HR Test review questions
Q. Which choice represents an advantage of a "best-of-breed" HRIS solution? A. Quicker implementation because of a simpler system B. Careful management of vendor relationships C. Ease of data integration D. Least expensive
The correct answer is A. A best-of-breed HRIS solution is the use of several smaller systems, each responsible for managing a different HR function. These systems are quicker to implement because they are not as complex as an integrated solution. B, C, and D are incorrect. B is incorrect because vendor management is a disadvantage of a best-of-breed solution. C is incorrect because ease of data integration is an advantage of an integrated solution. D is incorrect because an integrated solution is less expensive per application than multiple solutions like with the best-of-breed option. Objective 14 Purpose and Function of Human Resource Information Systems (HRISs)
Q. An HR business process outcome (BPO) is an arrangement: A. where payroll and benefit administration are entirely outsourced. B. where employees are leased to an outsourcing company. C. where employees are staffed by external recruitment agencies. D. where benefits are outsourced only to an external provider.
The correct answer is A. A business process outcome (BPO) is an arrangement where payroll and benefit administration is entirely outsourced. B, C, and D are incorrect. B is incorrect because this is an example of a professional employer organization (PEO). C and D are incorrect because they are not examples of a BPO. Objective 18 Types of External Providers of HR Services
Q. A method of teaching and delivering content to trainees in small and specific bursts is called: A. microlearning. B. pop quiz. C. simulation. D. gamification.
The correct answer is A. A method of teaching and delivering content to trainees in small and specific bursts is called microlearning. Microlearning is becoming more popular because it delivers the right amount of information just as an employee needs it. B, C, and D are incorrect. B is incorrect because a pop quiz is unannounced and tests the trainee's knowledge of a particular topic. Cis incorrect because simulation is a full training session that develops decision-making skills in a safe setting. D is incorrect because gamification is an online training delivery method that creates a sense of competition and accomplishment through learning. Objective 02 Training Delivery Format
Q. A worker who is self-employed is commonly referred to as a(n): A. independent contractor. B. temporary worker. C. contingent contractor. D. seasonal help.
The correct answer is A. A worker who is self-employed is commonly referred to as an independent contractor. B, C, and D are incorrect. B is incorrect because a temporary worker works for a company only on a temporary basis and could be referred by an agency. C is incorrect because it is an incorrect term. D is incorrect because a seasonal worker would work only during one time period per year or season when the company is busiest. Objective 05 Alternative Staffing Practices
Q. What is the main benefit of a job fair? A. Employers can quickly meet hundreds of job applicants. B. They are cost-effective. C. Managers do not need to be present. D. Employers can pay employees less when recruiting from a job fair.
The correct answer is A. Employers can quickly meet hundreds of job applicants at a job fair. B, C, and D are incorrect. These are not factors of a job fair. Managers would still need to be present, employers would still need to pay fair wages, and typically a job fair is not a low-cost strategy. Objective 04 Recruitment Methods
Q. Which of the following generally describes a security concern where a user deliberately accesses another user's computer without permission? A. Hacking B. Phishing C. E-card D. Security alert
The correct answer is A. Hacking was used to describe exploring technology through trial and error. Today it has grown to mean the act of deliberately accessing another person's computer without their permission. B, C, and D are incorrect. B is incorrect because phishing is specifically the use of e-mails, phone calls, texts, or instant messages masked as originating from a legitimate source with the intent of enticing you to reveal your passwords in order to gain access to your computer and accounts. C is incorrect because an e-card usually references an online greeting card delivered via e-mail. Within the context of technological security, an e-card usually appears like a legitimate greeting or job announcement, but when the user opens it, a harmful program is released that could damage your computer. D is incorrect because a security alert is an e-mail or pop-up alerting you that your computer has been comprised and purports that clicking the link provided will run a program that will fix the problem. With respect to security risks, this e-mail is fake and will run a program that will infect your computer. Objective 11 Impact of Technology on HR
Q. If an organization chooses to focus on the 75th percentile of the market, what type of pay philosophy has it adopted? A. Market leader B. Lag-lead C. Matching the market D. Market lag
The correct answer is A. If an organization chooses to focus on the 75th percentile of the market, it has adopted a market leader compensation or pay philosophy. The 75th percentile indicates that the pay is better than 74 percent of the organizations participating in the survey. B, C, and D are incorrect. B is incorrect because a lag-lead pay philosophy is when an organization chooses to lag in the market the first part of the year and catch up and lead the market the second part of the year. C is incorrect because matching the market means the employer intends to align the midpoint of the pay ranges to the 50th percentile of the market, and D is incorrect because market lag means the employer intends to align the midpoint of its pay ranges to the 25th or lower percentile. Objective 06 Uses for Salary and Benefits Surveys
Q. Which of the following is an important component of an employee record policy? A. Retention and destruction timeline expectations B. How big the employee record should be C. Ensure medical documents are with the general file D. HR office hours of which the record can be accessed
The correct answer is A. Retention and destruction timeline expectations are an important part of any employee record policy or procedure. Federal, state, and local laws and regulations require that specific employee records and documents, whether stored electronically or on paper, be kept for a specified period of time, even extending beyond the employee's termination date. B, C, and D are incorrect. B is incorrect because how large an employee file is irrelevant given record retention and destruction legal requirements, C is incorrect because medical records should never be kept with the general file documents because of privacy requirements, and D is incorrect because HR office hours are irrelevant given record retention and destruction legal requirements. Objective 12 Employee Records Management
Q. Small groups of employees who are asked questions by a facilitator regarding any element of the workplace are called: A. focus groups. B. customer groups. C. peer groups. D. employer groups.
