacitance. C. diastolic pressure. D. resistance. F. Flow rate

F. Flow rate

The largest incisal/occlusal embrasure is located between which of the following teeth? D. Maxillary central and lateral incisors E. Mandibular central and lateral incisors F. Maxillary lateral incisor and canine G. Mandibular lateral incisor and canine H. Maxillary canine and first premolar

F. Maxillary lateral incisor and canine

94) An oblique facial cleft follows the line of merging of: NO ANSWER ONLINE!!!??? A. lateral nasal and maxillary processes. B. medial nasal and maxillary processes. C. medial and lateral nasal processes. D. maxillary and mandibular processes. E. lateral nasal and mandibular processes.

NO answer

1. **Which of the following is thought to be of MOST significance in the etiology of microangiopathy in an uncontrolled diabetic? (ITEM NOT SCORED)** a. Genetics b. Hypertension c. Blood glucose levels d. Hyperlipidemia and hypercholesterolemia e. Direct effect of insulin deficiency on endothelium

No answer

62) The activities of each of the following EXCEPT one contribute to calculus formation. Which one is this EXCEPTION? NO ANSWER PROVIDED!!! A. Alkaline phosphatase B. Acid phosphatase C. Pyrophophatase D. Collagenase E. Esterase

No answer

1. Which of the following genera of fungi is MOST frequently recovered from healthy mucous membranes? a. Candida b. Aspergillus c. Histoplasma d. Blastomyces e. Coccidioides

a. Candida

1. To which of the following molecules does HIV bind? a. CD4 b. CD8 c. MHC Class I d. MHC Class II e. Immunoglobulin

a. CD4

1. Which of the following plays the greatest role in disoccluding the posterior teeth in latero-protrusive movements? a. Anterior guidance b. Posterior guidance c. Bennett side shift d. Intercondylar distance

a. Anterior guidance

1. Which of the following represents the characteristic cellular infiltrate in delayed type hypersensitivity? a. T cells and macrophages b. Eosinophils c. Neutrophils d. B cells and plasma cells e. Mast cells and basophils

a. T cells and macrophages

1. Which of the following characteristics is common to maxillary first and second premolars? a. The lingual cusp tip is offset to the mesial. b. The lingual cusp tip is offset to the distal. c. The facial and lingual cusps are equal in size and prominence. d. The mesial root concavity extends across the cervical line onto the cervical third of the crown. e. The lingual height of contour is in the cervical third of the crown.

a. The lingual cusp tip is offset to the mesial.

1. Which of the following occurs in a right lateral movement? a. The right condyle primarily rotates. b. The right condyle moves down the eminentia. c. The facial cusps of the mandibular left side pass under the maxillary left facial cusps. d. The facial cusps of the mandibular right side pass under the maxillary right lingual cusps.

a. The right condyle primarily rotates.

1. Which of the following represents the formation of an intravascular blood clot? a. Thrombosis b. Hemorrhage c. Infarction d. Embolization e. Transudation

a. Thrombosis

1. Acute leukemias are MOST often seen in which of the following age groups? a. Under 20 years b. 20-40 years c. 40-60 years d. 60-80 years e. Over 80 years

a. Under 20 years

1. In the process of cell death, lysosomal enzymes function mainly to a. autolyze necrotic cells. b. mediate cell degeneration. c. act as a major target for cell injury. d. activate the complement sequence.

a. autolyze necrotic cells.

1. The non-working pathway of the maxillary cusps on the mandibular posterior teeth is toward the a. distofacial. b. distolingual. c. mesiofacial. d. mesiolingual.

a. distofacial.

1. An enterotoxin formed by Staphylococcus aureus causes a. food poisoning. b. a rash on the skin. c. neuromuscular paralysis. d. spasms of voluntary muscles.

a. food poisoning.

1. A posterior tooth has a faciolingual crown dimension greater than its mesiodistal crown dimension. In addition, it has two roots. This tooth is MOST likely a a. maxillary first premolar. b. mandibular first premolar. c. mandibular second premolar. d. mandibular first molar. e. maxillary second molar.

a. maxillary first premolar.

1. When compared with the incisal embrasure between the maxillary central and lateral incisors, the incisal embrasure between the maxillary central incisors is a. larger. b. smaller. c. the same size. d. determined by the position of the epithelial attachment. e. determined by the height of curvature of the cervical line.

b. smaller.

1. At what age is a primary maxillary canine usually exfoliated? a. 6 to 7 years b. 8 to 9years c. 10 to 11 years d. 12 to 13 years e. 14 to 15 years

c. 10 to 11 years

1. The third tooth from the midline normally erupts prior to the fourth tooth from the midline in a. the mandibular arch of the primary dentition. b. the maxillary arch of the primary dentition. c. the mandibular arch of the permanent dentition. d. the maxillary arch of the permanent dentition.

c. the mandibular arch of the permanent dentition.

1. Which of the following illustrations represents the distal view of a maxillary first molar? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

d. 4

1. Dry heat sterilization of dental instruments requires a. 3 minutes at 270oF (132oC). b. 20 minutes at 250oF (121oC). c. 30 minutes at 320oF (160oC). d. 60 minutes at 340oF (171oC). e. 6 hours at 100oF (38oC).

d. 60 minutes at 340oF (171oC).

1. Which of the following inflammatory responses is associated with an infection caused by pyogenic pathogens? a. Catarrhal b. Granulomatous c. Pseudomembranous d. Acute suppurative

d. Acute suppurative

1. Between which of the following teeth in the primary dentition is the mandibular "primate" space usually found? a. Central incisors b. Central and lateral incisors c. Lateral incisor and canine d. Canine and first molar e. First and second molars

d. Canine and first molar

1. Adult respiratory distress syndrome might be caused by each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? a. Shock b. Heroin overdose c. Viral pneumonia d. Cigarette smoking e. Breathing 100 percent 02

d. Cigarette smoking

1. Obesity, striae, moon face, buffalo hump, and osteoporosis are manifestations of which of the following? a. Myxedema b. Acromegaly c. Addison's disease d. Cushing's syndrome e. Diabetes insipidus

d. Cushing's syndrome

1. In the intercuspal position, the facial aspect of the mesial cusp ridge of a mandibular canine opposes which of the following maxillary structures? a. DL of a canine b. DF of a canine c. ML of a lateral incisor d. DL of a lateral incisor e. DL of a central incisor

d. DL of a lateral incisor

1. Cor pulmonale is usually the direct result of a. viral pneumonia. b. myocardial ischemia. c. systemic hypertension. d. resistance to blood flow through the lungs. e. streptococcal hypersensitization.

d. resistance to blood flow through the lungs

3) Which of the following represents the normal clearance of glucose? A. 0 mg/mm B. 50 mg/mm C. 100 mg/mm D. 180 mg/mm E. 350 mg/mm

A. 0 mg/mm

On which of the following teeth does the occlusal anatomy often require the placement of separate MO and DO restorations? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

A. 1

28) Under strict anaerobic conditions, the catabolism of one glucose molecule would yield a net of A. 2 ATP and 2 lactic acid molecules. B. 4 ATP and 2 lactic acid molecules. C. 2 ATP and 2 pyruvic acid molecules. D. 4 ATP and 2 pyruvic acid molecules.

A. 2 ATP and 2 lactic acid molecules

56) Initiation of calcification for the mandibular central incisor normally occurs at A. 3-4 months of age. B. 1 year of age. C. 2-3 years of age. D. 4-5 years of age. E. 6-7 years of age.

A. 3-4 months of age.

Initiation of calcification for the mandibular central incisor normally occurs at A. 3-4 months of age. B. 1 year of age. C. 2-3 years of age. D. 4-5 years of age. E. 6-7 years of age.

A. 3-4 months of age.

Which of the following karyotypes is found in Turner syndrome? A. 45, XO B. 45, YO C. 46, XX D. 47, XXY E. 47, XYY

A. 45, XO

Ilustrated is a frontal border tracing of a patient with a canine-guided occlusion. Which letter on the diagram defines the only point where posterior tooth contact occurs? A. A B. B C. C D. D

A. A

Solution A has a pH of 7.0, and Solution B has a pH of 6.0. Both Solutions are of equal volume. Which of the following statements about Solutions A and B is most accurate? A. A has 1/10 as many hydrogen ions as B. B. A has 10 times more hydrogen ions than B. C. A has 7/6 of the hydrogen ion concentration of B. D. A has 6/7 of the hydrogen ion concentration of B.

A. A has 1/10 as many hydrogen ions as B.

Each of the following combinations include the name of the hormone, its chemical type, and its major tissue of origin EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? (Hormone-->Chemical Type-->Tissue) A. ACTH->Steroid->Adrenal cortex B. Vasopressin->Peptide->Posterior pituitary C. Epinephrine->Catecholamine->Adrenal medulla D. Thyrotropin->Glycoprotein->Anterior pituitary E. Somatostatin->Peptide->Hypothalamus

A. ACTH->Steroid->Adrenal cortex

1) Which of the following substances, under physiologic conditions, is essential to the transformation of G-actin to F-actin? A. ATP B. Chloride C. Manganese D. Pyrophosphate E. Creatine phosphate

A. ATP

A 17-year-old patient has periodontitis involving the anterior teeth with sparse plaque. Which of the following is the probable primary pathogen? A. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans B. Bacteroides forsythus C. Fusobacterium nucleatum D. Porphyromonas gingivalis E. Prevotella intemmedia

A. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans

117) Which of the following represents the primary function of sIgA? A. Aggregates microorganisms and prevents colonization B. Activates complement in secretory fluids C. Promotes phagocytosis by monocytes D. Activates mast cells E. Activates NK cells

A. Aggregates microorganisms and prevents colonization

Calcium is transported in the blood in combination with which of the following? A. Albumin B. Citrate C. Hemoglobin D. Beta-globulin

A. Albumin

Which of the following is MOST often associated with free fatty acid transport in human blood? A. Albumin B. Globulin C. Cholesterol D. Sphingolipid E. Mucopolysaccharide

A. Albumin

Human leukocyte antigen (HLA) Class I molecules are found on which of the following? A. All nucleated cells B. CD4+ T cells only C. Epithelial cells only D. HLA Class II+ cells only E. Mesenchymal cells only

A. All nucleated cells

A mother ingested tetracycline antibiotics during the second trimester of pregnancy. This medication can affect the calcification of the crowns of which of the following teeth of the infant? A. All primary teeth B. Primary teeth and permanent mandibular central incisors C. Primary teeth and permanent mandibular first molars D. Primary teeth and permanent incisors E. Primary teeth, permanent incisors, and mandibular first molars

A. All primary teeth

ATP inhibits phosphofructokinase even though ATP also is a substrate for the enzyme. Which of the following types of inhibitions BEST explains this phenomenon? A. Allosteric B. Competitive C. Irreversible D. Uncompetitive E. Noncompetitive

A. Allosteric

1) What are predominant linkages in glycogen between glucose units? A. Alpha-1,4 B. Alpha-1,6 C. Beta-1,3 D. Beta-1,4 E. Beta-1,6

A. Alpha-1,4

19) Which of the following types of bonds link amino acid residues to form proteins? A. Amide B. Anomeric C. Epimeric D. Hydrogen E. Glycosidic

A. Amide

89) Cranial nerve V emerges from the A. pons. B. midbrain. C. diencephalon. D. medulla oblongata. E. cerebral peduncles.

A. pons.

Which of the following enzymes or processes ensures that the correct amino acid is incorporated for a particular codon during protein synthesis? A. Amino Acyl-t-RNA synthetase B. Ribosomal protein synthesis C. Post-transcription splicing D. RNA synthetase E. Helicase

A. Amino Acyl-t-RNA synthetase

Which of the following combines with heparin to inhibit blood clotting? A. Anti-thrombin III B. Platelets C. Fibrinogen D. Plasminogen E. Thrombin

A. Anti-thrombin III

Which of the following represents the structure in the maxillary alveolar bone that maxillary premolar roots occasionally penetrate? A. Antrum B. Nasal septum C. Frontal sinus D. Zygomatic arch E. Mandibular fossa

A. Antrum

Each of the following is a histologic feature of malignant growth EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Aplasia B. Anaplasia C. Pleomorphism D. Hyperchromatism E. Abnormal mitosis

A. Aplasia

141) Which of the following represents the primary function of cementum? A. Attach Sharpey's fibers B. Protect the root from caries C. Repair traumatic injuries of the root D. Supply nutrition to the periodontal ligament E. Maintain the width of the periodontal ligament

A. Attach Sharpey's fibers

Which of the following represents the primary function of cementum? A. Attach Sharpey's fibers B. Protect the root from caries C. Repair traumatic injuries of the root D. Supply nutrition to the periodontal ligament E. Maintain the width of the periodontal ligament

A. Attach Sharpey's fibers

Pain, touch, temperature and proprioceptive modalities for the temporomandibular joint are carried by way of which of the following nerves? A. Auriculotemporal B. Auditory C. Temporal D. Superior alveolar E. Inferior alveolar

A. Auriculotemporal

Which of the following structures leaves an impression on the right lung? A. Azygos vein B. Right vagus nerve C. Right phrenic nerve D. Descending thoracic aorta E. Right common carotid artery

A. Azygos vein

Each of the following increases when the sympathetic nervous system is activated EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Blood flow to the skin B. Arterial pressure C. Mental activity D. Blood glucose concentration E. Blood flow to skeletal muscle

A. Blood flow to the skin

Which of the following BEST describes the passage of material through the hepatic sinusoids? A. Blood passes toward the central vein. B. Bile passes peripherally toward the portal canal. C. Lymph moves centrally to join the sublobular duct. D. Lymph moves peripherally toward the space of Disse. E. Blood passes peripherally away from the central vein.

A. Blood passes toward the central vein.

60) Which of the following represents a segment of the bronchial tree that is less than 1 mm in diameter and lined by simple columnar ciliated epithelium with no cartilage plates in the wall? A. Bronchiole B. Alveolus C. Bronchus D. Alveolar sac E. Bronchial septum

A. Bronchiole

171) A radiograph of Tooth #32 shows two well-formed roots. When sectioning this tooth to separate the roots and simplify extraction, which of the following BEST describes how the cut should be made? A. Bucco-lingually through the crown and furcation B. Bucco-lingually through the pulp horns C. Mesio-distally through the crown and furcation D. Mesio-distally through the crown at the level of the CEJ

A. Bucco-lingually through the crown and furcation

Which of the following represents the major cell-type that is infected by human immunodeficiency virus? A. CD4+ cell B. CD8+ cell C. Natural killer cell D. Plasma cell E. B lymphocyte

A. CD4+ cell

138) Which of the following is an endogenous fungus that is capable of producing an opportunistic infection? A. Candida B. Rhizopus C. Blastomyces D. Aspergillus E. Cryptococcus

A. Candida

The finding of yeast cells and chlamydospores in the oral mucosa suggest which of the following? A. Candida albicans B. Histoplasma capsulatum C. Blastomyces denmatitidis D. Cryptococcus neoformans E. Trichophyton mentagrophytes

A. Candida albicans

97) Absence of which of the following blood enzymes drastically reduces blood C02 carrying capacity? A. Carbonic anhydrase B. Alkaline phosphatase C. Pyruvate carboxykinase D. Histidine decarboxylase E. Serum glutamic-oxaloacetate transaminase

A. Carbonic anhydrase

Which of the following represents a striated muscle that contains transverse tubules, a slow rate of calcium sequestration, and is inhibited by acetylcholine? A. Cardiac B. Skeletal C. Multi-unit smooth D. Single unit smooth

A. Cardiac

Which chemical substance is usually secreted by pheochromocytomas? A. Catecholamine B. Aldosterone C. Cortisone D. Insulin E. Renin

A. Catecholamine

Which of the following statements about norepinephrine is correct? A. Causes cardiac acceleration B. Causes general vasodilation C. Causes vasodilation in vessels of the skin D. Has a negative inotropic effect on the heart E. Is the preganglionic sympathetic

A. Causes cardiac acceleration

29) Which of the following represents a popular theory for the force that is considered to be the MOST responsible for active tooth eruption? A. Cells and fibers in the developing PDL pull the tooth toward the oral cavity. B. Dentin formation in the root pushes the tooth into the oral cavity. C. Vascular pressure within the pulp pushes the tooth intraorally. D. Apical fundal bone formation pushes the tooth. E. Crestal bone formation pulls the tooth.

A. Cells and fibers in the developing PDL pull the tooth toward the oral cavity.

The calcified bodies sometimes found in the PDL are BEST described as which of the following? A. Cementicles B. Denticles C. Bone D. Enamel pearls D. is produced by cells of the periodontal ligament, but dentin is produced by pulp cells. E. Mineralized interstitial tissue

A. Cementicles

Which of the following characterizes victims of fatal, acute carbon monoxide poisoning? A. Cherry red blood B. Acute renal failure C. Massive liver necrosis D. A hypercoagulability state E. Anemia and generalized white cell depletion

A. Cherry red blood

Nongonococcal urethritis is often caused by microorganisms of which of the following genera? A. Chlamydia B. Treponema C. Neisseria D. Hemophilus

A. Chlamydia

197) Examination of the right side of the cadaver's skull reveals a fracture running through the petrotympanic fissure. Which of the following structures is MOST likely affected by such a fracture? A. Chorda tympani B. Auriculotemporal nerve C. Mandibular branch of V D. Middle meningeal artery E. Accessory meningeal artery

A. Chorda tympani

Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with acute pancreatitis? A. Chronic alcohol abuse B. Diabetes mellitus C. Physical trauma D. Viral infection E. Hypercalcemia

A. Chronic alcohol abuse

The new denture teeth have been set up so that the disto-buccal cusp of the mandibular first molar rests in the central fossa of the maxillary first molar. Which of the following BEST describes this occlusal classification? A. Class I B. Class II, division I C. Class II, division II D. Class III

A. Class I

45) Which of the following organs is the NEAREST to the right kidney? A. Colon B. Spleen C. Stomach D. Pancreas E. Duodenum

A. Colon

Each of the following diseases is transmitted from person to person by droplets or droplet spray EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Condyloma acuminatum B. Whooping cough C. Meningitis D. Diphtheria E. Pneumonia

A. Condyloma acuminatum

Which of the following is correct regarding the contact relationship of maxillary central incisor and maxillary lateral incisors? A. Contacts are centered faciolingually. B. Contacts are centered incisocervically. C. Facial embrasures are wider than lingual embrasures. D. Incisal embrasures are larger than gingival embrasures.

A. Contacts are centered faciolingually.

140) Which of the following is the pathway that results in the formation of glucose in the liver from lactate produced in muscle? A. Cori cycle B. Glycolysis C. Citric acid cycle D. Pentose phosphate pathway

A. Cori cycle

Which of the following represents the MOST common anatomic feature that complicates periodontal maintenance in a maxillary first premolar? A. Deep concavity on the mesial surface of the tooth B. Intermediate furcational ridge C. Mesiolingual developmental groove D. Excessive convexity of the facial root

A. Deep concavity on the mesial surface of the tooth

Each of the following cell layers is derived from oral epithelium EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Dental follicle B. Stellate reticulum C. Stratum intermedium D. Inner enamel epithelium E. Outer enamel epithelium

A. Dental follicle

From which of the following is the periodontal ligament derived? A. Dental sac B. Enamel organ C. Dental papilla D. Epithelial root sheath E. Outer enamel epithelium

A. Dental sac

What is the MOST likely outcome of this patient's hepatitis C? A. Development of chronic hepatitis B. Development of fulminant hepatitis C. Development of hepatocellular carcinoma D. Asymptomatic carrier state, with normal serum transaminase E. Resolution, with eventual clearing of the virus

A. Development of chronic hepatitis

Which of the following temporomandibular joint ligaments restricts the movement of the disc away from the condyle during function? A. Discal B. Stylomandibular C. Temporomandibular D. Sphenomandibular

A. Discal

The contact areas of anterior teeth are incisal to the middle thirds in each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Distal contact of the maxillary canine B. Mesial contact of the maxillary canine C. Mesial contact of the maxillary lateral incisor D. Mesial contact of the mandibular lateral incisor E. Distal contact of the mandibular lateral incisor

A. Distal contact of the maxillary canine

ADH receptors in the nephron are located on the tubular membrane of which of the following? A. Distal tubule B. Proximal tubule C. Ascending loop of Henle D. Descending loop of Henle

A. Distal tubule

Acute passive congestion often accompanies which of the following? A. Edema B. Inflammation C. Contusion D. Hematoma

A. Edema

Blood in the sputum is characteristic of each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Emphysema B. Tuberculosis C. Lobar pneumonia D. Pulmonary embolism E. Bronchogenic carcinoma

A. Emphysema

Multiple drug resistance is associated with A. plasmids. B. recombination. C. point mutations. D. specialized transducing phages. E. generalized transducing phages.

A. plasmids.

Which of the following explains why enamel is harder than bone? A. Enamel crystals are larger and more firmly packed. B. Enamel contains amelogenins in its organic matrix. C. Enamel contains more magnesium and carbonate. D. Enamel crystals have more surface area. E. Enamel contains more collagen.

A. Enamel crystals are larger and more firmly packed.

Which enzyme in glycolysis is inhibited by fluoride? A. Enolase B. Pyruvate kinase C. Phosphoglucomutase D. Glyceraldehyde dehydrogenase E. Glycerol phosphate dehydrogenase

A. Enolase

Which of the following enzymes converts trypsinogen to trypsin? A. Enterokinase B. Peptidase C. Secretin D. Pepsin

A. Enterokinase

25) What thermodynamic parameter is a measure of randomness or disorder in a system? A. Entropy B. Enthalpy C. Free energy D. Potential energy E. Activation energy

A. Entropy

66) Certain nerve trunks are composed of several fascicles. Which of the following entirely encloses these trunks? A. Epineurium B. Endoneurium C. Perineurium

A. Epineurium

If the air temperature is 105o F and the relative humidity is 10 percent, then which of the following represents the primary cause for loss of body heat? A. Evaporation B. Conduction C. Convection D. Radiation E. Hyperventilation

A. Evaporation

Each of the following is characteristic of plasmids EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Exist as circular RNA molecules B. Exist as extrachromosomal elements in bacteria C. Mediate antibiotic resistance D. Confer conjugal fertility E. Carry genetic information

A. Exist as circular RNA molecules

The facial artery is usually a branch of which of the following arteries? A. External carotid B. Internal carotid C. Superior thyroid D. Occipital E. Maxillary

A. External carotid

5) Each of the following cranial nerves is associated with the cavernous sinus EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Facial B. Abducens C. Trochlear D. Trigeminal E. Oculomotor

A. Facial

Each of the following cranial nerves is associated with the cavernous sinus EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Facial B. Abducens C. Trochlear D. Trigeminal E. Oculomotor

A. Facial

On the crowns of maxillary premolars, the height of contour is normally located in the cervical third on which of the following surfaces? A. Facial B. Lingual C. Mesial D. Distal

A. Facial

The buccinator muscle is supplied by which of the following nerves? A. Facial B. Lingual C. Spinal accessory D. Inferior alveolar E. Buccal nerve of the trigeminal

A. Facial

Which of the following cranial nerves contains parasympathetic components? A. Facial B. Abducens C. Trigeminal D. Hypoglossal E. Spinal accessory

A. Facial

Each of the following structures is an opening into the pterygopalatine fossa EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Facial canal B. Pterygoid canal C. Pharyngeal canal D. Sphenopalatine foramen E. Pterygomaxillary fissure

A. Facial canal

From the facial view, the maxillary first molar has its lingual root apex in line with which of the following? A. Facial groove B. Distofacial line angle C. Distofacial cusp tip D. Mesiofacial cusp tip E. Mesiodistal diameter midpoint

A. Facial groove

In an ideal intercuspal relation, the tip of the mesiofacial cusp of the maxillary second molar opposes which of the following? A. Facial groove of the mandibular second molar B. Distofacial developmental groove of the first molar C. Embrasure between the mandibular first and second molars D. Embrasure between the mandibular second and third molars E. Central fossa

A. Facial groove of the mandibular second molar

The lingual cusp(s) on which of the following mandibular posterior teeth is (are) approximately 2/3 the height of the respective facial cusp(s)? A. First premolar B. Second premolar C. First molar D. Second molar E. Third molar

A. First premolar

The lingual cusp(s) on which of the following mandibular posterior teeth is (are) approximately 2/3 the height of the respective facial cusp(s)? A. First premolar B. Second premolar C. First molar D. Second molar E. Third molar

A. First premolar

Which of the following maxillary teeth has the largest cervico-occlusal crown height? A. First premolar B. Second premolar C. First molar

A. First premolar

Which of the following minerals are considered to be cariostatic? (This question was considered to be defective and was not scored) A. Fluoride, Phosphate B. Fluoride, Selenium C. Copper, Phosphate D. Calcium, Copper E. Fluoride, Lead

A. Fluoride, Phosphate

85) On its way to the brain, the vertebral artery passes through which of the following? A. Foramen magnum B. Foramen lacerum C. Jugular foramen D. Foramen spinosum

A. Foramen magnum

Intelligence and sensory-motor functions of a patient appear to be intact. However, the patient lacks self-discipline and has exhibited anti-social behavior. He is unable to plan for the future or to organize behaviors into logical sequences. A lesion in which of the following areas is likely? A. Frontal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Internal capsule D. Temporal lobe E. Parietal lobe

A. Frontal lobe

lntelligence and sensory-motor functions of a patient appear to be intact. However, the patient lacks self-discipline and has exhibited anti-social behavior. He is unable to plan for the future or to organize behaviors into logical sequences. A lesion in which of the following areas is likely? A. Frontal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. lnternal capsule D. Temporal lobe E. Parietal lobe

A. Frontal lobe

Which of the following causes activation of the pyloric pump, relaxation of the pylorus, and contraction of the lower esophageal sphincter? A. Gastrin B. Secretin C. Pepsinogen D. Acetylcholine E. Cholecystokinin

A. Gastrin

MOST antibiotic resistance in bacteria is caused by which of the following? A. Genes that are carried on plasmids B. Depression of a previously existing gene pool C. An ever increasing mutation rate in bacteria D. Unequal distribution of antibiotics into body spaces E. Induction of specific mutations by specific antibiotics

A. Genes that are carried on plasmids

lf the patient's sensation of "clogged ears" is due to pressure on the auditory tubes, then which of the following nerves is providing this sensory innervation? A. Glossopharyngeal B. Lesser occipital C. Vestibulocochlear D. Zygomatic temporal E. Posterior deep temporal

A. Glossopharyngeal

Which of the following liver enzymes, absent from other tissues, gives the liver an advantage over other cells in taking up glucose after a meal? A. Glucokinase B. Aidolase C. Hexokinase D. Enolase E. Glucose-6-phosphatase

A. Glucokinase

60) Which of the following is a typical finding for a normal 23-year-old man? A. Hematocrit of 45% B. Venous blood with pH of 7.2 C. White blood cell count of 10,000/mm3 D. Red blood cell count of 7,000,000/mm3 E. Pulse pressure equivalent to 80 mm Hg

A. Hematocrit of 45%

The concentration of which of the following amino acids can be used as an estimation of the amount of collagen present in a tissue? A. Hydroxyproline B. Aspartic acid C. Proline D. Serine

A. Hydroxyproline

The growth rate in the cartilage of the epiphyseal plate of a long bone is markedly retarded when there is a lack of hormone from which of the following? A. Hypophysis B. Adrenals C. Testes D. Parathyroids E. Islets of Langerhans

A. Hypophysis

93) When T-cells from patients who have chronic periodontal disease react with certain plaque bacterial antigens, they produce each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Immunoglobulin B. IL-2 C. TNF-§ D. IFN-µ

A. Immunoglobulin

A 50-year-old patient has a full mouth set of radiographs, from which the dentist discovers the maxillary third molars are present in the alveolar process, but they are not visible clinically. Which of the following conditions is associated with these third molars? A. Impaction B. Dilaceration C. Supernumerary D. Congenital absence E. Hutchinson's teeth

