HRM 146(7 until q10)89, Test 1

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When companies utilize ________, they take steps to eliminate the present effects of past discrimination.

A) affirmative action

About ________% of people working in the United States belong to unions.

B) 12

Which of the following best describes telegraphing during an interview? A) drawing out the most useful information from an applicant B) searching for hidden meanings in an applicant's answers C) smiling at an applicant to suggest a desired answer D) allowing an applicant to dominate an interview E) staying alert for an applicant's inconsistencies

Which of the following is the most commonly used selection tool? A) telephone reference B) reference letter C) interview D) personality test E) work sampling technique

________ identifies the training employees will need to fill future jobs. A) Competency modeling B) Performance analysis C) Strategic training needs analysis D) Screening

C) Strategic training needs analysis

If a person is in a protected class, he or she is protected by which of the following?

C) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act

According to Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act, which of the following employers would be legally allowed to refuse employment to an individual based on race, religion, or sex?

C) a local restaurant with 10 employees

Which form of on-the-job training usually involves having a learner study under the tutelage of a master craftsperson? A) programmed learning B) mentoring C) apprenticeship training D) coaching

C) apprenticeship training

Which type of disability accounts for the greatest number of ADA claims?

mental

Which of the following terms refers to items in collective bargaining over which bargaining is neither illegal nor mandatory? A) group bargaining items B) permissible bargaining items C) conditional bargaining items D) benefits-related bargaining items E) wage-related bargaining items

Answer: B Explanation: Voluntary (or permissible) bargaining items are neither mandatory nor illegal; they become a part of negotiations only through the joint agreement of both management and union. Neither party can compel the other to negotiate over voluntary items.

Surveys have found that ________ has the greatest influence on organizational performance and employee productivity. A) appraisals B) training C) goal-setting D) screening

Answer: C Explanation: C) Training has an impressive record of influencing performance, scoring higher than appraisal and feedback and just below goal setting in its effect on productivity. Screening and hiring the right people is important, but goal-setting and training are essential.

Which of the following traits is most likely to be assessed accurately during an interview? A) honesty B) intelligence C) agreeableness D) conscientiousness E) emotional stability

Which of the following is the primary disadvantage for employers who use private employment agencies to fill positions? A) White-collar applicants are difficult to attract. B) Internal recruitment specialists are necessary. C) Applicant screening may not be thorough. D) Applicant processing time is too lengthy. E) Application procedures are complicated.

C Explanation: The primary drawback to using a private employment agency is the fact that agencies may not screen applicants very well. Successful applicants may be blocked, while inappropriate applicants may be sent to interview with hiring supervisors. Advantages include saving time and being good sources for white-collar personnel.

All of the following are used for estimating reliability of a test EXCEPT ________. A) internal consistency B) retest estimate C) internal comparison estimate D) equivalent form estimate E) content validity measurement

Answer: E Explanation: Validity indicates whether a test is measuring what it is supposed to be measuring, while reliability indicates whether a test is measuring something consistently. Internal comparison estimates are used to measure the internal consistency of a test. Retest estimates and internal comparison estimates also measure reliability.

Which of the following terms refers to a group of interviewers working together to question and rate one applicant? A) serial interview B) board interview C) sequential interview D) mass interview E) one-on-one interview

Which of the following is true regarding substance abuse screening?

B) some urine sample tests cannot distinguish between legal and illegal substances

American Airlines uses flight simulators to train pilots about airplane equipment and safety measures. This is an example of ________. A) on-the-job training B) vestibule training C) virtual reality training D) programmed learning

B) vestibule training

Nondirective interviews can be described as a general conversation.

Which type of union security accounts for almost three-fourths of union contracts?

D) union shop

What is the first step in conducting an effective interview? A) studying the job description B) developing relevant questions C) establishing rapport with candidates D) asking technical questions E) developing a rating scale

Which question below is an example of a situational question? A) "Suppose you were giving a sales presentation and a difficult technical question arose that you could not answer. What would you do?" B) "Based on your past work experience, what is the most significant action you have ever taken to help out a co-worker?" C) "What work experiences, training, or other qualifications do you have for working in a teamwork environment?" D) "What factors should one consider when developing a television advertising campaign?" E) "What experience have you had with direct point-of-purchase sales?"