The correct answer is A. Small groups of employees who are asked questions by a facilitator are called focus groups. These are typically structured discussions that are facilitated and are designed to get feedback about specific elements of the workplace. B, C, and D are incorrect. Customer groups and employer groups are not employees. Peer groups are a group of people usually with similarities such as age, background, or social status. Objective 03 Methods and Processes for Collecting Employee Feedback
Q. Which of the following is the easiest way to recognize passive-aggressive communication in the workplace? A. Lack of assertiveness and directness B. Employees who have higher seniority C. Talking too much in meetings D. High absenteeism rates
The correct answer is A. The easiest way to recognize passive-aggressive employees is a lack of assertiveness or directness in forms of communication. B, C, and D are incorrect. They are not ways to recognize passive-aggressive behavior. They could potentially be factors but not the easiest or most direct way to recognize passive-aggressive employees. Objective 19 Communication Techniques
Q. _____ is a process that collects information from the employee's supervisor, colleagues and subordinates about an individual's work. A. 360-degree feedback B. Competency based C. Ranking D. Forced distribution
The correct answer is A. The process that collects information from the employee's supervisor, colleagues, and subordinates about an individual's work is the 360-degree process. B, C, and D are incorrect. B is incorrect because a competency-based system focuses on performance as measured against specified competencies (as opposed to specific tasks or behaviors) that are identified for each position. C is incorrect because ranking is a performance appraisal method that lists all employees in a designated group from highest to lowest in order of performance. D is incorrect because forced distribution is a performance appraisal method when ratings of employees in a particular group are disbursed along a bell curve, with the supervisor allocating a certain percentage of the ratings within the group to each performance level on the scale. Objective 05 Performance Appraisal Methods
Q. Amar is paid $27 an hour when he works from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m. On the days when he works 4 p.m. to 12 a.m., he is paid $32 per hour. What kind of pay structure is described? A. Time-based differential pay B. Incentive pay C. COLA D. Pay adjustment
The correct answer is A. Time-based differential pay is when employees are paid different rates based on the time of day that they work. B, C, and D are incorrect. B is incorrect because incentive pay is used to encourage employees to improve performance. C is incorrect because COLA is paid to employees to protect against inflation. D is incorrect because a pay adjustment describes a process companies engage in that may increase an employee's pay if related to a performance rating or decrease an employee's pay as a result of an organization's pay calibration exercise. Objective 02 Pay Structures and Programs
Q. Which of the following best applies to federal employers and private and public employers subject to Title VII (i.e., those with 15 or more employees) and intends to help employers avoid adverse impact and suggest that applicant tracking records are to be kept only by sex, race, and national origin? A. Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures (UGESP) B. The organization's mission, vision, and values C. The organization's policies and standard operating procedures D. Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs (OFCCP)
The correct answer is A. Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures (UGESP) are guidelines for federal employers and private and public employers subject to Title VII (i.e., those with 15 or more employees) intending to help employers avoid adverse impact and suggest that applicant tracking records are to be kept only by sex, race, and national origin. These are guidelines and not laws. However, courts use these guidelines to determine good practices in hiring and tracking processes. Some theorize that if an organization follows these guidelines, it should be in good shape should it face any lawsuit. B, C, and D are incorrect. The choices are not reflective of the Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures (UGESP). Objective 02 Applicant Databases
Q. Which of the following is a health and welfare program where an employee may receive incentives to complete a smoking cessation program? A. Wellness B. Employee Assistance Program (EAP) C. Disability D. Workers' compensation
The correct answer is A. Wellness programs are established to promote health and wellness. Utilization of wellness programs correlate to a reduction in healthcare premium costs to the employer. Therefore, it is common to incentivize wellness programs. B, C, and D are incorrect. B is incorrect because an EAP is a service employers offer that helps employees work through certain personal matters or work-related matters that may affect performance. C is incorrect because disability benefits are paid to employees when they are physically unable to work. D is incorrect because workers' compensation pays employees in cases where injuries are sustained on the job. Objective 04 Benefit Programs
Q. Which of the following data gathering methods would help the HR manager determine whether employee behavior has changed after training? A. Checklist B. 360-degree feedback C. Post-measure test D. ROI analysis
The correct answer is B. A 360-degree feedback process is a data-gathering method that supports Kilpatrick's behavior training effectiveness measure, which is level 3. A, C, and D are incorrect. A is incorrect because a checklist is a data-gathering method of level 1, reaction. C is incorrect because a post-measure test is a data-gathering method for level 2 - learning. D is incorrect because an ROI analysis is a data gathering method for level 4, results. Objective 03 Techniques to Evaluate Training Programs
Q. A database of job seeker contact information and applications used by recruitment professionals to match job openings to available applicants is called: A. a job board. B. an applicant pool. C. a software database. D. job posts.