A. Impaction

119) The nasopalatine nerve reaches mucosa in the oral cavity via which of the following foramina? A. Incisive B. Infraorbital C. Lesser palatine D. Greater palatine E. Pterygopalatine

A. Incisive

Which of the following anatomic structures is found just lingual to the maxillary central incisors? A. Incisive foramen B. Canine eminence C. Maxillary tuberosity D. External oblique ridge E. Greater palatine foramen

A. Incisive foramen

Which of the following primary teeth show the earliest evidence of calcification in utero? A. Incisors B. Canines C. First molars D. Second molars

A. Incisors

Which of the following are the teeth whose masticatory function is primarily biting? A. Incisors and canines B. Incisors and premolars C. Canines and premolars D. Premolars and molars

A. Incisors and canines

37) A patient who has emphysema is MOST likely to exhibit which of the following changes in functional residual capacity (FRC) and compliance? A. Increased FRC; increased compliance B. Decreased FRC; no change in compliance C. Increased FRC; no change in compliance D. Decreased FRC; increased compliance E. Decreased FRC; decreased compliance

A. Increased FRC; increased compliance

Which of the following circumstances will tend to produce edema? A. Increased tissue oncotic pressure B. Increased plasma oncotic pressure C. Increased tissue hydrostatic pressure D. Decreased plasma hydrostatic pressure E. Decreased venous pressure

A. Increased tissue oncotic pressure

93) Which of the following is secreted more during the absorptive state than during the postabsorptive state? A. Insulin B. Glucagon C. Cortisol D. Thyroxine E. Epinephrine

A. Insulin

62) Which portion of dentin is the MOST highly mineralized? A. Intratubular (peritubular) B. Intertubular C. Interglobular D. Mantle

A. Intratubular (peritubular)

71) Which of the following teeth represents the one MOST likely to present with three roots? A. Mandibular central incisor B. Mandibular second premolar C. Mandibular canine D. Maxillary first premolar E. Maxillary second premolar

A. Maxillary first premolar

34) The pterygoid plexus is usually formed by veins that are tributaries of which of the following? A. Maxillary vein B. Angular vein C. Facial vein D. Occipital vein E. Anterior jugular vein

A. Maxillary vein

Which portion of the nervous system contains the cardiac, vomiting, and vasomotor centers? A. Medulla B. Thalamus C. Cerebrum D. Cervical region of the spinal cord

A. Medulla

49) The heart is contained in which mediastinum? A. Middle B. Superior C. Anterior D. Posterior

A. Middle

The osteoclast originates from which of the following? A. Monocyte B. Osteocyte C. Osteoblast D. Neutrophil E. Bone-lining cell

A. Monocyte

Soft and hard tissue necrosis characterizes which of the following fungal diseases? A. Mucormycosis B. Cryptococcosis C. Histoplasmosis D. Coccidioidomycosis E. Candidiasis

A. Mucormycosis

In the life cycle of an ameloblast, there are cells that contain Tomes' processes. These cells are in which of the following stages? A. Secretory B. Morphogenic C. Organizing D. Maturative E. Protective

A. Secretory

When an adult with normal occlusion moves the mandible from maximum intercuspation to right lateral relation, which of the following cusps of maxillary left teeth moves through the facial embrasure between the mandibular left premolars? A. Lingual cusp; first premolar tooth B. Facial cusp; second premolar tooth C. Lingual cusp; second premolar tooth D. Mesiofacial cusp; first molar tooth E. Distofacial cusp; first molar tooth

A. Lingual cusp; first premolar tooth

Each of the following structures is located at the boundary between the body and the root of the tongue EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Lingual raphe B. Foramen cecum C. Sulcus terminalis D. Circumvallate papillae

A. Lingual raphe

Which of the following best represents the structure on the crown of the maxillary canine which normally lies directly distal to the mesiolingual fossa? A. Lingual ridge B. Distal fossa C. Distolingual fossa D. Distal marginal ridge E. Mesial marginal ridge

A. Lingual ridge

Which of the following represents the portion of the bacterial endotoxin molecule that is MOST responsible for its toxic activity? A. Lipid A B. Protein A C. O antigen D. Core polysaccharide

A. Lipid A

Which of the following tissues is primarily responsible for formation of urea? A. Liver B. Brain C. Kidney D. Muscle E. Pancreas

A. Liver

95) A parathyroidectomized animal will exhibit which levels of calcium and phosphate ion concentration in the plasma? A. Low calcium; high phosphate ion concentration B. Normal calcium; low phosphate ion concentration C. High calcium; low phosphate ion concentration D. Normal calcium; normal phosphate ion concentration E. Low calcium; low phosphate ion concentration

A. Low calcium; high phosphate ion concentration

101) Which of the following is the cellular organelle that contains many types of hydrolytic enzymes? A. Lysosome B. Centrosome C. Mitochondrion D. Golgi apparatus E. Endoplasmic reticulum

A. Lysosome

Streptococcus pyogenes, group A, is subdivided into specific antigenic types principally on the basis of immunologic differences in its A. M protein. B. streptolysin 0. C. streptolysin S. D. C polysaccharide. E. hyaluronic acid capsule.

A. M protein.

148) Which of the following primary teeth is usually bilaterally symmetrical when viewed facially and incisally? A. Mandibular central incisor B. Maxillary central incisor C. Maxillary lateral incisor D. Mandibular lateral incisor E. Mandibular canine

A. Mandibular central incisor

Which of the following teeth has its mesial marginal ridge located more cervically than its distal marginal ridge? A. Mandibular first premolar B. Maxillary first premolar C. Maxillary first molar D. Primary mandibular first molar E. Mandibular second molar

A. Mandibular first premolar

During a visual examination of a patient who has a severe clenching habit, which muscle would one expect to see enlarged? A. Masseter B. Temporalis C. Medial pterygoid D. Lateral Pterygoid

A. Masseter

Which of the following muscles inserts on the lateral surface of the angle of the mandible? A. Masseter B. Temporalis C. Buccinator D. Medial pterygoid E. Lateral pterygoid

A. Masseter

Which of the following represents the most powerful muscle of mastication? A. Masseter B. Temporalis C. Geniohyoid D. Lateral pterygoid E. Sternocleidomastoid

A. Masseter

Which of the following teeth normally has the longest root? A. Maxillary canine B. Mandibular canine C. Maxillary central incisor D. Mandibular first premolar E. Maxillary second premolar

A. Maxillary canine

36) Mesial and distal pulp horns are MORE likely to be found in which of the following teeth? A. Maxillary central incisors B. Mandibular central incisors C. Mandibular canines D. Maxillary first premolars E. Mandibular first premolars

A. Maxillary central incisors

In a cervical cross section, which premolar(s) sometimes exhibit a root outline and a pulp chamber floor outline that are both kidney-shaped? A. Maxillary first B. Mandibular first C. Maxillary second D. Mandibular second E. All premolars

A. Maxillary first

The drawing illustrates the occlusal view of which premolar? A. Maxillary first B. Mandibular first C. Maxillary second D. Mandibular second

A. Maxillary first

158) Which of the following teeth has the greatest cervico-occlusal crown height? A. Maxillary first premolar B. Mandibular second premolar C. Maxillary first molar D. Mandibular second molar E. Maxillary second molar

A. Maxillary first premolar

80) To expose the submandibular duct by an intraoral approach, one must cut through which of the following? A. Mucous membrane only B. Mucous membrane and the genioglossus muscle C. Mucous membrane and the mylohyold muscle D. Mucous membrane and the geniohyoid muscle E. Mucous membrane and the anterior digastric muscle

A. Mucous membrane only

177) Each of the following statements regarding the pathogenesis of this patient's respiratory difficulty is correct EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Multinucleated giant cells phagocytize extrinsic antigens. B. Prostaglandin D elicits bronchoconstriction and vasodilation. C. Chemotactic factors recruit and activate eosinophils and neutrophils. D. Platelet activating factor aggregates platelets and induces histamine release. E. Leukotrienes C4, D4 and È cause prolonged bronchoconstriction and mucin secretion.

A. Multinucleated giant cells phagocytize extrinsic antigens.

Each of the following statements correctly describes a clinical feature of this patient's leukemia EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Multiple, acutely tender lymph nodes due to central node ischemic necrosis. B. CNS infiltration related to headache, vomiting, and palsies. C. Bone pain secondary to leukemia infiltration of the marrow and periosteum. D. Symptoms related to bone marrow suppression, including anemia and thrombocytopenia

A. Multiple, acutely tender lymph nodes due to central node ischemic necrosis.

Cerebral embolism occurring as a complication of myocardial infarction is indicative of which of the following? A. Mural thrombosis B. Phlebothrombosis C. Decreased stroke volume D. Lack of collateral circulation E. Disseminated intravascular coagulation

A. Mural thrombosis

Which of the following tumors is of connective tissue origin? A. Myxoma B. Adenoma C. Melanoma D. Carcinoma E. Papilloma

A. Myxoma

Hypersensitivity to M. Tuberculosis is manifested by which of the following? A. Necrosis B. Exudation C. Epithelioid cells D. Langhans' giant cells E. Spreading of the initial focus

A. Necrosis

Which of the following neoplasms appears the MOST often in children? A. Neuroblastoma B. Chondrosarcoma C. Adenocarcinoma D. Multiple myeloma E. Basal cell carcinoma

A. Neuroblastoma

The neurons of the central nervous system that innervate muscles derived from branchial arches are found in which of the following nuclei? A. Nucleus ambiguus B. Hypoglossal nucleus C. Dorsal motor nucleus of X D. Nucleus of Edinger-Westphal E. Superior salivatory nucleus

A. Nucleus ambiguus

Which of the following represents the ridge on the occlusal surface of the maxillary first molar that normally forms the distal boundary of the central fossa? A. Oblique B. Distal marginal C. Mesial marginal D. Mesial cusp ridges of the MF cusp E. Distal cusp ridges of the DF cusp

A. Oblique

Which of the following represents the chief complication of mumps in the adult male? A. Orchitis B. Prostatitis C. Glomerulonephritis D. Chronic nonspecific sialadenitis

A. Orchitis

When a mammalian red blood cell is placed in 0.3 per cent sodium chloride, water moves across the cell membrane by which of the following processes? A. Osmosis B. Hemolysis C. Pinocytosis D. Active transport E. Diffusion

A. Osmosis

Which of the following represents the arthritis that is usually associated with aging? A. Osteoarthritis B. Gouty arthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Psoriatic arthritis

A. Osteoarthritis

Which of the following muscles form lateral boundaries of the isthmus of the fauces? A. Palatoglossus and palatopharyngeus B. Palatopharyngeus and medial pterygoid C. Palatoglossus and tensor veli palatini D. Palatopharyngeus and levator veli palatini E. Palatoglossus and styloglossus

A. Palatoglossus and palatopharyngeus

186) Each of the following is a likely long-term complication of poorly controlled type I diabetes mellitus EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Pancreatic carcinoma B. Hyaline arteriolosclerosis C. Proliferative retinopathy D. Nodular glomerulosclerosis E. Peripheral symmetric neuropathy

A. Pancreatic carcinoma

Which of the following substances has a clearance rate that is greater than the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? A. Para-aminohippuric acid (PAH) B. Potassium C. Glucose D. Urea

A. Para-aminohippuric acid (PAH)

Stimulation of the lesser petrosal nerve in an adult causes secretion by which of the following glands? A. Parotid B. Lacrimal C. Sublingual D. Submandibular E. Glands of the hard palate

A. Parotid

Which of the following papillae would normally be found in the buccal vestibule? A. Parotid B. Incisive C. Fungiform D. Interdental E. Circumvallate

A. Parotid

While performing an inferior alveolar nerve injection, a dentist mistakenly places the needle too far posteriorly at the level of the mandibular foramen. The needle is likely to contact which of the following structures? A. Parotid gland B. Lingual nerve C. Auriculotemporal nerve D. Pterygomandibular raphe E. Transverse facial artery

A. Parotid gland

67) Which of the following parts of the hypophysis is the site of oxytocin release? A. Pars nervosa B. Infundibulum C. Pars distalis D. Pars tuberalis E. Pars intermedia

A. Pars nervosa

During increased muscle activity, adenosine triphosphate is resynthesized from which of the following? A. Phosphocreatine B. Ribose-3-phosphate C. Galactose-6-phosphate D. Guanosine triphosphate E. Nicotinamide adenosine phosphate

A. Phosphocreatine

125) Collagen degradation that is observed in chronic periodontal disease can result directly from the action of collagenase enzymes of oral microbial origin. Such enzymes have been demonstrated as component systems of A. Porphyromonas species. B. Lepthothrix buccalis. C. Entamoeba gingivalis. D. Enterococcus faecalis. E. Veillonella species.

A. Porphyromonas species.

Which of the following jaw positions is determined almost exclusively by the behavior of the musculature? A. Postural B. Intercuspal C. Retruded contact D. Protruded contact

A. Postural

Which of the following components of Staphylococcus is antiphagocytic, elicit hypersensitivity, and causes platelet injury A. Protein A B. Coagulase C. Beta toxin D. Teichoic acid E. Polysaccharide capsule

A. Protein A

Which of the following typifies the nephrotic syndrome? A. Proteinuria B. Glycosuria C. Hyperalbuminemia D. Elevated serum uric acid E. Nitrogen retention

A. Proteinuria

Reduced renal blood flow can cause hypertension by which of the following? A. Release of renin B. Reflex vasoconstriction C. Retention of potassium in blood D. Increased output of epinephrine

A. Release of renin

The clearance rate for a substance that is completely removed from the blood during one pass through the kidney is equal to which of the following? A. Renal plasma flow B. Filtration fraction C. Urinary excretion rate D. Glomerular filtration rate E. Tubular transport maximum

A. Renal plasma flow

Inflammatory vasodilation can be evoked by each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Renin B. Histamine C. C3 and C5 D. Bradykinin E. Prostaglandins

A. Renin

Which of the following represents a well-vascularized structure in the temporomandibular joint? A. Retrodiscal pad B. Fibrous covering of the condyle C. Central portion of the articular disc D. Fibrous covering of the articular eminence E. Fibrous covering of the condylar surface

A. Retrodiscal pad

The midroot cross-sectional diagram illustrates the root of which maxillary molar? A. Right first B. Left first C. Right third D. Left third

A. Right first

3) Which of the following organelles is the site of protein synthesis? A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum B. Membrane bound vesicles C. Sarcoplasmic reticulum D. Mitochondrion E. Golgi complex

A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

A patient lapses into a state of fluctuating levels of consciousness or coma several hours after sustaining blunt trauma to the head. This finding is consistent with which of the following conditions? A. Subdural hematoma B. Cerebral concussion C. Cerebral infarction D. Acute encephalitis E. Alzheimer's disease

A. Subdural hematoma

The dentist incises the mucous membrane of the floor of the mouth. This incision extends from the molar region to the sublingual caruncle (papilla). Which of the following structural groups will be exposed first? A. Sublingual gland, lingual nerves, and submandibular duct B. Hyoglossus and mylohyoid muscles, and hypoglossal nerve C. Lingual nerve, lingual artery, and anterior belly of the digastric muscle D. Lingual nerve, hypoglossal nerve, and submental branch of the facial artery E. Anterior belly of the digastric muscle, mylohyoid nerve, and submental branch of the facial artery

A. Sublingual gland, lingual nerves, and submandibular duct

The lymph vessels that drain both dental arches connect directly with which of the following nodes? A. Submandibular B. Deep cervical C. Sublingual D. Retropharyngeal E. Superficial cervical

A. Submandibular

The inferior vena cava passes through the diaphragm at the level of which of the following? A. T8 B. T10 C. T12 D. L2

A. T8

Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a mandibular lateral incisor? A. The incisal edge follows the arch curvature in relation to the faciolingual axis. B. The incisal edge is perpendicular to the faciolingual axis. C. The cervical line curvature is greater distally than mesially. D. The incisal edge is lingual to the root bisector. E. The mesiodistal dimension of the facial surface is narrower than that of a mandibular central incisor.

A. The incisal edge follows the arch curvature in relation to the faciolingual axis.

A stab wound creating a pneumothorax on the left side will usually result in collapse of which of the following? A. The left lung only B. The right lung only C. Both lungs D. The rib cage on the left side E. The left lung and pericardial sac

A. The left lung only

The cells of the stratum granulosum in the keratinized portions of the oral mucosa are characterized by which of the following? A. The presence of numerous keratohyalin granules B. Being the only cells with membrane coating vesicles C. The ability to divide and give rise to new cells in the epithelium D. Exhibiting the highest metabolic activity of all cells in the oral epithelium E. The presence of the greatest number of desmosomes (intercellular bridges) compared to the other strata

A. The presence of numerous keratohyalin granules

Which of the following describes sebaceous glands of the skin? A. They are associated with hair follicles and are derived from ectoderm. B. They serve a secretory function in conjunction with Pacinian corpuscles. C. They secrete a serous material by the merocrine method. D. They yield a salty secretion and are derived from mesoderm.

A. They are associated with hair follicles and are derived from ectoderm.

Compared to slow-twitch (Type I) muscle fibers, each of the following is more characteristic of fast-twitch (Type II) muscle fibers EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. They contain more mitochondria. B. They have higher myosin ATPase activity. C. They have fewer capillaries surrounding them. D. They have a more extensive sarcoplasmic reticulum. E. They contain higher concentrations of glycolytic enzymes.

A. They contain more mitochondria.

The dentist instructs the patient, who has a severed left lateral pterygoid muscle, to open wide. The patient's mandible will move in which direction? A. To the left B. To the right C. In a straight protrusive direction D. In a retrusive direction

A. To the left

17) As DNA is denatured, each of the following events takes place EXCEPT one. Which event is this EXCEPTION? A. Total G-C content of total DNA increasing B. UV light absorption increasing C. Complementary strands becoming random coils D. Base stacking becoming disrupted E. Hydrogen bonds breaking

A. Total G-C content of total DNA increasing

52) If there is an organ that needs to stretch and return to its original shape, then which of the following epithelia would MOST likely be associated with it? A. Transitional B. Simple cuboidal C. Simple columnar D. Simple squamous E. Pseudostratified columnar

A. Transitional

What condylar movement is performed as the mandible moves from a pure protrusive movement from maximum intercuspal position to a maximum protruded position? A. Translation B. Rotation C. Hinge D. Medial and forward

A. Translation

Which of the following represent fan-shaped, hypocalcified areas that originate at the dentinoenamel junction and extend into enamel for part of its thickness? A. Tufts B. Spindles C. Lamellae D. Hunter-Schreger bands E. Contour lines of Owen

A. Tufts

Thyroid hormones are synthesized from which of the following amino acids? A. Tyrosine B. Dopamine C. Histidine D. Threonine E. Tryptophan

A. Tyrosine

Which of the following compounds is a precursor of the pigments of the skin, hair, and eyes? A. Tyrosine B. Cysteine C. Lysine D. Creatine E. Galactosamine

A. Tyrosine

57) Which of the following is a pyrimidine base that is present in RNA but is NOT present in DNA? A. Uracil B. Guanine C. Thymine D. Adenine E. Cytosine

A. Uracil

Which of the following is a pyrimidine base that is present in RNA, but is NOT present in DNA? A. Uracil B. Guanine C. Thymine D. Adenine E. Cytosine

A. Uracil

77) The level of nonprotein nitrogen in the blood is due principally to the level of which of the following? A. Urea B. Ammonia C. Creatine D. Arginine E. Uric acid

A. Urea

Which main product of protein nitrogen metabolism is found in human urine? A. Urea B. Ammonia C. Creatine D. Uric acid E. Creatinine

A. Urea

Which of the following is the major end-product of protein nitrogen metabolism in humans? A. Urea B. Creatine C. Allantoin D. Uric acid E. Amino acid

A. Urea

13) If the needle is advanced too far posteriorly during an inferior alveolar block injection, anesthesia of the mandibular teeth will NOT occur, because the needle has entered the A. parotid gland. B. pterygoid space. C. inferior alveolar canal. D. medial pterygoid muscle. E. superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle.

A. parotid gland.

Each of the following statements describes a characteristic feature of ischemic heart disease EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Usually results from complete occlusion of one or more coronary arteries. B. Represents an imbalance between myocardial oxygen demand and available blood supply. C. Has a peak incidence in men over 60 years of age, and women over 70 years of age. D. Contributing factors include chronic hypertension and high levels of low-density lipoproteins.

A. Usually results from complete occlusion of one or more coronary arteries.

An abnormal increase in blood pressure in a healthy person will RESULT in an increased number of impulses traveling to the heart over which of the following nerves? A. Vagus nerves B. Sympathetic nerves C. Branches of thoracic nerves D. Branches of the trigeminal nerve E. Branches of the glossopharyngeal nerve

A. Vagus nerves

168) The tissue swelling associated with inflammation in this patient is due to which of the following factors? A. Vasodilating kinins B. Increased blood pressure C. Increased serum osmolarity D. Decreased capillary permeability

A. Vasodilating kinins

In hydrocephalus, excess cerebral spinal fluid is found within which of the following? A. Ventricle B. Subdural space C. Cistema magna D. Subarachnoid space E. Superior sagittal sinus

A. Ventricle

86) In addition to the common carotid arteries, which of the following blood vessels provides circulation to the brain? A. Vertebral artery B. Thyrocervical trunk C. Costacervical trunk D. Superior thyroid artery E. Internal thoracic artery

A. Vertebral artery

When the mandible performs a laterotrusive movement, the laterotrusive-side condyle moves primarily about which of the following axes? A. Vertical B. Sagittal C. Horizontal D. Transverse

A. Vertical

The horizontal plane diagram shows each of the following components of mandibular movement EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Vertical component of the movement from retruded contact position (1) to intercuspal position (2) B. Horizontal component of movement from retruded contact position (1) to intercuspal position (2) C. Anterior component of movement from intercuspal position (2) to maximum protrusive position (4) D. Lateral component of movement from retruded contact position (1) to intercuspal position (2) E. Mandibular movements occurring laterotrusively

A. Vertical component of the movement from retruded contact position (1) to intercuspal position (2)

53) Each of the following laminae help to form a tooth EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Vestibular B. Successional C. Dental

A. Vestibular

The smudge mark labeled a, b, c represents which of the following contacts? A. Working side B. Non-working side C. Protrusive D. Lateral protrusive

A. Working side

45) Some carbohydrates convert Cu2+ ions to Cu+ ions. This property is related to their ability to act as A. a reducing agent. B. an oxidizing agent. C. both a reducing agent and an oxidizing agent. D. neither a reducing agent nor an oxidizing agent.

A. a reducing agent.

As the subclavian vein crosses the first rib, it lies A. anterior to the anterior scalene muscle. B. posterior to the anterior scalene muscle. C. posterior to the posterior scalene muscle. D. between the anterior and the posterior scalene muscles. E. between the scalene posterior and the levator scapulae muscles.

A. anterior to the anterior scalene muscle.

Rubella and toxoplasmosis are similar in that both A. are potentially teratogenic. B. primarily affect the elderly. C. are prevented by vaccinations. D. have non-human animal reservoirs. E. can not be treated with antibiotics.

A. are potentially teratogenic.

The tissue present between the articulating bones of the temporomandibular joint is called the A. articular disc. B. fibrous capsule. C. synovial membrane. D. joint capsule. E. bilaminar zone.

A. articular disc.

The free gingiva extends from the A. attached gingiva to the gingival crest. B. gingival crest to the interdental groove. C. alveolar mucosa to the free gingival groove. D. mucogingival junction to the free gingival ' groove. epithelial attachment to the cementoenamel junction

A. attached gingiva to the gingival crest.

67) Pain in the temporomandibular joint would be perceived by endings of the A. auriculotemporal nerve in the capsule and periphery of the disc. B. lateral pterygoid nerve in the capsule, disc and retrodiscal pad. C. auriculotemporal nerve throughout the meniscus. D. maxillary branch of the trigeminal in the retrodiscal pad and capsyle. E. inferior alveolar nerve.

A. auriculotemporal nerve in the capsule and periphery of the disc.

The inferior band of the cruciate ligament of the atlas attaches at the A. body of the axis. B. margin of the foramen magnum. C. apex of the odontoid process. D. posterior tubercle of the atlas.

A. body of the axis.

38) The stimulating effect of low arterial 02 tension on respiration is usually produced through an effect on the A. carotid bodies. B. carotid sinuses. C. expiratory center. D. inspiratory center. E. alveolar nerve endings.

A. carotid bodies.

115) Increased pulmonary ventilation observed at high altitudes results directly from the effect of hypoxia on the A. carotid body. B. aortic sinus. C. hypothalamus. D. carotid sinus. E. respiratory center.

A. carotid body.

In an ideal intercuspal relation, the mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary first molar contacts the mandibular first molar in (on) the A. central fossa. B. distal fossa. C. mesial fossa. D. mesial marginal ridge. E. distal marginal ridge.

A. central fossa.

In an ideal intercuspal relation, the lingual cusp of the maxillary second premolar contacts the A. distal fossa of the mandibular second premolar. B. mesial marginal ridge of the mandibular first molar. C. distal marginal ridge of the mandibular second molar. D. distal marginal ridge of the mandibular first premolar.

A. distal fossa of the mandibular second premolar.

Mandibular lateral translation (Bennett movement) occurs during the A. earliest stage of lateral movement. B. latter stage of protrusive movement. C. middle stage of retrusive movement. D. hinge axis movement of the mandible. E. ending stage of exhibiting a border movement.

A. earliest stage of lateral movement.

The primary function of the anterior portion of the temporalis muscle is to A. elevate the mandible only. B. protrude the mandible only. C. elevate and retrude the mandible. D. help stabilize the articular disc. E. move the mandible to the contralateral side.

A. elevate the mandible only.

Sympathetic stimulation affects carbohydrate metabolism because A. epinephrine increases liver glycogenolysis. B. peripheral tissues require epinephrine to take up glucose. C. sympathetic nerves to the pancreas increase insulin release. D. insulin cannot act on the liver in the absence of epinephrine.

A. epinephrine increases liver glycogenolysis.

When compared to the permanent dentition, the primary dentition normally exhibits A. fewer molars. B. fewer incisors. C. fewer canines. D. more incisors. E. more total teeth.

A. fewer molars.

93) Gnarled enamel is MOST frequently found A. in cusps. B. near the cervical line. C. around pits and fissures. D. adjacent to contact areas. E. equally on all surfaces of the crown.

A. in cusps.

If a person stands rigidly at attention for a sufficient length of time, then he will probably lose consciousness because of A. increased peripheral pooling. B. decreased tidal volume. C. increased baroreceptor input. D. decreased ventricular rate. E. increased carbon dioxide accumulation.

A. increased peripheral pooling.

The hepatic veins drain blood from the liver into the A. inferior vena cava. B. superior vena cava. C. azygos vein. D. portal vein. E. superior mesenteric vein.

A. inferior vena cava.

301) Human infection with Histoplasma capsulatum is usually a result of A. inhaling contaminated air. B. drinking contaminated water. C. ingesting contaminated food. D. direct human-to-human contact. E. direct animal-to-human contact.

A. inhaling contaminated air.

86) Frank-Starlings law of the heart states that the A. initial length of cardiac muscle fibers affects the strength of contraction. B. strength of contraction depends on the strength of the ventricular muscle. C. heart rate depends directly on thickness of the ventricle. D. strength of contraction depends on the strength of stimulus.

A. initial length of cardiac muscle fibers affects the strength of contraction.

30) On the crown of the primary maxillary first molar, the mesial surface normally A. is larger than the distal surface of the same tooth. B. exhibits a concave lingual outline. C. is wider occlusocervically than buccolingually. D. exhibits a straight cervical line. E. is wider buccolingually at the occlusal table than at the cervical third.

