Gastrointestinal Patients NCLEX (1 of 3)

After performing an initial abdominal assessment on a client with nausea and vomiting, the nurse should expect to note which finding? 1. Waves of loud gurgles auscultated in all 4 quadrants 2. Low-pitched swishing auscultated in 1 or 2 quadrants 3. Relatively high-pitched clicks or gurgles auscultated in all 4 quadrants 4. Very high-pitched, loud rushes auscultated especially in 1 or 2 quadrants

1 ~ Although frequency and intensity of bowel sounds vary depending on the phase of digestion, normal bowel sounds are relatively high-pitched clicks or gurgles. Loud gurgles (borborygmi) indicate hyperperistalsis and are commonly associated with nausea and vomiting. A swishing or buzzing sound represents turbulent blood flow associated with a bruit. Bruits are not normal sounds. Bowel sounds are very high-pitched and loud (hyperresonance) when the intestines are under tension, such as in intestinal obstruction. Therefore, options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect.

The nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis and is monitoring the client for paralytic ileus. Which piece of assessment data should alert the nurse to this occurrence? 1. Inability to pass flatus 2. Loss of anal sphincter control 3. Severe, constant pain with rapid onset 4. Firm, nontender mass palpable at the lower right costal margin

1 ~ An inflammatory reaction such as acute pancreatitis can cause paralytic ileus, the most common form of nonmechanical obstruction. Inability to pass flatus is a clinical manifestation of paralytic ileus. Loss of sphincter control is not a sign of paralytic ileus. Pain is associated with paralytic ileus, but the pain usually manifests as a more constant generalized discomfort. Option 4 is the description of the physical finding of liver enlargement. The liver may be enlarged in cases of cirrhosis or hepatitis. Although this client may have an enlarged liver, an enlarged liver is not a sign of paralytic ileus or intestinal obstruction.

A client had a new colostomy created 2 days earlier and is beginning to pass malodorous flatus from the stoma. What is the correct interpretation by the nurse? 1. This is a normal, expected event. 2. The client is experiencing early signs of ischemic bowel. 3. The client should not have the nasogastric tube removed. 4. This indicates inadequate preoperative bowel preparation.

1 ~ As peristalsis returns following creation of a colostomy, the client begins to pass malodorous flatus. This indicates returning bowel function and is an expected event. Within 72 hours of surgery, the client should begin passing stool via the colostomy. Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect interpretations.

The nurse is doing an admission assessment on a client with a history of duodenal ulcer. To determine whether the problem is currently active, the nurse should assess the client for which sign(s)/symptom(s) of duodenal ulcer? 1. Weight loss 2. Nausea and vomiting 3. Pain relieved by food intake 4. Pain radiating down the right arm

3 ~ A frequent symptom of duodenal ulcer is pain that is relieved by food intake. These clients generally describe the pain as a burning, heavy, sharp, or "hungry" pain that often localizes in the mid-epigastric area. The client with duodenal ulcer usually does not experience weight loss or nausea and vomiting. These symptoms are more typical in the client with a gastric ulcer.

The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing an acute episode of cholecystitis. Which of these clinical manifestations support this diagnosis? (SATA) 1. Fever 2. Positive Cullen's sign 3. Complaints of indigestion 4. Palpable mass in the left upper quadrant 5. Pain in the upper right quadrant after a fatty meal 6. Vague lower right quadrant abdominal discomfort

1, 3, 5 ~ During an acute episode of cholecystitis, the client may complain of severe right upper quadrant pain that radiates to the right scapula or shoulder or experience epigastric pain after a fatty or high-volume meal. Fever & signs of dehydration would also be expected, as well as indigestion, belching, flatulence, nausea & vomiting. #4 & 6 are incorrect because they are inconsistent with the anatomical location of the gallbladder. #2 (Cullen's sign) is associated w/ pancreatitis.

The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client with newly diagnosed Crohn's disease about dietary measures to implement during exacerbation episodes. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further instruction? 1. "I should increase the fiber in my diet." 2. "I will need to avoid caffeinated beverages." 3. "I'm going to learn some stress reduction techniques." 4. "I can have exacerbations and remissions with Crohn's disease."

1 ~ Crohn's disease is an inflammatory disease that can occur anywhere in the gastrointestinal tract but most often affects the terminal ileum & leads to thickening & scarring, a narrowed lumen, fistulas, ulcerations & abscesses. It is characterized by exacerbations & remissions. If stress increases the symptoms of the disease, the client is taught stress management techniques & may require additional counseling. The client is taught to avoid gastrointestinal stimulants containing caffeine & to follow a high-calorie and high-protein diet. A low-fiber diet may be prescribed, especially during periods of exacerbation.

The nurse has provided dietary instructions to a client with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease. Which client statement indicates that education was effective? 1. "Baked foods such as chicken or fish are all right to eat." 2. "Citrus fruits and raw vegetables need to be included in my daily diet." 3. "I can drink beer as long as I consume only a moderate amount each day." 4. "I can drink coffee or tea as long as I limit the amount to 2 cups daily."