The correct answer is B. A database of job seeker contact information and applications used by recruitment professionals to match job openings to available applicants is called an applicant pool. This is also called a talent or candidate pool. A, C, and D are incorrect. None of these choices is the best answer. They are either too broad or not specific to a database that contains job seeker information and applications. Objective 02 Applicant Databases
Q. A fake e-mail sent to HR, seemingly from an organization's executive, requesting sensitive information such as Social Security numbers, salary, and dates of birth is known as what type of scam? A. Telemarketing scam B. Phishing scam C. Pyramid scam D. Chain letter scam
The correct answer is B. A fake e-mail sent to HR or anyone, seemingly from an organization's executive, requesting sensitive information is a phishing scam. Alarmingly, phishing scams are on the rise and unfortunately have been successful in fooling people, including those in HR, to share sensitive employee information. When organizations realize they have an information breach, they are obligated to notify those employees who are affected and will offer identity theft protection monitoring services. A, C, and D are incorrect. Telemarketing, pyramid, and chain letter scams are not necessarily in e-mail form. Objective 03 Security Risks in the Workplace
Q. A graphical representation of data using bars, often in different heights depending on the distribution of numerical data, is called a: A. pie chart. B. histogram. C. scatter graph. D. line graph.
The correct answer is B. A histogram is a graphical representation of data using bars, often in different heights depending on the distribution of numerical data. For example, a histogram may be used to display employee distribution by years of service, by age, or by salary. A, C, and D are incorrect. They are incorrect because a pie chart, a scatter graph, and a line graph display data other than in a bar format. Objective 10 Reporting and Presentation Techniques
Q. A policy that removes all barriers that may discourage free communication between employees and managers is called: A. solicitation policy. B. open door policy. C. social media policy. D. anti-harassment policy.
The correct answer is B. A policy that removes all barriers that may discourage free communication between employees and managers is called an open-door policy. An open-door policy is usually adopted within companies to encourage open dialogue between managers and employees. When practiced consistently throughout the organization, this ultimately makes it safe to provide feedback to one another without fear of reprisal. A, C, and D are incorrect. Often these policies restrict what an employee can do or say in the workplace. A solicitation policy provides expectations on solicitation and distribution activities on company premises. A social media policy provides guidance and expectations around an employee's use of social network platforms such as Facebook, LinkedIn, or Twitter. An anti-harassment policy provides expectations around harassment in the workplace. Objective 03 Methods and Processes for Collecting Employee Feedback
Q. A total rewards statement provides what type of information? A. A balance sheet that reports on company assets, liability, and owners' equity. B. A personalized document that provides the overall value of tangible rewards. C. A formal summary of the objectives and values of an organization. D. A statement that identifies what an organization would like to be in the future.
The correct answer is B. A total rewards statement is a personalized document that provides the overall value of tangible rewards. An employer may want to send this statement to employees annually or more frequently such as quarterly. These statements may also be called compensation or benefits statements. A, C, and D are incorrect. A is incorrect because a balance sheet that reports on company assets, liability, and owners' equity is a financial statement used to communicate the financial health of an organization. C is incorrect because a formal summary of the objectives and values of an organization is a mission statement, and D is incorrect because a statement that identifies what an organization would like to be in the future is called a vision statement. It is not relevant to the total rewards statement. Objective 03 Total Rewards Statements
Q. Pre-offer drug testing could violate which act? A. Family Medical Leave Act B. Americans with Disabilities Act C. Age Discrimination in Employment Act D. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act
The correct answer is B. Doing pre-offer drugs tests could violate the Americans with Disabilities Act. A, C, and D are incorrect. A is incorrect because the Family Medical Leave Act requires covered employers to provide employees with job protection and unpaid leave for qualified medical and family reasons. C is incorrect because the Age Discrimination in Employment Act protects workers older than 40 against discrimination. D is incorrect because the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act prohibits employment discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, and national origin. Objective 07 Post-Offer Activities
Q. Which restructuring driver is in place when a company is experiencing a reduction in revenue? A. Strategy B. Downsizing C. Structure D. Expansion
The correct answer is B. Downsizing is a restructuring driver that is employed when a company is experiencing a decline in revenue. A, C, and D are incorrect. A is incorrect because a change in strategy is a restructuring driver that organizations employ when they are interested in pursuing new markets. C is incorrect because structure refers to when an organization changes its business model to improve efficiencies. D is incorrect because expansion refers to when a company expands to accommodate new staff and departments. Objective 09 Workforce Reduction and Restructuring Terminology
Q. Each essential job function in a job description should consider? A. Pay level associated with it B. Level of complexity and frequency C. Education needed to complete the job function D. Work experience of past incumbents in the job
The correct answer is B. Frequency and complexity should be considered when determining essential job functions. A, C, and D are incorrect. They are not relevant to the essential job functions. Objective 16 Job Analysis Methods and Job Description
Q. How many employees does a company need to have in order to comply with the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)? A. 25 employees B. 15 employees C. 20 employees D. 10 employees
The correct answer is B. In 1994, the ADA was amended to cover employers with 15 or more employees. A, C, and D are incorrect. They are all incorrect because only companies with 15 or more employees are required to comply with the ADA regulations. Objective 06 HR Policies and Procedures
Q. Which of the following is a not an HR best practice when terminating an employee or potentially terminating an employee? A. Look at all investigation materials and then make a decision B. Make a decision on the spot after the accusation has been made C. Document witness testimony D. Give outplacement information to the employee
The correct answer is B. Making a decision on the spot after an accusation has been made would not be an HR best practice because it is always prudent to complete a thorough, dispassionate, and objective investigation first before deciding. A, C, and D are incorrect. A is incorrect because looking through all relevant documents and investigation findings before making a decision is the HR best practice. C is incorrect because getting all the facts and documenting witness information is prudent before making a decision. D is incorrect because giving outplacement information to an employee helps the employee who is being terminated to find another position. Objective 07 Off-boarding or Termination Activities
Q. Which of the following statements regarding an employee's rights related to substance abuse is correct? A. Individuals who currently use illegal drugs are protected by the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA). B. If the results of a pre-employment drug screen reveal use of prescription drugs, the employer must treat this as confidential information. C. An alcoholic is a person not protected by the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA). D. Employers are prohibited from using the results of a pre-employment drug screen to determine final hiring decisions.