A. is larger than the distal surface of the same tooth.

69) In relative insulin insufficiency, acetyl CoA is usually channeled into A. ketone-body formation. B. cholesterol synthesis. C. fatty-acid synthesis. D. gluconeogenesis. E. the Krebs cycle.

A. ketone-body formation.

In the triangle formed by the projection of the orifices of the canals of a maxillary first molar, the A. line connecting mesial with lingual is longest. B. line connecting distal with lingual is longest. C. line connecting mesial with distal is longest. D. angle at the distolingual canal is obtuse. E. angle at the mesiofacial canal is obtuse.

A. line connecting mesial with lingual is longest.

A deficiency of choline in the diet can cause abnormalities in the metabolism of A. lipids. B. proteins. C. minerals. D. carbohydrates. E. nucleoproteins.

A. lipids.

In humans, the site for production of ketone bodies is the A. liver. B. kidney. C. adrenal. D. pancreas. E. adipose tissue.

A. liver.

Administration of a local anesthetic with epinephrine will MOST likely produce which of the following cardiovascular effects? A. lncreased heart rate B. Decreased heart rate C. lncreased diastolic blood pressure D. Decreased systolic blood pressure

A. lncreased heart rate

Failure of cardiac muscle to exhibit tetany results from its A. long refractory period. B. intercalated disks. C. automaticity. D. protoplasmic bridges between fibers.

A. long refractory period.

The mesiolingual groove extending between the mesial marginal ridge and the lingual cusp may be found on a A. mandibular first premolar. B. mandibular second premolar. C. maxillary first premolar. D. maxillary second premolar.

A. mandibular first premolar.

lf the maxillary and mandibular incisors are in crossbite, then the contacting surfaces, during maximum intercuspation, would be A. mandibular lingual and maxillary facial. B. mandibular facial and maxillary facial. C. mandibular lingual and maxillary lingual. D. mandibular facial and maxillary lingual.

A. mandibular lingual and maxillary facial.

8) Which of the following describes the movement of glycine molecules in an electric field at a pH of 6.06 (the isoelectric pH for glycine)? The glycine molecules will A. not move. B. move to the anode. C. move to the cathode. D. move to both anode and cathode.

A. not move.

Optic nerve fibers from the nasal half of the retina cross the midline and enter the optic tract of the opposite side by way of the A. optic chiasma. B. lateral geniculate body. C. bipolar cells of the retina. D. brachium of the superior colliculus. E. geniculocaloarine tract (optic radiations).

A. optic chiasma.

96) If the point of a needle enters the parotid gland during an inferior alveolar injection and solution is deposited in the gland, the MOST likely result is A. paralysis of the buccinator muscle. B. paralysis of the temporalis muscle. C. paresthesia of the lingual nerve. D. paralysis of temporal tympani. E. a hematoma of the pterygoid venous plexus.

A. paralysis of the buccinator muscle.

90) Which of the following conditions is indicated during isovolumetric ventricular contraction of the heart? A. All valves are open. B. All valves are closed. C. The aortic and pulmonary valves are open and the mitral and tricuspid valves are closed. D. The aortic and pulmonary valves are closed and the mitral and tricuspid valves are open.

B. All valves are closed.

What linkages occur in glycogen at branch points between glucose units? A. Alpha-1,4 B. Alpha-1,6 C. Beta-1,3 D. Beta-1,4 E. Beta-1,6

B. Alpha-1,6

70) After prolonged acidosis, which of the following represents the nitrogenous product that is excreted in high amounts in the urine? A. Urea B. Ammonia C. Uric acid D. Creatinine E. Aspartic acid

B. Ammonia

Peripheral (lower motor neuron) lesions of cranial nerve VII will cause which of the following? A. A contralateral paralysis of the facial musculature B. An ipsilateral flaccid paralysis of the facial musculature C. A contralateral paralysis of only the lower facial muscles D. A contralateral paralysis of only the upper facial muscles E. An ipsilateral flaccid paralysis of only the lower facial muscles

B. An ipsilateral flaccid paralysis of the facial musculature

Each of the following conditions predisposes a patient to develop cancer EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Asbestosis B. Anthracosis C. Hepatitis C D. Gardner's syndrome E. Ulcerative colitis

B. Anthracosis

Each of the following conditions predisposes a patient to develop cancer EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Asbestosis B. Anthracosis C. Hepatitis C D. Gardner's syndrome E. Ulcerative colitis

B. Anthracosis

The presence of which of the following in a patient's serum affords protection against hepatitis B? A. Anti-HBcAg B. Anti-HBsAg C. Anti-HAV D. Anti-HBeAg

B. Anti-HBsAg

Which of the following represents the anterior boundary of the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone? A. Styloid process B. Articular eminence C. Petrotympanic fissure D. External auditory meatus E. Mastoid process of temporal bone

B. Articular eminence

The vagus nerve supplies parasympathetic fibers to which of the following? A. Descending colon B. Ascending colon C. Sigmoid colon D. Rectum E. Anus

B. Ascending colon

Which of the following transmits pain from the temporomandibular joint? A. Auriculotemporal nerve in the articular surfaces of the mandible and temporal bones B. Auriculotemporal nerve in the capsule and periphery of the disc C. Maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve in the retrodiscal pad and capsule D. Maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve in the articular disc and the retrodiscal pad E. Zygomatic branches of the facial nerve

B. Auriculotemporal nerve in the capsule and periphery of the disc

A patient has a periapical abscess and a history of hypersensitivity to penicillin. Which of the following antimicrobial agents might be the preferred alternative for this patient? A. Amoxicillin B. Azithromycin C. Tetracycline D. Cephalosporin E. Nystatin

B. Azithromycin

Which of the following vitamins is the LEAST likely to be involved in tooth development and calcification? A. A B. B1 C. C D. D

B. B1

38) Which of the following muscles is MOST concerned in quiet respiration? A. Rhomboid B. Diaphragm C. Subclavius D. Sacrospinalis E. Pectoralis major

B. Diaphragm

36) Which of the following veins are located within the bones of the calvarium? A. Carotid B. Diploic C. Meningeal D. Infrahyoid E. Subarachnoid

B. Diploic

Which of the following procedures depends primarily on electrostatic net charge? A. Dialysis B. Electrophoresis C. X-ray diffraction D. Ultracentrifugation E. Molecular sieve chromatography

B. Electrophoresis

Which of the following occurs primarily in adults and is characterized by increased airway resistance, decreased diffusing capacity of the lung, and chronic/permanent hypoxia? (This question was considered to be defective and was not scored) A. Asthma B. Emphysema C. Pneumonia D. Collapsed lung E. Hyaline membrane disease

B. Emphysema

Which of the following processes can be seen in the photomicrograph? A. Osteoclasia B. Endochondral bone formation C. Intramembranous bone formation D. Secondary center of ossification

B. Endochondral bone formation

Which of the following describes the function of adjuvants? A. Enhance secretion of igA B. Enhance antibody response C. Stimulate complement synthesis D. Desensitize to a given antigen E. Activate mast cell degranulation

B. Enhance antibody response

73) Sodium fluoride inhibits glycolysis by affecting which of the following? A. Amylase B. Enolase C. Phosphatase D. Phosphorylase

B. Enolase

The amplitude of an action potential can be increased MOST easily by increasing which of the following concentrations? A. lntracellular sodium B. Extracellular sodium C. lntracellular chloride D. Intracellular potassium E. Extracellular potassium

B. Extracellular sodium

Which of the following primary teeth would exhibit a prominent cervical ridge on both the facial and lingual surfaces? A. A B. F C. J D. L E. T

B. F

The posterior belly of the digastric is supplied by which of the following nerves? A. Vagus B. Facial C. Trigeminal D. Cervical spinal E. Inferior alveolar

B. Facial

Which of the following nerves innervates the taste buds of the anterior two-thirds of the tongue? A. Vagus B. Facial C. Trigeminal D. Hypoglossal E. Glossopharyngeal

B. Facial

A transverse ridge results from the union of A. Mesial and distal marginal ridges B. Facial and lingual cusp ridges C. Facial and lingual triangular ridges D. Marginal and triangular E. Cusp ridge and triangular ridge

B. Facial and lingual cusp ridges

69) Which of the following substances is the predominant source of ATP at MODERATE levels (for greater than 60 minutes) of activity? A. Amino acids B. Fatty acids C. Carbohydrates D. Proteins

B. Fatty acids

153) Which of the following directly catalyzes urea formation in a cell? A. Urease B. Uricase C. Arginase D. Glutaminase

C. Arginase

During the period of isovolumetric contraction, which of the following happens? A. The semilunar valves are open. B. The left ventricular pressure is rising rapidly. C. The aortic pressure is slightly less than the left ventricular pressure. D. The right ventricular pressure is greater than the left ventricular pressure.

B. The left ventricular pressure is rising rapidly.

172) Prior to extracting Tooth #32, surgery is done to expose the entire crown of the tooth. Which of the following should the dentist expect to see? A. The buccal-lingual dimension of the crown is greater than the mesial-distal dimension. B. The mesial-distal dimension of the crown is greater that the buccal-lingual dimension. C. The buccal-lingual and mesial-distal dimensions of the crown are the same. D. The crown of Tooth #32 is smaller than the crown of Tooth #1.

B. The mesial-distal dimension of the crown is greater that the buccal-lingual dimension.

Which of the following best describes collagen? A. A soluble fiber of ground substance B. The most abundant protein in the body C. A fibrous protein with a high content of tryptophan D. A globular protein with a high content of hydroxyproline

B. The most abundant protein in the body

Which of the following statements best describes the roots of a maxillary first molar? A. The mesiofacial root usually tips mesially in its apical one-third. B. The palatal root has a concave facial surface. C. The palatal root is flattened and concave on its mesial and distal surfaces. D. The distofacial root is flattened and concave on its facial surface.

B. The palatal root has a concave facial surface.

Which of the following BEST explains why proteins are able to buffer physiologic solutions over a wide range of pH? A. They are macromolecules of high molecular weight. B. They contain many functional groups with differing pKs. C. They have unique tertiary structures that sequester hydrogen ions. D. They have peptide bonds that are resistant to hydrolysis.

B. They contain many functional groups with differing pKs.

Which of the following do striated muscle, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle have in common? A. Hyperplasia of these elements is common. B. They have a limited capacity to regenerate. C. Hypertrophy is a common response to injury. D. They need a constant high O2 concentration to function.

B. They have a limited capacity to regenerate.

If the patient decides to attempt to save Tooth #30, then it will require root canal therapy. Which of the following best describes the MOST likely presentation of pulp canals in this tooth? A. Two canals, one in each root B. Three canals, two in the mesial root and one in the distal root C. Three canals, one in the mesial root and two in the distal root

B. Three canals, two in the mesial root and one in the distal root

A dietary iodine deficiency will INCREASE the secretion of which of the following? A. Thyroxine B. Thyroglobulin C. Triiodothyronine D. Thyroid stimulating hormone

B. Thyroglobulin

The principal (chief) sensory nucleus of V is primarily involved in which of the following? A. Pain B. Touch C. Temperature D. Kinesthesia E. Proprioception

B. Touch

Which of the following nerves innervates the inferior buccal mucosae of the floor of the oral cavity? A. Facial B. Trigeminal C. Lingual D. Mylohyoid E. Hypoglossal

B. Trigeminal

Each of the following venous channels has direct connections with the pterygoid venous plexus EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Maxillary vein B. Vertebral vein C. Deep facial vein D. Infraorbital vein E. Posterior superior alveolar vein

B. Vertebral vein

Which of the following is a major disadvantage of ethylene oxide sterilization? A. Difficult to obtain B. Very toxic to humans C. Requires high temperatures (1600) D. Causes corrosion of metal instruments E. Causes discoloration of clear plastic objects

B. Very toxic to humans

Each of the following is an anticoagulant EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Heparin B. Vitamin K C. Dicumarol D. Sodium citrate E. Any antithrombin substance

B. Vitamin K

96) Which term of the Michaelis-Menten equation, can be determined from the y intercept of a Lineweaver-Burk plot? A. v B. Vmax C. Km D. [S]

B. Vmax

69) Which of the following intercellular junctions provides the GREATEST resistance to substances attempting to move between cells? A. Gap junction B. Zonula occludens C. Zonula adherens D. Macula adherens E. Fascia adherens

B. Zonula occludens

82) Accessory root canals can be formed by A. a break in the epithelial diaphragm prior to dentin formation. B. a break in the epithelial root sheath (Hertwig) prior to dentin formation. C. adherence of the epithelial root sheath (Hertwig) to the dentinal surface. D. an epithelial rest that lies in contact with the dentin of the root.

B. a break in the epithelial root sheath (Hertwig) prior to dentin formation.

Desmosomes function by serving as A. a means for communication between cells. B. a means for attachment of adjacent cells. C. an outlet for secretory products of a cell. D. a bridge for continuity of cytoplasm between adjacent cells. E. a means by which tonofibrils can pass from one cell into another.

B. a means for attachment of adjacent cells.

Vascular smooth muscle relaxes in response to A. hyperoxia. B. adenosine. C. vasopressin. D. angiotensin. E. norepinephrine.

B. adenosine.

77) Oral streptococci are usually A. gamma-hemolytic. B. alpha-hemolytic. C. beta-hemolytic. D. non-hemolytic.

B. alpha-hemolytic.

The spores of Bacillus anthracis are destroyed by A. refrigerating (-7oC for 48 hours). B. autoclaving (121oC for 20 minutes). C. pasteurizing (61.7oC for 30 minutes). D. immersing in boiling water (100oC for 10 minutes). E. placing in a hot air oven (121oC for 20 minutes).

B. autoclaving (121oC for 20 minutes).

The superior and inferior ophthalmic veins drain directly or indirectly into the A. frontal vein. B. cavernous sinus. C. anterior facial vein. D. internal jugular vein. E. superior petrosal sinus.

B. cavernous sinus.

A normal 10 1/2-year-old child has A. erupted both mandibular first and second molars. B. completed root formation for the mandibular first molar only. C. completed enamel formation for all 3 mandibular molars. D. initiated calcification for the mandibular molars.

B. completed root formation for the mandibular first molar only.

Which of the following explains why an increased filling of the ventricle during diastole causes a A. more forceful heart beat? The increased ventricular volume B. diminishes the refractory period of the ventricle. C. increases end-diastolic fiber length. D. facilitates conduction in the heart. E. produces a less than optimal load.

B. diminishes the refractory period of the ventricle.

137) Submucosal glands are usually located in the A. fundus of stomach. B. duodenum. C. appendix. D. jejunum. E. colon.

B. duodenum.

Submucosal glands are usually located in the A. fundus of stomach. B. duodenum. C. appendix. D. jejunum. E. colon.

B. duodenum.

The characteristic of the aorta that is most responsible for the maintenance of diastolic blood pressure is its A. wide lumen. B. elastic distensibility. C. proximity to the heart. D. great peripheral resistance. E. active contraction.

B. elastic distensibility

There is a distinct change in the type of surface epithelium at the junction of the A. oropharynx and esophagus. B. esophagus and stomach. C. fundus and pylorus. D. duodenum and jejunum. E. ileum and colon.

B. esophagus and stomach.

A slight detachment of the retina results in a decrease of length from the optical center, and the subject therefore exhibits A. near sightedness. B. far sightedness. C. strabismus. D. nystagmus.

B. far sightedness.

188) The patient's tongue laceration will likely damage taste buds found on A. filiform papilla. B. fungiform papilla. C. circumvallate papilla. D. ventrum of the tongue.

B. fungiform papilla.

The progression from a healthy gingival sulcus to gingivitis is associated with a shift towards A. gram-positive cocci. B. gram-negative anaerobic rods. C. gram-positive filamentous rods. D. gram-negative anaerobic cocci. E. gram-positive facultative cocci.

B. gram-negative anaerobic rods.

A 5-year-old child with vesicular lesions limited to the palate and the posterior oropharyngeal mucosa has an oral temperature of 101¡F (38¡C). The most probable diagnosis is A. chickenpox. B. herpangina. C. recurrent oral herpes. D. herpetic gingivostomatitis. E. hand-foot-and-mouth disease

B. herpangina.

The distal contact area of a maxillary lateral incisor with ideal alignment is located A. near the incisal edge. B. in the middle third. C. in the incisal third. D. at the junction of the incisal and middle thirds. E. at the junction of the middle and cervical thirds.

B. in the middle third.

When viewed from the sagittal plane, the axial inclination of the anterior teeth A. remains vertical. B. inclines facially. C. inclines mesially. D. inclines distally. E. inclines lingually.

B. inclines facially.

Which of the following statements BEST describes the strength of cardiac muscle contraction? It is A. decreased when extracellular Ca++ is increased. B. increased when extracellular Ca++ is increased. C. mainly regulated by vagal impulses. D. unaffected by extracellular Ca++. E. mainly regulated by heart rate.

B. increased when extracellular Ca++ is increased.

Which of the following explains why an increased filling of the ventricle during diastole causes a more forceful heart beat? The increased ventricular volume A. diminishes the refractory period of the ventricle. B. increases end-diastolic fiber length. C. facilitates conduction in the heart. D. produces a less than optimal load.

B. increases end-diastolic fiber length.

The apices of a mandibular second molar are located A. posteriorly to the pterygomandibular raphe. B. inferiorly to the mylohyoid muscle insertion. C. inferiorly to the masseter muscle insertion. D. inferiorly to the medial pterygoid muscle insertion.

B. inferiorly to the mylohyoid muscle insertion.

In the process of necrosis, a reduction in the size of the nucleus and a condensation of nuclear material is known as A. pyknosis. B. karyolysis. C. karyorrhexis. D. metachromasia. E. hyperchromatism.

B. karyolysis.

The glomerular lesions in immune complex disease result from deposition of which of the following? A. IgE B. lgG C. TCR D. Histamine E. lnterleukin

B. lgG

When a parent notices an erupting tooth in a child's mouth at 6 months of age, it is most likely a primary A. maxillary lateral incisor. B. mandibular central incisor. C. mandibular canine. D. mandibular first molar.

B. mandibular central incisor.

The cross-sectional view at midroot illustrated is MOST probably that of a A. mandibular canine. B. maxillary first premolar. C. mandibular first premolar. D. lingual root of a maxillary molar. E. distal root of a mandibular first molar.

B. maxillary first premolar.

The XII nerve nucleus that innervates the tongue is located in the A. pons. B. medulla. C. midbrain. D. diencephalon. E. telencephalon.

B. medulla.

As viewed from the lingual, the lingual cusp of a maxillary first premolar is inclined A. distally. B. mesially. C. distofacially. D. mesiolingually. E. directly over the center mesiodistally.

B. mesially.

92) On a maxillary first molar, the occlusal outline contains two obtuse and two acute angles. The acute line angles are A. mesiolingual and distolingual. B. mesiofacial and distolingual. C. mesiolingual and distofacial. D. mesiofacial and distofacial. E. distofacial and distolingual.

B. mesiofacial and distolingual.

The core of a cilium is composed of A. microvilli. B. microtubules. C. microfibrils. D. tonofilaments. E. microfilaments.

B. microtubules.

76) If the pH becomes lower than the isoelectric point of a protein, then how will the protein respond in an electrophoretic system? It will A. become denatured. B. migrate to the negative pole. C. migrate to the positive pole. D. remain stationary and unchanged. E. separate into its different monomeric forms.

B. migrate to the negative pole.

As compared with permanent teeth, the crowns of the primary teeth are A. larger. B. more bulbous and constricted. C. about the same size, but more bell-shaped cervically. D. narrower mesiodistally in comparison with their crown length in the anterior teeth.

B. more bulbous and constricted.

Mammelons are normally found in adult patients only. on the incisal ridge of anterior teeth. on the lingual surface of anterior teeth. in the depth of an occlusal fossa on posterior teeth. on the cervical portion of the marginal ridges of posterior teeth. A. in adult patients only. B. on the incisal ridge of anterior teeth. C. on the lingual surface of anterior teeth. D. in the depth of an occlusal fossa on posterior teeth. E. on the cervical portion of the marginal ridges of posterior teeth.

B. on the incisal ridge of anterior teeth.

On the maxillary first molar crown, the distolingual groove normally A. originates in the central pit. B. originates and terminates in pits. C. parallels the transverse ridge.

B. originates and terminates in pits.

19) In the posterior mediastinum, the thoracic duct usually lies A. anterior to the phrenic nerves. B. posterior to the esophagus. C. on the anterolateral surface of trachea.

B. posterior to the esophagus.

95) Atropine prevents the secretion of saliva resulting from stimulation of the chorda tympani because it A. denatures the salivary gland proteins. B. prevents the action of acetylcholine on the secreting cells. C. prevents release of acetylcholine by sympathetic postganglionic fibers. D. prevents release of acetylcholine in autonomic ganglia.

B. prevents the action of acetylcholine on the secreting cells.

Active transport systems generally involve specific binding molecules that are classified as a A. lipid. B. protein. C. lipoprotein. D. carbohydrate. E. phospholipid.

B. protein.

Contraction of the posterior fibers of the temporalis muscle results in the mandible A. closing. B. retruding. C. protruding. D. opening with translation. E. opening without translation.

B. retruding.

Anaerobic bacteria lacking catalase are generally A. motile. B. sensitive to H2O2. C. able to ferment lactate. D. resistant to penicillin. E. producers of O2 and H2O from H2O2.

B. sensitive to H2O2.

The intrinsic factor for vitamin B12 absorption is produced in the A. liver. B. stomach. C. pancreas. D. duodenum. E. lacteals.

B. stomach.

It is possible to distinguish histologically between the stomach and the duodenum because of the presence of A. mucosal glands in the stomach only. B. submucosal glands in the duodenum only. C. simple columnar epithelium lining the stomach only. D. muscularis mucosa in the stomach only. E. smooth muscle in the external musculature of the duodenum only.

B. submucosal glands in the duodenum only.

The thyrocervical trunk is comprised of the inferior thyroid, the transverse cervical artery, and the A. vertebral. B. suprascapular. C. dorsal scapular. D. superior thyroid. E. ascending pharyngeal.

B. suprascapular

Bile salts are sodium salts of bile acid that are conjugated with A. cysteine and serine. B. taurine and glycine. C. methionine and lysine. D. homocysteine and ornithine.

B. taurine and glycine.

The biologically active conformation of trimeric G-proteins requires A. the alpha-subunit to bind GDP. B. the alpha-subunit to bind GTP. C. the hydrolysis of BetaGamma-subunits. D. the alpha-subunit to phosphorylate downstream targets.

B. the alpha-subunit to bind GTP.

The part of the tooth which, at a given moment, is exposed to the oral cavity is A. the anatomic crown. B. the clinical crown. C. the functional dinical crown and root. D. measurably larger in young persons than in older persons. E. not effected by periodontal health.

B. the clinical crown.

126) Hormones that exert their effects through the activation of second messengers are A. lipophilic. B. usually water soluble peptide/protein hormones. C. initially bound to cytoplasmic hormone receptors. D. secreted by ovaries, testes, adrenal cortex, and placenta.

B. usually water soluble peptide/protein hormones.

68) A diminished oxygen tension in the myocardium causes immediate A. vasoconstriction of coronary vessels. B. vasodilation of coronary vessels. C. stimulation of chemoreceptors. D. inhibition of chemoreceptors.

B. vasodilation of coronary vessels

51) The plasma osmolality decreases after infusion of A. aldosterone. B. vasopressin (ADH). C. angiotensin II. D. parathyroid hormone. E. isotonic saline solution.

B. vasopressin (ADH).

73) Which of the following is the nerve that supplies the mimetic muscles? A. Vagus B. Facial C. Trigeminal D. Hypoglossal E. Spinal accessory

B.Facial

9) After a right side radical mastoid operation, a patient has facial distortion and the mouth is drawn upward to the left. He is unable to close his right eye. Saliva tends to accumulate in his right cheek and dribble out of the corner of his mouth. Which of the following nerves MOST likely was damaged during the operation? A. Vagus B. Facial C. Trigeminal D. Hypoglossal E. Glossopharyngeal

B.Facial

Which of the following represents the pH of a solution that has a 10-3 M concentration of OH- ion? A. 5 B. 7 C. 9 D. Determinable only if the pka is known. E. Determinable only if the base composition is known.

C. 9

A hypoplasia of primary teeth which is limited to the incisal thirds of incisors, to the incisal tips of canines, and to the occlusal portions of molars, suggests which of the following? A. Tetracycline medication in early life B. Excessive fluorides in the drinking water C. A metabolic disturbance during the prenatal period D. A metabolic disturbance during infancy and the early childhood periods

C. A metabolic disturbance during the prenatal period

Breathing a gas mixture with 5 percent CO2 ultimately leads to which of the following? A. Hypoventilation B. A decrease in heart rate C. A stimulation of central chemoreceptors D. An inhibition of peripheral chemoreceptors E. A decrease in cerebrospinal fluid hydrogen-ion concentration

C. A stimulation of central chemoreceptors

26) A number of catabolic pathways are allosterically inhibited by an increase in the concentration of which of the following? A. ADP B. AMP C. ATP D. NAD E. Pyruvate

C. ATP

82) In the contractile cycle, the dissociation of the actomyosin complex results MOST immediately from A. ATP hydrolysis. B. release of ATP hydrolysis products. C. ATP replacing ADP on the myosin heads. D. tilting of the myosin heads (crossbridges).