1 ~ Dietary modifications for the client with peptic ulcer disease include eliminating foods that can cause irritation to the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. Items that should be eliminated or avoided include highly spiced foods, alcohol, caffeine, chocolate, and citrus fruits. Other foods may be taken according to the client's level of tolerance for that food.

A client experiencing chronic dumping syndrome makes the following comments to the nurse. Which one indicates the need for further teaching? 1. "I eat at least 3 large meals each day." 2. "I eat while lying in a semirecumbent position." 3. "I have eliminated taking liquids with my meals." 4. "I eat a high-protein, low- to moderate-carbohydrate diet."

1 ~ Dumping syndrome describes a group of symptoms that occur after eating. It is believed to result from rapid dumping of gastric contents into the small intestine, which causes fluid to shift into the intestine. Signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome include diarrhea, abdominal distention, sweating, pallor, palpitations, and syncope. To manage this syndrome, clients are encouraged to decrease the amount of food taken at each sitting, eat in a semirecumbent position, eliminate ingesting fluids with meals, and avoid consumption of high-carbohydrate meals.

The nurse has provided home care instructions to a client who had a subtotal gastrectomy. The nurse instructs the client on the signs and symptoms associated with dumping syndrome. Which client statement indicates that teaching was effective? 1. "It will cause diaphoresis and diarrhea." 2. "I have to monitor for hiccups and diarrhea." 3. "It will be associated with constipation and fever." 4. "I have to monitor for fatigue and abdominal pain."

1 ~ Dumping syndrome occurs after gastric surgery because food is not held for as long in the stomach and is dumped into the intestine as a hypertonic mass. This causes fluid to shift into the intestine, causing cardiovascular and gastrointestinal symptoms. Symptoms can typically include weakness, dizziness, diaphoresis, flushing, hypotension, abdominal pain and distention, hyperactive bowel sounds, and diarrhea. The remaining options are not signs of dumping syndrome.

The nurse is monitoring a client for the early signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome. Which findings indicate this occurrence? 1. Sweating and pallor 2. Bradycardia and indigestion 3. Double vision and chest pain 4. Abdominal cramping and pain

1 ~ Early manifestations of dumping syndrome occur 5 to 30 minutes after eating. Symptoms include vertigo, tachycardia, syncope, sweating, pallor, palpitations, and the desire to lie down.

The nurse inspects the color of the drainage from a nasogastric tube on a postoperative client approximately 24 hours after gastric surgery. Which finding indicates the need to notify the health care provider (HCP)? 1. Dark red drainage 2. Dark brown drainage 3. Green-tinged drainage 4. Light yellowish-brown drainage

1 ~ For the first 12 hours after gastric surgery, the nasogastric tube drainage may be dark brown to dark red. Later, the drainage should change to a light yellowish-brown color. The presence of bile may cause a green tinge. The HCP should be notified if dark red drainage, a sign of hemorrhage, is noted 24 hours postoperatively.

The nurse is giving dietary instructions to a client who has a new colostomy. The nurse should encourage the client to eat foods representing which diet for the first 4 to 6 weeks postoperatively? 1. Low fiber 2. Low calorie 3. High protein 4. High carbohydrate

1 ~ For the first 4 to 6 weeks after colostomy formation, the client should consume a low-fiber diet. After this period, the client should eat a high-carbohydrate, high-protein diet. The client also is instructed to add new foods, including those with fiber, one at a time to determine tolerance to that food.

A client has developed hepatitis A after eating contaminated oysters. The nurse assesses the client for which expected assessment finding? 1. Malaise 2. Dark stools 3. Weight gain 4. Left upper quadrant discomfort

1 ~ Hepatitis causes gastrointestinal symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, right upper quadrant discomfort, and weight loss. Fatigue & malaise are common. Stools will be light- or clay-colored if conjugated bilirubin is unable to flow out of the liver because of inflammation or obstruction of the bile ducts.

A client with hiatal hernia chronically experiences heartburn following meals. The nurse should plan to teach the client to avoid which action because it is contraindicated with a hiatal hernia? 1. Lying recumbent following meals 2. Consuming small, frequent, bland meals 3. Taking H2-receptor antagonist medication 4. Raising the head of the bed on 6-inch (15 cm) blocks

1 ~ Hiatal hernia is caused by a protrusion of a portion of the stomach above the diaphragm where the esophagus usually is positioned. The client usually experiences pain from reflux caused by ingestion of irritating foods, lying flat following meals or at night, and eating large or fatty meals. Relief is obtained with the intake of small, frequent, and bland meals; use of H2-receptor antagonists and antacids; and elevation of the thorax following meals and during sleep.

The nurse provides instructions to a client about measures to treat inflammatory bowel syndrome (IBS). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? 1. "I need to limit my intake of dietary fiber." 2. "I need to drink plenty, at least 8 to 10 cups daily." 3. "I need to eat regular meals and chew my food well." 4. "I will take the prescribed medications because they will regulate my bowel patterns."