The correct answer is B. Per the ADA, if the results of a pre-employment drug screen reveal use of prescription drugs or other medical information, the employer must treat that information as confidential. A, C, and D are incorrect. A is incorrect because people who currently engage in the illegal use of drugs are specifically excluded from the definition of a "qualified individual with a disability" protected by the ADA when the employer acts based on the employee's drug use. C is incorrect because alcoholism is considered a medical condition and protected under the ADA. D is incorrect because pre-employment job testing can be done only after an offer of employment is made, but the offer can be contingent upon a satisfactory drug screen, which means the employer can act based on the results of the drug screen results. Objective 01 Applicable Laws and Regulations Related to Workplace Health, Safety, Security, and Privacy
Q. Stating opinions and feelings and firmly advocating for their rights and needs without violating the rights of others is an example of what type of behavior: A. passive-aggressive. B. assertive. C. aggressive. D. passive.
The correct answer is B. Stating opinions and feelings and firmly advocating for their rights and needs without violating the rights of others are examples of assertive communication. A, C, and D are incorrect. A is incorrect because passive-aggressive is when individuals appear passive on the surface but are really acting out anger in a subtle, indirect, or behind-the-scenes way. C is incorrect because expressing their feelings and opinions and advocating for their needs in a way that violates the rights of others is an example of aggressive communication. D is incorrect because passive communication would be when someone exhibits a pattern of not expressing their opinions or feelings, protecting their rights, or identifying and meeting their needs. Objective 19 Communication Techniques
Q. Your HR department has been tasked with formulating a disaster recovery plan. What is your first step? A. Inventory office equipment. B. Make an inventory of all jobs that would need to be relocated to keep the business running. C. Send files off-site for backup. D. Contact an insurance agent to inquire about necessary coverage.
The correct answer is B. Taking inventory of all jobs needed for the business to operate is the most important and first thing HR should think about because without the proper staff, the business cannot operate. They should do this by coordinating with all departments. A, C, and D are incorrect. While these choices are applicable and needed during the process of disaster recovery planning, they are not the first step. Objective 02 Risk Mitigation in the Workplace
Q. Which of the following is a true statement about measuring days to fill? A. Days to fill should be monitored closely because the longer a position remains open, the more likely it is to go unfilled. B. Days to fill (speed) should be evaluated in relation to cost and quality of hire. C. It is more cost effective for companies to hire temporary workers once a key position is open for more than 2 months. D. If it is taking a while to fill a position, a company should adjust the total compensation for the position.
The correct answer is B. Talent acquisition must balance the desire to fill positions quickly with the cost to engage in aggressive recruiting tactics, as well as with the quality of the applicants. Losing focus on all three measures may decrease quality and lengthen the recruiting process. A, C, and D are incorrect. A is incorrect because the length that a position is open does not necessarily increase the likelihood that it will go unfilled. C and D are incorrect because both are recommended strategies to address hiring needs that companies might determine are best given the company's unique situation. Objective 07 HR Metrics
Q. The definition of disability is detailed in which of the following acts? A. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act B. Americans with Disabilities Act C. Age Discrimination in Employment Act D. Family Medical Leave Act
The correct answer is B. The Americans with Disabilities Act broadly defines a disability. A, C, and D are incorrect. A is incorrect because Title VII of the Civil Rights Act prohibits employers from discriminating against employees on the basis of sex, race, color, national origin, and religion. C is incorrect because the Age Discrimination in Employment Act protects people who are 40 or older from discrimination because of age. D is incorrect because the Family Medical Leave Act requires covered employers to provide employees job-protected and unpaid leave for qualified medical and family reasons. Objective 07 Claims Processing Requirements
Q. Which of the following is covered under the Drug-Free Workplace Act? A. Marijuana B. Controlled substances C. Abuse of prescription drugs D. Alcoholism
The correct answer is B. The Drug Free Workplace Act (DFWA) covers defined controlled substances only. A, C, and D are incorrect. Marijuana is not covered in jurisdictions where it is legal, abuse of prescription drugs is not covered, and alcoholism is considered a disability under the American with Disabilities Act (ADA). Alcohol is not a controlled substance. Controlled substances are covered under the DFWA. Objective 01 Applicable Laws and Regulations Related to Workplace Health, Safety, Security, and Privacy
Q. The Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) requires employers to file these annual reports on employee benefits offered: A. OSHA 300 log B. Form 5500 C. EEO-1 form D. LM-1 report
The correct answer is B. The Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) requires employers to file Form 5500 annual reports on employee benefits offered. Retirement and health benefit plans must file the Form 5500 to report their financial condition, investments, and operations. The due date for the Form 5500 reports is the last day of the seventh month after the plan year ends. A, C, and D are incorrect. All these options are irrelevant to ERISA reporting requirements. Objective 13 Statutory Reporting Requirements
Q. What is the main reason why an employee who is misclassified as an independent contractor would want to get that corrected as soon as possible? A. Miss out on company activities B. Miss out on employer-paid taxes and benefits C. Miss out on being managed correctly D. Miss out on potential training
The correct answer is B. The employee and the government would miss out on company-paid taxes and insurance. A, C, and D are incorrect. Although they may be factors, none would not be the main reason why you would want to properly classify workers correctly. Objective 15 Job Classification
Q. What qualifies as having a "disability" under the ADA? A. A physical or mental impairment that substantially limits three or more major life activities, a record of such an impairment, or you are regarded as having such an impairment. B. A physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities, a record of such an impairment, or you are regarded as having such an impairment. C. A physical or mental impairment that substantially limits two or more major life activities, a record of such an impairment, or you are regarded as having such an impairment. D. A physical or mental impairment that substantially limits four or more major life activities, a record of such an impairment, or you are regarded as having such an impairment.