C. ATP replacing ADP on the myosin heads.

Each of the following is useful in identifying viruses EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Nature of the viral nucleic acid B. Morphology of the viral protein capsid C. Ability of the virus to grow on complex media D. Neutralization of the virus with specific antisera E. Ability of the virus to be inactivated by ether or chloroform

C. Ability of the virus to grow on complex media

Which of the following nerves innervates the trapezius muscle? A. Radial B. Axillary C. Accessory D. Thoracodorsal E. Long thoracic

C. Accessory

Which of the following statements best describes bacterial transformation? A. DNA coding for RNA synthesis B. RNA coding for protein synthesis C. Acquisition of an inheritable trait by bacteria mediated by DNA D. Acquisition of an inheritable trait by bacteria mediated by RNA E. Binding of 30S and 70S ribosomes

C. Acquisition of an inheritable trait by bacteria mediated by DNA

Congestion in the early stages of inflammation is caused by which of the following? A. Ischemia B. Venous dilation C. Active hyperemia D. Venous constriction E. Lymphatic obstruction

C. Active hyperemia

Each of the following represents a common opportunistic infection associated with HIV EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Candidiasis B. Hairy leukoplakia C. Adenovirus conjunctivitis D. Cryptosporidium enterocolitis E. Pneumocystic carinii pneumonia

C. Adenovirus conjunctivitis

7) The polymerase chain reaction is MOST useful for which of the following? A. Preparing enzymes that synthesize nucleic acids B. Isolating the genome of an organism C. Amplifying a specific DNA sequence D. Separating polyclonal antibodies E. Synthesizing RNA from DNA

C. Amplifying a specific DNA sequence

75) Which of the following would produce the greatest DECREASE in resistance in a single artery 2 mm long and with a radius of 1.2 mm? A. A halving in length B. A doubling in length C. An increase in radius by a factor of 2 D. A decrease in blood viscosity by a factor of 2

C. An increase in radius by a factor of 2

A branch of which of the following motor nerves supplies the sternohyoid muscle? A. Phrenic B. Spinal accessory C. Ansa cervicalis D. Transverse cervical E. Cervical sympathetic trunk

C. Ansa cervicalis

Each of the following hormones is produced by the adenohypophysis of the hypophysis EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Prolactin B. Luteinizing hormone C. Antidiuretic hormone D. Follicle stimulating hormone E. Adrenocorticotropic hormone

C. Antidiuretic hormone

Which of the following is the rate-controlling step in mammalian glycolysis? A. Glucose --> glucose-6-phosphate B. 2-P-enolpyruvate --> pyruvate C. Fructose-6-P --> fructose-1,6-bisphosphate D. Dihydroxyacetone-P --> glyceraldehyde-3- phosphate

C. Fructose-6-P --> fructose-1,6-bisphosphate

Tay-Sachs disease is associated with an inborn error of metabolism involving a specific enzyme which normally degrades a particular molecule in the gray matter. This enzyme acts on which of the following? A. Polysaccharides B. Acylglycerols C. Gangliosides D. Fatty acids E. Proteins

C. Gangliosides

The splenic artery is found in which of the following ligaments? A. Lieno-renal B. Hepatogastric C. Gastro-lienal D. Hepatoduodenal E. Ligamentum venosum

C. Gastro-lienal

Each of the following muscles receives motor innervation from the ansacervicalis EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Omohyoid B. Thyrohyoid C. Geniohyoid D. Sternohyoid E. Sternothyroid

C. Geniohyoid

The concentration of which of the following amino acids can be used to determine whether or not dentin has contaminated a purified enamel preparation? A. Lysine B. Proline C. Hydroxyproline D. Phosphotyrosine E. Phosphoserine

C. Hydroxyproline

Which of the following is MOST likely to cause respiratory acidosis? A. Moving from high altitude to sea level B. Untreated diabetes mellitus C. Hypoventilation D. Kidney failure E. Vomiting

C. Hypoventilation

Death from advanced liver disease caused by hepatitis C infection is PRIMARILY due to which of the following? A. Inhibition of replication B. Inhibition of transcription C. Inhibition of urea synthesis D. Increase in serum glucose levels E. Inhibition of immunoglobulin production

C. Inhibition of urea synthesis

Which of the following represents the mechanism of action of diphtheria toxin? A. Activates CAMP B. Causes cytolysis C. Inhibits translation D. Inhibits transcription E. Inhibits DNA replication

C. Inhibits translation

Which of the following hormones conserves body protein, carbohydrate, and fat stores? A. Cortisol B. Glucagon C. Insulin D. Somatotropin

C. Insulin

75) Which of the following collagen synthesis post-translational events occurs extracellularly? A. Glycosylation B. Hydroxylation C. Intermolecular cross-linkage D. Disulfide bond formation

C. Intermolecular cross-linkage

The largest amount of body water can be found in which of the following? A. Urine B. Blood plasma C. Intracellular fluid D. Interstitial fluid E. Stomach and intestines

C. Intracellular fluid

178) Laceration of the patient's lips resulted in bleeding from which of the following arteries? A. Nasopalatine B. Nasal branches of the facial C. Labial branches of the facial D. Buccal branch of the maxillary E. Incisive branches of the infraorbital

C. Labial branches of the facial

Which of the following muscles insert(s) onto the neck of the condyle? A. Masseter B. Temporalis C. Lateral pterygoid D. Medial pterygoid

C. Lateral pterygoid

131) Which of the following enzymes seals nicks in DNA? A. Exonuclease B. Endonuclease C. Ligase D. DNA polymerase E. RNA polymerase

C. Ligase

33) Which of the following describes the contact relationship between a maxillary central incisor and a maxillary lateral incisor? A. Contact is offset to the lingual. B. Contact is centered incisocervically. C. Lingual embrasure is larger than the facial embrasure. D. Incisal embrasure is the largest of all the embrasures.

C. Lingual embrasure is larger than the facial embrasure.

Which of the following describes the contact relationship between a maxillary central incisor and a maxillary lateral incisor? A. Contact is offset to the lingual. B. Contact is centered incisocervically. C. Lingual embrasure is larger than the facial embrasure. D. Incisal embrasure is the largest of all the embrasures.

C. Lingual embrasure is larger than the facial embrasure.

198) Examination of a remnant of the cranial base exhibits a fracture of the cribriform plate. Damage to this area typically results in which of the following conditions? A. "Tunnel" vision B. Loss of sense of taste C. Loss of sense of smell D. Damage to optic chiasm E. Damage to speech areas

C. Loss of sense of smell

In which of the following are numerous afferent lymphatic channels found? A. Spleen B. Thymus C. Lymph nodes D. Palatine tonsils E. Pharyngeal tonsils

C. Lymph nodes

Which of the following cells are the most radiosensitive? A. Neurons B. Fibroblasts C. Lymphocytes D. Chondrocytes Epithelial cells

C. Lymphocytes

Which of the following nerve fibers is primarily responsible for the sharp pain in Tooth #30? A. Aa B. AB C. M D. B E. C

C. M

Each of the following is attributable to hepatic failure EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Tremor B. Gynecomastia C. Mallory bodies D. Hypoalbuminemia E. Spider telangiectasia

C. Mallory bodies

Each of the following is attributable to hepatic failure EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Tremor B. Gynecomastia C. Mallory bodies D. Hypoalbuminemia E. Spider telangiectasia

C. Mallory bodies

What teeth occlude with only one opposing tooth? A. Maxillary canines B. Mandibular lateral incisors C. Mandibular central incisors D. Maxillary first premolars E. Mandibular third molars

C. Mandibular central incisors

Which of the following primary teeth has a distinctly prominent facial cervical ridge that makes it different from other teeth? A. Maxillary canine B. Mandibular canine C. Mandibular first molar D. Maxillary second molar E. Maxillary central incisor

C. Mandibular first molar

Which of the following is the first inflammatory cell to appear in large numbers at the site of injured tissue? A. Macrophage B. Plasma cell C. Neutrophil D. Lymphocyte E. Monocyte

C. Neutrophil

From an occlusal view, which of the following anatomical features are frequently found on both the primary maxillary first and second molars? A. Four major cusps are evident. B. Oblique ridges are well developed. C. Marginal ridges are well developed. D. The outline forms are rectangular in shape. E. The crowns converge to the distal and lingual aspects.

C. Marginal ridges are well developed.

88) In the intercuspal position, which of the following anterior teeth has the potential of contacting both anterior and posterior antagonists? A. Maxillary lateral incisor B. Mandibular lateral incisor C. Maxillary canine D. Mandibular canine

C. Maxillary canine

132) Which of the following teeth is the LEAST likely tooth to have a bifurcation of the root? A. Mandibular canine B. Mandibular central incisor C. Maxillary central incisor D. Mandibular lateral incisor E. Maxillary second premolar

C. Maxillary central incisor

Which of the following teeth is MOST likely to have a distal coronal concavity that can pose special problems in matrix placement? A. Maxillary first premolar B. Mandibular first premolar C. Maxillary first molar D. Mandibular first molar

C. Maxillary first molar

152) The marginal ridges are more prominent on the lingual surface of which of the following incisors? A. Maxillary central B. Mandibular central C. Maxillary lateral D. Mandibular lateral

C. Maxillary lateral

Which incisor is MOST frequently markedly concave on the lingual surface? A. Maxillary central B. Mandibular central C. Maxillary lateral D. Mandibular lateral

C. Maxillary lateral

Which of the following incisors are usually the last to erupt? A. Maxillary central B. Mandibular central C. Maxillary lateral D. Mandibular lateral

C. Maxillary lateral

The drawing illustrates a cross section at the cementoenamel junction. This section is typical of which of the following teeth? A. Maxillary first premolar B. Mandibular second premolar C. Maxillary molar D. Mandibular molar

C. Maxillary molar

3) Which of the following primary teeth is MOST likely to have an oblique ridge? A. Maxillary canine B. Maxillary first molar C. Maxillary second molar D. Mandibular first molar E. Mandibular second molar

C. Maxillary second molar

Which of the following molars MOST frequently have only 3 cusps? A. Maxillary first B. Mandibular first C. Maxillary third D. Mandibular third

C. Maxillary third

The trigeminal nerve innervates exclusively which of the following muscles or muscle parts? A. Buccinator and masseter B. Mylohyoid and geniohyoid C. Medial and lateral pterygoid D. Tensor and levator veli palatini E. Anterior and posterior bellies of digastric

C. Medial and lateral pterygoid

163) MOST plasma cells that form in the cervical lymph nodes will be found in which of the following areas? A. Paracortex B. Lymph nodules C. Medullary cords D. Germinal centers E. Trabecular sinuses

C. Medullary cords

Which of the following molar roots is wide faciolingually and concave on both mesial and distal surfaces? A. Distofacial of a maxillary first B. Lingual of a maxillary first C. Mesial of a mandibular first D. Distal of a mandibular first

C. Mesial of a mandibular first

In a maxillary first molar, two root canals are most commonly found in which of the following roots? A. Distal B. Distofacial C. Mesiofacial D. Mesiolingual E. Palatal

C. Mesiofacial

159) The oblique ridge of the maxillary molars extends between which two cusps? A. Mesiofacial and distofacial B. Mesiolingual and distolingual C. Mesiolingual and distofacial D. Mesiofacial and mesiolingual E. Mesiofacial and distolingual

C. Mesiolingual and distofacial

The oblique ridge of the maxillary molars extends between which two cusps? A. Mesiofacial and distofacial B. Mesiolingual and distolingual C. Mesiolingual and distofacial D. Mesiofacial and mesiolingual E. Mesiofacial and distolingual

C. Mesiolingual and distofacial

156) Where is the lingual height of contour located on a mandibular first premolar? A. Occlusal third B. Junction of the occlusal and middle thirds C. Middle third D. Junction of the middle and cervical thirds E. Cervical third

C. Middle third

Which of the following processes occurs after prolonged muscular exercise when oxygen debt is being paid? A. Lactic acid in muscles continues to increase. B. Most lactic acid undergoes gluconeogenesis in muscles. C. Most lactic acid undergoes gluconeogenesis in the liver. D. Most lactic acid undergoes gluconeogenesis in the brain and heart.

C. Most lactic acid undergoes gluconeogenesis in the liver.

In the developing spinal cord, the mantle layer of the basal plate develops into which of the following adult structures? A. Motor axons B. Sensory axons C. Motor neurons D. Sensory neurons

C. Motor neurons

192) Monosynaptic jaw closing reflexes might be disrupted in which of the following areas? A. Locus coenurus B. Globus pallidus C. Motor nucleus of V D. Mesencephalic nucleus of V E. Motor nucleus of VII

C. Motor nucleus of V

Which of the following represents the primary source of pathogenic microorganisms in the dental operatory? A. Dust particles B. Dental instruments C. Mouths of patients D. Hands of clinicians E. Dental unit water lines

C. Mouths of patients

Which of the following provides the immediate energy source for the transport of glucose into intestinal epithelial cells? A. NADH B. NADPH C. Na+ gradient across the luminal membrane D. H+ gradient across the luminal membrane

C. Na+ gradient across the luminal membrane

A dentist will use screw-type implants to replace the maxillary incisors (teeth #s 7, 8, 9, and 10). If these implants pass through the bone in this region, then which of the following regions will they be entering? A. Orbit B. Mental foramen C. Nasal cavity D. Maxillary sinus E. Pterygopalatine fossa

C. Nasal cavity

Which of the following neoplasms is associated with the Epstein-Barr virus? A. Oral carcinoma B. Lymphangioma C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma D. Choriocarcinoma

C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

52) The buccal mucosa typically has which of the following epithelia? A. Simple columnar B. Pseudostratified columnar C. Non-keratinized, stratified squamous D. Parakeratinized, stratified squamous E. Orthokeratinized, stratified squamous

C. Non-keratinized, stratified squamous

Which of the following hormones exerts the LEAST effect on calcium metabolism of bone tissue? A. Androgen B. Estrogen C. Norepinephrine D. Thyroid hormone E. Parathyroid hormone

C. Norepinephrine

The catabolism of which of the following results in no energy production in the form of ATP? A. Lipid B. Protein C. Nucleotide D. Carbohydrate

C. Nucleotide

Which fiber group of the periodontal ligament reduces the probability of forceful impaction into the alveolus because of a blow to the crown? A. Horizontal B. Apical C. Oblique D. Transseptal E. Gingival

C. Oblique

44) Which of the following is a complication of cirrhosis? A. Splenic atrophy B. Hepatic angioma formation C. Obstruction of portal circulation D. Increased plasma protein formation E. Decreased central venous pressure

C. Obstruction of portal circulation

32) Each of the following is characteristic of herpes zoster EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Unilateral B. Usually involves 1-3 dermatomes. C. Occurs repeatedly in immunocompetent patients. D. Only occurs in an individual having a latent VZV infection. E. More common in individuals who are immunocompromised.

C. Occurs repeatedly in immunocompetent patients.

45) Which of the following is produced when a mutation occurs in an enzyme controlling a signal pathway involved in cell growth processes? A. Epigene B. Antigene C. Oncogene D. Monogene E. Transgene

C. Oncogene

61) Which of the following cells forms a Howship's lacuna? A. Osteocyte B. Osteoblast C. Osteoclast D. Chondrocyte E. Chondroblast

C. Osteoclast

Multiple, lytic lesions of bone characterize each of the following conditions EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? A. Multiple myeloma B. Metastatic carcinoma C. Osteogenesis imperfecta D. Hyperparathyroidism E. Langerhans (eosinophilic) granulomatosis

C. Osteogenesis imperfecta

Which of the following has a high affinity for binding calcium and collagen in the calcifying matrix? A. Calcitonin B. Osteogenin C. Osteonectin D. Amelogenin E. Fibronectin

C. Osteonectin

48) Each of the following derives from a pharyngeal pouch EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Thymus B. Parathyroid C. Parotid gland D. Auditory tube E. Palatine tonsil

C. Parotid gland

68) Which of the following lymphoid aggregations is (are) the MOST likely to be associated with pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium? A. Palatine tonsil B. Lingual tonsil C. Pharyngeal tonsil D. Peyer's patches

C. Pharyngeal tonsil

35) Insulin INCREASES the activity of which of the following? A. Enolase B. Phosphorylase a C. Phosphofructokinase D. Glucose-6-phosphatase E. Fructose 1-6 diphosphatase

C. Phosphofructokinase

42) Which of the following molecules would likely form a micelle when mixed with water and agitated? A. Serine B. Glycerol C. Phospholipid D. Triglyceride

C. Phospholipid

44) Which of the following noncollagenous protein components BEST characterizes dentin matrix? A. Laminin B. Vimentin C. Phosphophoryn D. Osteonectin E. Fibronectin

C. Phosphophoryn

Each of the following viruses is potentially capable of causing cell transformation EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Retrovirus B. Herpesvirus C. Picomavirus D. Hepatitis B virus E. Human papillomavirus

C. Picomavirus

57) Each of the following viruses is potentially capable of causing cell transformation EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Retrovirus B. Herpesvirus C. Picornavirus D. Hepatitis B virus E. Human papillomavirus

C. Picornavirus

Blood from the cephalic vein drains into which of the following veins? A. Basilic B. Braciocephalic C. Podnary D. Internal thoracic E. Superior vena cava

C. Podnary

Highly skilled, discrete motor activity of the hand is dependent on which of the following cortical areas of the hemisphere? A. Transverse temporal gyrus B. Angular gyrus of the parietal lobe C. Precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe D. Paracentral lobule on the medial surface

C. Precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe

A lymph node with groups of highly active germinal centers is most often indicative of which of the following? A. Adolescence B. Nodular involution C. Presence of an infection D. Germinal center degeneration E. Imminent degeneration of the lymph node

C. Presence of an infection

ln this patient, which of the following regions of the articular surface of the TMJ is unlikely to be present? A. Calcified cartilage B. Subarticular bone C. Proliferative zone D. Fibrous articular layer E. Fibrocartilaginous zone

C. Proliferative zone

182) Before examining this patient, the dentist notes that the standard medical emergency kit contains an ampule of glucagon. For which of the following reasons would glucagon be used? A. Acts as a source of glucose for the hypoglycemic patient. B. Promotes glycogen formation in the hyperglycemic patient. C. Promotes glycogenolysis in the hypoglycemic patient. D. Stimulates secretion of insulin in the hyperglycemic patient.

C. Promotes glycogenolysis in the hypoglycemic patient.

Which of the following are MOST antigenic? A. Lipids B. Haptens C. Proteins D. Nucleic acids E. Carbohydrates

C. Proteins

Which of the following actions is at least partially dependent on an intact long thoracic nerve? A. Depression of the scapula B. Retraction of the scapula C. Protraction of the scapula D. Medial rotation of the humerus E. Lateral rotation of the humerus

C. Protraction of the scapula

63) Which of the following is the posterior limit of the vestibular side of the cheek? A. Retromolar pad B. Sulcus terminalis C. Pterygomandibular raphe D. Stylomandibular ligament E. Sphenomandibular ligament

C. Pterygomandibular raphe

Which of the following bones forms the roof of the orbit? A. Zygomatic B. Maxilla C. Palatine D. Sphenoid E. Frontal

E. Frontal

Which of the following statements best describes patients who develop meningitis following mumps, coxsackievirus, or echovirus infections? A. Sensitive to viral toxins B. Experience mortality rate of 75% C. Rarely develop permanent neural damage D. Subject to exacerbations once the latent virus is activated E. Most often initially infected by blood containing the virus

C. Rarely develop permanent neural damage

114) Each of the following statements describes a contributor to the initiation of mineralization of bone EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Holes or pores in collagen fibers B. Release of matrix vesicles by osteoblasts C. Release of acid phosphatase by osteocytes trapped in lacunae D. Alkaline phosphatase activity in osteoblasts and matrix vesicles E. Degradation of matrix pyrophosphate to release an inorganic phosphate group

C. Release of acid phosphatase by osteocytes trapped in lacunae

A hemorrhagic tendency is seldom seen in which of the following conditions? A. Scurvy B. Acute leukemia C. Renal insufficiency D. Hepatic insufficiency E. Secondary thrombocytopenia

C. Renal insufficiency

52) Which of the following features distinguishes active transport from facilitated diffusion? A. Specificity B. Carrier-mediated C. Requires metabolic energy D. Presence of a transport maximum (Tm)

C. Requires metabolic energy

Which of the following viral-associated enzymes is unique to RNA tumor viruses? A. Neuramidase B. Capping enzyme C. Reverse transcriptase D. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

C. Reverse transcriptase

Which of the following characterizes a benign tumor arising from skeletal muscle? A. Leiomyoma B. Papilloma C. Rhabdomyoma D. Leiomyosarcoma E. Rhabdomyosarcoma

C. Rhabdomyoma

Each of the following fluids is considered one that can transmit HIV EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Semen B. Serum C. Saliva D. Amniotic fluid E. Breast milk

C. Saliva

Each of the following fluids is considered one that can transmit HlV EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Semen B. Serum C. Saliva D. Amniotic fluid E. Breast milk

C. Saliva

The muscles of facial expression are derived from which of the following? A. Frontonasal process B. First arch C. Second arch D. Third arch E. Fifth arch

C. Second arch

When a protrusive mandibular movement (anterior teeth edge-to- edge) is achieved, the mandibular first molar has the potential to contact which of the following maxillary teeth? A. First and second premolars B. Second premolar only C. Second premolar and first molar D. First and second molars E. Second molar only

C. Second premolar and first molar

Which of the following represents the tissue formed in response to stimuli produced by carious penetration of a tooth? A. Predentin B. Primary dentin C. Secondary dentin D. interglobular dentin

C. Secondary dentin

Which of the following properties do mast cells and basophils have in common? A. Found in blood B. Develop from lymphocytes C. Secrete heparin and histamine D. Decrease during time of infection E. Migrate to line the inside of blood vessels

C. Secrete heparin and histamine

83) Which of the following represents the consequence of the fact that DNA strands are complementary? A. Hairpin loop structures can be generated B. They will always have identical sequences C. Separated strands are able to reassociate D. They cannot get back together once separated

C. Separated strands are able to reassociate

10) The blood-testis barrier is maintained by A. spermatogonia. B. spermatocytes. C. Sertoli cells. D. Leydig cells. E. myoepithelial cells.

C. Sertoli cells.

71) Which of the following are the immediate effects of calcitonin on serum levels of calcium and phosphate? A. Serum calcium increased; serum phosphate increased B. Serum calcium increased; serum phosphate decreased C. Serum calcium decreased; serum phosphate decreased D. Serum calcium not changed; serum phosphate increased E. Serum calcium decreased; serum phosphate not changed

C. Serum calcium decreased; serum phosphate decreased

84) Acromegaly is due to an excessive production of which of the following? A. Thyrotropin B. Gonadotropin C. Somatotropin D. Adrenocorticotropin

C. Somatotropin

The lingula of the mandible serves as an attachment for which of the following? A. Temporalis B. Stylomandibular ligament C. Sphenomandibular ligament D. Temporomandibular ligament E. Tendon of the digastric muscle

C. Sphenomandibular ligament

95) A patient bleeds from the anterior septal region of his nose. A break in the vessel walls has caused this bleeding. These vessels originate from which of the following arteries? A. Angular B. Posterior superior alveolar C. Sphenopalatine D. Greater palatine

C. Sphenopalatine

Each of the following develops as an outpocketing of the gut tube EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Lung B. Liver C. Spleen D. Pancreas E. Gallbladder

C. Spleen

Which of the following BEST describes the major function of histones? A. Unwind DNA B. Activate genes. C. Stabilize DNA in a compact form. D. Remove exons during RNA splicing. E. Stabilize RNA during transcription.

C. Stabilize DNA in a compact form.

Which of the following represents the primitive oral cavity? A. Glottis B. Foregut C. Stomodeum D. Sulcus limitans E. Buccopharyngeal membrane

C. Stomodeum

In addition to Neisseria meningitidis which of the following is a significant cause of meningitis? A. Streptococcus faecalis B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Staphylococcus aureus E. Staphylococcus epidenmidis

C. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Which of the following has the LEAST ability to regenerate? A. Bone B. Liver C. Striated muscle D. Collagen E. Smooth muscle

C. Striated muscle

Which of the following has the least ability to regenerate? A. Bone B. Liver C. Striated muscle D. Collagen E. Smooth muscle

C. Striated muscle

17) Infections or neoplasms that spread by lymphatics from the skin of the angle of the mouth MOST likely pass to which of the following lymph nodes? A. Lingual B. Submental C. Submandibular D. Anterior cervical E. Superficial cervical

C. Submandibular

Which of the following BEST describes the Curve of Spee? A. The spherical configuration of the composite arrangement of the occlusal surfaces and incisal edges of the teeth of both dental arches B. The facial-lingual curvature resulting from the facial cusps being the longest in the mandibular arch, and the lingual cusps being the longest in the maxillary arch C. The anterior-posterior curvature of the occlusal surfaces of the teeth, as seen in a facial view D. The inclination of the teeth in relation to the vertical long axis of the body E. The composite arrangement of the facial crown surface heights of contour of all the teeth in any quadrant

C. The anterior-posterior curvature of the occlusal surfaces of the teeth, as seen in a facial view

79) A patient bites the tip of his tongue. The pain that ensues is carried by way of which of the following cranial nerves? A. Vagus, X B. Facial, VII C. Trigeminal, V D. Hypoglossal, XII E. Glossopharyngeal, IX

C. Trigeminal, V

Each of the following lipid classes is incorporated into membranes EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Cholesterol B. Ganglioside C. Triglyceride D. Sphingomyelin E. Phosphatidylcholine

C. Triglyceride

62) Smooth muscle contains each of the following muscle proteins EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Actin B. Myosin C. Troponin D. Tropomyosin

C. Troponin

lf the patient and dentist elect to extract Tooth #30, sectioning of the tooth will be required. The dentist should be aware of which of the following furcations on this tooth? A. One B. Two -- mesial and distal C. Two -- facial and lingual D. Three -- mesial, distal, and facial E. Three -- facial, mesial, and lingual

C. Two -- facial and lingual

64) Which of the following can be used to distinguish the palatine tonsil from the pharyngeal tonsil on the histologic level? A. General shape of the tonsil B. Number of lymphatic nodules C. Type of epithelium associated with it D. Type of lymphocytes present E. Presence or absence of Hassall's corpuscles

C. Type of epithelium associated with it

Escape of plasma from capillaries into an area of inflammation is favored by an increase in which of the following? A. Hyaluronidase B. Leukocyte migration C. Vascular permeability D. Osmotic pressure of plasma E. Number of endothelial junctions

C. Vascular permeability

Excessive deposits of copper in liver cells, degenerative changes in the brain, and a greenish-brown ring at the outer margin of the cornea characterize which of the following? A. Galactosemia B. Phenylketonuria C. Wilson's disease D. Diabetes mellitus E. Tay-Sachs disease

C. Wilson's disease

Which of the following features helps to distinguish a maxillary lateral incisor from a mandibular lateral incisor? The maxillary lateral has A. a thinner incisal, ridge. B. a crown more twisted on the root. C. a more pronounced lingual foss D. a root that is flattened mesiodistally. a mesioincisal angle that is sharper

C. a more pronounced lingual foss

The majority of cases of pharyngitis are caused by A. alpha-hemolytic streptococci. B. Staphylococcus aureus. C. a variety of viruses. D. herpes simplex virus. E. hemophilus influenzae.

C. a variety of viruses.

The MOST important characteristic of malignant neoplasms, which distinguish them from benign neoplasms, is their A. nonencapsulation. B. rapid growth rate. C. ability to metastasize. D. lack of differentiation. E. excessive mitotic activity.

C. ability to metastasize.

Decreased response of sense organs when exposed to a constant stimulus is called A. occlusion. B. summation. C. adaptation. D. facilitation. E. sensory deprivation.

C. adaptation.

91) A substance alters the rate of an enzymatic reaction by binding to the enzyme at a site other than the active site. The substance described is a (an) A. uncoupler. B. covalent modifier. C. allosteric inhibitor. D. competitive inhibitor. E. post-translational modifier.

C. allosteric inhibitor.

A marked fall from normal in the oxygen tension in arterial blood would stimulate the receptors in the A. central nervous system chemoreceptors. B. aortic arch and the carotid sinus. C. aortic and carotid bodies. D. walls of the great veins. E. respiratory center.

C. aortic and carotid bodies.

A 53-year-oid patient has an indurated, chronic ulcer near the inner canthus. The MOST likely diagnosis is A. verruca vulgaris. B. malignant melanoma. C. basal cell carcinoma. D. squamous cell carcinoma. E. adenocarcinoma of the lacrimal duct.

C. basal cell carcinoma.

133) Hepatitis C virus infection is MOST often transmitted through A. sexual contact. B. oral secretions. C. blood transfusions. D. the fecal-oral route. E. respiratory droplets. (Site didn't have answer, I think it's C)

C. blood transfusions.

23) Compared to skeletal muscle contraction, smooth muscle contraction A. requires more energy for a given tension. B. occurs several times more rapidly. C. can be maintained for a longer time. D. is unaffected by the autonomic nervous system.

C. can be maintained for a longer time.

Beta 1-4 linkages connect N-acetyl glucosamine and N-acetyl muramic acid. The resulting polymer is found in bacterial A. flagella. B. capsules. C. cell walls. D. metachromatic granules.

C. cell walls.

10) The enzyme catalyzing the rate-controlling step in the de novo synthesis of fatty acids is regulated allosterically by the positive modulator: A. ATP. B. NADPH. C. citrate. D. cyclic AMP. E. oxaloacetate.

C. citrate.

The chemotactic accumulation of leukocytes at the site of immune complex deposition is a result of A. steroids. B. histamine. C. complement. D. antihistamines.

C. complement.

Decreased arterial pressure upon standing is compensated by A. decreased heart rate. B. dilation of mesenteric vessels. C. constriction of systemic arterioles. D. dilation of venules.

C. constriction of systemic arterioles.

The anatomic crown is that portion of a tooth that is A. in occlusion. B. exposed to oral fluids. C. coronal to the cervical line. D. occlusal to the gingival margins.