1 ~ IBS is a functional gastrointestinal disorder that causes chronic or recurrent diarrhea, constipation, and/or abdominal pain and bloating. Dietary fiber and bulk help to produce bulky, soft stools and establish regular bowel elimination habits. Therefore, the client should consume a high-fiber diet. Eating regular meals, drinking 8 to 10 cups of liquid a day, and chewing food slowly help to promote normal bowel function. Medication therapy depends on the main symptoms of IBS. Bulk-forming laxatives or antidiarrheal agents or other agents may be prescribed.

A client with viral hepatitis states, "I am so yellow." What is the most appropriate nursing action? 1. Assist the client in expressing feelings. 2. Restrict visitors until the jaundice subsides. 3. Perform most of the activities of daily living for the client. 4. Provide information to the client only when he or she requests it.

1 ~ The client should be supported to explore feelings about the disease process and altered appearance so that appropriate interventions can be planned. Restricting visitors would reinforce the client's negative self-esteem. To assist the client in adapting to changes in appearance, it is important for the nurse to encourage participation in self-care to foster independence and self-esteem. The client should be encouraged to ask questions to clarify misconceptions, to learn ways to prevent the spread of hepatitis, to reduce fear, and to make appropriate decisions.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client with acute pancreatitis who was admitted to the hospital. Which assessment question would most specifically elicit information regarding the pain that is associated with acute pancreatitis? 1. "Does the pain in your stomach radiate to your back?" 2. "Does the pain in your lower abdomen radiate to your hip?" 3. "Does the pain in your lower abdomen radiate to your groin?" 4. "Does the pain in your stomach radiate to your lower middle abdomen?"

1 ~ The pain that is associated with acute pancreatitis is often severe, is located in the epigastric region, and radiates to the back. The remaining options are incorrect because they are not specific for the pain experienced by the client with pancreatitis.

A client presents to the emergency department with upper gastrointestinal bleeding and is in moderate distress. In planning care, what is the priority nursing action for this client? 1. Assessment of vital signs 2. Completion of abdominal examination 3. Insertion of the prescribed nasogastric tube 4. Thorough investigation of precipitating events

1 ~ The priority nursing action is to assess the vital signs. This would provide information about the amount of blood loss that has occurred and provide a baseline by which to monitor the progress of treatment. The client may be unable to provide subjective data until the immediate physical needs are met. Although an abdominal examination and an assessment of the precipitating events may be necessary, these actions are not the priority. Insertion of a nasogastric tube is not the priority and will require a health care provider's prescription; in addition, the vital signs should be checked before performing this procedure.

The nurse is preparing to teach a client with a new colostomy about how to perform a colostomy irrigation. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching plan? 1. Use 500 to 1000 mL of warm tap water. 2. Suspend the irrigant 36 inches above the stoma. 3. Insert the irrigation cone ½ inch into the stoma. 4. If cramping occurs, open the irrigation clamp farther.

1 ~ The usual procedure for colostomy irrigation includes using 500 to 1000 mL of warm tap water. The solution is suspended 18 inches above the stoma. The cone is inserted 2 to 4 inches into the stoma but should never be forced. If cramping occurs, the client should decrease the flow rate of the irrigant as needed by closing the irrigation clamp.

The nurse is planning to teach a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) about substances to avoid. Which items should the nurse include on this list? (SATA) 1. Coffee 2. Chocolate 3. Peppermint 4. Nonfat milk 5. Fried chicken 6. Scrambled eggs

1, 2, 3, 5 ~ Foods that decrease lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure & irritate the esophagus will increase reflux & exacerbate the symptoms of GERD & therefore should be avoided. Aggravating substances include coffee, chocolate, peppermint, fried or fatty foods, carbonated beverages & alcohol.

The nurse is reviewing the prescription for a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which interventions would the nurse expect to be prescribed for the client? (SATA) 1. Maintain NPO (nothing by mouth) status. 2. Encourage coughing and deep breathing. 3. Give small, frequent high-calorie feedings. 4. Maintain the client in a supine and flat position. 5. Give hydromorphone IV as prescribed for pain. 6. Maintain intravenous fluids at 10 mL/hour to keep the vein open.

1, 2, 5 ~ The client with acute pancreatitis normally is placed on NPO status to rest the pancreas and suppress gastrointestinal secretions, so adequate intravenous hydration is necessary. Because abdominal pain is a prominent symptom of pancreatitis, pain medications such as morphine or hydromorphone are prescribed. Meperidine is avoided, as it may cause seizures. Some clients experience lessened pain by assuming positions that flex the trunk, with the knees drawn up to the chest. A side-lying position with the head elevated 45 degrees decreases tension on the abdomen and may help to ease the pain. The client is susceptible to respiratory infections because the retroperitoneal fluid raises the diaphragm, which causes the client to take shallow, guarded abdominal breaths. Therefore, measures such as turning, coughing, and deep breathing are instituted.

