General (pt.4)

To ensure proper airspace protection while holding above 6,000 feet in a civil aircraft, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use? A) 230 knots B) 200 knots C) 210 knots

230 knots

(Refer to figure 259.) ATC instructs you to "Taxi to Runway 04, hold short Runway 22." Which sign will be at the hold short line? A) A B) B C) F

A

If an aircraft is equipped with an installed GPS device, who may update the database? A) Only a company mechanic or repair technician B) A pilot C) Only the operator or manufacturer

A pilot

(Refer to figure 256.) At what locations would this sign appear? A) Locations 10 and 11 B) Locations 3 and 5 C) Locations 9 and 12

Locations 10 and 11

You are flying in the clouds with freezing temperature. Where would you expect ice to accumulate first? A) On a small, thin protuberance B) Fuselage or windscreen C) Wing leading edges

On a small, thin protuberance

(Refer to figure 254.) After landing, ATC instructs you to exit the runway and remain clear of the ILS critical area while awaiting further taxi instructions. Which sign indicates you are clear of the ILS critical area? A) A B) B C) C

C

During the preflight of a rental aircraft for flight into IMC, you notice it is equiped with a heated windshield. How would you determine if the aircraft is approved for flight into known icing conditions? A) Ask the owner. B) Check the operator approved operating specifications. C) Check the Aircraft Flight Manual or the approved Pilot's Operating Handbook.

Check the Aircraft Flight Manual or the approved Pilot's Operating Handbook.

When the pilot initiated a missed approach procedure, how should the airplane be configured? A) Landing configuration B) Climb configuration C) Cruise configuration

Climb configuration

(Refer to figure 96 and 97.) To which HSI does the aircraft in position 2 correspond A) E B) H C) D

D

(Refer to figure 252.) Due to a runway closure at your destination airport, you divert to your alternate OSH. What decision altitude would apply to the ILS WY 36 approach at Oshkosh/Wittman Regional (OSH)? A) Decision altitude 2,140 feet MSL. B) Decision altitude 1,608 feet MSL C) Decision altitude 1,008 feet MSL.

Decision altitude 1,008 feet MSL.

What are the primary benefits of satellite-based area navigation (RNAV)? A) GNSS can generate direct courses that suit operational requirements for almost any flight. B) Radio tuning and controller communication is minimized and more effective. C) Standard Terminal Arrival Routes and Departure Procedures are not required.

GNSS can generate direct courses that suit operational requirements for almost any flight.

ATC has assigned you a new heading. As you establish a standard rate turn, what must you do to maintain altitude and airspeed. A) Increase angle of attack and increase power B) Increase angle of attack and decrease power C) Decrease angle of attack and decrease power

Increase angle of attack and increase power

ATC has cleared you on course and deleted your airspeed restriction. You begin a level turn while the aircraft is accelerating. Which bank correction is necessary in order to maintain a standard rate turn? A) Increase bank angle. B) No bank correction is necessary. C) Decrease bank angle.

Increase bank angle.

What action should be taken if you encounter an in-flight anomaly with an installed GPS during enroute navigation A) Do nothing B) Inform ATC immediately C) inform ATC after landing

Inform ATC immediately

(Refer to figure 247. What does the star symbol (*) next to the Riverside tower frequency indicate? A) Part-time tower operations. B) Tower operations are affected by daylight savings. C) Pilot controlled lighting available.

Part-time tower operations.

(refer to Figure 254) Which answer refers to illustration C? A) no entry sign B) Protected ILS critical area C) Runway hold short

Protected ILS critical area

What is the purpose of Class E airspace transitions from the en route to the terminal area for IF operations? A) Provides controlled airspace to contain standard instrument approach procedures. B) To require VFR traffic to participate in arrival and departure procedures. C) Contains uncontrolled airspace to allow lower visibility requirements for landing.

Provides controlled airspace to contain standard instrument approach procedures.