The correct answer is B. Under the ADA, you have a disability if you have at least one of the following: a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities; a record of such an impairment; or you are regarded as having such an impairment. A, C, and D are incorrect. They are incorrect because the impairment needs only one limit on major life activity. Objective 06 HR Policies and Procedures
Q. Unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature is known as what type of misconduct? A. Drug use in the workplace B. Sexual harassment C. Retaliation D. Employee conflict
The correct answer is B. Unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature are known as sexual harassment. The harasser can be any gender and be an organization's supervisor, co-worker, or those who are not an employee of the company such as a vendor or customer. A, C, and D are incorrect answers. While drug use in the workplace, retaliation, and employee conflict are certainly workplace issues, they may not be sexual infractions as sexual harassment implies. However, retaliation could be a subset of harassment and is considered equally egregious under the law. Objective 04 Workplace Behavior Issues
Q. A common form of training that utilizes more experienced and skilled employees to train less skilled and experienced employees is called: A. e-learning. B. simulation. C. on-the-job training. D. scenario.
The correct answer is C. A common form of training that utilizes more experienced and skilled employees to train less skilled and experienced employees is called on-the-job training (OJT). A, B, and D are incorrect. E-learning, simulation, and scenario don't necessarily involve using more experienced and skilled workers to train those who are less skilled and experienced. While each of those can be used to train people on the job, one of the most common forms of training seen today is on-the-job training that involves knowledge transfer from a more experienced employee to a less experienced employee. Objective 02 Training Delivery Format
Q. Which of the following is an example of a tangible reward? A. Pat on the back B. Public thank-you C. Fringe benefits D. Development coaching
The correct answer is C. A fringe benefit is an example of a tangible reward. Health benefits, gift cards, and merchandise are additional examples of a tangible reward. A, B, and D are incorrect. A is incorrect because a pat on the back is not tangible. It is not something that can be converted to cash. Bis incorrect because a public thank you is also not a tangible reward, and C is incorrect because development coaching is also not an intangible reward. While it can be motivating to have the opportunity for career development, it is not considered a tangible reward. Objective 03 Total Rewards Statements
Q. A procedure that provides clear guidance for supervisors and employees to systematically and fairly resolve complaints is known as which of the following? A. An open door policy B. An HR resolution policy C. A grievance process D. A team-building process
The correct answer is C. A grievance process is a systematic and fair procedure for supervisors and employees to resolve complaints that arise. It typically includes timelines, what is eligible, and the decision-making process involved. A, B, and D are incorrect. A is incorrect because an open-door policy refers to a communication philosophy indicating employees are free to voice their concerns to any level of management at any time. B is incorrect because while often supervisors mistake the grievance process as an HR-only procedure, it is a process that should be adopted wholeheartedly by the supervisors for it to be effective. D is incorrect because a team building process is an overbroad concept and it does not effectively reflect the grievance process. Objective 08 Employee Relations Programs
Q. Computer software that simulates a worksheet used to tabulate data and create graphs based on data is known as what tool? A. Presentation B. Application C. Spreadsheet D. Balance sheet
The correct answer is C. A spreadsheet is computer software such as Excel or Lotus that simulates a worksheet used to tabulate data and create graphs based on data entered. HR will often use spreadsheets to calculate compensation, employee scheduling, recruitment candidate tracking, checklists, and so on. A, B, and D are incorrect. None of them represents spreadsheet software that calculates data and creates graphs. Objective 08 Tools to Compile Data
Q. A top mistake in handling complaints or grievances is which of the following? A. Conducting a timely investigation B. Ensuring objectivity C. Ignoring the complaints D. Outsourcing the investigation
The correct answer is C. A top mistake in handling employee complaints or grievances is to ignore them. Ignoring employee complaints, no matter the reason, can make a bad situation worse and costly for the employer. This is particularly true if the complaints indicate serious work conditions such as harassment, hostile work environment, or discrimination. As with the case Walsh v. National Computer Systems, Inc., the courts found that HR was neglectful in investigating disparate treatment and hostile work environment complaints from the employee, Shireen Walsh. HR cited the reason for not investigating the complaint was because they "didn't want to take sides" and feared an investigation would lead to more complaints. The cost was a $438,145 judgment against the employer and ultimately a damaged reputation. A, B, and D are incorrect. Conducting a swift and objective investigation is smart and a "must do" strategy. In addition, some chief human resources officers may choose to outsource highly sensitive investigations, such as a matter relating to a high-ranking executive, to an outside third-party investigator to remove all appearances of bias. Objective 05 Methods for Investigating Complaints or Grievances