A client has just had a hemorrhoidectomy. Which nursing interventions are appropriate for this client? (SATA) 1. Administer stool softeners as prescribed. 2. Instruct the client to limit fluid intake to avoid urinary retention. 3. Encourage a high-fiber diet to promote bowel movements without straining. 4. Apply cold packs to the anal-rectal area over the dressing until the packing is removed. 5. Help the client to a Fowler's position to place pressure on the rectal area and decrease bleeding.

1, 3, 4 ~ Nursing interventions after a hemorrhoidectomy are aimed at management of pain & avoidance of bleeding & incision rupture. Stool softeners & a high-fiber diet will help the client to avoid straining, thereby reducing the chances of rupturing the incision. An ice pack will increase comfort & decrease bleeding.

The nurse is teaching the client with viral hepatitis about the stages of the disease. The nurse should explain to the client that the second stage of this disease is characterized by which specific assessment findings? (SATA) 1. Jaundice 2. Flulike symptoms 3. Clay-colored stools 4. Elevated bilirubin levels 5. Dark or tea-colored urine

1, 3, 4, 5 ~ There are 3 stages associated with viral hepatitis. The first (preicteric) stage includes flulike symptoms only. The second (icteric) stage includes the appearance of jaundice and associated symptoms such as elevated bilirubin levels, dark or tea-colored urine, and clay-colored stools. The third (posticteric) stage occurs when the jaundice decreases and the colors of the urine and stool return to normal.

The nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client with a diagnosis of chronic gastritis. The nurse instructs the client to include which foods rich in vitamin B12 in the diet? (SATA) 1. Nuts 2. Corn 3. Liver 4. Apples 5. Lentils 6. Bananas

1, 3, 5 ~ Chronic gastritis causes deterioration & atrophy of the lining of the stomach, leading to the loss of function of the parietal cells. The source of intrinsic factor is lost, which results in an inability to absorb vitamin B12, leading to development of pernicious anemia. Clients must increase their intake of vitamin B12 by increasing consumption of foods rich in this vitamin, such as nuts, organ meats, dried beans, citrus fruits, green leafy vegetables & yeast.

The nurse is monitoring a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of appendicitis who is scheduled for surgery in 2 hours. The client begins to complain of increased abdominal pain and begins to vomit. On assessment, the nurse notes that the abdomen is distended and bowel sounds are diminished. Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention? 1. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 2. Administer the prescribed pain medication. 3. Call and ask the operating room team to perform surgery as soon as possible. 4. Reposition the client and apply a heating pad on the warm setting to the client's abdomen.

1. ~ On the basis of the signs and symptoms presented in the question, the nurse should suspect peritonitis and notify the HCP. Administering pain medication is not an appropriate intervention. Heat should never be applied to the abdomen of a client with suspected appendicitis because of the risk of rupture. Scheduling surgical time is not within the scope of nursing practice, although the HCP probably would perform the surgery earlier than the prescheduled time.

A client is diagnosed with viral hepatitis, complaining of "no appetite" & "losing my taste for food." What instruction should the nurse give the client to provide adequate nutrition? 1. Select foods high in fat. 2. Increase intake of fluids, including juices. 3. Eat a good supper when anorexia is not as severe. 4. Eat less often, preferably only 3 large meals daily.

2 ~ Although no special diet is required to treat viral hepatitis, it is generally recommended that clients consume a low-fat diet, as fat may be tolerated poorly because of decreased bile production. Small, frequent meals are preferable and may even prevent nausea. Frequently, appetite is better in the morning, so it is easier to eat a good breakfast. An adequate fluid intake of 2500 to 3000 mL/day that includes nutritional juices is also important.

The nurse is teaching an older client about measures to prevent constipation. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? 1. "I walk 1 to 2 miles every day." 2. "I need to decrease fiber in my diet." 3. "I have a bowel movement every other day." 4. "I drink 6 to 8 glasses of water every day."

2 ~ An older client has an increased tendency to experience constipation because of decreased stomach-emptying time and a lowered basal metabolic rate. Adequate dietary fiber is an important factor in aiding bowel function. Dietary fiber increases fecal weight and water content and accelerates the transit of fecal mass through the gastrointestinal tract. The retention of water by the fiber has the ability to soften stools and promote regularity. Fluid intake and exercise also facilitate bowel elimination.

After undergoing Billroth I gastric surgery, the client experiences fatigue and complains of numbness and tingling in the feet and difficulties with balance. On the basis of these symptoms, the nurse suspects which postoperative complication? 1. Stroke 2. Pernicious anemia 3. Bacterial meningitis 4. Peripheral arterial disease

2 ~ Billroth I surgery involves removing one half to two thirds of the stomach and reanastomosing the remaining segment of the stomach to the duodenum. With the loss of this much of the stomach, development of pernicious anemia is not uncommon. Pernicious anemia is a macrocytic anemia that most commonly is caused by the lack of intrinsic factor. During a Billroth I procedure, a large portion of the parietal cells, which are responsible for producing intrinsic factor (a necessary component for vitamin B12 absorption), are removed. In this anemia, the red blood cell is larger than usual and hence does not last as long in the circulation as normal red blood cells do, causing the client to have anemia with resultant fatigue. Vitamin B12 also is necessary for normal nerve function. Because of the lack of the necessary intrinsic factor, persons with pernicious anemia also experience paresthesias, impaired gait, and impaired balance.