C. coronal to the cervical line.

54) Which of the following anterior primary rami form the medial cord of the brachial plexus? A. C-4 and C-5 B. C-6 and C-7 C. C-5, C-6, and C-7 D. C-8 and T-1 E. T-2 and T-3

D. C-8 and T-1

Some medications can be absorbed through the mucosa of the tongue's ventral surface and through the mucosa of the floor of the mouth. This absorption can take place in these areas because the mucosa is A. covered by pseudostratified squamous epithelium. B. covered by simple squamous epithelium with a vascular lamina propria. C. covered by thin nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium with a thin lamina propria. D. covered by keratinized stratified squamous epithelium that contains numerous capillaries. E. pierced by the ducts of numerous minor salivary glands through which some types of medication are easily absorbed.

C. covered by thin nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium with a thin lamina propria.

Dentinal tubules are S-shaped in the crown of the tooth due to the A. incremental pattern. B. epithelial diaphragm. C. crowding of odontoblasts. D. formation of peritubular dentin. E. calcification pattern of maturing dentin.

C. crowding of odontoblasts.

96) Maturation of enamel is characterized by a percentage increase in inorganic content and a percentage A. increase in water. B. increase in organic content. C. decrease in water and decrease in organic content. D. decrease in water and increase in organic content. E. increase in water and decrease in organic content.

C. decrease in water and decrease in organic content.

The bulk of a tooth consists of A. pulp. B. crown. C. dentin. D. enamel. E. cementum.

C. dentin.

The developmental groove between the distofacial cusp and the distal cusp of a mandibular first molar is the A. facial. B. distal. C. distofacial. D. mesiofacial. E. distal oblique.

C. distofacial.

Difficulty in swallowing refers to A. dyspnea. B. achalasia. C. dysphagia. D. hemetemesis.

C. dysphagia.

A person is playing tennis in a dry climate in which the temperature is 110oF. Most of this person's heat loss occurs by A. alteration in hypothalamic setpoint. B. enhanced baroreceptor activity. C. enhanced sympathetic activity. D. enhanced parasympathetic activity.

C. enhanced sympathetic activity.

The MOST common source of massive hematemesis in alcoholics is (are) A. peptic ulcer. B. acute gastritis. C. esophageal varices. D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome. E. acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis.

C. esophageal varices.

In cervical cross-section, the root of a mandibular canine is described as A. triangular. B. roughly conical. C. flattened in a mesiodistal direction. D. broader mesiodistally on the lingual than on the facial.

C. flattened in a mesiodistal direction.

39) Before swallowing can be initiated, afferent information must be received A. from muscle spindles, indicating the consistency of a soft bolus of food. B. in a lesser amount from nociceptors, indicating a soft bolus of food. C. from mucosal mechanoreceptors, indicating the consistency of a soft bolus of food. D. from pharyngeal taste receptors, indicating the consistency of a soft bolus of food.

C. from mucosal mechanoreceptors, indicating the consistency of a soft bolus of food.

Hydrolysis of sucrose by the enzyme sucrase yields A. glucose only. B. glucose and maltose. C. glucose and fructose. D. glucose and galactose. E. fructose and maltose.

C. glucose and fructose.

Primary teeth differ from permanent teeth in that primary teeth A. have longer crowns compared with their mesiodistal diameters. B. are smaller mesiodistally than their replacement teeth. C. have comparatively larger pulp cavities. D. have less pronounced cervical ridges. E. have wider crowns faciolingually.

C. have comparatively larger pulp cavities.

Which of the following differentiates mandibular premolars from maxillary premolars? Mandibular premolars A. have pulp horns of equal size. B. have lingual cusps less developed. C. have crowns tilted to the facial. D. have roots much less round and bifurcated. E. have trapezoidal-shaped facial surfaces.

C. have crowns tilted to the facial.

89) In the oral region, the lingual artery usually is found between the A. lingual and hypoglossal nerves. B. mylohyoid and geniohyoid muscles. C. hyoglossus and genioglossus muscles. D. sublingual duct and hypoglossal nerve. E. oral mucous membrane and the anterior belly of the digastric muscle.

C. hyoglossus and genioglossus muscles.

Metastatic calcifications are most likely to be the result of A. gallstones. B. atherosclerosis. C. hyperparathyroidism. D. osteogenic sarcoma. E. lymphatic spread of lung cancer.

C. hyperparathyroidism.

162) This patient's internal temperature is monitored by central thermoreceptors located in the A. medulla. B. cerebellum. C. hypothalamus. D. anterior pituitary. E. posterior pituitary.

C. hypothalamus.

The biologic effect of exotoxin A produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa is to A. increase membrane permeability. B. inactivate IgG. C. inhibit protein synthesis. D. increase levels of cAMP. E. inhibit DNA synthesis.

C. inhibit protein synthesis.

The fluid-mosaic model for membrane structures proposes that A. the outer and inner faces of the membrane are identical. B. peripheral proteins are situated only on the outer face of the plasma membrane. C. integral proteins are associated with the hydrophobic phase of the bilayer. D. both polar and nonpolar ends of membrane phospholipids are within the hydrophobic phase of the bilayer.

C. integral proteins are associated with the hydrophobic phase of the bilayer.

49) Question 49 of 100 The arrow in the illustration indicates the path taken by opposing cusps. The mandibular movement indicated is A. protrusive B. right lateral; laterotrusive. C. left lateral; laterotrusive. D. right lateral; mediotrusive. E. left lateral; mediotrusive.

C. left lateral; laterotrusive.

The left recurrent laryngeal nerve is closely related at its beginning to the A. left subclavian artery. B. arch of the aorta and the left pulmonary veins. C. ligamentum arteriosum and the arch of the aorta. D. pulmonary trunk and the left brachiocephalic vein. E. ligamentum arteriosum and the left brachiocephalic vein

C. ligamentum arteriosum and the arch of the aorta.

Endochondral ossification occurs in the formation of A. all bones. B. flat bones. C. long bones. D. elastic cartilage. E. mesenchymal sheets.

C. long bones.

In anemia resulting from drug-induced bone marrow suppression, the peripheral blood smear shows erythrocytes to be A. hypochromic - microcytic. B. hypochromic - normocytic. C. normochromic- normocytic. D. normochromic- microcytic. E. hyperchromic - macrocytic.

C. normochromic- normocytic.

78) The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation shows that A. dilution of a buffer increases its pH. B. pH = pka when an acid is 0.1 N. C. pH = pka when an acid is half neutralized. D. pH is independent of the dissociation constant of the acid.

C. pH = pka when an acid is half neutralized.

A patient bites down rapidly on an unexpected hard surface while chewing. Cessation of motor unit recruitment in jaw closing muscles is caused by stimulation of A. muscle spindles. B. mucosal mechanoreceptors. C. periodontal mechanoreceptors. D. nociceptors in the dental pulp

C. periodontal mechanoreceptors.

A patient bites down rapidly on an unexpected hard surface while chewing. Cessation of motor unit recruitment in jaw closing muscles is caused by stimulation of A. muscle spindles. B. mucosal mechanoreceptors. C. periodontal mechanoreceptors. D. nociceptors in the dental pulp.

C. periodontal mechanoreceptors.

Initially, the developing heart is A. induced by the notochord. B. positioned posterior to the notochord. C. positioned anterior to the prochordal plate. D. between the prochordal plate and the notochord.

C. positioned anterior to the prochordal plate.

Secretory IgA functions primarily by A. killing bacteria via a lytic mechanism. B. targeting microorganisms for phagocytosis. C. preventing the pathogen from adhering to mucosal surfaces. D. facilitating the pathogen's adherence to inappropriate tissues. E. the induction of specific cytokines in gut associated lymphoid tissue.

C. preventing the pathogen from adhering to mucosal surfaces.

21) The sensory receptors serving the stretch reflex are classified as A. nociceptors. B. chemoreceptors. C. proprioceptors. D. exteroceptors.

C. proprioceptors.

14) Facilitated diffusion DIFFERS from active transport in that net transport by facilitated diffusion A. has a transport maximum. B. uses ATP as an energy source. C. requires a concentration gradient. D. occurs as an endergonic (positive AG) process.

C. requires a concentration gradient.

14) Meiosis occurs in A. ductus epididymis. B. uriniferous tubules. C. seminiferous tubules. D. stratum germinativum. E. germinal epithelium of ovary.

C. seminiferous tubules.

25) The muscularis externa of the esophagus in the lower one third consists of A. mostly skeletal muscle, but some smooth muscle. B. equal amounts of smooth and skeletal muscles. C. smooth muscle only. D. skeletal muscle only.

C. smooth muscle only.

The vertebral artery is typically a branch of the A. aorta. B. axillary artery. C. subclavian artery. D. brachiocephalic artery. E. common carotid artery.

C. subclavian artery.

The trigeminal nerve distributes special visceral efferent nerve fibers to A. temporalis and frontalis. B. temporalis and buccinator. C. tensor veli palatini and tensor tympani. D. posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid.

C. tensor veli palatini and tensor tympani.

If the plasma clearance of a substance which is freely filtered is less than that of inulin, then A. the substance becomes bound to protein in the tubules. B. there is net secretion of the substance in the tubules. C. there is a net reabsorption of the substance in the tubules. D. the substance is neither secreted nor reabsorbed in the tubules. E. the substance is secreted in the proximal tubule to a greater degree than it is in the distal tubule.

C. there is a net reabsorption of the substance in the tubules. D. the substance is neither secreted nor reabsorbed in the tubules.

As blood flows through the periodontal membrane, tremendous pressures occur in response to forceful occlusion. Blood flow is temporarily reduced, but platelets do not aggregate because of the presence of A. Ca++. B. ADP. C. thrombin. D. thromboxane A2. E. prostacyclin (PgI2)

C. thrombin.

Fluorouracil produces an active site-directed inhibitor for the enzyme A. trypsin. B. chymotrypsin. C. thymidylate synthase. D. adenosine deaminase. E. fluorocitrate synthase

C. thymidylate synthase.

Rough pneumococci that are grown in the presence of DNA from smooth pneumococci develop capsules. A. This process is termed B. translation. C. transduction. D. transformation. E. conjugation.

C. transduction.

Each of the following structures of the posterior triangle are deep to its fascial floor EXCEPT the A. phrenic nerve. B. brachial plexus. C. transverse cervical nerve. D. transverse cervical artery.

C. transverse cervical nerve.

The organic component of dentin is comprised primarily of A. keratin. B. reticular fibers. C. type I collagen. D. type II and III collagen. E. oxytalan fibers.

C. type I collagen.

75) The pyramids contain A. pain fibers. B. sensory fibers. C. upper motor neuron fibers only. D. lower motor neuron fibers only. E. upper and lower motor neuron fibers.

C. upper motor neuron fibers only.

In an adult, a Babinski sign indicates damage to A. the dorsal horn. B. lower motor neurons. C. upper motor neurons. D. the lateral spinothalamic tract. E. the dorsal spinocerebellar tract.

C. upper motor neurons.

Under physiologic conditions, the LOWEST partial pressure of oxygen is found in A. expired air. B. alveolar air. C. venous blood. D. arterial blood. E. normal atmosphere air.

C. venous blood.

In a molar, root canals usually join the pulp chamber A. at the level of the furcation. B. at varying levels, dependent upon age. C. within the cervical third of the crown. D. apical to the cervical level of the crown.

C. within the cervical third of the crown.

At 9 years of age how many primary teeth remain in the mouth? A. O B. 4 C. 8 D. 12 E. 18

D. 12

The patient's white cell count reveals virtually no neutrophils. Which of the following BEST explains the reason for this phenomenon? A. Continuous challenge from infections has exhausted neutrophils. B. Normal neutrophils are being phagocytized by leukemic cells. C. Neutrophils have been lost due to severe hemorrhage. D. Bone marrow has been replaced by leukemic cells.

D. Bone marrow has been replaced by leukemic cells.

167) This patient's gingival swelling will elicit sensations of pain that will travel via which of the following? A. Chorda tympani B. Buccal branch of the facial nerve C. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. Buccal nerve E. Temporal branch of the facial nerve

D. Buccal nerve

Which of the following two muscles attach to the pterygomandibular raphe? A. Buccinator and palatopharyngeus B. Medial pterygoid and palatopharyngeus C. Levator veli palatini and palatopharyngeus D. Buccinator and superior pharyngeal constrictor

D. Buccinator and superior pharyngeal constrictor

43) Which of the following is MOST likely to result from increased vagal activity? A. Increased heart rate B. Increased stroke volume C. Increased cardiac output D. Decreased cardiac oxygen consumption E. Decreased transit time through the AV node

D. Decreased cardiac oxygen consumption

A patient presents with symptoms of an acute abscess on the maxillary left lateral incisor. There are no clinical signs of decay or restoration. Radiographically, which of the following will most likely be shown as the cause of the abscess? A. Agenesis B. Dilaceration C. Concrescence D. Dens in dente E. Enamel pearls

D. Dens in dente

Which of the following is the LEAST likely complication of nodular prostatic hyperplasia? A. Dysuria B. Hydronephrosis C. Pyelonephritis D. Development of carcinoma E. Urinary tract obstruction

D. Development of carcinoma

Which of the following represents the disease in which patients usually are overweight, respond well to diet and exercise, do NOT have high levels of ketone bodies in their blood, and do NOT require exogenous hormone injections to recover? A. Acromegaly B. Hypothyroidic dwarfism C. Diabetes mellitus Type I D. Diabetes mellitus Type II E. Familial hypercholesterolemia

D. Diabetes mellitus Type II

The greatest difficulty in removing calculus from the root trunk area of molars is seen on which of the following surfaces? A. Mesial of mandibular second B. Distal of mandibular second C. Lingual of maxillary second D. Distal of maxillary first E. Mesial of mandibular first

D. Distal of maxillary first

Which of the following anatomic structures of a maxillary first molar moves through the distofacial groove of a mandibular first molar? A. Mesial marginal ridge B. Distal marginal ridge C. Mesiofacial cusp D. Distofacial cusp E. Oblique ridge

D. Distofacial cusp

The arrow in the illustration below represents the path taken by an opposing cusp. Which of the following is the cusp and mandibular movement indicated by the arrow? A. Facial cusp of a second premolar, retrusive B. Mesiofacial cusp of a first molar, protrusive C. Mesiofacial cusp of a second molar, laterotrusive D. Distofacial cusp of a first molar, protrusive

D. Distofacial cusp of a first molar, protrusive

Which of the following incisal angles of maxillary teeth exhibits the greatest convexity? A. Mesioincisal of the central B. Distoincisal of the central C. Mesioincisal of the lateral D. Distoincisal of the lateral

D. Distoincisal of the lateral

Each of the following cusps of the maxillary molars is part of the maxillary molar primary cusp triangle EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Mesiofacial B. Mesiolingual C. Distofacial D. Distolingual

D. Distolingual

In an ideal intercuspal relation, the arrow on the illustration represents the path taken by which cusp of which molar? A. Mesiofacial cusp -> Second molar B. Mesiolingual cusp -> Second molar C. Distofacial cusp -> Second molar D. Distolingual cusp -> Second molar E. Mesiolingual cusp -> Third molar

D. Distolingual cusp -> Second molar

1) Which of the following does a human normally possess before birth but not after? A. Fossa ovalis B. Hepatic vein C. Ligamentum teres D. Ductus arteriosus E. Crista terminalis

D. Ductus arteriosus

ln right laterotrusive movement, the lingual cusp of a maxillary right second premolar passes through which of the following mandibular structures? A. Facial groove of the right first molar B. Lingual groove of the right first molar C. Embrasure between the right first premolar and the right second premolar D. Embrasure between the right second premolar and the right first molar

D. Embrasure between the right second premolar and the right first molar

Synaptic vesicle contents are released at the neuromuscular junction when which of the following occurs? A. Hyperpolarization of motor end-plate B. Shortening of skeletal muscle C. Release of ATP from nerve terminal D. Entry of calcium at nerve terminal E. Release of acetylcholine from motor end-plate

D. Entry of calcium at nerve terminal

Which of the following represents the etiologic agent of travelers' diarrhea? A. Clostridium difficile B. Shigella sonnei C. Campylobacterjejuni D. Escherichia coli E. Vibrio cholera

D. Escherichia coli

Each of the following can produce a genotypic change EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? A. Conjugation B. Lysogenization C. Transformation D. Exposure to tetracycline

D. Exposure to tetracycline

Which of the following is the single MOST numerous group of microorganisms in the oral cavity? A. Enterococci B. Staphylococci C. Anaerobic streptococci D. Facultative streptococci E. Beta-hemolytic streptococci

D. Facultative streptococci

Which of the following represents the MOST frequent cause of a clinically palpable breast mass in an adult woman? A. Sarcoma B. Fibroadenoma C. Adenocarcinoma D. Fibrocystic disease E. Intraductal papilloma

D. Fibrocystic disease

Which of the following represents a muscle that might assist in depressing the mandible? A. Masseter B. Stylohyoid C. Temporalis D. Geniohyoid E. Medial pterygoid

D. Geniohyoid

Which of the following are pure serous glands? A. Sublingual glands B. Glands of Brunner C. Submandibular glands D. Glands of von Ebner E. Glands of Blandin-Nuhn

D. Glands of von Ebner

Pain fibers from the posterior third of the tongue travel with which cranial nerve? A. Vagus B. Facial C. Trigeminal D. Glossopharyngeal E. Hypoglossal

D. Glossopharyngeal

The major cariogenic property of Streptococcus mutans is associated with its ability to produce which of the following enzymes? A. Hyaluronidase B. Chondroitinase C. Aminopeptidase D. Glucosyltransferase E. Fructosyltransferase

D. Glucosyltransferase

Which of the following characterizes the generator potential of a receptor? A. An all-or-none response B. Propagated in a non-decremental manner C. Universally present in all nerve tissues D. Graded according to the strength of the stimulus

D. Graded according to the strength of the stimulus

191) The deviation of the patient's mandible is MOST likely due to lack of function of which of the following muscles? A. Left medial pterygoid B. Right medial pterygoid C. Masseter D. Left lateral pterygoid E. Right lateral pterygoid

D. Left lateral pterygoid

Compared with intertubular dentin, peritubular dentin is characterized by which of the following? A. Greater stainability B. Higher quantity of fluids C. Lesser content of inorganic salts D. Greater content of inorganic salts E. Greater content of large collagen fibers

D. Greater content of inorganic salts

41) The antigenic component of which of the following vaccines is a capsular antigen? A. Influenza B. Poliovirus C. Hepatitis B D. Haemophilus influenzae

D. Haemophilus influenzae

Which of the following BEST characterizes hydroxyapatite? A. Has an amphiphilic surface B. Contains 12 ions per unit cell C. As found in bone and enamel contains no ion substitutions D. Has a higher solubility product constant than fluoroapatite

D. Has a higher solubility product constant than fluoroapatite

106) Which of the following statements BEST describes hydroxyapatite in enamel? A. Has a nonpolar surface B. Has 10 ions in each unit cell C. Contains no ion substitutions D. Has a higher solubility than fluorapatite E. Has a solubility that decreases as the pH decreases

D. Has a higher solubility than fluorapatite

Which of the following statements best characterizes the maxillary canines? A. Have only 3-point angles B. Erupt between the ages of 9 and 10 years C. Possess a root system that suggests bifurcation D. Have roots that, although under bone, dictate alveolar wall morphology E. Are narrower through the crowns and root on the facial than on the lingual surface

D. Have roots that, although under bone, dictate alveolar wall morphology

Which of the following is an intracellular parasite? A. Aspergillus flavus B. Nocardia asteroides C. Coccidioides immitis D. Histoplasma capsulatum E. Cryptococcus neoformans

D. Histoplasma capsulatum

87) Which of the following is MOST likely to promote depolymerization of extracellular matrix? A. Cortisone B. Collagenase C. Chymotrypsin D. Hyaluronidase

D. Hyaluronidase

Which of the following is most likely to promote depolymerization of extracellular matrix? A. Cortisone B. Collagenase C. Chymotrypsin D. Hyaluronidase

D. Hyaluronidase

29) Which of the following is LEAST descriptive of lipids? A. Nonpolar B. Carbon-containing C. Amphipathic D. Hydrophilic

D. Hydrophilic

Osteoporosis can be associated with each of the following EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? A. Prolonged corticosteroid administration B. Prolonged immobilization C. Chronic malnutrition D. Hypervitaminosis D E. Advanced age

D. Hypervitaminosis D

Which of the following characterizes edema associated with the nephrotic syndrome? A. Polyuria B. Hematuria C. Hyperlipidemia D. Hypoalbuminemia E. Hypoprothrobinemia

D. Hypoalbuminemia

187) Sudden onset of a seizure in this patient would MOST likely be due to which of the following? A. Hypoxia B. Ketoacidosis C. Hyponatremia D. Hypoglycemia E. Hyperglycemia

D. Hypoglycemia

Which of the following cranial nerves contain parasympathetic preganglionic fibers? A. II, III, IV, and V B. III, IV, V, and VI C. III, V, VII, and IX D. III, VII, IX, and X E. VII, IX, X, and XI

D. III, VII, IX

43) As the severity of periodontal disease progresses, there is an increase in plasma cells that produce which of the following? A. slgA B. IgD C. IgE D. IgG E. IgM

D. IgG

Which of the following represents the predominant serum immunoglobulin found during a memory response? A. IgA B. IgD C. IgE D. IgG E. s-IgA

D. IgG

Which of the following mechanisms would most likely be involved in the development of acute pulmonary edema in a patient with congestive heart failure? A. Increased vascular permeability B. Increased plasma osmotic pressure C. Decreased plasma osmotic pressure D. Increased intravascular hydrostatic pressure E. Decreased intravascular hydrostatic pressure

D. Increased intravascular hydrostatic pressure

This patient will MOST likely be predisposed to which of the following? A. Muscle spasm B. Reduced serum Ca++ levels C. lncreased osteoblastic activity D. Increased likelihood of bone fracture

D. Increased likelihood of bone fracture

On the non-working side in an ideal occlusion, interfering contacts on posl teeth will be located on which inclines of which cusps? (inclines --> cusps) A. Outer incline --> Guiding cusps B. Inner incline --> Guiding cusps C. Outer incline --> Supporting cusps D. Inner incline --> Supporting cusps

D. Inner incline --> Supporting cusps

150) Which of the following nerves pierces the thyrohyoid membrane? A. Inferior laryngeal B. Recurrent laryngeal C. External branch of the superior laryngeal D. Internal branch of the superior laryngeal E. Pharyngeal branch of the vagus

D. Internal branch of the superior laryngeal

Which of the following best describes the cervical margin on the facial crown surface of the maxillary first molar? A. Straight B. Evenly convex toward the apex C. Evenly convex toward the occlusal D. Irregularly convex toward the apex E. Irregularly convex toward the occlusal

D. Irregularly convex toward the apex

16) Each of the following statements regarding aldosterone is correct EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Is a mineralocorticoid. B. Increases Na+ uptake from the kidneys. C. Production is stimulated by angiotensin II. D. Is produced in the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex.

D. Is produced in the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex.

Which of the following describes the effect of a drug that inhibits renal carbonic anhydrase? A. It decreases urea clearance. B. It increases the Tm for glucose. C. It increases the acidity of the urine. D. It decreases sodium reabsorption in the proximal tubule.

D. It decreases sodium reabsorption in the proximal tubule.

The oral part of the pharynx communicates directly with the oral cavity and which of the following areas? A. Trachea and esophagus B. Trachea and maxillary sinus C. Larynx and tympanic cavity D. Laryngopharynx and nasopharynx E. Laryngopharynx and nasal cavity

D. Laryngopharynx and nasopharynx

Each of the following muscles is a primary elevator of the mandible EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Masseter B. Temporalis C. Medial pterygoid D. Lateral pterygoid

D. Lateral pterygoid

30) The ability to concentrate urine varies among animal species. The maximum urine concentration that can be produced by an animal is MOST closely related to which of the following? A. Renal blood flow B. Total number of nephrons C. Glomerular filtration rate D. Length of the loop of Henle E. Diameter of the distal tubule

D. Length of the loop of Henle

40) When the mandible moves to the right, the mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary right first molar passes through which groove of the mandibular right first molar? A. Mesiomarginal B. Distofacial C. Mesiofacial D. Lingual E. Central

D. Lingual

Microbial analysis reveals that the flora of the abscess of Tooth #28 consists predominantly of P. gingivalis. The inflammation is caused primarily by which component of this microorganism? A. Exotoxin B. M-protein C. Lipoteichoic acid D. Lipopolysaccharide

D. Lipopolysaccharide

Which of the following represents an endotoxic cellular component of many gram-negative bacteria that accumulates in the gingival crevice in the absence of good oral hygiene? A. Cytoplasmic RNA B. Flagellar protein C. Capsular polysaccharides D. Lipopolysaccharide-protein complex E. Bacterial metabolites including enzymes

D. Lipopolysaccharide-protein complex

Which of the following organs secretes insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1), and what stimulates this secretion? A. Anterior pituitary, increasing IGF-RH in the blood B. Anterior pituitary, increasing GRH in the blood C. Kidney, increasing growth hormone in the blood D. Liver, increasing growth hormone in the blood E. Liver, increasing TSH in the blood

D. Liver, increasing growth hormone in the blood

13) Three days ago, a patient received her third immunization with tetanus toxoid. What class of antibodies specific for tetanus toxoid would one expect to find in her serum? A. Similar concentrations of IgM and IgG B. High concentrations of both IgM and IgD C. Low concentration of IgM; high concentration of IgE D. Low concentration of IgM; high concentration of IgG E. High concentration of IgM; low concentration of IgG

D. Low concentration of IgM; high concentration of IgG

Ovulation is triggered by a marked increase in which of the following? A. Estrogen B. Estradiol C. Progesterone D. Luteinizing hormone E. Follicle-stimulating hormone

D. Luteinizing hormone

Which of the following represents the histologic type of Hodgkin's disease that offers the most favorable prognosis? A. Mixed cellularity B. Nodular sclerosis C. Lymphocytic depletion D. Lymphocytic predominance

D. Lymphocytic predominance

Production of exotoxins by Corynebacterium diphtheriae requires which of the following genetic processes? A. Mutation B. Conjugation C. Transformation D. Lysogenic conversion

D. Lysogenic conversion

Which of the following teeth represents the one most likely to present with three roots? A. Mandibular central incisor B. Mandibular second premolar C. Mandibular canine D. Maxillary first premolar E. Maxillary second premolar

D. Maxillary first premolar

The distolingual cusp of which of the following molars might be absent? A. Maxillary first B. Mandibular first C. Mandibular third D. Maxillary third

D. Maxillary third

166) Each of the following muscles is constrained in function due to the patient's condition EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Digastric B. Mylohyoid C. Geniohyoid D. Medial pterygoid E. Lateral pterygoid

D. Medial pterygoid

199) Examination of a portion of the left mandible shows a torn piece of muscle attached on the medial side near the angle of the mandible. This is which of the following muscles? A. Buccal B. Masseter C. Temporalis D. Medial pterygoid E. Inferior head of the pterygoid

D. Medial pterygoid

129) Identify the anterior tooth that MOST frequently exhibits a bifurcated root and identify the positions of the roots. A. Tooth B. Root Position C. Maxillary lateral D. Mesial and distal incisor E. Maxillary lateral

D. Mesial and distal incisor

60) During endodontic therapy, one will usually find two pulp canals in which of the following? A. Mandibular canine B. Distofacial root of a maxillary molar C. Distal root of a mandibular first molar D. Mesial root of a mandibular first molar E. Lingual root of a maxillary first molar

D. Mesial root of a mandibular first molar

When a fourth root canal exists in a maxillary first molar, it is most likely located in which of the following roots? A. Lingual B. Distofacial C. Distolingual D. Mesiofacial E. Mesiolingual

D. Mesiofacial

12) In an ideal intercuspal relation, the mesiofacial cusp of the maxillary first molar opposes which morphologic entity of the mandibular first molar? A. Central fossa B. Lingual groove C. Distofacial groove D. Mesiofacial groove

D. Mesiofacial groove

Which of the following roots MOST likely has two canals? A. Facial root of the maxillary first premolar B. Palatal root of the maxillary first molar C. Distofacial root of the maxillary first molar D. Mesiofacial root of the maxillary first molar E. Distal root of the mandibular first molar

D. Mesiofacial root of the maxillary first molar

151) Each of the following conditions involves changes in numbers of cells in an organ or tissue EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Aplasia B. Hyperplasia C. Hypoplasia D. Metaplasia

D. Metaplasia

Which of the following amino acids contains one or more atoms of sulfur per molecule? A. Valine B. Lysine C. Alanine D. Methionine E. Phenylalanine

D. Methionine

Which of the following conditions might be an initial manifestation of early, acute HIV infection? A. Kaposi's sarcoma B. Wasting syndrome C. Oral hairy leukoplakia D. Mononucleosis-like syndrome E. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia

D. Mononucleosis-like syndrome

The stretch reflex is an example of which of the following reflexes? A. Withdrawal B. Nociceptive C. Polysynaptic D. Monosynaptic

D. Monosynaptic

55) Which of the following is necessary for de novo synthesis of cholesterol? A. NA+ B. NADH C. NADP+ D. NADPH E. FADH2

D. NADPH

Which of the following is the major storage form of iron in the body? A. Transferrin B. Hemosiderin C. Apoferritin D. Hemoglobin E. Ferritin

E. Ferritin

ln the presence of sucrose, Streptococcus mutans produces A. L-forms. B. very long chains of cocci. C. regular diploid pairs rather than chains. D. deposits of a gummy polysaccharide called glucan. E. a very thick wall of muramic acid and mucopeptide substances.