Q. Which type of interview uses past performance as a predictor of future behavior? A. Structured B. Competency based C. Behavioral D. Stress
The correct answer is C. Behavioral interviews include questions such as, "Tell me about a time..." or "Describe a situation..." These questions are designed to get the candidate to describe situations they have encountered in the past and explain how they handled them and the final outcome. The idea is that past behavior will help interviewers predict future behavior. A, B, and D are incorrect. A is incorrect because a structured interview means that the interviewer asks the same questions of every candidate. B is incorrect because a competency-based interview occurs when an interviewer asks questions based on the competencies required for success in the role and candidates are asked to demonstrate an example of the competency. D is incorrect because a stress interview is one where a candidate is purposely asked questions to place them on the defensive. The goal of the interview is to analyze how a candidate reacts under pressure. Stress interviews may be used in jobs such as EMT or 911 operators where the candidate will encounter several high-pressure situations on a regular basis. Objective 06 Interviewing Techniques
Q. Why should HR be involved in the strategy formulation, development, implementation, and evaluation of a business? a.Staffing projections significantly contribute to a company's strategic direction. b.Ensure that HR has a "seat at the table" so that the voice of the people can be heard. c. Depending on the strategic orientation of the company, HR's role may differ. d. Ensure the strategy is compliant with federal, state, and local regulations.
The correct answer is C. HR's strategic role varies depending on the organization's strategic orientation. To ensure that there is clarity regarding how HR can be of continual value to the organization, HR must advocate to be part all phases of the strategic planning and implementation process. A, B, and D are incorrect. All three choices are important but do not fully represent the reason why HR needs to be involved in all parts of the strategic planning process. Objective 05 Business Functions
Q. Farough wants to return to work as an administrative assistant 2 days after carpal tunnel surgery on her right hand. She is right handed. The medical certification states that she can use her right hand in 14 days. If her employer agrees, which of the following return to work policies apply in this case? A. Reasonable accommodation B. Fit-for-duty exam C. Modified duty D. Interactive dialogue
The correct answer is C. Modified duty is the best description of what is applicable because the accommodation would be temporary. A, B and D are incorrect. A is incorrect because a reasonable accommodation is a permanent solution. Farough only requires an accommodation for a little less than 2 weeks. B is incorrect because a fit-for-duty exam is an appropriate and useful part of a return to work program but, in this case, it is already established that Farough can return to work shortly. The only question is how soon. D is incorrect because an interactive dialogue between the employee and the Return to Work Coordinator regarding the employee's fitness to return to work is something required by the American with Disabilities Act. However, carpal tunnel is not covered under ADA. It is a best practice for an employer to maintain an open dialogue with injured employees but it is not required in all cases. Objective 06 HR Policies and Procedures
Q. Organizational structures were designed to: A. provide a decentralized decision-making process. B. provide a framework for common requirements in the region that are different from other regions. C. provide a framework that keeps the information flowing from functions to employees who need to keep the organization moving. D. provide a formal and rigid process for businesses with a single product line.
The correct answer is C. Providing a framework keeps the information flowing from functions to employees who need to keep the organization moving. A, B, and D are incorrect. A is incorrect because this is an example of a functional structure. B is incorrect as this is an example of geographic structure. D is incorrect because this is an example of a divisional structure. Objective 17 Reporting Structure
Q. What is a SMART goal? A. Smart, measurable, attainable, realistic, target B. Smart, measurable, affirmation, realistic, time bound C. Smart, measurable, attainable, realistic, time bound D. Smart, meaningful, attainable, realistic, time bound
The correct answer is C. SMART stands for smart, measurable, attainable, realistic, and time bound. A, B, and D are incorrect. A is incorrect because target is not correct, as the T should be time bound. B is incorrect because affirmation is not correct; the A should be attainable. D is incorrect because meaningful is not correct; the M should be measurable. Objective 06 Performance Management Practices
Q. Surveys that solicit employee ideas and feedback for improving the organization are called: A. competitor surveys. B. manager surveys. C. opinion surveys. D. customer surveys.