The health care provider has determined that a client has contracted hepatitis-A based on flu-like symptoms & jaundice. Which statement made by the client supports this medical diagnosis? 1. "I have had unprotected sex with multiple partners." 2. "I ate shellfish about 2 weeks ago at a local restaurant." 3. "I was an intravenous drug abuser in the past & shared needles." 4. "I had a blood transfusion 30 years ago after major abdominal surgery."

2 ~ Hepatitis-A is transmitted by the fecal-oral route via contaminated water or food (improperly cooked shellfish), or infected food handlers. Hepatitis B, C & D are transmitted most commonly via infected blood or body fluids, such as in the cases of intravenous drug abuse, history of blood transfusion, or unprotected sex with multiple partners.

A client with viral hepatitis has no appetite, and food makes the client nauseated. Which nursing intervention is appropriate? 1. Encourage foods that are high in protein. 2. Monitor for fluid and electrolyte imbalance. 3. Explain that high-fat diets usually are better tolerated. 4. Explain that most daily calories need to be consumed in the evening hours.

2 ~ If nausea occurs and persists, the client will need to be assessed for fluid and electrolyte imbalance. It is important to explain to the client that most calories should be eaten in the morning hours because nausea is most common in the afternoon and evening. Clients should select a diet high in calories because energy is required for healing. Protein increases the workload on the liver. Changes in bilirubin interfere with fat absorption, so low-fat diets are better tolerated.

The nurse is providing care for a client with a recent transverse colostomy. Which observation requires immediate notification of the health care provider? 1. Stoma is beefy red and shiny 2. Purple discoloration of the stoma 3. Skin excoriation around the stoma 4. Semi-formed stool noted in the ostomy pouch

2 ~ Ischemia of the stoma would be associated with a dusky or bluish or purple color. A beefy red and shiny stoma is normal and expected. Skin excoriation needs to be addressed and treated but does not require as immediate attention as purple discoloration of the stoma. Semi-formed stool is a normal finding.

The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of acute appendicitis. Which laboratory result should the nurse expect to note if the client does have appendicitis? 1. Leukopenia with a shift to the left 2. Leukocytosis with a shift to the left 3. Leukopenia with a shift to the right 4. Leukocytosis with a shift to the right

2 ~ Laboratory findings do not establish the diagnosis of appendicitis, but there is often an elevation of the white blood cell count (leukocytosis) with a shift to the left (an increased number of immature white blood cells). Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect because they are not associated findings in acute appenditis.

The nurse is providing instructions to a client with a colostomy about measures to reduce the odor from the colostomy. Which client statement indicates that the educational session was effective? 1. "I should be sure to eat at least 1 cucumber every day." 2. "Beet greens, parsley, or yogurt will help to control the colostomy odor." 3. "I will need to increase my egg intake and try to eat ½ to 1 egg per day." 4. "Green vegetables such as spinach and broccoli will prevent odor, and I should eat these foods every day."

2 ~ The client should be taught to include deodorizing foods in the diet, such as beet greens, parsley, buttermilk, and yogurt. Spinach also may reduce odor, but it is a gas-forming food and should be avoided. Cucumbers, eggs, and broccoli also are gas-forming foods and should be avoided or limited by the client.

The nurse is giving instructions to a client with cholecystitis about food to exclude from the diet. Which food item identified by the client indicates that the educational session was successful? 1. Fresh fruit 2. Brown gravy 3. Fresh vegetables 4. Poultry without skin

2 ~ The client with cholecystitis should decrease overall intake of dietary fat. Foods that should be avoided include sausage, gravies, fatty meats, fried foods, products made with cream, and desserts. Appropriate food choices include fruits and vegetables, fish, and poultry without skin.

A sexually active young adult client has developed viral hepatitis. Which client statement indicates the need for further teaching? 1. "I should avoid drinking alcohol." 2. "I can go back to work right away." 3. "My partner should get the vaccine." 4. "A condom should be used for sexual intercourse."

2 ~ To prevent transmission of hepatitis, vaccination of the partner is advised. In addition, a condom is advised during sexual intercourse. Alcohol should be avoided because it is detoxified in the liver and may interfere with recovery. Rest is especially important until laboratory studies show that liver function has returned to normal. The client's activity is increased gradually, and the client should not return to work right away.

A client who has undergone gastric surgery has a nasogastric (NG) tube connected to low intermittent suction that is not draining properly. Which action should the nurse take initially? 1. Call the surgeon to report the problem. 2. Reposition the NG tube to the proper location. 3. Check the suction device to make sure it is working. 4. Irrigate the NG tube with saline to remove the obstruction.

