Health Assessment PrepU Ch. 11 (The Eyes)

The nurse is preparing to assess a client's visual fields to evaluate her gross peripheral vision. Which test would the nurse perform?

The confrontation test evaluates peripheral vision. The cover test, corneal light reflex test, and eye position test would be used to evaluate extraocular muscle function.

A client presents to the emergency department after being hit in the head with a baseball bat during a game. The nurse should assess for which condition?

Hyphema Explanation: Hyphema is blood in the anterior chamber of the eye, usually caused by blunt trauma. Blepharitis is inflammation of the margin of the eyelid. Chalazion is a cyst in the eyelid. Iris nevus is a rare condition affecting one eye. The latter 3 conditions are not commonly attributed to blunt force trauma to the head as hyphema is.

The nurse observes a middle-aged colleague fully extending her arm to read the label on a vial of medication. Which of the following age-related changes is the nurse likely to have observed?

Presbyopia Explanation: Presbyopia denotes an age-related deficit in close vision. It is less likely that cataracts, macular degeneration, or loss of convergence underlie the colleague's visual changes.

A client is assigned a visual acuity of 20/100 in her left eye. Which of the following is true?

She can see at 20 feet what a normal person could see at 100 feet. Explanation: The denominator of an acuity score represents the line on the chart the client can read. In the example above, the client could read the larger letters corresponding with what a normal person could see at 100 feet.

A nurse shines a light into one eye during ocular exam and the pupil of the other constricts. The nurse interprets this as which of the following?

Consensual response Explanation: When a light is shone in one eye, that eye will constrict and the opposite (consensual) eye will also constrict. Shining a light on one eye with the resulting constriction of that eye demonstrates the direct reflex. The optic chiasm is the point where the optic nerves from each eyeball cross. Accommodation occurs when the client moves the focus of vision from a distant point to a near object, causing the pupils to constrict.

What is a characteristic symptom of Graves hyperthyroidism?

Exophthalmos Explanation: In exophthalmos the eyeball protrudes forward. When bilateral, it suggests the infiltrative ophthalmopathy of Graves hyperthyroidism.

A nurse assesses the parallel alignment of a client's eyes by testing the corneal light reflex. Where should the nurse shine the penlight to obtain an accurate result?

Focused on the bridge of the nose Explanation: When testing the corneal reflex, the nurse should shine the light toward the bridge of the nose. At the same time, the client is instructed to stare straight ahead. This facilitates a parallel image on the cornea. The eye response upon shining the light toward the eye may interfere with the assessment. The light should not be shined toward the forehead or on an object on the wall.

When examining the eye with an ophthalmoscope, where would the nurse look to visualize the optic disc?

Medially toward the nose Explanation: Follow the blood vessels as they get wider. Follow the vessels medially toward the nose and look for the round yellowish orange structure which is the optic disc.

When testing the near reaction, an expected finding includes which of the following?

Pupillary constriction on near gaze; dilation on distant gaze Explanation: During accommodation, pupils constrict with near gaze and dilate with far gaze.

Which of the following is a symptom of the eye?

Scotomas Explanation: Scotomas are specks in the vision or areas where the client cannot see; therefore, this is a common and concerning symptom of the eye. Tinnitus is a ringing in the ears, dysphagia is difficulty swallowing, and rhinorrhea is a "runny nose."

The nurse observes an inward turning of the lower lid in a 77-year-old client. The nurse documents

entropion

While assessing the eye of an adult client, the nurse observes an inward turning of the client's left eye. The nurse should document the client's

esotropia. Explanation: Esotropia is an inward turn of the eye.

An adult client visits the clinic and tells the nurse that he has had excessive tearing in his left eye. The nurse should assess the client's eye for

lacrimal obstruction. Explanation: Excessive tearing (epiphora) is caused by exposure to irritants or obstruction of the lacrimal apparatus. Unilateral epiphora is often associated with foreign body or obstruction.

An older client asks why vision is not as sharp as it used to be when the eyes are focused forward. What should the nurse realize this client is describing?

macular degeneration Explanation: Macular degeneration causes a loss of central vision. Risk factors for macular degeneration are age, smoking history, obesity, family history, and female gender. Cataracts are characterized by cloudiness of the eye lenses. Glaucoma is an increase in intraocular pressure that places pressure on eye structures and affecting vision. A detached retina is the sudden loss of vision in one eye. This health problem may be precipitated by the appearance of blind spots.