D. deposits of a gummy polysaccharide called glucan.

Hypoactivity of the posterior pituitary gland leads to A. dwarfism. B. cretinism. C. acromegaly. D. diabetes insipidus.

D. diabetes insipidus.

In the comparison of the rhomboidal and heart-shaped crown outlines of maxillary molars, the crown portion that differs MOST in contour and size is the A. mesiofacial. B. distofacial. C. mesiolingual. D. distolingual.

D. distolingual.

23) During fetal development, blood is shunted from the pulmonary artery to the aortic arch by means of the A. foramen ovale. B. sinus venosus. C. ductus venosus. D. ductus arteriosus. E. foramen secundum.

D. ductus arteriosus.

7) Submucosal glands are usually located in the A. colon. B. jejunum. C. appendix. D. duodenum. E. fundus of the stomach.

D. duodenum.

76) The prochordal plate consists of A. embryonic endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm. B. a circular area anterior to the notochord in which the endoderm is fused to the embryonic mesoderm. C. the cloacal membrane and the overlying amnion. D. endoderm of the roof of the yolk sac and embryonic ectoderm. E. the cardiogenic mesoderm and the neurectoderm.

D. endoderm of the roof of the yolk sac and embryonic ectoderm.

The main route of calcium excretion from a normal human adult is A. urine. B. sweat. C. saliva. D. feces. E. tears.

D. feces.

The root tip MOST likely to be forced into the maxillary sinus during surgical removal is the of a maxillary A. central incisor. B. canine. C. first premolar. D. first molar.

D. first molar.

22) The middle meningeal artery enters the cranial vault through the A. foramen ovale. B. foramen lacerum. C. foramen rotundum. D. foramen spinosum. E. superior orbital fissure.

D. foramen spinosum.

) The rapid emergence of new strains of human immunodeficiency virus is primarily the result of A. the frequent genomic recombination between human immunodeficiency virus and other retroviruses. B. frequent errors in the translation of viral proteins. C. the lack of immune response to the viral envelope glycoprotein. D. frequent errors introduced by viral reverse transcriptase. E. the imprecision of protein cleavage by viral protease.

D. frequent errors introduced by viral reverse transcriptase.

The unique amino acid composition of collagen is reflected in the high content of A. valine, threonine, and lysine. B. desmosine, glycine, and proline. C. cysteine, tyrosine, and phenylalanine. D. glycine, proline, and hydroxyproline. E. cysteine, hydroxylysine, and proline.

D. glycine, proline, and hydroxyproline.

The spacing normally seen between the primary anterior teeth of a five-year-old child is most likely caused by A. the presence of an excessive maxillary labial frenum. B. thumb sucking. C. tongue thrusting. D. growth of the dental arches.

D. growth of the dental arches.

100) In the photomicrograph below of a ground section of a tooth viewed by transmitted light, some dentinal tubules appear black because they A. are filled with blood. B. are filled with minerals. C. are filled with bacteria. D. have become filled with air during sectioning. E. contain deeply stained odontoblastic processes.

D. have become filled with air during sectioning.

An endocrine disorder affecting the skeleton and kidney, that promotes metastatic calcification, is A. hyperadrenalism. B. hyperthyroidism. C. hyperpituitarism. D. hyperparathyroidism. E. hyperfunction of the thymus.

D. hyperparathyroidism.

36) Increased parasympathetic activity results in A. decreased salivary secretion. B. increased cardiac contractility. C. decreased gastric motility and tone. D. increased bronchiolar smooth muscle contraction.

D. increased bronchiolar smooth muscle contraction.

92) In the denervated heart, adjustments to increased workload are mediated by mechanisms associated with A. increased end systolic volume. B. decreased end systolic volume. C. decreased end diastolic volume. D. increased end diastolic volume.

D. increased end diastolic volume.

87) When arterial pressure increases, pressoreceptors discharge and A. increase cardiac rate and strength of contraction. B. cause vasoconstriction throughout the peripheral circulatory system. C. excite sympathetic nerves and inhibit parasympathetic nerves. D. inhibit tonic activity of sympathetic nerves and excite parasympathetic nerves.

D. inhibit tonic activity of sympathetic nerves and excite parasympathetic nerves.

Fibrocartilage normally occurs in A. epiglottis. B. external ear. C. epiphyseal plate. D. intervertebral discs. E. C-shaped rings in the wall of the trachea

D. intervertebral discs.

Cellulose is not digested by humans because it A. is a relatively insoluble protein-carbohydrate complex inaccessible to our digestive enzymes. B. is a mucopolysaccharide, for which there are no hydrolytic enzymes. C. is highly sulfated, making it inaccessible to most glycosidases. D. is a polymer of 13-linked glucose molecules for which we have no digestive enzymes. E. resists enzyme action because of its highly branched structure.

D. is a polymer of 13-linked glucose molecules for which we have no digestive enzymes.

Cementum differs from dentin in that cementum A. contains more inorganic material than dentin. B. is not formed following eruption of the tooth. C. can contain cells, whereas dentin contains cells as well as cell processes. D. is produced by cells of the periodontal ligament, but dentin is produced by pulp cells. E. contains some elastic fibers, whereas dentin contains only collagenous fibers.

D. is produced by cells of the periodontal ligament, but dentin is produced by pulp cells.

The outline of a pulp cavity indicates that this tooth probably A. has 3 distinct cusps. B. has experienced trauma. C. is that of an old person. D. is that of a young person.

D. is that of a young person.

In myasthenia gravis, autoantibodies are directed against which of the following structures? A. Sarcomere B. Myofascia C. Myocyte nucleus D. Sarcolemmal membrane E. Acetylcholine receptor

E. Acetylcholine receptor

During an intraoral injection to the mandibular foramen, the needle passes through the mucous membrane and the buccinator muscle. As it does so, the needle lies A. inferior to the mandibular lingula. B. superior to the auriculotemporal nerve. C. lateral to the neck of the mandible. D. lateral to the medial pterygoid muscle. E. lateral to the stylomandibular ligament.

D. lateral to the medial pterygoid muscle.

The thoracic duct empties directly into the junction of the A. superior vena cava and the azygos vein. B. left jugular and brachiocephalic veins. C. right jugular and brachiocephalic veins. D. left internal jugular and subclavian veins. E. right internal jugular and subclavian veins.

D. left internal jugular and subclavian veins.

Each of the following embryologic structures is derived from the first branchial arch EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Tuberculum impar B. Maxillary process C. Mandibular process D. lntermaxillary process E. Lateral lingual swelling

D. lntermaxillary process

Free fatty acids in plasma are A. metabolically inert. B. mainly bound to [beta]-lipoproteins. C. independent of epinephrine secretion. D. mainly associated with serum albumin.

D. mainly associated with serum albumin.

33) The hyoid bone is attached by muscles or ligaments to the A. palatine bone and the soft palate. B. epiglottis and the cricoid cartilage. C. mandible, the first rib, and the clavicle. D. mandible, the styloid process, and the tongue.

D. mandible, the styloid process, and the tongue.

12) The temporomandibular joint capsule is supplied by several nerves. Two of these are the auriculotemporal and the A. facial. B. buccal. C. maxillary. D. masseteric. E. inferior alveolar.

D. masseteric.

24) The hamular process is an extension of the A. ethmoid bone. B. palatine bone. C. maxillary tuberosity. D. medial pterygoid plate. part of sphenoid bone E. lateral pterygoid plate.

D. medial pterygoid plate. part of sphenoid bone

112) In an ideal intercuspal position, the distolingual cusp of a maxillary first molar opposes the A. central fossa of the mandibular first molar. B. lingual sulcus of the mandibular first molar. C. mesial fossa of the mandibular second molar. D. mesial marginal ridge of the mandibular second molar. E. facial embrasure between the mandibular first and second molars.

D. mesial marginal ridge of the mandibular second molar.

Two pulp canals are most commonly found in the A. root of a mandibular central incisor. B. facial root of a maxillary first premolar. C. distal root of a mandibular first molar. D. mesial root of a mandibular first molar. E. mesiofacial root of a maxillary first molar.

D. mesial root of a mandibular first molar.

42) The ossicles of the ear are located in the A. utricle. B. labyrinth. C. inner ear. D. middle ear. E. external auditory meatus.

D. middle ear.

59) Connective tissue proper is characterized as having A. poor vascularization. B. poor reparative ability. C. sensitivity as its main function. D. more intercellular material than cells. E. mast cells as the predominant cell type.

D. more intercellular material than cells.

An action potential initiated at the midpoint along the length of an axon will A. not propagate. B. propagate towards the soma C. propagate towards the nerve ending. D. propagate towards both the soma and the nerve ending.

D. propagate towards both the soma and the nerve ending.

When compared with maxillary first premolars, the central developmental groove of maxillary second premolars is A. longer with less supplementary grooves. B. shorter with less supplementary grooves. C. longer with multiple supplementary grooves. D. shorter with multiple supplementary grooves.

D. shorter with multiple supplementary grooves.

There is a distinct change in the type of surface epithelium at the junction of the A. ileum and colon. B. fundus and pylorus. C. duodenum and jejunum. D. stomach and esophagus. E. oropharynx and esophagus.

D. stomach and esophagus.

The vertebral artery is a branch of the A. brachiocephalic artery. B. external carotid artery. C. internal carotid artery, D. subclavian artery. E. thyrocervical trunk.

D. subclavian artery.

The internal thoracic artery gives rise to the A. costocervical trunk. B. posterior intercostal arteries. C. bronchial and esophageal arteries. D. superior epigastric and musculophrenic arteries.

D. superior epigastric and musculophrenic arteries.

56) The function of which of the following types of nucleic acid is to activate and select specific amino acids for protein synthesis? A. rRNA B. mRNA C. cDNA D. tRNA E. hnRNA

D. tRNA

85) The spacing between anterior teeth in the primary dentition is MOST frequently caused by A. thumb-sucking. B. tongue thrusting. C. transseptal gingival fibers. D. the growth of the dental arches. E. the pressure from succedaneous teeth.

D. the growth of the dental arches.

8) The sensory innervation to the posterior third of the tongue reflects the embryonic origin of its covering epithelium from the A. occipital somites. B. first pharyngeal (branchial) arch. C. second pharyngeal (branchial) arch. D. third pharyngeal (branchial) arch. E. fourth pharyngeal (branchial) arch.

D. third pharyngeal (branchial) arch.

A patient who has damage to the right hypoglossal nerve will protrude the tongue A. upward. B. downward. C. straight forward. D. toward the right side. E. toward the left side.

D. toward the right side.

The condyle on the laterotrusive side generally rotates about a A. sagittal axis only. B. horizontal axis only. C. horizontal axis and translates laterally. D. vertical axis and translates laterally.

D. vertical axis and translates laterally.

175) Treatment of this patient's respiratory symptoms requires activation of which of the following pathways? A. Cholinergic nicotinic B. Cholinergic muscarinic C. Adrenergic Alpha-1 D. Adrenergic Beta-1 E. Adrenergic Beta-2

E. Adrenergic Beta-2

34) Which of the following shows a relative INCREASE as the dental pulp ages? A. Number of fibroblasts B. Number of odontoblasts C. Number of blood vessels D. Size of the pulp chamber E. Amount of fibrous connective tissue

E. Amount of fibrous connective tissue

13) Which of the following represents the normal substrate of thrombin? A. Fibrin B. Thrombospondin C. Prothrombin D. Thromboplastin E. Fibrinogen

E. Fibrinogen

Which of the following nerves is associated with the second pharyngeal arch? A. Vagus B. Glossopharyngeal C. Accessory D. Mandibular E. Facial

E. Facial

Which of the following BEST characterizes the alveolar mucous membrane? A. Has no melanocytes B. Firmly bound to underlying bone C. Well developed epithelial ridges D. Separated from the gingiva by the free gingival groove E. Appears red due to high vascularity and thinness of epithelium

E. Appears red due to high vascularity and thinness of epithelium

Pathologic changes found in heart valves in rheumatic fever are the result of which of the following? A. Inborn error of metabolism B. Generalized inhibition of the inflammatory mechanism C. Liberation of nonspecific toxins from a distant site D. Direct invasion of microorganisms from the bloodstream E. Autoimmune reaction triggered by hemolytic streptococci

E. Autoimmune reaction triggered by hemolytic streptococci

Which of the following cells is most likely to be engaged in mitosis at any given time? A. Osteocyte B. Macrophage C. Plasma cell D. Chondrocyte E. Basal keratinocyte

E. Basal keratinocyte

The mylohyoid ridge (line) is found on which of the following portions of the mandible? A. Coronoid B. Neck C. Ramus D. Condyle E. Body

E. Body

The first clinical findings in prostatic cancer are often the result of metastasis to which of the following? A. Liver B. Brain C. Testes D. Adrenal gland E. Bone

E. Bone

The infrahyoid muscles receive their motor innervation from which of the following? A. Vagus nerve B. Supraclavicular nerves C. Brachial plexus D. Pharyngeal plexus E. Branches of the cervical plexus

E. Branches of the cervical plexus

Which of the following infections is often seen as a white, patchy lesion on the oral mucosa in debilitated patients? A. Coccidiomycosis B. Histoplasmosis C. Aspergillosis D. Blastomycosis E. Candidiasis

E. Candidiasis

9) Zinc is an essential component of which of the following? A. Pepsin B. Amylase C. Hexokinase D. Adenylate cyclase E. Carbonic anhydrase

E. Carbonic anhydrase

A derivative of vitamin K is the coenzyme for which of the following? A. Production of menadiol B. Esterification of retinol C. Hydrolysis of peptide bonds D. Cross-linking of fibrinogen E. Carboxylation of glutamate side chains

E. Carboxylation of glutamate side chains

5) Which of the following triangles is formed by the superior belly of the omohyoid muscle, the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, and the posterior belly of the digastric muscle? A. Superclavicular B. Submandibular C. Digastric D. Muscular E. Carotid

E. Carotid

Which form of actinomycosis occurs most frequently? A. Abdominal B. Pulmonary C. Lepromatous D. Tuberculoid E. Cervicofacial

E. Cervicofacial

70) Which of the following promotes the release of bile from the gallbladder? A. Gastrin B. Secretin C. Galla D. Bombesin E. Cholecystokinin

E. Cholecystokinin

The major function of serum LDL is to transport which of the following? A. Bile salts from the intestine B. Triglycerides from the intestine C. Free fatty acids from adipose tissue D. Cholesterol and phospholipids from peripheral tissues E. Cholesterol, cholesterol esters, and phospholipids from the liver

E. Cholesterol, cholesterol esters, and phospholipids from the liver

Which of the following represents the MOST reliable postmortem indicator of left venticular cardiac failure? A. Ascites B. Venous congestion C. Enlargement of the spleen D. Peripheral edema of the ankles E. Chronic passive congestion of the lungs

E. Chronic passive congestion of the lungs

Which of the following represents a DNA gyrase inhibitor with a broad spectrum of activity? A. Polymyxin B. Rifampicin C. Ethambutol D. Cycloserine E. Ciprofloxacin

E. Ciprofloxacin

An adult patient exhibits no evidence, either clinically or radiographically, of maxillary third molars, and there is no history of extraction. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Syphilis B. Impaction C. Mulberry molars D. Supernumerary teeth E. Congenitally missing teeth

E. Congenitally missing teeth

When fully reclined in the dental chair, the patient reports difficulty in breathing. This is MOST likely the direct result of which of the following? A. Hypoxia B. Angina pectoris C. Bronchoconstriction D. Carbon dioxide retention E. Congestive heart failure

E. Congestive heart failure

Which of the following hormones is released by the zona fasciculata and exerts permissive actions to allow insulin, glucagon and epinephrine to work more effectively at their target tissues? A. Androstenedione B. Somatomedin C. Aldosterone D. Thyroxine E. Cortisol

E. Cortisol

Which of the following bowel diseases is characterized by noncaseating granulomatous inflammation in the gut wall? A. Diverticulitis B. Peptic ulcer C. Ulcerative colitis D. Celiac disease E. Crohn's disease

E. Crohn's disease

108) Prior to surgery, an anxious patient has a higher systolic blood pressure than previously noted. Which of the following represents the MOST likely reason? A. Cardiac shock B. Anaphylactic shock C. Atrial fibrillation D. Ventricular fibrillation E. Decreased arterial compliance

E. Decreased arterial compliance

Prior to surgery, an anxious patient has a higher systolic blood pressure than previously noted. Which of the following represents the most likely reason? A. Cardiac shock B. Anaphylactic shock C. Atrial fibrillation D. Ventricular fibrillation E. Decreased arterial compliance

E. Decreased arterial compliance

32) In a healthy temporomandibular joint the articular surfaces are covered with which of the following? A. Fat B. Bone C. Hyaline cartilage D. Synovial membrane E. Dense fibrous connective tissue

E. Dense fibrous connective tissue

26) The dermis may be classified as which of the following types of connective tissue? A. Adipose B. Modified elastic C. Reticular connective D. Dense regular collagenous connective E. Dense irregular collagenous connective

E. Dense irregular collagenous connective

68) The non-working condyle performs which of the following movements? A. Straight forward B. Forward and downward C. Downward, forward, and lateral D. Downward, backward, and medial E. Downward, forward, and medial

E. Downward, forward, and medial

A patient has an extremely wide, notched tooth in the mandibular left central incisor position. Clinical and radiographic examinations reveal 28 teeth have erupted, but four third molars have not erupted. Which of the following conditions exists? A. Fusion B. Dens in dente C. Concrescence D. Dilaceration E. Gemination

E. Gemination

Which of the following represents the cranial nerve that supplies derivatives of the third bronchial arch? A. Facial B. Accessory C. Trigeminal D. Hypoglossal E. Glossopharyngeal

E. Glossopharyngeal

Primary afferent neurons in the gag reflex are carried by which of the following cranial nerves? A. Vagus (X) B. Facial (VII) C. Trigeminal (V) D. Hypoglossal (XII) E. Glossopharyngeal (IX)

E. Glossopharyngeal (IX)

21) A mucin is which of the following types of proteins? A. Simple protein B. Phosphoprotein C. Chromoprotein D. Nucleoprotein E. Glycoprotein

E. Glycoprotein

An acute arthritis of the great toe is a classic sign of which of the following diseases? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Osteoarthritis C. Osteomyelitis D. Osteoporosis E. Gout

E. Gout

55) Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers that synapse in the pterygopalatine ganglion travel in which of the following nerves? A. Maxillary B. Lesser palatine C. Lesser petrosal D. Greater palatine E. Greater petrosal

E. Greater petrosal

Which of the following disorders is X-linked recessive? A. Neurofibromatosis B. Turner syndrome C. Cystic fibrosis D. Marfan syndrome E. Hemophilia A

E. Hemophilia A

155) Which of the following conditions is a significant risk factor for the development of hepatocellular carcinoma? A. Cholestasis B. Portal hypertension C. Cholelithiasis D. Reye's syndrome E. Hepatitis C

E. Hepatitis C

Which of the following viruses are frequently associated with eye infections? A. Mumps and measles viruses B. Parainfluenza and rubella viruses C. Coxsackievirus and rhinoviruses D. Adenoviruses and reoviruses E. Herpes simplex virus and adenoviruses

E. Herpes simplex virus and adenoviruses

E. new tissue is being synthesized. Each of the following can cause glucosuria EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Low insulin level B. High blood sugar level C. Impaired tubular reabsorption D. High glomerular filtration rate E. High renal threshold for glucose

E. High renal threshold for glucose

A fungus that causes systemic disease, most commonly of the lungs, and is characterized by its production of tuberculate chlamydospores in culture is A. Microsponum cants. B. Mycoplasma hominis. C. Leptospira pomona. D. Actinomyces israelii. E. Histoplasma capsulatum.

E. Histoplasma capsulatum.

145) MOST cases of choriocarcinoma are discovered by the appearance of a rising titer in blood or urine of which of the following? A. Acid phosphatase B. Alpha-fetoprotein C. Alkaline phosphatase D. Carcinoembryonic antigen E. Human chorionic gonadotropin (Site doesn't have answer and I think it's E)

E. Human chorionic gonadotropin

A virus associated with the induction of cervical carcinoma is which of the following? A. Adenovirus B. C-type virus C. Varicella zoster virus D. Epstein-Barr virus E. Human papillomavirus

E. Human papillomavirus

Each of the following represents an amino acid found in proteins and used directly in the reactions of protein synthesis EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Proline B. Arginine C. Tryptophan D. Asparagine E. Hydroxylysine

E. Hydroxylysine

Which of the following represents a risk factor for the development of endometrial carcinoma? A. Herpes simplex virus infection B. Endometriosis C. Multiple leiomyomas D. Multiple pregnancies E. Hyperestrogenism

E. Hyperestrogenism

183) The patient's "insulin reaction" represented a sudden fall in blood glucose because he had taken his normal insulin dose but did not eat breakfast. Each of the following is a clinical manifestation of hypoglycemia EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Coma B. Dizziness C. Confusion D. Convulsion E. Hyperventilation

E. Hyperventilation

The arrows on the illustration represent the path taken by the opposing contacting cusps. The mandibular movement indicated is A. protrusive. B. right lateral; working side. C. left lateral; working side. D. right lateral; non-working side. E. Ieft lateral; non-working side.

E. Ieft lateral; non-working side

Laboratory studies reveal megaloblasts in bone marrow, and a hyperchromic, macrocytic anemia in peripheral blood. Oral examination reveals atrophic glossitis. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this condition? A. Iron deficiency B. Chronic external loss of blood C. Frequent episodes of hemolysis D. Inhibition of hematopoiesis by sulfonamides E. Inability of the stomach to form intrinsic factor

E. Inability of the stomach to form intrinsic factor

Which of the following is the principal factor underlying localized edema in inflammation? A. Lymphatic obstruction B. Obstruction of venous outflow C. Reduced intravascular osmotic pressure D. Protein leakage into tissue spaces E. Increased capillary permeability

E. Increased capillary permeability

176) The immediate consequences of this patient's respiratory difficulty include each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Hypoxia B. Tachycardia C. Hypercapnia D. Acute respiratory acidosis E. Increased renal bicarbonate production

E. Increased renal bicarbonate production

196) Upon viewing the cadaver, the dentist suddenly feels faint and experiences vasodepressor syncope. This finding might be associated with each of the following circumstances EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Pallor B. Diaphoresis C. Decreased heart rate D. Decreased cerebral blood flow E. Increased systemic blood pressure

E. Increased systemic blood pressure

Which of the following is the usual cause of chronic pyelonephritis? A. Systemic hypertension B. Type IV hypersensitivity C. Chronic glomerulonephritis D. Bacteremic seeding of the kidneys E. Infection resulting from urinary reflux

E. Infection resulting from urinary reflux

Which of the following is the same value for intracellular and interstitial fluid? A. [Na+] B. [Cl] C. [K+] D. Colloid osmotic pressure E. Total osmotic pressure

E. Total osmotic pressure

Each of the following is an effect of parathyroid hormone EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Stimulation of 1-alpha-hydroxylase in kidney B. Stimulation of osteociastic activity in bone C. Stimulation of calcium reabsorption by kidney D. Inhibition of phosphate reabsorption by kidney E. Inhibition of intestinal absorption of calcium

E. Inhibition of intestinal absorption of calcium

Hertwig's epithelial root sheath is derived from which of the following? A. Inner dental epithelium and stellate reticulum B. Inner dental epithelium and stratum intermedium C. Outer dental epithelium and stellate reticulum D. Outer dental epithelium and stratum intermedium E. Inner dental epithelium and outer dental epithelium

E. Inner dental epithelium and outer dental epithelium

Which of the following jaw positions is determined almost exclusively by tooth contact? A. Rest position B. Terminal hinge C. Maximum opening D. Maximum protrusive E. Intercuspal position

E. Intercuspal position

79) Which of the following types of dentin is the MOST highly mineralized? A. Carious B. Predentin C. Intertubular D. Interglobular E. Intra (peri) tubular

E. Intra (peri) tubular

Which of the following explains why the Barr body found in certain epithelial cells is significant? A. It suggests mitotic activity. B. It indicates protein synthesis. C. It indicates a metaplasmic change. D. It is a symptom of nuclear disintegration. E. It assists in differentiating between the sexes.

E. It assists in differentiating between the sexes.

Each of the following statements is correct regarding the levator veli palatini EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. It is an extrinsic muscle of the soft palate. B. It elevates the soft palate. C. It is innervated by the vagus nerve. D. It inserts in a palatine aponeurosis. E. It hooks under the hamulus.

E. It hooks under the hamulus.

To minimize pain when biting, the patient moves her mandible to the right and chews only on that side. Which of the following muscles primarily produces this mandibular movement? A. Right masseter B. Left temporalis C. Right medial pterygoid D. Right lateral pterygoid E. Left lateral pterygoid

E. Left lateral pterygoid

Pulmonary edema and filling of the pleural cavity by a transudate is MOST suggestive of which of the following underlying diseases? A. Cor pulmonale B. Pulmonary embolism C. Pulmonic valve stenosis D. Tricuspid valve prolapse E. Left-sided heart failure

E. Left-sided heart failure

Which of the following is the primary difference between juxtamedullary and cortical nephrons? A. Renal plasma flow B. Filtration fraction C. Length of the distal tubule D. Length of the proximal tubule E. Length of the thin segment of the loop of Henle

E. Length of the thin segment of the loop of Henle

In contrast to maxillary canine crowns, mandibular canine crowns have which of the following anatomically? A. Greater measurements, mesiodistally B. Greater measurements, faciolingually C. More accentuated marginal ridges D. Well-defined lingual pits E. Less-pronounced cingula

E. Less-pronounced cingula

Emotional feelings are MOST closely related to which area of the brain? A. Thalamus B. Brain stem C. Cerebellum D. Hypothalamus E. Limbic system

E. Limbic system

1) The submandibular ganglion is associated with which of the following nerves? A. Inferior alveolar B. Glossopharyngeal C. Maxillary D. Mylohyoid E. Lingual

E. Lingual

104) In an ideal intercuspal position, the distoincisal aspect of a mandibular central incisor opposes which structure of which maxillary incisor? A. Lingual fossa of a lateral B. Mesial marginal ridge of a lateral C. Distal marginal ridge of a central D. Mesial marginal ridge of a central E. Lingual fossa of a central

E. Lingual fossa of a central

16) Which of the following represents a polyunsaturated fatty acid that is commonly found in animal cell membranes? A. Oleic B. Lactic C. Sialic D. Stearic E. Linoleic

E. Linoleic

MOST bacterial endotoxins are composed of which of the following? A. Pure proteins B. Pure carbohydrates C. Heteropolysaccharides D. Mucoprotein complexes E. Lipoprotein-polysaccharide complexes

E. Lipoprotein-polysaccharide complexes

Most bacterial endotoxins are composed of which of the following? A. Proteins B. Carbohydrates C. Heteropolysaccharides D. Mucoprotein complexes E. Lipoprotein-polysaccharide complexes

E. Lipoprotein-polysaccharide complexes

An enzyme catalyzes a reaction by A. raising the energy of the products. B. raising the energy of the reactants. C. lowering the energy of the reactants. D. raising the energy of activation. E. Lowering the energy of activation.