3 ~ After gastric surgery, the client will have an NG tube in place until bowel function returns. It is important for the NG tube to drain properly to prevent abdominal distention and vomiting. The nurse must ensure that the NG tube is attached to suction at the level prescribed and that the suction device is working correctly. The tip of the NG tube may be placed near the suture line. Because of this possibility, the nurse should never reposition the NG tube or irrigate it. If the NG tube needs to be repositioned, the nurse should call the surgeon, who would do this repositioning under fluoroscopy.

The nurse is reviewing the record of a client with a diagnosis of cirrhosis and notes that there is documentation of the presence of asterixis. How should the nurse assess for its presence? 1. Dorsiflex the client's foot. 2. Measure the abdominal girth. 3. Ask the client to extend the arms. 4. Instruct the client to lean forward.

3 ~ Asterixis is irregular flapping movements of the fingers and wrists when the hands and arms are outstretched, with the palms down, wrists bent up, and fingers spread. Asterixis is the most common and reliable sign that hepatic encephalopathy is developing.

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client with cirrhosis and notes that the ammonia level is 85 mcg/dL (51 mcmol/L). Which dietary selection does the nurse suggest to the client? 1. Roast pork 2. Cheese omelet 3. Pasta with sauce 4. Tuna fish sandwich

3 ~ Cirrhosis is a chronic, progressive disease of the liver characterized by diffuse degeneration and destruction of hepatocytes. The serum ammonia level assesses the ability of the liver to deaminate protein byproducts. Normal reference interval is 10 to 80 mcg/dL (6 to 47 mcmol/L). Most of the ammonia in the body is found in the gastrointestinal tract. Protein provided by the diet is transported to the liver by the portal vein. The liver breaks down protein, which results in the formation of ammonia. Foods high in protein should be avoided since the client's ammonia level is elevated above the normal range; therefore, pasta with sauce would be the best selection.

A client with viral hepatitis is having difficulty coping with the disorder. Which question by the nurse is the most appropriate in identifying the client's coping problem? 1. "Do you have a fever?" 2. "Are you losing weight?" 3. "Have you enjoyed having visitors?" 4. "Do you rest sometime during the day?"

3 ~ Clients with hepatitis may experience anxiety because of an anticipated change in lifestyle or fear of prognosis. They also may have a disturbance in body image related to the stigma of having a communicable disease or a change in appearance because of jaundice. The correct option relates to the client's possible feelings of not wanting to be seen by others because of altered appearance. Remember that the client with hepatitis is jaundiced.

The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client following gastrectomy & should instruct the client to take which measure to assist in preventing dumping syndrome? 1. Ambulate following a meal. 2. Eat high-carbohydrate foods. 3. Limit the fluids taken with meals. 4. Sit in a high Fowler's position during meals.

3 ~ Dumping syndrome is a term that refers to a constellation of vasomotor symptoms that occurs after eating, especially following a gastrojejunostomy (Billroth II procedure). Early manifestations usually occur within 30 minutes of eating & include vertigo, tachycardia, syncope, sweating, pallor, palpitations & the desire to lie down. The nurse should instruct the client to decrease the amount of fluid taken at meals & to avoid high-carbohydrate foods, including fluids such as fruit nectars; to assume a low Fowler's position during meals; to lie down for 30 minutes after eating to delay gastric emptying & to take antispasmodics as prescribed.

A client with viral hepatitis is discussing with the nurse the need to avoid alcohol and states, "I'm not sure I can avoid alcohol." What is the most appropriate nursing response? 1. "I don't believe that." 2. "Everything will be all right." 3. "I'm not sure that I understand. Would you please explain?" 4. "I think you should talk more with the health care provider about this."

3 ~ Explaining what is vague or clarifying the meaning of what has been said increases understanding for both the client and the nurse. Refusing to consider the client's ideas may cause the client to discontinue interaction with the nurse for fear of further rejection. False reassurance devalues the client's feelings. Placing the client's feelings on hold by referring him or her to the health care provider for further information is a block to communication.

The nurse is assessing a client 24 hours following a cholecystectomy. The nurse notes that the T-tube has drained 750 mL of green-brown drainage since the surgery. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate? 1. Clamp the T-tube. 2. Irrigate the T-tube. 3. Document the findings. 4. Notify the health care provider.

3 ~ Following cholecystectomy, drainage from the T-tube is initially bloody & then turns a greenish-brown color. The drainage is measured as output. The amount of expected drainage will range from 500 to 1000 mL/day. The nurse would document the output.