Which technique by the nurse demonstrates proper use of the ophthalmoscope?

Asks the client to fix the gaze upon an object and look straight ahead Explanation: After turning on the ophthalmoscope, the nurse should ask the client to gaze straight ahead and slightly upward. Ask the client to remove glasses but keep contact lens in place. The nurse should use the right eye to examine the right eye & left eye to examine the client's left eye. This allows the nurse to get as close as possible to the client's eye. Begin about 10-15 inches from the client at a 15 degree angle. The nurse should keep the ophthalmoscope still & ask the client to look into the light to view the fovea and macula.

A client performs the test for distant visual acuity and scores 20/50. How should the nurse most accurately interpret this finding?

At 20 feet from the chart, the client sees what a person with good vision can see at 50 feet. Explanation: The Snellen chart tests distant visual acuity by seeing how far the client can read the letters standing 20 feet from the chart. The top number is how far the client is from the chart and the bottom number refers to the last line the client can read. A reading of 20/50 means the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 50 feet. The minus number is the number of letters missed on the last line the client can distinguish.

An adult client tells the nurse that her peripheral vision is not what it used to be and she has a blind spot in her left eye. The nurse should refer the client for evaluation of possible

glaucoma. Explanation: A scotoma is a blind spot that is surrounded by either normal or slightly diminished peripheral vision. It may be from glaucoma.

The nurse is planning to assess a client's near vision. Which technique should be used?

have the client read newspaper print held 14 inches from the eyes Explanation: Near vision is tested by asking the client to read newspaper print held 14 inches from the eyes. Shining a light on the bridge of the nose tests the corneal light reflex. Moving the eyes in the direction of a moving finger tests for extraocular movements. Having the client read letters on a wall chart tests for central and distance vision.

A 6-year-old boy has come to the clinic with his mother because of recent eye redness and discharge. The nurse's assessment has suggested a diagnosis of conjunctivitis. What should the nurse tell the mother about her son's eye?

"This might have been the result of an allergy, but most likely it was caused by a bacteria or virus." Explanation: Conjunctivitis usually has an infectious etiology. Severe pain and vision damage are not common consequences.

The nurse is inspecting the cornea and lens of an elderly client and notices a white arc around the limbus of the client's eye. The nurse recognizes this condition, common in older adults, as which of the following?

Arcus senilis Explanation: Arcus senilis, a normal condition in older clients, appears as a white arc around the limbus. The condition has no effect on vision. Presbyopia, which is impaired near vision, is caused by decreased accommodation and is a common condition in clients over 45 years of age. Ectropion is when the lower eyelids evert, causing exposure and drying of the conjunctiva. This is a normal finding in the older client. Myopia is impaired far vision.

On a health history, a client reports no visual disturbances, last eye exam two years ago, and does not wear glasses. The nurse notices that the client squints when signing the consent for treatment form and holds the paper close to the face. What should the nurse do next?

Perform both the distant and near visual acuity tests Explanation: The first thing the nurse should do is perform both the distant and near visual acuity exams to assess for loss of far and near vision. Testing the pupil is important to assess reaction to light. The findings must be documented in the client's record. If abnormalities are found upon assessment, the client should be referred for a complete eye examination.

During an eye assessment, the nurse is testing a client's visual acuity using a Snellen chart. In order to prepare the client for this component of assessment, what instruction should the nurse provide?

"Cover one of your eyes and then read out the letters on the chart, starting from the top." Explanation: Using a Snellen chart requires that the client stand a specific distance from the chart, usually 20 feet. The client does not move, and each eye is assessed individually.

A 52-year-old client with myopia calls the ophthalmology clinic very upset. She tells the nurse, "I keep seeing semi-clear spots floating across my vision. What is wrong with me?" What would be the most appropriate response by the nurse?

"It is not an uncommon finding in people older than 40 years for this to happen. They are called 'floaters'." Explanation: Floaters (translucent specks that drift across the visual field) are common in people older than 40 years of age and nearsighted clients; no additional follow-up is needed.

When performing the cover test, a nurse notices that the client's left eye turns outward. How should the nurse document this finding in the client's record?

Exotropia Explanation: With the cover test, the eyes of the client should remain fixed straight ahead. If the covered eye moves when uncovered to reestablish focus, it is abnormal. If the eye turns outward it is called exotropia. If the uncovered eye turns inward, it is called esotropia. Strabismus is constant malalignment of the eyes. Presbyopia is impaired near vision.