E. Lowering the energy of activation.

Which of the following is a possible life-threatening sequela of the abscess of Tooth #28? A. Allodynia B. Hyperalgesia C. Non-vital pulp D. Referred pain E. Ludwig's angina

E. Ludwig's angina

86) Each of the following types of cells is phagocytic EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Monocyte B. Histiocyte C. Neutrophil D. Macrophage E. Lymphocyte

E. Lymphocyte

Protein and RNA synthesis occur in each of the following phases of the cell cycle EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. G0 B. G1 C. S D. G2 E. M

E. M

Protein and RNA synthesis occur in each of the following phases of the cell cycle EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? A. Go B. G1 C. S D. G2 E. M

E. M

Which of the following must be digested before being in a form that can be absorbed by enterocytes? A. Monoglycerides B. Fatty acids C. Fructose D. Glycine E. Maltose

E. Maltose

92) Which of the following bones is formed primarily by intramembranous ossification? A. Femur B. Tibia C. Stapes D. Humerus E. Mandible

E. Mandible

Which of the following teeth is the most likely to have a bifurcated root? A. Maxillary central incisor B. Maxillary lateral incisor C. Mandibular lateral incisor D. Maxillary canine E. Mandibular canine

E. Mandibular canine

Bacterial capsules usually consist of A. chitins. B. protein. C. celluloses. D. polypeptides. E. polysaccharides.

E. polysaccharides.

The dentin of the crown of a tooth and that of the root differ in which of the following ways? A. Root dentin contains lacunae. B. Root dentin is more highly calcified. C. Root dentin contains more tubules per given are D. Granular layer of Tomes is found primarily in the crown. E. Primary curvatures of the tubules decrease in root dentin.

E. Primary curvatures of the tubules decrease in root dentin.

Which of the following enzymes synthesizes polynucleotide chains from nucleotides and does NOT require a primer chain? A. Ligase B. Exonuclease C. Endonuclease D. DNA polymerase E. RNA polymerase

E. RNA polymerase

20) In skeletal muscle, excitation-contraction coupling is mediated by which of the following? A. Binding of calcium and calmodulin B. Efflux of potassium from transverse tubules C. A sudden rise in permeability to chloride ions D. Release of acetylcholinesterase from nerve terminals E. Release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

E. Release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

Which of the following represents the MOST common cause of bronchiolitis and pneumonia in infants? A. Measles virus B. Cytomegalovirus C. Influenza virus D. Herpes simplex virus E. Respiratory syncytial virus

E. Respiratory syncytial virus

46) DNA that is complementary to mRNA can be made using which of the following? A. A plasmid B. DNA ligase C. A retrovirus D. RNA polymerase E. Reverse transcriptase

E. Reverse transcriptase

118) Which of the following BEST describes the occlusal outline of a maxillary first molar from an occlusal view? A. Ovoid B. Square C. Rectangular D. Pentagonal E. Rhomboidal

E. Rhomboidal

Which of the following represents the MOST likely pathologic change in this patient's heart? A. Vegetations of the aortic valve B. Severe mitral valve thickening C. Hypertrophy of the left ventricle D. Necrosis in the right ventricle E. Scarring in the left ventricle

E. Scarring in the left ventricle

Which of the following primary teeth does a second premolar replace when it erupts into the oral cavity? A. Canine B. First premolar C. Second premolar D. First molar E. Second molar

E. Second molar

Which of the following BEST describes restriction enzymes? A. Exonucleases B. Topoisomerases C. Enzymes that degrade RNA D. Non-specific endonucleases E. Site-specific endonucleases

E. Site-specific endonucleases

lnfection with hepatitis C results in liver dysfunction, which might decrease the liver's ability to store glycogen. ln addition to the liver, which of the following is the other major site of glycogen storage? A. Brain B. Kidney C. Smooth muscle D. Cardiac muscle E. Skeletal muscle

E. Skeletal muscle

To which of the following does carcinoma of the prostate most often metastasize? A. Lung B. Liver C. Brain D. Spleen E. Skeleton

E. Skeleton

98) Which of the following BEST describes the primary ionic movement during the depolarization phase of a nerve action potential? A. Potassium ions moving from inside to outside the membrane B. Potassium ions moving into the fiber from interstitial fluid C. Large organic-negative ions moving from inside the fiber to outside the fiber D. Sodium ions moving from inside the membrane to outside the membrane E. Sodium ions moving from outside the membrane to inside the membrane

E. Sodium ions moving from outside the membrane to inside the membrane

Which of the following is a major function of the masticatory system? A. Tongue biting B. Tongue thrusting C. Cheek biting D. Lip sucking E. Speaking

E. Speaking

Which of the following bacterial exotoxins converts plasminogen to plasmin? A. M-protein B. Coagulase C. Plasmalysin D. Hyaluronidase E. Streptokinase

E. Streptokinase

122) Which of the following is an allosteric effector of an enzymatic reaction? A. Competitive inhibitor B. Noncompetitive inhibitor C. Substance that binds to the substrate D. Substance affecting enzymatic activity by binding to the active site E. Substance affecting enzymatic activity by binding to non-active sites

E. Substance affecting enzymatic activity by binding to non-active sites

47) Antidiuretic hormone is PRODUCED by cells that reside in which of the following structures, cells or areas? B-FLAT FSH; LH; ACTH; TSH (basophils) GPA GH; PRL (acidophils) A. Pars nervosa B. Pars intermedia C. Basophils of the pars distalis D. Acidophils of the pars distalis E. Supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus

E. Supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus

A deficiency in which of the following cells can predispose to candidiasis? A. Basophils B. Eosinophils C. Macrophages D. Plasma cells E. T lymphocytes

E. T lymphocytes

194) With the fracture of the left condyle, the condylar head remains in the mandibular fossa due to which of the following ligaments? A. Periodontal B. Otomandibular C. Stylomandibular D. Sphenomandibular E. Temporomandibular

E. Temporomandibular

This patient's feeling that her ears are "clogged" might be due to restricted function of which of the following muscles? A. Digastric B. Omohyoid C. Temporalis D. Buccinator E. Tensor veli palatini

E. Tensor veli palatini

64) When a developing carious lesion reaches the dentinoenamel junction, this will often initiate the formation of which of the following at the pulp interface of the dentin? A. Mantle dentin B. Primary dentin C. False pulp stones D. Interglobular dentin E. Tertiary (reparative) dentin

E. Tertiary (reparative) dentin

Which of the following represents the apex of the triangular-shaped boundary of the interproximal space? A. Alveolar bone B. Gingival tissue C. The marginal ridges of the adjacent teeth D. The proximal surfaces of the adjacent teeth E. The contact area of the adjacent teeth

E. The contact area of the adjacent teeth

Which of the following represent(s) the MOST common source of pulmonary embolism? A. Esophageal varices B. Endarteritis C. Lymphangitis D. Buerger's disease E. Thrombophlebitis

E. Thrombophlebitis

Which of the following is a nucleotide? A. Urate B. Uracil C. Ribose D. Adenosine E. Thymidylate

E. Thymidylate

The mixed dentition stage is normally initiated by the A. exfoliation of the primary maxillary central incisor. B. exfoliation of the primary maxillary second molar. C. exfoliation of the primary mandibular second molar. D. eruption of the maxillary first molar. E. eruption of the mandibular first molar.

E. eruption of the mandibular first molar.

4) In adults, the thyroid gland's point of origin is seen as the A. copula. B. tuberculum impar. C. sulcus terminalis. D. palatine tonsil. E. foramen cecum.

E. foramen cecum.

81) According to the Spaulding Classification System for contaminated items and surfaces, semi-critical items should be reprocessed by A. exposure to ethylene oxide. B. a spray-wipe-spray technique. C. immersion in a tuberculocidal disinfectant. D. washing with a chlorhexidine gluconate disinfectant. E. heat stabilization if the material is heat stable.

E. heat stabilization if the material is heat stable.

31) The MOST commonly accepted theory for pain reception in the dental pulp suggests that A. nerves in the dentinal tubules have receptors for pain. B. odontoblastic processes serve as the only receptors for pain. C. there are numerous Meissner's corpuscles in the pulp that respond to pain stimuli. D. nerve endings in the periodontal ligament enter the pulp through accessory canals to provide pain reception. E. hydrodynamic phenomena involving fluid flux in the tubules result in stimuli that activate pain receptors within the pulp.

E. hydrodynamic phenomena involving fluid flux in the tubules result in stimuli that activate pain receptors within the pulp.

84) Information from the hypothalamus is carried to the anterior pituitary (pars distalis) by the **read carefully A. gamma efferent system. B. hypothalamic radiation. C. hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract. D. hypothalamic association fibers. E. hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system.

E. hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system.

When viewed from the frontal plane and progressing posteriorly, the axial inclination of the crowns of maxillary posterior teeth A. remains vertical. B. inclines lingually. C. inclines distally. D. inclines mesially. E. inclines buccally.

E. inclines buccally.

18) Preganglionic sympathetic fibers to the head have their cell bodies in the A. paravertebral ganglia. B. cervicothoracic ganglia. C. superior cervical ganglia. D. gray rami communicantes of the thoracic region. E. intermediolateral horns of the thoracic spinal cord.

E. intermediolateral horns of the thoracic spinal cord.

15) Mucosa of the anterior two-thirds of the tongue develops primarily from A. Rathke's pouch. B. tuberculum impar. C. foregut endoderm. D. hypobranchial eminence. E. lateral lingual swellings.

E. lateral lingual swellings.

Mucosa of the anterior two-thirds of the tongue develops primarily from A. Rathke's pouch. B. tuberculum impar. C. foregut endoderm. D. hypobranchial eminence. E. lateral lingual swellings.

E. lateral lingual swellings.

116) Juxtamedular and cortical nephrons differ primarily in A. filtration fraction. B. location of macula densa. C. length of proximal tubule. D. length of distal convoluted tubule. E. length of the thin segment of the loop of Henle.

E. length of the thin segment of the loop of Henle.

In the intercuspal position, the cusp of Carabelli on a maxillary first molar opposes the A. distal triangular fossa of the mandibular first molar. B. mesial triangular fossa of the mandibular second molar. C. lingual embrasure between the mandibular first and second molars. D. facial portion of the central fossa of the mandibular first molar. E. lingual portion of the central fossa of the mandibular first molar.

E. lingual portion of the central fossa of the mandibular first molar.

Which of the following BEST describes the new alveolar bone deposited during orthodontic treatment? A. Woven B. Compact C. Cementum D. Endochondral E. lntramembranous

E. lntramembranous

The distal-most region of the cochlea relative to the oval window is believed to be the point of localization for A. high amplitude. B. low amplitude. C. high frequency. D. intermediate frequency. E. low frequency.

E. low frequency.

15) The cell bodies of proprioceptive nerves carrying information from the periodontal ligaments are located in the A. nucleus ambiguus. B. trigeminal ganglion. C. spinal nucleus of V. D. main sensory nucleus of V. E. mesencephalic nucleus of V.

E. mesencephalic nucleus of V.

63) Cell bodies of neurons mediating proprioception from the periodontal ligament of the maxillary first molar lie in the A. semilunar ganglion. B. motor nucleus of V. C. spinal nucleus of V. D. chief sensory nucleus of V. E. mesencephalic nucleus of V.

E. mesencephalic nucleus of V.

Cell bodies of neurons mediating proprioception from the periodontal ligament of the maxillary first molar lie primarily in the A. semilunar ganglion. B. motor nucleus of V. C. spinal nucleus of V. D. chief sensory nucleus of V. E. mesencephalic nucleus of V.

E. mesencephalic nucleus of V.

Cell bodies of proprioceptive fibers in V are located in the A. chief nucleus. B. spinal nucleus. C. semilunar ganglion. D. geniculate ganglion. E. mesencephalic nucleus.

E. mesencephalic nucleus.

In an ideal intercuspal relation, the mesiofacial cusps of the mandibular second molars contact the maxillary molars in (on) the A. distal fossae of the second. B. central fossae of the second. C. lingual embrasures between the first and second. D. facial embrasures between the first and second. E. mesial marginal ridges of the second.

E. mesial marginal ridges of the second.

Bone pain, osteolytic lesions, plasma cell infiltration of marrow and synthesis of abnormal immunoglobulins describe A. systemic lupus erythematosus. B. selective IgA deficiency. C. polyclonal gammopathy. D. Paget's disease of bone. E. multiple myeloma.

E. multiple myeloma.

If a bacteria were susceptible to both penicillin and erythromycin, then it would not be appropriate to treat the patients with both antibiotics at the same time because A. penicillin is inactivated by erythromycin. B. erythromycin exerts its effect extracellularly. C. erythromycin enhances beta-lactamase activity. D. erythromycin is primarily an anti-fungal agent. E. penicillin is only effective against growing cells.

E. penicillin is only effective against growing cells.

Odontoblasts are characterized by A. being located on external surfaces of roots. B. being shed from the tooth at the time of eruption. C. differentiating first at the cervical region of a forming tooth. D. secreting a non-fibrous matrix composed of chains of amino acids. E. possessing long cytoplasmic processes which lie within dentinal tubules.

E. possessing long cytoplasmic processes which lie within dentinal tubules.

61) Earaches may develop as a result of blockage of the eustachian tube because A. of anvil misalignment. B. the ossicle can no longer vibrate. C. fluid in the middle ear cannot escape. D. pressure on the round window distorts the basement membrane. E. pressure in the middle ear is not equalized with atmospheric pressure.

E. pressure in the middle ear is not equalized with atmospheric pressure.

As blood flows through the periodontal membrane, tremendous pressures occur in response to forceful occlusion. Blood flow is temporarily reduced, but platelets do not aggregate because of the presence of A. Ca++. B. ADP. C. thrombin. D. thromboxane A2. E. prostacyclin (PgI2)

E. prostacyclin (PgI2)

66) As blood flows through the periodontal membrane, tremendous pressures occur in response to forceful occlusion. Blood flow is temporarily reduced, but platelets do not aggregate because of the presence of A. Ca++. B. ADP. C. thrombin. D. thromboxane Á. E. prostacyclin (PgI2).

E. prostacyclin (PgI2).

Low Density Lipoprotein (LDL) particles get into cells by A. simple diffusion. B. cell-cell fusion. C. active transport. D. facilitated diffusion. E. receptor-mediated endocytosis.

E. receptor-mediated endocytosis.

The muscle that is the prime mover in left lateral excursion is the A. right masseter. B. left medial pterygoid. C. right medial pterygoid. D. left lateral pterygoid. E. right lateral pterygoid.

E. right lateral pterygoid.

Calcium ions are sequestered by A. T-tubules. B. sarcoplasm. C. sarcosomes. D. myofibrils. E. sarcoplasmic reticulum.

E. sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Tooth erosion in bulimic patients is due to A. hyposalivation. B. hypersalivation. C. action of pepsin. D. excessive fluoride intake. E. solubility of hydroxyapatite in acid.

E. solubility of hydroxyapatite in acid.

The roots of the brachial plexus are derived from the ventral rami of A. the cervical plexus. B. the spinal accessory nerve. C. spinal nerves C3 through C5 D. spinal nerves C3 through C7. E. spinal nerves C5 through T1.

E. spinal nerves C5 through T1.

400) If the mandibular right posterior teeth are extracted, then the maxillary right posterior teeth will likely show signs of A. attrition. B. abfraction. C. ankylosis. D. mesial drift. E. supraeruption.

E. supraeruption.

The spacing between anterior teeth in a 5-year-old child is MOST frequently caused by A. the presence of an excessive maxillary anterior frenum. B. the pressure from succedaneous teeth. C. thumb-sucking. D. tongue thrusting. E. the growth of the dental arches.

E. the growth of the dental arches.

Local injury to arteries or veins and turbulence of blood flow might lead directly to A. atrophy. B. embolism. C. ischemia. D. hemorrhage. E. thrombosis.

E. thrombosis.

25) Rough pneumococci grown in the presence of DNA from dead smooth pneumococci develop capsules. This is an example of bacterial A. mutation. B. dominance. C. conjugation. D. transduction. E. transformation.

E. transformation.

Passive congestion occurs when increased amounts of blood in the tissues collect secondary to A. hyperplasia. B. hypertension. C. inflammation. D. arterial dilatation. E. venous obstruction.

E. venous obstruction.

1. An afebrile patient with conjugated hyperbilirubinemia and an absence of urobilinogen MOST likely has which of the following conditions? a. Cholelithiasis b. Aplastic anemia c. Hemolytic anemia d. Acute hepatitis e. Alcoholic cirrhosis

a. Cholelithiasis

1. Bleeding esophageal varices are a common complication of which of the following conditions? a. Cirrhosis b. Hiatal hernia c. Pancreatic carcinoma d. Chronic active hepatitis e. Hepatocellular carcinoma

a. Cirrhosis

1. The chemotactic accumulation of inflammatory cells that occurs at the sites where immune complexes are deposited is MOST probably due to the presence of a. C5a. b. Factor B. c. IL-2. d. IgA. e. IgE.

a. C5a.

1. In a normal occlusion, the lingual cusp of the maxillary second premolar occludes with which fossa of which mandibular tooth? a. Distal fossa of the second premolar tooth b. Mesial fossa of the second premolar tooth c. Central fossa of the first molar tooth d. Mesial fossa of the first molar tooth

a. Distal fossa of the second premolar tooth

1. Which of the following represents the epithelial change MOST predictive of cancer? a. Dysplasia b. Metaplasia c. Acanthosis d. Parakeratosis e. Hyperkeratosis

a. Dysplasia

1. Which of the following represents the movement of a tooth through the surrounding tissue so that the clinical crown gradually appears longer? a. Eruption b. Attrition c. Mastication d. Exfoliation e. Longitudinal development

a. Eruption

1. Which of the following BEST characterizes a mandibular second molar? a. Exhibits four cusps b. Exhibits a DF groove c. Exhibits a distal cusp d. Exhibits one fused root e. Similar to the five-cusp variety mandibular third molar

a. Exhibits four cusps

1. The antigen-binding site of antibody molecules is localized in the a. Fab fragment. b. Fc receptor. c. J-chain. d. constant region.

a. Fab fragment.

1. Successful immunization with a hepatitis B vaccine results in the development of serum antibodies to which of the following? a. HBsAg b. HBcAg c. HBeAg d. HBV‑DNA polymerase

a. HBsAg

1. If Type A blood is accidentally transfused into a Type B recipient, the immediate hemolytic reaction would be the result of which of the following? a. IgM against the A antigen b. IgA against the A antigen c. IgG against the B antigen d. T cytotoxic cell activation e. Sensitization to antigens other than A or B

a. IgM against the A antigen

1. For an amalgam restoration, it will be MOST difficult to obtain close matrix-band adaptation on which of the following surfaces? a. Mesial of a maxillary first premolar b. Distal of a maxillary first premolar c. Mesial of a maxillary second premolar d. Distal of a mandibular second premolar e. Mesial of a mandibular first molar

a. Mesial of a maxillary first premolar

1. Which of the following teeth have proximal contact areas at approximately the same levels cervicoincisally, or cervico-occlusally, on the mesial and the distal? a. Maxillary central incisors b. Mandibular central incisors c. Maxillary canines d. Mandibular canines

a. Maxillary central incisors

1. From the facial view, which premolar has a mesial cusp ridge longer than its distal cusp ridge? a. Maxillary first b. Maxillary second c. Mandibular first d. Mandibular second

a. Maxillary first

1. Which primary molar has a crown somewhat resembling a permanent premolar, but the root form is typical of a permanent molar? a. Maxillary first b. Maxillary second c. Mandibular first d. Mandibular second

a. Maxillary first

1. Which of the following teeth usually has the steepest cusp inclines? a. Maxillary first premolar b. Maxillary first molar c. Mandibular second premolar d. Mandibular first molar e. Mandibular second molar

a. Maxillary first premolar

1. Which of the following bacterial genera is LEAST likely to be found among normal anaerobic flora of the gingival sulcus? a. Mycobacterium b. Fusobacterium c. Prevotella d. Actinobacillus e. Porphyromonas

a. Mycobacterium

1. Which of the following BEST describes the location of the cervical line on a mandibular lateral incisor? a. On the distal, it is more apical than on the mesial. b. On the lingual, it is more incisal than on the facial. c. On the mesial, it is more apical than on the distal. d. On the facial, it is more apical than on the lingual. e. On the facial and the lingual, it is at the same level.

a. On the distal, it is more apical than on the mesial.

1. Which of the following ranks the roots of the maxillary first molar in order from LARGEST to SMALLEST? a. Palatal, mesiobuccal, distobuccal b. Palatal, distobuccal, mesiobuccal c. Mesiobuccal, palatal, distobuccal d. Distobuccal, mesiobuccal, palatal

a. Palatal, mesiobuccal, distobuccal

1. Which of the following viruses does NOT establish a latent infection? a. Poliovirus b. Epstein-Barr c. Herpes simplex d. Varicellazoster e. Cytomegalovirus

a. Poliovirus

3. Normal human cells contain gene sequences homologous to virus genome sequences known to induce cancer in animals. What term applies to these gene sequences when found in human cells? a. Protooncogenes b. Viral oncogenes c. Retroviral genes d. Analogous chromosomes e. Homologous chromosomes

a. Protooncogenes

1. Which of the following represents a malignant tumor arising from mesenchymal tissue? a. Sarcoma b. Adenoma c. Carcinoma d. Hamartoma e. Choristoma

a. Sarcoma

1. Multiple drug resistance is related MOST closely to bacterial a. plasmids. b. chromosomes. c. transduction. d. transformation. e. viruses in the bacterial wall.

a. plasmids.

1. The crown of a mandibular lateral incisor, compared to the crown of a mandibular central incisor in the same mouth, is BEST described as a. wider mesiodistally. b. narrower mesiodistally. c. more symmetrical. d. having a smoother lingual surface.

a. wider mesiodistally.

1. The protrusive pathway of the mandibular cusps on the maxillary posterior teeth is toward the a. mesial. b. facial. c. distal. d. lingual.

a. mesial.

1. The physiologic rest position of the mandible is established when the a. muscles of mastication are in tonic equilibrium. b. maxillary and mandibular teeth make the greatest occlusal contact. c. condyles are in their most retruded position. d. condyles are in their most protruded position.

a. muscles of mastication are in tonic equilibrium.

1. In a protrusive movement, the maxillary left central incisor can potentially come in contact with which of the following mandibular teeth? a. #22 and #23 b. #23 and #24 c. #24 and #25 d. #25 and #26

b. #23 and #24

1. Which of the following is the MOST common skin cancer in humans? a. Malignant melanoma b. Basal cell carcinoma c. Squamous cell carcinoma d. Sebaceous adenocarcinoma e. Transitional cell carcinoma

b. Basal cell carcinoma

1. Which of the following is the correct sequence of dental tissues from SOFTEST to HARDEST? a. Dentin, cementum, enamel b. Cementum, dentin, enamel c. Dentin, enamel, cementum d. Cementum, enamel, dentin

b. Cementum, dentin, enamel

1. In an ideal occlusion, the facial cusps of the posterior mandibular teeth oppose which landmark of the maxillary dentition? a. Facio-occlusal line b. Central fossa line c. Linguo-occlusal line d. Curve of Spee e. Curve of Wilson

b. Central fossa line

1. Which type of oral candidiasis is likely to produce a firmly adherent white plaque on the oral mucosa? a. Acute pseudomembranous b. Chronic hyperplastic c. Chronic atrophic d. Acute atrophic

b. Chronic hyperplastic

1. Which of the following genera form endospores? a. Proteus and Escherichia b. Clostridium and Bacillus c. Porphyromonas and Streptococcus d. Mycobacterium and Actinomyces e. Staphylococcus and Coiynebacterium

b. Clostridium and Bacillus

1. Which of the following represents the MOST common autopsy finding in instances of sudden death as a result of myocardial infarction? a. Valvular prolapse b. Coronary thrombosis c. Fibrinous pericarditis d. Aneurysm of the heart wall e. Rupture of the coronary vessel

b. Coronary thrombosis

1. Which of the following is the major VIRAL cause of birth defects in infants in developed countries? a. Measles b. Cytomegalovirus c. Herpes simplex d. Rubella e. Varicella-zoster

b. Cytomegalovirus

1. Hereditary angioedema is the result of which of the following? a. Lack of a thymus b. Deficiency in C1 esterase inhibitor c. Developmental arrest of lymphocytes d. Defective VH gene recombination to DJH e. Bare lymphocytes (no Class I/Il antigens)

b. Deficiency in C1 esterase inhibitor

1. Which of the following disorders is LEAST likely to be included in the differential diagnosis of a patient with acute appendicitis? a. Crohn's disease b. Duodenal peptic ulcer c. Meckel's diverticulitis d. Pelvic inflammatory disease e. Gastroenteritis with mesenteric adenitis

b. Duodenal peptic ulcer

1. In either an allergic reaction or a parasitic infection, which of the following cells increase in number in the bloodstream? a. Basophils b. Eosinophils c. Plasma cells d. Atypical lymphocytes e. Nucleated erythrocytes

b. Eosinophils

1. In which of the following areas of a healthy mouth is the alveolar process the thinnest? a. Lingual to the maxillary central incisors b. Facial to the mandibular central incisors c. Lingual to the maxillary canines d. Lingual to the mandibular first molars e. Facial to the maxillary second molars

b. Facial to the mandibular central incisors

1. Anaerobic bacteria obtain their energy requirements from which of the following reactions? a. Respiration b. Fermentation c. Atmospheric oxygen d. Oxidative phosphorylation e. Catalase and superoxide dismutase

b. Fermentation

1. A patient states that he immediately begins wheezing and has difficulty breathing when exposed to penicillin. Which of the following classes of antibodies is responsible for the difficulty in breathing? a. IgA b. IgE c. IgG d. IgM e. IgD

b. IgE

1. Which of the following pathologic changes is irreversible? a. Fatty change in liver cells b. Karyolysis in myocardial cells c. Glycogen deposition in hepatocyte nuclei d. Hydropic vacuolization of renal tubular epithelial cells

b. Karyolysis in myocardial cells

1. Through which of the following grooves of the mandibular first molar does the maxillary mesiolingual cusp pass in a lateral excursive movement on the working side? a. Facial b. Lingual c. Central d. Distofacial

b. Lingual

1. On which of the following surfaces of permanent teeth is pit and fissure caries MOST likely to occur? a. Facial surfaces of maxillary first molars b. Lingual surfaces of maxillary first molars c. Facial surfaces of mandibular first premolars d. Lingual surfaces of mandibular first molars e. Proximal surfaces of mandibular incisors

b. Lingual surfaces of maxillary first molars

1. Which of the following molars has the LARGEST mesiodistal measurement of its crown? a. Maxillary first b. Mandibular first c. Maxillary second d. Mandibular second

b. Mandibular first

1. When the posterior teeth are in a cross bite relationship, which of the following cusps are considered supporting cusps? a. Maxillary facial and mandibular facial b. Maxillary facial and mandibular lingual c. Maxillary lingual and mandibular facial d. Maxillary lingual and mandibular lingual

b. Maxillary facial and mandibular lingual

1. Which of the following posterior teeth normally exhibit two root canal orifices? a. Mandibular first premolars b. Maxillary first premolars c. Maxillary second premolars d. Maxillary first molars e. Mandibular first molars

b. Maxillary first premolars

1. A peg-shaped crown form is an occasional anomalous occurrence of which of the following incisors? a. Maxillary central b. Maxillary lateral c. Mandibular central d. Mandibular lateral

b. Maxillary lateral

1. Which of the following anterior teeth exhibits the MOST deviation in crown morphology? a. Maxillary central incisor b. Maxillary lateral incisor c. Mandibular lateral incisor d. Maxillary canine e. Mandibular canine

b. Maxillary lateral incisor

1. Which primary molar typically has a transverse ridge, an oblique ridge, and a distolingual groove? a. Maxillary first b. Maxillary second c. Mandibular first d. Mandibular second

b. Maxillary second

1. Which of the following represents the structure on the crown of a maxillary canine that is located immediately to the mesial of the mesiolingual fossa? a. Lingual ridge b. Mesial marginal ridge c. Distal marginal ridge d. Distolingual fossa e. Mesial developmental groove

b. Mesial marginal ridge

1. In an ideal intercuspal relation, which of the following maxillary cusps will oppose the mesiofacial groove of the mandibular first molar? a. Facial cusp of the second premolar b. Mesiofacial cusp of the first molar c. Distofacial cusp of the first molar d. Mesiolingual cusp of the first molar e. Distolingual cusp of the first molar

b. Mesiofacial cusp of the first molar

1. Which of the following diseases is MOST often characterized by hyphae growing in and around vessels? a. Candidiasis b. Mucormycosis c. Blastomycosis d. Histoplasmosis e. Coccidioidomycosis

b. Mucormycosis

1. Which of the following periodontal ligament fibers provide the major support to the tooth during function? a. Apical b. Oblique c. Horizontal d. Alveolar crest e. Interradicular

b. Oblique

1. In the sagittal plane, which of the following represents the thickest section of the articular disc? a. Anterior border b. Posterior border c. Bilaminar zone d. Intermediate zone e. Retrodiscal area

b. Posterior border

1. Which of the following is an oncogenic RNA virus? a. Rotavirus b. Retrovirus c. Herpesvirus d. Paramyxovirus e. Papillomavirus

b. Retrovirus

1. Which of the following organisms is commonly located on the dorsum of the tongue? a. Actinomyces israelii b. Streptococcus salivarius c. Lactobacillus acidophilus d. Prevotella melaninogenica e. Streptococcus mutans

b. Streptococcus salivarius

1. The capsule of Streptococcus mutans is an important virulence factor that a. has proteolytic activity. b. enhances oral accumulation. c. causes circulatory collapse. d. prevents phagocytic digestion. e. is necessary to cause bacteremia.

b. enhances oral accumulation.