The nurse checks the gastric residual of an unconscious client receiving nasogastric tube feedings continuously at 50 mL/hr. The nurse notes that the residual is 250 mL at 0800 and 300 mL at 0900. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing which complication? 1. Air in the stomach 2. Too slow an infusion rate 3. Delayed gastric emptying 4. Early signs of peptic ulcer

3 ~ If the gastric residual is greater than 200 mL for 2 consecutive hours, the client may be experiencing delayed gastric emptying. If this occurs, the feeding is stopped, and the health care provider should be notified. The nurse should assess whether abdominal girth is enlarged and should auscultate bowel sounds to rule out intestinal obstruction. Some clients benefit from administration of metoclopramide to stimulate gastric emptying. Air in the stomach would be accompanied by abdominal distention and increased abdominal girth. The infusion rate cannot be too slow if the client is not tolerating the rate. Early peptic ulcer could be detected by a Hematest-positive gastric aspirate. In addition, agency procedures should be followed regarding gastric residuals.

The nurse is caring for a client following a gastrojejunostomy (Billroth II procedure). Which postoperative prescription should the nurse question and verify? 1. Leg exercises 2. Early ambulation 3. Irrigating the nasogastric tube 4. Coughing & deep-breathing exercises

3 ~ In a gastrojejunostomy (Billroth II procedure), the proximal remnant of the stomach is anastomosed to the proximal jejunum. Patency of the nasogastric tube is critical for preventing the retention of gastric secretions. The nurse should never irrigate or reposition the gastric tube after gastric surgery, unless specifically prescribed by the health care provider. In this situation, the nurse should clarify the prescription. Options 1, 2 & 4 are appropriate postoperative interventions.

The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client with viral hepatitis. The nurse should plan to include which information in the teaching session? 1. The diet should be low in calories. 2. Meals should be large to conserve energy. 3. Activity should be limited to prevent fatigue. 4. Alcohol intake should be limited to 2 ounces per day.

3 ~ Rest is necessary for the client with hepatitis, and the client with viral hepatitis should limit activity to avoid fatigue. The diet should be optimal in calories, proteins, and carbohydrates. The client should take in several small meals per day. Alcohol is strictly forbidden.

The nurse has taught the client about an upcoming endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) procedure. The nurse determines that the client needs further information if the client makes which statement? 1. "I know I must sign the consent form." 2. "I hope the throat spray keeps me from gagging." 3. "I'm glad I don't have to lie still for this procedure." 4. "I'm glad some intravenous medication will be given to relax me."

3 ~ The client DOES have to lie still for ERCP, which takes about 1 hour to perform. The client also has to sign a consent form. Intravenous sedation is given to relax the client & an anesthetic spray is used to help keep the client from gagging as the endoscope is passed.

The nurse is providing instructions to a client regarding measures to minimize the risk of dumping syndrome. The nurse should make which suggestion to the client? 1. Maintain a high-carbohydrate diet. 2. Increase fluid intake, particularly at mealtime. 3. Maintain a low Fowler's position while eating. 4. Ambulate for at least 30 minutes following each meal.

3 ~ The client at risk for dumping syndrome should be instructed to maintain a low Fowler's position while eating and lie down for at least 30 minutes after eating. The client also should be told that small, frequent meals are best and to avoid liquids with meals. Avoiding high-carbohydrate food sources also will assist in minimizing dumping syndrome.

The nurse has implemented a bowel maintenance program for an unconscious client. The nurse would evaluate the plan as best meeting the needs of the client if which method was successful in stimulating a bowel movement? 1. Fleet enema 2. Fecal disimpaction 3. Glycerin suppository 4. Soap solution enema (SSE)

3 ~ The least amount of invasiveness needed to produce a bowel movement is best. Use of glycerin suppositories is the least invasive method and usually stimulates bowel evacuation within a half-hour. Enemas may be needed on an every-other-day basis, but they are used cautiously (even if not contraindicated) because the Valsalva maneuver can increase intracranial pressure. Fecal disimpaction is done only when the client's rectum has become impacted from constipation as a result of inattention or failure of other measures. Stool softeners may be prescribed on a regular schedule for some clients to avoid hard, dry stools, but oral medication is not administered to an unconscious client.

A client has just had surgery to create an ileostomy. The nurse assesses the client in the immediate postoperative period for which most frequent complication of this type of surgery? 1. Folate deficiency 2. Malabsorption of fat 3. Intestinal obstruction 4. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance

4 ~ A frequent complication that occurs following ileostomy is fluid and electrolyte imbalance. The client requires constant monitoring of intake and output to prevent this from occurring. Losses require replacement by intravenous infusion until the client can tolerate a diet orally. Intestinal obstruction is a less frequent complication. Fat malabsorption and folate deficiency are complications that could occur later in the postoperative period.

The nurse is caring for a client after abdominal surgery and creation of a colostomy. The nurse is assessing the client for a prolapsed stoma and should expect to note which observation if this is present? 1. A sunken and hidden stoma 2. A narrow and flattened stoma 3. A stoma that is dusky or bluish 4. A stoma that is elongated with a swollen appearance

4 ~ A prolapsed stoma is one in which the bowel protrudes, causing an elongated and swollen appearance of the stoma. A retracted stoma is characterized by sinking of the stoma. A stoma with a narrow opening is described as being stenosed. Ischemia of the stoma would be associated with a dusky or bluish color.