A nurse in the emergency department assesses a client's pupillary reaction and observes pinpoint pupils. The nurse interprets this finding as suggesting which of the following?

Narcotic use Explanation: Pinpoint pupils suggest narcotic use or brain damage. Hyphema would suggest recent eye trauma. Dilated and fixed pupils typically result from central nervous system injury, circulatory collapse, or deep anesthesia.

A nurse has taught a group of older adults about the high incidence and prevalence of macular degeneration. What health promotion and prevention activity should the nurse encourage these clients to perform?

Post an Amsler grid in their home and perform the test on a regular basis Explanation: The Amsler test is used to identify the early symptoms of macular degeneration. This does not involve the use of a Snellen chart. Sodium limitation is beneficial to overall health but does not specially address the risk factors for macular degeneration. Rinsing the eyes is not necessary or relevant.

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the maintenance of normal intraocular pressure?

Aqueous humor is continuously circulating through the eye with production equaling drainage. Explanation: Aqueous humor, produced by the ciliary body, maintains intraocular pressure with production equaling drainage. It is not a closed system, and pressure is not adjusted through muscular control of eye volume.

A nurse examines a client's retina during the ophthalmic examination and notices light-colored spots on the retinal background. The nurse should ask the client about a history of what disease process?

Diabetes Explanation: Exudates appear as light-colored spots on the retinal background and occur in individuals with diabetes or hypertension. Anemia, renal insufficiency, and retinal detachment do not cause this appearance on the retina.

Photoreceptors of the eye are located in the eye's

retina. Explanation: The innermost layer, the retina, extends only to the ciliary body anteriorly. It receives visual stimuli and sends it to the brain. The retina consists of numerous layers of nerve cells, including the cells commonly called rods and cones. These specialized nerve cells are often referred to as "photoreceptors" because they are responsive to light

The thin mucous membrane that lines the inner eyelid and covers the sclera is known as what?

Conjunctiva Explanation: The conjunctiva is a thin mucous membrane that lines the inner eyelid (palpebral conjunctivae) and also covers the sclera (bulbar conjunctivae). The border between the cornea and the sclera is the limbus. The lacrimal apparatus protects and lubricates the cornea and the conjunctiva by producing and draining tears. The eyelid is a loose fold of skin that covers and protects the eye.

The meibomian glands secrete

an oily substance to lubricate the eyes. Explanation: Meibomian glands secrete an oily substance that lubricates the eyelid.

A factory worker has presented to the occupational health nurse with a small wood splinter in his left eye. The nurse has assessed the affected eye and irrigated with warm tap water, but the splinter remains in place. What should the nurse do next?

Arrange for worker to be promptly assessed by an eye specialist. Explanation: The nurse should refer the client to an eye doctor immediately if a foreign body cannot be removed with gentle washing. Optometrists are specialists in primary vision care and do not normally treat eye trauma. Irrigation with hydrogen peroxide or attempted removal using instruments would be contraindicated and potentially dangerous.

A nurse has completed the assessment of a client's direct pupillary response and is now assessing consensual response. This aspect of assessment should include which action?

Observing the eye's reaction when a light is shone into the opposite eye Explanation: The nurse assesses consensual response at the same time as direct response by shining a light obliquely into one eye and observing the pupillary reaction in the opposite eye. This does not involve a comparison between maximum and minimum pupil size, however. Neither eye is covered, and peripheral vision is not relevant to this assessment.

Which vision acuity reading indicates blindness?

20/200 Explanation: The reading of 20/200 on a vision acuity test indicates blindness. The reading of 20/20 is considered normal vision. This means that the client being tested can distinguish what a person with normal vision can distinguish from 20 feet away. The top or first number is always 20, indicating the distance from the client to the chart. The bottom or second number refers to the last full line the client could read. The higher the second number, the poorer the vision. 20/40 and 20/100 also denote poor vision.

Which of the following assessment findings suggests a problem with the client's cranial nerves?

A client's extraocular movements are asymmetrical and she complains of diplopia. Explanation: Deficits in cranial nerves III, IV, and VI can manifest as impaired extraocular movements or diplopia. Flashes of light are associated with retinal detachment, while intraocular bleeding and cataracts do not have a neurological etiology.