(Refer to figure 169.) What lighting equipment installed for RWY 33 at ADS is designed to help identify the runay, which is surrounded by a preponderance of other lights? A) HIRL B) PAPI C) REIL

REIL

(Refer to Figure 254.) What does illustration B illustrate? A) Runway boundary sign B) Taxiway boundary sign C) ILS critical area boundary sign

Runway boundary sign

(Refer to figure 193.) What procedure should you follow to perform a ground VOR receiver check at Alice International airport? Position the aircraft on the taxiway near the FBO, tune the VOR receiver to 114.5 Mhz, and set the OBS to 272°. A) The OBS must center within plus or minus 4° with a FROM indication. B) The OBS must center within plus or minus 6° with a FROM indication. C) The OBS must center within plus or minus 4° with a TO indication.

The OBS must center within plus or minus 4° with a FROM indication.

(Refer to figure 193.) What procedure should you follow to perform a ground VOR receiver check at Easterwood Field? Position the aircraft on the west edge of the parking ramp, tune the VOR receiver to 113.3 Mhz, and set the OBS to 097° A) The OBS must center within plus or minus 4° with a FROM indication. B) The OBS must center within plus or minus 6° with a FROM indication. C) The OBS must center within plus or minus 4° with a TO indication.

The OBS must center within plus or minus 4° with a FROM indication.

(Refer to Figure 158.) You are given instructions to line up and wait on runway 04 while an airliner departs on runway 11. Winds are reported as 030° at 5 knots. What effect would you expect from the airliner vortices? A) The wind will keep the vortices well west of your departure path. B) The upwind vortex will tend to remain over the runway. C) The downwind vortex will tend to remain over your runway.

The upwind vortex will tend to remain over the runway.

The major factor which influences sky wave propagation? A) Power of transmitter B) Time of day C) Terrain

Time of day

(Refer to figure 185.) In low visibility conditions, why are certain intersections circled in color? A) To indicate well known hazardous spots on the airport B) To indicate required reporting points in low visibility conditions C) To indicate available HSI alignment locations

To indicate well known hazardous spots on the airport

(Refer to figure 34.) You are flying outbound on V54 from the TXK VOR. Which waypoint will have unreliable navigation reception? A) WASHO at 4,000 feet. B) HOSES at 3,000 feet. C) PROVO at 4,500 feet.

WASHO at 4,000 feet.

When holding at a VOR above 14,000 feet, when should timing be started A) When over or abeam the VOR, which ever occurs later B) 45 seconds after the turn begins C) When the VOR needle indicates a 180° from the outbound course

When over or abeam the VOR, which ever occurs later

(refer to Figure 196.) You are taking off on runway 04 behind a departing B-737. Which wind condition would prolong wake turbulence? A) Winds variable at 15 knots B) Winds 180 at 5 knots C) Winds 130 at 5 knots

Winds 180 at 5 knots

(Refer to figure 251.) You have been cleared to taxi to runway 9 via Alpha, Bravo, to Bravo Three in low visibility conditions. HS-1 indicates A) an automatic hold short point B) a location that is historically hazardous C) the location of Helicopter Station 1

a location that is historically hazardous

(Refer to figure 254, the top sign.) The "no Entry" Sign identifies A) a paved ares where aircraft entry is prohibited B) an area that does not continue beyond the intersection C) the exit boundary for the runway protected area

a paved ares where aircraft entry is prohibited

ATC clears you to descend, but does not include "at pilots discretion." You should A) descend at an optimum rate for the aircraft B) descent at 1,000 fpm C) descend at 500 fpm

descend at an optimum rate for the aircraft

While on arrival, you check the ATIS and notice the recording is over an hour old. This would indicate A) airport has VFR conditions and a new recording will not be made until IF conditions are present. B) new ATIS will be recorded soon and you may consider checking for updated information in a few minutes. C) the tower is closed and the ATIS will only be updated when a pilot requests an update.

new ATIS will be recorded soon and you may consider checking for updated information in a few minutes.

A displaced threshold will A) reduce takeoff distance available B) extend available landing distance C) reduce available landing distance

reduce available landing distance

Pilots first learning to utilize the trend indicators on a primary flight display (PFD) A) are less apt to deviate from assigned altitude B) tend to fixate, and attempt to hold airspeed to an unnecessarily tight tolerance C) do not tend to fixate, but concentrate more on maintaining heading

tend to fixate, and attempt to hold airspeed to an unnecessarily tight tolerance

You are flying toward a VOR with a TO indication. After crossing the VOR, your CDI indicates a half-scale deflection to the right with a FROM indication. After flying for several minutes on your present heading, the CDI still shows a half-scale deflection. You should A) turn toward the left to get back on course. B) ignore the half-scale deflection, remain on present heading, and expect the CDI to center momentarily. C) turn toward the right to get back on course.

turn toward the right to get back on course.