1. A patient with rheumatic heart disease is MOST likely to develop congestive heart failure due to which of the following? a. Heart murmur b. Valvular insufficiency c. Digitalis toxicity d. Cor pulmonale e. Aschoff bodies in coronary arteries

b. Valvular insufficiency

1. Under which of the following circumstances does a graft versus host reaction occur? a. When nonvital tissues are grafted b. When viable lymphoid cells are present in the graft c. When the recipient and the donor are syngeneic d. When the graft is contaminated with gram-negative microorganisms e. When the donor and the recipient are of different races

b. When viable lymphoid cells are present in the graft

1. When the mandible moves to the right side, which of the following represents the excursive tooth contacts that could occur on the right molars? a. Nonworking side contacts b. Working side contacts c. Lateral contacts d. Occlusion

b. Working side contacts

1. Dimorphism in microorganisms is characterized by the capability to produce a. both sexual and asexual spores. b. both a yeast phase and a mycelial phase. c. two distinct types of clinical infections. d. both by budding and by production of spores.

b. both a yeast phase and a mycelial phase.

1. Enamel rods in a primary tooth extend a. from the dentinoenamel junction apically in the cervical third of the crown. b. from the dentinoenamel junction occlusally in the cervical third of the crown. c. in the same direction as in a permanent tooth in the cervical third, but not in the incisal or occlusal thirds of the crown. d. in a diffused and gnarled manner in the cervical third of the crown.

b. from the dentinoenamel junction occlusally in the cervical third of the crown.

1. Ligaments associated with the TMJ serve to a. inhibit the normal masticatory cycle. b. protect surrounding and supporting tissues from damages. c. assist musculature in producing movement. d. allow for retrusive movement to occur. e. provide elastic potential to allow for border movements.

b. protect surrounding and supporting tissues from damages.

1. When compared to a maxillary first molar, the crown of a second molar normally exhibits a a. larger distofacial cusp. b. shorter distolingual groove. c. greater mesiodistal crown width. d. greater occlusocervical crown width.

b. shorter distolingual groove.

1. Which of the following surfaces of a tooth is always next to an adjacent tooth? a. Distal b. Facial c. Palatal d. Occlusal e. Proximal

e. Proximal

1. Which of the following viral diseases has the LONGEST incubation period? a. Herpetic gingivostomatitis b. Common cold c. Influenza d. Measles e. Rabies

e. Rabies

1. Which of the following represents the EARLIEST age by which the roots of the maxillary first premolar are completely formed? a. 8-9 years b. 10-11 years c. 12-13 years d. 14-15 years

c. 12-13 years

1. The dentition of a normally developed 6 1/2-year-old child usually consists of which of the following teeth? a. 8 primary and 8 permanent b. 10 primary and 10 permanent c. 18 primary and 6 permanent d. 20 primary

c. 18 primary and 6 permanent

1. How many pulp horns would be expected on a newly erupted Tooth #18? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

c. 4

1. The occlusal table of any posterior tooth makes up what percent of the total buccolingual dimension of the tooth? a. 25-35 percent b. 40-50 percent c. 55-65 percent d. 70-80 percent

c. 55-65 percent

1. An abscess in the oral cavity with central necrosis extruding pus containing sulfur granules would be which of the following? a. Furuncle b. Tuberculosis c. Actinomycosis d. Vincent's infection

c. Actinomycosis

1. Each of the following is commonly associated with congestive heart failure EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION? a. Dyspnea b. Cyanosis c. Anasarca d. Ankle edema e. Passive congestion of the liver

c. Anasarca

1. Candidiasis in the adult oral cavity may signify a change in the balance of oral microbiota. This particular change is often seen in persons who are taking which of the following drugs? a. Antiviral b. Antifungal c. Antibacterial

c. Antibacterial

1. During a Type I hypersensitivity reaction, leukotrienes and prostaglandin D2 are generated from which of the following? a. Thymus b. Histamine c. Arachidonic acid d. Bradykinin and other kinins e. Granules of mast cells and basophils

c. Arachidonic acid

1. Which of the following causes whooping cough? a. Haemophilus influenzae b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Bordetella pertussis d. Brucella melitensis e. Klebsiella pneumoniae

c. Bordetella pertussis

1. On the crown of the maxillary canine, the height of contour is normally located in the cervical third of which of the following surfaces? a. Labial b. Lingual c. Both labial and lingual d. Neither labial nor lingual

c. Both labial and lingual

1. What is the role of lactobacilli in coronal caries? a. Primary pathogen in most cases b. Highly pathogenic in animal models c. Causes progression of existing lesions d. Highly adherent colonizer of smooth surfaces e. Consumes lactic acid produced by streptococci

c. Causes progression of existing lesions

1. In an ideal intercuspal relation, the mesiolingual cusps of maxillary molars occlude with which of the following anatomic structures of mandibular molars? a. Mesial fossae b. Distal fossae c. Central fossae d. Mesial marginal ridges

c. Central fossae

2. A patient with shingles (herpes zoster) is MOST likely to have had a previous episode of which of the following? a. Measles b. Roseola c. Chickenpox d. Viral meningitis e. Infectious mononucleosis

c. Chickenpox

1. Which of the following represents the phenotypic expression of both alleles in a gene pair? a. Penetrance b. Lyonization c. Codominance d. Hybridization e. Heterozygosity

c. Codominance

1. Which of the following BEST represents the pathogenesis of jaundice in patients with hepatitis A? a. Massive hemolysis b. Portal hypertension c. Damage to liver cells d. Massive fibrosis of the liver e. Obstruction of main bile ducts

c. Damage to liver cells

1. Which of the following commonly produces a positive heterophile antibody test? a. Adenovirus b. Cytomegalovirus c. Epstein-Barr virus d. Parainfluenza virus e. Herpes simplex virus type 1

c. Epstein-Barr virus

1. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate alternative for treating a patient allergic to penicillin who has an infection caused by bacteria sensitive to penicillin? a. Rifampin b. Amoxicillin c. Erythromycin d. Tetracycline e. Cephalosporin

c. Erythromycin

1. Which of the following represents a simple autosomal dominant disorder? a. Type 1 diabetes mellitus b. Type 2 diabetes mellitus c. Gardner syndrome d. Cleft palate e. Gout

c. Gardner syndrome

1. During an endodontic procedure on Tooth #21, clinical symptoms lead the dentist to suspect the presence of a second pulp canal. Which direction is the MOST likely location for the suspected canal? a. Facial b. Distal c. Lingual d. Mesial

c. Lingual

1. Which of the following describes the proximal contact relationship between a maxillary central incisor and a maxillary lateral incisor? a. Contact is offset to the lingual. b. Contact is centered incisocervically. c. Lingual embrasure is larger than the facial embrasure. d. Incisal embrasure is the largest of all the embrasures.

c. Lingual embrasure is larger than the facial embrasure.

1. Which premolar poses the GREATEST problem when root canal therapy or extraction is being considered? a. Mandibular first b. Mandibular second c. Maxillary first d. Maxillary second

c. Maxillary first

1. Which of the following teeth would MOST likely be congenitally absent? a. Maxillary central incisor b. Mandibular central incisor c. Maxillary lateral incisor d. Mandibular lateral incisor e. Maxillary canine

c. Maxillary lateral incisor

1. The crown of which premolar is wider faciolingually than mesiodistally, and has two cusps that are approximately equal in height? a. Maxillary first b. Mandibular first c. Maxillary second d. Mandibular second

c. Maxillary second

1. On the crown of a maxillary canine, which of the following structures is located immediately to the mesial of the mesiolingual fossa? a. Lingual ridge b. Distal marginal ridge c. Mesial marginal ridge d. Distolingual fossa e. Mesial developmental groove

c. Mesial marginal ridge

1. Individuals with severe, uncomplicated pulmonary emphysema might be expected to show which of the following? a. Cough b. Chest pain c. Normal or increased total lung capacity d. Difficulty when breathing in (inspiration)

c. Normal or increased total lung capacity

1. Host responses against encapsulated Streptococcus pneumoniae are chiefly mediated by which of the following? a. lgE b. lgD c. Opsonins d. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes e. Delayed hypersensitivity

c. Opsonins

1. Patients with which of the following malignancies have the poorest prognosis? a. Lung cancer b. Malignant melanoma c. Pancreatic carcinoma d. Carcinoma of the colon e. Squamous carcinoma of the tongue

c. Pancreatic carcinoma

1. Which of the following are the principal muscle fibers that retrude the mandible? a. Superficial masseter b. Posterior belly of the digastric c. Posterior fibers of the temporal d. Posterior fibers of the internal pterygoid

c. Posterior fibers of the temporal

1. Which of the following represents one function of macrophages in immunity? a. Produce IL-2 b. Produce antibody c. Present antigen to antigen-specific T cells d. Mediators of antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity

c. Present antigen to antigen-specific T cells

1. Phage conversion is responsible for which of the following? a. Transformation of bacteria b. Production of beta-galactose c. Production of pyrogenic toxin d. Ability of Rhizobium species to fix nitrogen

c. Production of pyrogenic toxin

1. Inadequate immobilization after a bone fracture is MOST likely to result in which of the following? a. Osteomyelitis b. Osteoarthritis c. Pseudoarthrosis d. Heberden's nodes e. Rheumatoid arthritis

c. Pseudoarthrosis

1. Rheumatic fever can be a sequelae to which of the following streptococcal infections? a. Pyoderma b. Diphtheria c. Scarlet fever d. Dental caries e. Streptococcal gangrene

c. Scarlet fever

1. Which of the following represents the eighth tooth from the midline in each mandibular quadrant at age 26? a. Second molar with incomplete root b. Second molar with complete root c. Third molar with incomplete root d. Third molar with complete root e. Not erupted

c. Third molar with incomplete root

1. First Statement: The transseptal group of periodontal fibers travels from one root to an adjacent root surface. Second Statement: This pathway occurs via the facial aspect of the alveolus. a. Both statements are TRUE. b. Both statements are FALSE. c. The first statement is TRUE, the second is FALSE. d. The first statement is FALSE, the second is TRUE.

c. The first statement is TRUE, the second is FALSE.

1. When compared to the maxillary central incisor, the maxillary canine normally exhibits which of the following? a. Shorter root b. Wider crown mesiodistally c. Thicker crown labiolingually d. Longer crown incisogingivally e. Shorter crown and shorter root length

c. Thicker crown labiolingually

1. The pulp chamber of a mature tooth contain a. cells that continue to form primary dentin. b. an enamel lining for thermal protection. c. blood vessels and nerves. d. cementoblasts. e. ameloblasts.

c. blood vessels and nerves.

1. The usual order of eruption of primary teeth following the central incisors is a. first molars, lateral incisors, second molars, canines. b. lateral incisors, first molars, second molars, canines. c. lateral incisors, first molars, canines, second molars. d. lateral incisors, canines, first molars, second molars.

c. lateral incisors, first molars, canines, second molars.

1. When in its proper position relative to the plane of occlusion, the crown of a mandibular second molar inclines a. distally and facially. b. mesially and facially. c. mesially and lingually. d. distally and lingually.

c. mesially and lingually.

1. Certain enzymes are responsible for suppuration. These enzymes derive chiefly from a. serum. b. tissue. c. neutrophils. d. lymphocytes. e. plasma cells.

c. neutrophils.

1. The lingual aspect of a mandibular first molar presents with a. a lingual groove extending onto the lingual surface and ending in the cervical third of the crown. b. a large mesiolingual cusp and much smaller distolingual cusp. c. the lingual surface of each cusp possessing a slightly convex shape in the occlusal third. d. three lingual cusps. e. two lingual grooves.

c. the lingual surface of each cusp possessing a slightly convex shape in the occlusal third.

1. Assuming occlusion and alignment are normal, the arrow on the illustration below represents the path taken by which cusp of a second molar? a. Mesiofacial cusp b. Mesiolingual cusp c. Distofacial cusp d. Distolingual cusp e. Cusp of Carabelli

d. Distolingual cusp

1. Which of the following is unique to gram-negative bacteria? a. Flagella b. Capsules c. Ribosomes d. Endotoxins e. Endospores

d. Endotoxins

1. Which of the following chemical agents has the broadest antimicrobial spectrum of activity? a. Phenol b. Ethanol c. Isopropanol d. Glutaraldehyde e. Quaternary amine

d. Glutaraldehyde

1. Which of the following viruses is characterized by latency and by the clinical symptoms that can follow trauma, fever, or nerve damage? a. Variola b. Influenza c. Rubella d. Herpes simplex e. Coxsackievirus A

d. Herpes simplex

1. A 43-year-old woman exhibits radiographic evidence of an osteolytic lesion of the humerus. Her serum calcium level is elevated. Microscopically, the bone lesion shows numerous giant cells. Which of the following represents the MOST probable diagnosis? a. Renal rickets b. Fibrous dysplasia c. Osteitis deformans d. Hyperparathyroidism

d. Hyperparathyroidism

1. Which of the following structures calcifies first in an anterior tooth? a. Cingulum b. Cervical ridge c. Marginal ridge d. Incisal ridge e. Root apex

d. Incisal ridge

1. If a foreign antigen enters the body through the skin, which of the following portions of the lymphoid system is the antigen MOST likely to reach FIRST? a. Liver b. Spleen c. Thymus d. Lymph nodes e. Mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue

d. Lymph nodes

1. Which of the following teeth normally exhibits five major cusps? a. Primary mandibular first molar b. Primary maxillary second molar c. Maxillary first molar d. Mandibular first molar e. Mandibular second molar

d. Mandibular first molar

1. Which of the following teeth has its distal proximal contact area located entirely in the incisal or the occlusal one-third? a. Maxillary canine b. Mandibular canine c. Maxillary lateral incisor d. Mandibular lateral incisor e. Mandibular second premolar

d. Mandibular lateral incisor

1. From an occlusal view, the arrangement of permanent teeth of the maxillary and mandibular arches are parabolic in shape. In one segment of the dentition, however, four teeth are aligned in a straight line. In what region is this segment located? a. Maxillary anterior b. Maxillary posterior c. Mandibular anterior d. Mandibular posterior

d. Mandibular posterior

1. Which of the following premolars usually has two lingual cusps? a. Maxillary first b. Maxillary second c. Mandibular first d. Mandibular second

d. Mandibular second

1. Which of the following are the LAST primary teeth to erupt? a. Maxillary canines b. Mandibular canines c. Mandibular first molars d. Maxillary second molars e. Mandibular second molars

d. Maxillary second molars

1. Which of the following canines is the last anterior tooth to erupt and at what age does it erupt? a. Mandibular; 9-10 years b. Maxillary; 9-10 years c. Mandibular; 11-12 years d. Maxillary; 11-12 years

d. Maxillary; 11-12 years

1. In the intercuspal position, the facio-incisal aspect of a mandibular central incisor opposes which of the following structure(s) of which maxillary incisor? a. Facio-incisal marginal ridge of the maxillary lateral incisor b. Mesial and distal marginal ridge of the maxillary lateral incisor c. Distal marginal ridge of the maxillary lateral incisor d. Mesial marginal ridge of the maxillary central incisor e. Distal marginal ridge of the maxillary central incisor

d. Mesial marginal ridge of the maxillary central incisor

1. In addition to Kaposi's sarcoma, which other malignant neoplasm is often observed in AIDS? a. Mycosis fungoides b. Testicular carcinoma c. Neuroblastoma d. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma e. Rhabdomyosarcoma

d. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma

1. Which of the following represents the general crown form of canines, as viewed from the labial aspect? a. Hexagonal b. Triangular c. Rhomboidal d. Pentagonal e. Diamond-shaped

d. Pentagonal

1. Which of the following are directly associated with destruction of glomerular basement membranes in a patient with glomerulonephritis? a. Eosinophils b. Lymphokines c. IgE antibodies d. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes

d. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes

1. Which of the following is a major component of nephrotic syndrome? a. Anemia b. Hematuria c. Hypertension d. Proteinuria e. Red cell casts in the urine

d. Proteinuria

1. Which of the following typically results in sudden death? a. Bronchiectasis b. Pneumoconiosis c. Pulmonary emphysema d. Pulmonary saddle embolus e. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

d. Pulmonary saddle embolus

1. The maxillary lateral incisor is usually equal to or larger than the maxillary central incisor in which dimensions? a. Root width (faciolingually) b. Crown width (mesiodistally) c. Crown width (faciolingually) d. Root length (cervicoapically) e. Crown length (cervicoincisally)

d. Root length (cervicoapically)

1. In the midroot cross-section, which root of a first molar has the largest area? a. The distofacial of a maxillary b. The mesiofacial of a maxillary c. The lingual of a maxillary d. The mesial of a mandibular e. The distal of a mandibular

d. The mesial of a mandibular

1. The process of gene transfer between bacterial cells that involves the uptake of naked DNA molecules is classified as which of the following? a. Conjugation b. Transduction c. Translocation d. Transformation e. Gene conversion

d. Transformation

1. Asymptomatic carriers are a major hazard of which of the following? a. Plague b. Shigellosis c. Salmonellosis d. Typhoid fever e. Legionnaires disease

d. Typhoid fever

1. In order for a virus to infect a host cell, it must first adsorb onto the cell surface. This process necessitates a. phagocytic activity by the cell. b. an inhibition of the cellular secretion of interferon. c. an insertion of virally specified glycoproteins into the host-cell membrane. d. a specific binding of the virus to a cell-membrane receptor.

d. a specific binding of the virus to a cell-membrane receptor.

1. MOST rickettsial diseases can produce severe illness in humans because rickettsiae a. produce potent exotoxins. b. cause extensive CNS damage. c. are destructive for epithelial cells. d. are destructive for endothelial cells.

d. are destructive for endothelial cells.

1. The upper compartment of the temporomandibular joint is that space between the a. condylar head and the disc. b. inferior and superior retrodiscal lamina. c. retrodiscal tissue and capsular ligament. d. disc and the articular fossa and eminence.

d. disc and the articular fossa and eminence.

1. The appearance of new strains of human immunodeficiency virus are primarily the result of a. natural selection. b. genomic recombination. c. errors in translation. d. errors in transcription.

d. errors in transcription.

1. Assuming occlusion and alignment are normal, the arrow in the illustration below represents the path taken by a a. cusp of canine. b. facial cusp of first premolar. c. lingual cusp of first premolar. d. facial cusp of second premolar. e. lingual cusp of second premolar.

d. facial cusp of second premolar.

1. When a patient moves from maximum intercuspal position to place the anterior teeth into an edge-to-edge relationship, the condyles of the mandible have moved a. backward. b. forward. c. downward. d. forward and downward. e. backward and downward.

d. forward and downward.

1. Some degree of protection for tips, cheeks, and tongue is afforded by the a. contact of adjacent teeth. b. deflecting function of triangular ridges. c. facial and lingual heights of contour of the teeth. d. horizontal and vertical overlapping of the teeth.

d. horizontal and vertical overlapping of the teeth.

1. When proximal surfaces of adjacent teeth diverge from an area of contact, an embrasure is formed a. lingually only. b. lingually and facially only. c. lingually and occlusally only. d. lingually, facially, occlusally, and cervically.

d. lingually, facially, occlusally, and cervically.

1. The occlusal outline of a mandibular first molar is usually similar to a a. circle. b. square. c. rhomboid. d. pentagon.

d. pentagon.

1. Viewed from the occlusal, the basic coronal outline of a mandibular second premolar is a. square. b. circular. c. rhomboidal. d. pentagonal. e. rectangular.

d. pentagonal.

1. Which of the following characteristics of a mandibular first molar distinguishes this tooth from a mandibular second molar? a. Number of roots b. Number of lingual cusps c. Presence of a lingual groove d. Position of the lingual cusps e. Number of developmental grooves

e. Number of developmental grooves

1. Which of the following is associated with an increased risk of breast cancer? a. History of bearing multiple children b. Estrogen deficiency c. Silicone implants d. Fibroadenoma e. Obesity

e. Obesity

1. The primary mandibular first molar normally exhibits which of the following? a. An oblique ridge b. A facial pit c. Three roots d. A distal groove e. A distal triangular fossa

e. A distal triangular fossa

1. Which of the following is the primary site of origin of neuroblastoma? a. Brain b. Kidney c. Stomach d. Mandible e. Adrenal gland

e. Adrenal gland

1. In a molar, where do root canals usually join the pulp chamber? a. At the level of the furcation b. At varying levels, dependent upon age c. Within the middle third of the crown d. Within the cervical third of the crown e. Apical to the cementoenamel junction

e. Apical to the cementoenamel junction

1. Which of the following grooves on a maxillary first molar run from the mesial pit to the central pit on the occlusal surface? a. Transverse of the oblique ridge b. Distal oblique c. Distolingual d. Faciolingual e. Central

e. Central

1. During a lateral movement of the mandible, the articular disc is tightly attached to the head of the condyle by which of the following ligaments? a. Superior retrodiscal b. Inferior retrodiscal c. Sphenomandibular d. Stylomandibular e. Collateral

e. Collateral

1. Which of the following represents the MOST probable cause for prolonged bleeding time in a patient with leukemia? a. Decreased factor VIII b. Increased factor IX c. Increased megakaryocytes d. Decreased level of serum calcium e. Decreased number of blood platelets

e. Decreased number of blood platelets

1. Which of the following bacterial vaccines is given routinely to children in the U.S.A.? a. BCG b. Cholera c. Polyvalent pneumococcus d. Measles, mumps, rubella e. Diptheria, pertussis, tetanus

e. Diptheria, pertussis, tetanus

1. Normal clotting time and normal platelet count accompanied by prolonged bleeding time suggest which of the following? a. Hemophilia b. Steatorrhea c. Polycythemia vera d. Thrombocytopenic purpura e. Excessive aspirin ingestion

e. Excessive aspirin ingestion

1. Which of the following is MOST likely caused by chronic blood loss due to a long-standing peptic ulcer? a. Aplastic anemia b. Hemolytic anemia c. Pernicious anemia d. Myelophthisic anemia e. Iron deficiency anemia

e. Iron deficiency anemia

1. In the past 30 years, the mortality rate of which of the following forms of cancer in women has shown a marked increase? a. Uterine cervix b. Colorectal c. Stomach d. Breast e. Lung

e. Lung

1. Which of the following teeth is the MOST likely to have a bifurcated root? a. Maxillary central incisor b. Maxillary lateral incisor c. Mandibular lateral incisor d. Maxillary canine e. Mandibular canine

e. Mandibular canine

1. Acid phosphatase is elevated in which of the following malignancies? a. Multiple myeloma b. Carcinoma of the breast c. Squamous cell carcinoma d. Carcinoma of the thyroid e. Metastatic carcinoma of the prostate

e. Metastatic carcinoma of the prostate

1. Neisseria gonorrheae has affinity for which of the following structures? a. Skin b. Nerve cells c. Plasma cells d. Muscle fibers e. Mucous membrane

e. Mucous membrane

1. The basic chemical structure of endotoxins includes which of the following? a. Capsular polysaccharide b. Acid stable peptidoglycan c. H and L chain glycoproteins d. Lipoteichoic acid, polysaccharide, protein e. Somatic O polysaccharide, core polysaccharide, lipid A

e. Somatic O polysaccharide, core polysaccharide, lipid A

1. Which of the following genera of bacteria is MOST commonly found on the skin? a. Candida b. Brucella c. Bacillus d. Streptococcus e. Staphylococcus

e. Staphylococcus

1. Which of the following represents the BEST way to verify heat sterilization? a. Using a chemical monitor b. Recording sterilizer pressure c. Recording duration of exposure d. Recording sterilizer temperature e. Testing with biological indicator

e. Testing with biological indicator

1. In an ideal intercuspal relation, which of the following maxillary teeth have single antagonists? a. Central incisors b. Lateral incisors c. First premolars d. First molars e. Third molars

e. Third molars

1. Uncomplicated healing of a wound by secondary intention, observed microscopically at three days, is MOST likely to show evidence of which of the following? a. Mature cicatrix b. Keloid formation c. Granulomatous inflammation d. Lack of acute inflammation e. Ulceration of the epithelial surface

e. Ulceration of the epithelial surface

1. Legionella pneumophilia is commonly transmitted by a. sexual contact. b. water contaminated with human waste. c. aerosolization of organisms in contaminated soil. d. direct contact with respiratory droplets from a contaminated person. e. aerosolization of organisms in air conditioning cooling towers.

e. aerosolization of organisms in air conditioning cooling towers.

1. In the diagram of the envelope of motion, the maximum opening position is the MOST a. centrally located. b. anterior. c. superior. d. posterior. e. inferior.

e. inferior.

1. The epithelial attachment is always an actual part of the tooth's a. anatomical crown. b. clinical crown. c. gingival line. d. cervical line. e. periodontium.

e. periodontium.

1. In the intercuspal position, the lingual cusp of a mandibular first premolar usually occludes a. with the mesial marginal ridge of the maxillary second premolar and the distal marginal ridge of the first premolar. b. in the lingual embrasure between maxillary canine and first premolar. c. with the lingual surface of the maxillary first premolar. d. in the lingual embrasure between maxillary premolars. e. with no maxillary tooth.

e. with no maxillary tooth