You are assessing visual fields on a client newly admitted for eye surgery. The client's left eye repeatedly does not see your fingers until they have crossed the line of gaze. You would document that the client has what?

A left temporal hemianopsia Explanation: When the client's left eye repeatedly does not see your fingers until they have crossed the line of gaze, a left temporal hemianopsia is present.

A client tells the clinic nurse that she has sought care because she has been experiencing excessive tearing of her eyes. Which assessment should the nurse next perform?

Assess the nasolacrimal sac. Explanation: Excessive tearing is caused by exposure to irritants or obstruction of the lacrimal apparatus. Therefore the nurse should assess the nasolacrimal sac. Inspecting the palpebral conjunctiva would be done if the client complains of pain or a feeling of something in the eye. The client is not exhibiting signs of problems with muscle strength, such as drooping, so performing the eye position test, which assesses eye muscle strength and cranial nerve function, is not necessary. Testing the pupillary reaction to light evaluates pupillary response and function of the oculomotor nerve.

A light is pointed at a client's pupil, which then contracts. It is also noted that the other pupil contracts as well, though it is not exposed to bright light. Which of the following terms describes this latter phenomenon?

Consensual reaction Explanation: The constriction of the contralateral pupil is called the consensual reaction. The response of the ipsilateral eye is the direct response. The dilation of the pupil when focusing on a close object is the near reaction. Accommodation is the changing of the shape of the lens to sharply focus on an object.

A client has been diagnosed with astigmatism. The nurse should be prepared to teach the client about which treatment for this condition?

Corrective lenses Explanation: Astigmatism is corrected with a cylindrical lens that has more focusing power in one access than the other. These corrective lenses can and should be worn while driving at night. Eye drops and surgery are not usual treatments for this condition.

A client complains of excessive tearing of the eyes. Which assessment would the nurse do next?

Excessive tearing is caused by exposure to irritants or obstruction of the lacrimal apparatus. Therefore the nurse should assess the nasolacrimal sac. Inspecting the palpebral conjunctiva would be done if the client complains of pain or a feeling of something in the eye. The client is not exhibiting signs of problems with muscle strength such as drooping, so performing the eye position test, which assesses eye muscle strength and cranial nerve function, is not necessary. Testing the pupillary reaction to light evaluates pupillary response and function of the oculomotor nerve.

When performing an ophthalmoscopic exam, a nurse observes a round shape with distinct margins. The nurse would document this as which of the following?

Optic disc Explanation: The optic disc is round to oval with sharp, well-defined borders. The physiologic cup appears on the optic disc as slightly depressed and a lighter color than the disc. Arteriole retinal vessels appear bright red, and venules appear darker red and larger, with both progressively narrowing as they move away from the optic disc. The fovea is a small area of the retina that provides acute vision.

A 15-year-old high school student presents to the emergency department with his mother for evaluation of an area of blood in the left eye. He denies trauma or injury but has been coughing forcefully with a recent cold. He denies visual disturbances, eye pain, or discharge from the eye. On physical examination, the pupils are equal, round, and reactive to light with a visual acuity of 20/20 in each eye and 20/20 bilaterally. There is a homogeneous, sharply demarcated area at the lateral aspect of the base of the left eye. The cornea is clear. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?

Subconjunctival hemorrhage Explanation: A subconjunctival hemorrhage is a leakage of blood outside of the vessels, which produces a homogenous, sharply demarcated bright red area; it fades over several days, turns yellow, then disappears. There is no associated eye pain, ocular discharge, or changes in visual acuity; the cornea is clear. Many times it is associated with severe cough, choking, or vomiting, which increase venous pressure. It is rare for a serious condition to cause it, so reassurance is usually the only treatment necessary.

As part of a physical assessment, the nurse performs the confrontation test to assess the client's peripheral vision. Which test result should a nurse recognize as indicating normal peripheral vision for a client using the confrontation test?

The client and the examiner see the examiner's finger at the same time. Explanation: The observation that the client and examiner see the examiner's finger at the same time indicates normal peripheral vision. The client not seeing the examiner's finger or a delay in seeing it indicates reduced peripheral vision. Client's consensual pupils constricting in response to indirect light as well as direct light shown into the client's pupils resulting in constriction are observed when testing the pupils for reaction to light. Eyes converging on an object as it is moved towards the nose is a normal result for accommodation.

How can a nurse accurately assess the distant visual acuity of a client who is non-English speaking?