The correct answer is C. Surveys that solicit employee ideas and feedback for improving the organization are called opinion surveys. It can also be called an employee engagement or employee satisfaction survey. Often these surveys are conducted periodically, and the results are compared to industry benchmark data to assess the level of employee engagement and determine improvement opportunities. A, B, and D are incorrect. Competitor, manager, and customer surveys do not solicit feedback directly from employees. Objective 03 Methods and Processes for Collecting Employee Feedback
Q. What are the advantages and disadvantages of internal-only recruitment sources? A. It is always a good idea to recruit only from outside the organization. B. They are low cost but not familiar with organizational culture and expectations. C. They are low cost and familiar with organizational culture but limited in supply. D. There is plenty of supply in the talent pool, but they are high in cost and will lower morale.
The correct answer is C. The advantage of internal recruitment efforts is that they are low in cost and that the employee is already familiar with organizational culture. Often promoting from within raises morale. The disadvantage is that there is a limited supply in talent internally. Most organizations recruit externally in order to tap into an unlimited supply of talent. A, B, and D are incorrect. A is incorrect because it doesn't accurately describe the advantages and disadvantages of an internal recruitment source. Also, options with words like always are usually incorrect. B is incorrect because while internal referrals may be low in cost, the second part of this answer choice is not correct. Internal referrals are employees who already know the organizational culture and are familiar with processes. D is incorrect because no part of the option is correct because it relates to utilizing an internal referral recruitment strategy. The talent supply internally may be limited in supply. Further, it is a low-cost, not high-cost, strategy. Finally, an internal recruitment strategy raises employee morale as it sends the message the organization values its existing employees. Objective 03 Recruitment Sources
Q. Rumors have been circulating that one of the employees has been receiving threatening calls at work from her former abusive spouse. Which of the following is the best immediate action the employer should take to minimize liability? A. Because rumors are circulating at this point, calm employees down and educate them about expectations against spreading gossip in the workplace. B. Meet with leadership, develop a "violence in the workplace" policy, and get supervisors involved in training employees on the new policy. C. Interview the employee allegedly receiving calls, assess whether there is a danger to her and others in the workplace, and take preventative steps. D. Establish an evacuation plan, train all employees on the new plan, conduct regular evacuation drills, and notify local authorities of the drills.
The correct answer is C. Under the General Duty Clause of OSHA, the employer is required to provide "place[s] of employment which are free from recognized hazards that are causing or are likely to cause death or serious physical harm to his employees" (General Duty Clause, Section 5(a)(1)). In this case, the employer is hearing rumors of a possible threat that may or may not come into the workplace. The best step is to investigate and determine whether there is a viable threat and take appropriate preventative steps. A, B, and D are incorrect. A is incorrect because just calming employees down does not effectively address a possible threat to safety in the workplace. B is incorrect because while the employer may want to develop a "violence in the workplace" policy and train employees on the new policy as a good long-term practice, it doesn't address a possible eminent threat. D is incorrect because developing an evacuation plan is good for the long term but in the short term a threat needs to be assessed and dealt with immediately. Objective 02 Risk Mitigation in the Workplace
Q. Which of the following is an example of a compressed workweek? A. Working from home B. Sharing job responsibilities with another colleague C. Working four 10-hour days D. Working 20 hours a week
The correct answer is C. Working four 10-hour days is an example of a compressed workweek. A, B, and D are incorrect. A is incorrect because working from home would be an example of telecommuting. B is incorrect because sharing job responsibilities with another colleague would be called job sharing. D is incorrect because working 20 hours a week would be considered part-time. Objective 08 Work-Life Balance Practices
Q. A container with an opening that is used for collecting employee input, ideas, or suggestions for workplace improvements is called a(n): A. offering box. B. voting box. C. mail box. D. suggestion box.
The correct answer is D. A container with an opening that is used for collecting employee input, ideas, or suggestions for workplace improvements is called a suggestion box. This can be a physical box, or today employers may be utilizing an e-suggestion box whereby employees can provide suggestions or feedback through electronic means. A, B, and C are incorrect. An offering, voting, or mailbox is not specific to the employee feedback process. Objective 03 Methods and Processes for Collecting Employee Feedback
Q. What is a key advantage of the microlearning training delivery method? A. It takes up a lot of space on network servers. B. It keeps people out of classrooms. C. It is required training to meet regulations. D. It delivers training just in time.
The correct answer is D. A key advantage of the microlearning training delivery method is that it delivers information just in time, meaning it provides trainees with a small amount of information just as they need it. A, B, and C are incorrect. Too much server space, limited classroom space, and regulations do not apply to microlearning. Often microlearning can be delivered in small amounts of information online. Objective 02 Training Delivery Format
Q. A process for identifying and developing new leaders who can replace leaders when they leave an organization is called: A. strategic planning. B. contingency planning. C. goal setting. D. succession planning.
The correct answer is D. A process for identifying and developing new leaders who can replace leaders when they leave an organization is called succession planning. Effective succession plans focus on a 1- to 3-year plan that prepares employees for future roles. A, B, and C are incorrect answers. A is incorrect because strategic planning refers to the overall plan for the organization. B is incorrect because a contingency plan refers to a pre-thought-out strategy for addressing scenarios that may disrupt normal business operations. C is incorrect because goal setting is individualized or organizational objectives to achieve. Goal setting may be an outcome of succession planning once skill gaps are identified as part of the succession plan process. Objective 04 Career Development Practices
Q. A statistical analysis tool that gives an overview of variables that tend to go up and down together and in a specific direction, such as data that shows the cost of recruitment rises as the turnover number increases, is called a: A. database. B. filter. C. spreadsheet. D. correlation.