The nurse is monitoring a client with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer. Which assessment finding would most likely indicate perforation of the ulcer? 1. Bradycardia 2. Numbness in the legs 3. Nausea and vomiting 4. A rigid, board-like abdomen

4 ~ Perforation of an ulcer is a surgical emergency & is characterized by sudden, sharp, intolerable severe pain beginning in the mid-epigastric area & spreading over the abdomen, which becomes rigid & board-like. Nausea & vomiting may occur. Tachycardia may occur as hypovolemic shock develops. Numbness in the legs is not an associated finding.

A client with peptic ulcer disease states that stress frequently causes exacerbation of the disease. The nurse determines that which item mentioned by the client is most likely to be responsible for the exacerbation? 1. Sleeping 8 to 10 hours a night 2. Ability to work at home periodically 3. Eating 5 or 6 small meals per day 4. Frequent need to work overtime on short notice

4 ~ Psychological or emotional stressors that exacerbate peptic ulcer disease may be found either at home or in the workplace. Of the items listed, the frequent need to work overtime on short notice is potentially the most stressful because it is the item over which the client has the least control. An ability to work at home periodically is not necessarily stressful because it allows increased client control over timing and location of work. Adequate rest and proper dietary pattern (options 1 and 3) should alleviate symptoms, not worsen them.

The nurse obtains an admission history for a client with suspected peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which client factor documented by the nurse would increase the risk for PUD? 1. Recently retired from a job 2. Significant other has a gastric ulcer 3. Occasionally drinks 1 cup of coffee in the morning 4. Takes nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for osteoarthritis

4 ~ Risk factors for PUD include Helicobacter pylori infection, smoking (nicotine), chewing tobacco, corticosteroids, aspirin, NSAIDs, caffeine, alcohol, and stress. When an NSAID is taken as often as is typical for osteoarthritis, it will cause problems with the stomach. Certain medical conditions such as Crohn's disease, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, and hepatic and biliary disease also can increase the risk for PUD by changing the amount of gastric and biliary acids produced. Recent retirement should decrease stress levels rather than increase them. Ulcer disease in a first-degree relative also is associated with increased risk for an ulcer. A significant other is not a first-degree relative; therefore, no genetic connection is noted in this relationship. Although caffeinated drinks are a known risk factor for PUD, the option states that the client drinks 1 cup of coffee occasionally.

A client with acute ulcerative colitis requests a snack. Which is the most appropriate snack for this client? 1. Carrots and ranch dip 2. Whole-grain cereal and milk 3. A cup of popcorn and a cola drink 4. Applesauce and a graham cracker

4 ~ The diet for the client with ulcerative colitis should be low fiber (low residue). The nurse should avoid providing foods such as whole-wheat grains, nuts, and fresh fruits or vegetables. Typically, lactose-containing foods also are poorly tolerated. The client also should avoid caffeine, pepper, and alcohol.

A client has undergone esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). The nurse should place highest priority on which item as part of the client's care plan? 1. Monitoring the temperature 2. Monitoring complaints of heartburn 3. Giving warm gargles for a sore throat 4. Assessing for the return of the gag reflex

4 ~ The nurse places highest priority on assessing for return of the gag reflex. This assessment addresses the client's airway. The nurse also monitors the client's vital signs & for a sudden increase in temperature, which could indicate perforation of the gastrointestinal tract. This complication would be accompanied by other signs as well, such as pain. Monitoring for sore throat & heartburn are also important; however, the client's airway is the priority.

The nurse is caring for a client with ulcerative colitis. Which finding does the nurse determine is consistent with this diagnosis? 1. Hypercalcemia 2. Hypernatremia 3. Frothy, fatty stools 4. Decreased hemoglobin

4 ~ Ulcerative colitis is an inflammatory disease of the large colon. Findings associated with ulcerative colitis include diarrhea with up to 10 to 20 liquid bloody stools per day, weight loss, anorexia, fatigue, increased white blood cell count, increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate, dehydration, hyponatremia, and hypokalemia (not hypercalcemia). Because of the loss of blood, clients with ulcerative colitis commonly have decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. Clients with ulcerative colitis have bloody diarrhea, not steatorrhea (fatty, frothy, foul-smelling stools).

A client admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of acute pancreatitis is being assessed by the nurse. Which assessment findings would be consistent with acute pancreatitis? (SATA) 1. Diarrhea 2. Black, tarry stools 3. Hyperactive bowel sounds 4. Gray-blue color at the flank 5. Abdominal guarding and tenderness 6. Left upper quadrant pain with radiation to the back

4, 5, 6 ~ Grayish-blue discoloration at the flank is known as Grey-Turner's sign and occurs as a result of pancreatic enzyme leakage to cutaneous tissue from the peritoneal cavity. The client may demonstrate abdominal guarding and may complain of tenderness with palpation. The pain associated with acute pancreatitis is often sudden in onset and is located in the epigastric region or left upper quadrant with radiation to the back. The other options are incorrect.