Use a Snellen E chart to perform the examination Explanation: If a client does not speak English, is unable to read, or has a verbal communication problem, the Snellen E chart can be used to test the client's distant visual acuity. With this test, the client is asked to indicate by pointing which way the E is open on the chart. The six cardinal positions of gaze test eye muscle function and cranial nerve function. The Jaeger chart tests near visual acuity. Confrontation test is used to test visual fields for peripheral vision.

The nurse is preparing to examine an adult client's eyes, using a Snellen chart. The nurse should

position the client 609.6 cm (20 ft) away from the chart. Explanation: Used to test distant visual acuity, the Snellen chart consists of lines of different letters stacked one above the other. The letters are large at the top and decrease in size from top to bottom. The chart is placed on a wall or door at eye level in a well-lighted area. The client stands 20 feet from the chart and covers one eye with an opaque card (which prevents the client from peeking through the fingers). Then the client reads each line of letters until he or she can no longer distinguish them.

An adult client tells the nurse that his eyes are painful because he left his contact lenses in too long the day before yesterday. The nurse should instruct the client that prolonged wearing of contact lenses can lead to

corneal damage. Explanation: Improper cleaning or prolonged wearing of contact lenses can lead to infection and corneal damage.

Which of the following would a nurse expect to assess in a client with esotropia?

Eye turning inward Explanation: Esotropia is a term used to describe eyes that turn inward. Exotropia refers to an outward turning of the eyes. Strabismus refers to a constant malalignment of the eyes. Nystagmus refers to oscillating or shaking movement of the eye.

A client frequently experiences dry, irritated eyes. These findings are consistent with a problem in what part of the eye?

Lacrimal apparatus Explanation: The lacrimal apparatus (which consists of the lacrimal gland, punctum, lacrimal sac, and nasolacrimal duct) protects and lubricates the cornea and conjunctiva by producing and draining tears.

The nurse asks the client to perform the action pictured. What is the nurse assessing?

Near vision Explanation: The client is using the Jaeger chart which is used to assess near vision. The Snellen chart is used to assess distant vision. The nurse would not assess intraocular pressure. Ishihara cards are used to assess color discrimination.

The nurse measures a client's pupils and documents the size. Which size would the nurse document as normal?

4 mm Explanation: Pupils are normally equal in size and range from 3 to 5 mm. Size outside this range are considered abnormal.

A 29-year-old physical therapist presents for evaluation of an eyelid problem. On observation, the right eyeball appears to be protruding forward. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?

Exophthalmos Explanation: In exophthalmos, the eyeball protrudes forward. If it is bilateral, it suggests the presence of Graves' disease, although unilateral exophthalmos could still be caused by Graves' disease. Alternative causes include a tumor and inflammation in the orbit.

A nurse is assessing the eyes of a 3-year-old child. Which finding would the nurse document as normal?

Pseudostrabismus Explanation: In young children, pseudostrabismus would be considered a normal finding due to the epicanthal folds. Tropia, nystagmus, and exotropia would be abnormal findings.

A parent is very upset because she is told her child has a refractive error. The nurse reassures the parent that refractive errors are the most common visual change in children.

True

The nurse is assessing cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. Which instructions should the nurse provide to the client in order to perform this assessment?

"Follow my finger with only your eyes." Explanation: Testing cranial nerves III, IV, and VI also tests the movement of the eye muscles by asking the client to move the eyes in different directions. Turning the head assesses neck range of motion and mobility. Shrugging shoulder against resistance assesses a different cranial nerve. Asking the client to stand still with the eyes closed is known as the Romberg's test to test balance.

A client is diagnosed with a scotoma. What question is appropriate for the nurse to ask to obtain more data about this condition?

"Are the blind spots constant or intermittent?" Explanation: A scotoma is the presence of blind spots that can be constant or intermittent. If they are constant it may indicate retinal detachment. Intermittent blind spots may be due to vascular spasm or pressure on the optic nerve. Floaters are a common finding in individuals with myopia or in person over the age of 40 years and are a sign of normal aging. Redness or tearing is associated with allergies or inflammation of the eye. Night blindness is associated with optic nerve atrophy, glaucoma, or vitamin A deficiency.

The optic nerves from each eyeball cross at the

optic chiasma. Explanation: At the point where the optic nerves from each eyeball cross—the optic chiasma—the nerve fibers from the nasal quadrant of each retina (from both temporal visual fields) cross over to the opposite side.