You must comply with the MEA on a federal airway because it assures A) acceptable navigation signal coverage and obstacle clearance between the fixes. B) clearance of at least 1,000 feet above terrain and obstacles within at least 22 NM of the VOR. C) accurate navigational signal coverage within 22 NM of the VOR.

acceptable navigation signal coverage and obstacle clearance between the fixes.

ATC issues an amendment to your IFR clearance. Your readback should include A) the term 'roger' to acknowledge your acceptance and receipt. B) any changes to altitude or heading and any additional verification. C) updated estimate to your next position report.

any changes to altitude or heading and any additional verification.

What should be done if signs of hyperventilation are suspected? A) Increase breathing rate with long quick breaths B) Increase breathing rate with short breaths C) breathe at a normal rate

breathe at a normal rate

If you suspect hyperventilation, you should A) take shallow and fast breaths B) breathe at a normal rate and depth C) take deep breaths faster than normal

breathe at a normal rate and depth

(Refer to figure 257.) You are cleared to taxi to runway 18R via Alpha to Echo. You are on taxiway Alpha at position 5. Which taxiway ahead will you follow? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3

1

(Refer to figure 89.) When flying northeast on V208, 53 DME from the PGA VOR, you lose communications with ATC. Which frequency should you try to re-establish contact? A) 127.55. B) 122.4. C) 122.1.

127.55.

(Refer to figure 242.) What is the distance from FEHXE to the threshold of the runway A) 13.9 NM B) 8.6 NM C) 5.3 NM

13.9NM

You consider asking ATC for help deviating around weather while flying on an IF clearance. You should know that A) ATC radar has limitations regarding weather. B) onboard datalink weather should be sufficient. C) ATC weather radar always provides the best information.

ATC radar has limitations regarding weather.

The en route low altitude chart depicts what type of airspace A) Class A and special use airspace B) Class A, B, C, D, and special use airspace C) The limits of controlled airspace

The limits of controlled airspace

Failure to maintain a heading may be a result of A) fixation during crosscheck B) rapid aircraft deceleration C) errors in power setting

fixation during crosscheck

While on glideslope for an ILS approach, a tailwind shears to a headwind. This is A) preferable because the aircraft will experience an increase in pertormance. B) extremely hazardous because the aircraft will have a decreased power setting as it encounters the headwind. C) no problem because the aircraft will remain on glideslope.

extremely hazardous because the aircraft will have a decreased power setting as it encounters the headwind.

When making an approach to landing, you are slightly above glidepath when the indications of the 2 bar VASI show the A) near bar red and the far bar white B) far bar change from red to white C) far bar red and near bad white

far bar change from red to white

At a constant indicated altitude and constant power, the outside air temperature becomes warmer than standard. The true airspeed will A) increase B) decrease C) remain constant

increase

To maintain a constant airspeed when entering a standard rate turn you should A) increase power B) increase back pressure C) release control pressure

increase power

When operating VFR-on-Top on an IF flight plan, the pilot A) is relieved of see and avoid responsibilities. B) will maintain the appropriate IF altitudes. C) is responsible to maintain VFR cloud clearance requirements.

is responsible to maintain VFR cloud clearance requirements.

ATC wants to confirm your altitude, and you are at 21,000 feet MSL. How should you report it? A) level at two one thousand B) level at two one zero C) level at twenty one hundred

level at two one zero

Activating deicing boots prior to entering icing conditions A) will clear off all ice accumulation B) may or may not clear off all ice accumulation C) will have no effect on ice accumulation

may or may not clear off all ice accumulation

A VFR-on-Top clearance allows the pilot to A) select an altitude in lieu of an assigned altitude B) fly direct without the use of NAVAIDs C) proceed VFR in Class A airspace

select an altitude in lieu of an assigned altitude