The correct answer is D. A statistical analysis tool that gives an overview of variables that tend to go up and down together and in a specific direction is a correlation study or matrix. This statistical analysis tool can provide insights into how one variable can impact another. A, B, and C are incorrect. These are all tools that may not directly provide a correlation of variables. It depends on how the spreadsheet or database is set up to display information. Objective 08 Tools to Compile Data
Q. What is the main advantage to an organization using the alternative dispute resolution process? A. Decreases HR/management time spent on disputes B. Decreases costs related to conducting investigations C. Decreases conflict within the organization D. Decreases the number of disputes that might end up in court
The correct answer is D. ADR will reduce the number of disputes that end up in court. A, B, and C are incorrect. These choices are not the main advantage of using the ADR. Each option is a factor and important but would not be a main advantage. Objective 06 Progressive Discipline
Q. Which functional areas might be a part of the decision-making process regarding the implementation of a new HRIS? A. An HRIS is a database to house employee information. Only HR needs to be part of determining how best to do so. B. Since this is an information system, it makes the most sense for IT to select the software that will run seamlessly on the company's existing platform. C. HR and IT. D. HR, IT, finance, accounting, and sales.
The correct answer is D. An HRIS is a human resource information system. This database not only stores employee information but synthesizes information that affects employees obtained from various functional areas. Several areas should be collaborated with to ensure that implementation of an HRIS is aligned to the company's strategic direction. For example, finance and accounting will be concerned with the cost of the software, and if those costs are projected to result in savings for the company, sales may be concerned with how the HRIS will track commissions earned. A, B, and C are incorrect. A decision that affects the entire employee population, such as the implementation of an HRIS, should never be made in a silo. At a minimum, a focus group or a survey that captures how all employees and functional areas will interact with the software is needed before decisions are finalized. All of these choices limit the involvement of functional areas that are not immediately obvious such as HR and IT. Objective 05 Business Functions
Q. An internal recruitment method employed by organizations to identify potential candidates from their existing employees is known as: A. independent contractors. B. temporary agencies. C. job posting. D. employee referral
The correct answer is D. An internal recruitment method employed by organizations to identify potential candidates from their existing employees is known as an employee referral. The employee referral recruitment method is thought of as one of the most effective methods of recruiting talented people to an organization. A, B, and C are incorrect. A is incorrect because an independent contractor is someone from outside the organization to do work. B is incorrect because temporary agencies are an external agency that fills job openings temporarily for an organization, and C is incorrect because a job posting is not an accurate definition of an employee referral program. Objective 03 Recruitment Sources
Q. Intellectual property refers to which of the following? A. Laptops, computers, tablets, and smart phones B. Reports, spreadsheets, presentations, and memos C. Internet, intranet, company software, and databases D. Patents, trademarks, copyrights, and trade secrets
The correct answer is D. Intellectual property refers to patents, trademarks, copyrights, and trade secrets. Intellectual property can be just as valuable to an organization as money in the bank. Organizations that are reliant on intellectual property are best served by having strong policies and limited access protocols in place. A, B, and C are incorrect. All other answers may represent property, but in a physical sense of the word and are not necessarily considered intellectual property. Objective 03 Security Risks in the Workplace
Q. A bank of hours in which the employer provides time that employees use for sick, vacation, and holidays is known as: A. vacation time off. B. personal time off. C. sick time off. D. paid time off.
The correct answer is D. Paid time off (PTO) is a bank of hours in which the employer provides time that employees use for illness, vacation, and holidays. It may also be called personal time off. Essentially employers may adopt one of two ways to provide employees paid time off. One way is they may have them in separate banks such as a sick bank and a separate vacation bank. Another way is when the employer combines sick, vacation, holidays, and personal time into one bank called PTO. Typically, the bank of hours is accrued (or earned) every full pay period an employee works for an organization. A, B, and C are incorrect. While all are time-off provisions, vacation, personal, and sick time stated and accrued separately is not PTO, or an all-in-one bank of hours. Objective 05 Payroll Processes
Q. What is the best way to utilize an applicant tracking database to engage passive candidates in the applicant pool? A. Insist that every applicant drop off a paper cover letter and résumé. B. Delete applicants who haven't been active for at least 12 months. C. They've lost interest; there is no need to try to engage passive candidates. D. Encourage candidates to update their knowledge, skills, and abilities.
The correct answer is D. The best way to utilize an applicant tracking database to engage passive candidates in the applicant pool is to periodically ask them to update their knowledge, skills, and abilities. This is a good way to see whether they are still interested in working for an organization. A, B, and C are incorrect. All these answers are not reflective of the best answer to engage passive job candidates. Objective 02 Applicant Databases
Q. Ensuring that a test or a survey effectively measures what it is supposed to measure is known as: A. effectiveness. B. quality. C. auditing. D. validity.
The correct answer is D. Validity is when a test or a survey effectively measures what it is supposed to measure. The validity of a test describes the degree to which you can make specific conclusions or predictions about people based on how they score. A, B, and C are incorrect. They do not represent the best definition of a valid test. Validity, or content validity, is the best formal answer. Objective 09 Methods to Collect Data