Sanders Sporting Goods, an international sporting goods chain, is being sued for sexual harassment by a former Sanders employee. The plaintiff asserts that she was the victim of numerous unwanted sexual advances from a male co-worker. The woman claims that Sanders' management condoned a hostile work environment and that the company is liable for the actions of the male employee. All of the following are most likely relevant questions to address in this court case EXCEPT ________.

A) Does Sanders have a record of employees who claim disparate treatment in the work place?

Which of the following requires employers to make reasonable accommodations for disabled employees?

Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990

Which of the following is the primary advantage of the work sampling technique? A) applicants find it difficult to fake answers

Answer: A

According to surveys of HR managers, which of the following is most frequently verified during an employment background investigation? B) references

Answer: B

Interview questions designed to assess the complexity of tasks the candidate has performed are focused on which of the following factors? A) motivation B) intellectual C) personality D) knowledge E) experience

Which of the following was the primary goal of the American Federation of Labor?

D) improving work conditions

Which of the following terms refers to an interview conducted when an employee quits a firm? A) situational interview B) appraisal interview C) selection interview D) screening interview E) exit interview

According to EEOC guidelines, an interviewer must limit his or her questions to whether an applicant has any physical or mental impairment that may interfere with his or her ability to perform the job's essential tasks.

Studies show that trainees are distracted by visual aids presented during training sessions

False

t/f: Apprenticeship training is a step-by-step self-learning method which uses a textbook, computer, or the Internet.

False

Performance analysis is a detailed study of a job to determine what specific skills the job requires

False

Which of the following terms refers to helping new employees appreciate the values and culture of a firm? A) onboarding B) outsourcing C) organizing D) offshoring

A) onboarding

Which of the following factors plays the greatest role in determining the best medium for a job advertisement?

A) skills needed for the job

James, an HR manager, is currently identifying the specific knowledge and skills required for a telemarketing position at Newman Enterprises. James is most likely involved in which of the following? A) task analysis B) program evaluation C) employee development D) screening

A) task analysis

All of the following are ways for an employee to prove sexual harassment EXCEPT by proving that ________.

A) the verbal remarks of a co-worker were sexually flirtatious

According to Kurt Lewin, in order for organizational change to occur, which stage must occur first? A) unfreezing B) moving C) refreezing D) freezing

A) unfreezing

Which of the following was part of the New Deal and made union organization easier?

B) National Industrial Recovery Act

An employer's computerized recruitment system should include all of the following elements EXCEPT ________. A) hypertext transfer protocol to enable applicants to post their resumes in any format or font B) requisition management systems to facilitate routing, approval, and posting of job openings C) hiring management software to collect and manage candidate information D) recruitment marketing to improve applicant pool quality E) skills and behavioral assessment services

A Explanation: A firm's computerized recruitment system should include a requisition management system, hiring management software, screening services, and recruiting solutions, such as recruitment marketing and applicant tracking. The manner in which resumes are posted does not relate to the site's http.

A recruiting yield pyramid is the historical arithmetic relationship between all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) internal and external candidates B) offers made and offers accepted C) recruitment leads and invitees D) invitees and interviews E) interviews and offers made

A Explanation: A recruiting yield pyramid is the historical arithmetic relationships between recruitment leads and invitees, invitees and interviews, interviews and offers made, and offers made and offers accepted. The ratio of internal and external candidates is not a factor in the recruiting yield pyramid which is used to determine the number of applicants a firm needs to generate in order to hire the required number of new employees.

Which of the following terms refers to the background investigations, tests, and physical exams that firms use to identify viable candidates for a job? A) selection tools B) job analysis methods C) job specifications D) personnel techniques E) forecasting tools

A Explanation: Selection tools, such as tests, background investigations, and physical exams, are used by firms to identify viable candidates for a job. After candidates complete applications and undergo initial screening interviews, a firm uses these selection tools before interviewing the candidate more thoroughly or making a job offer.

Jackie works as a nurse on temporary assignment for hospitals throughout the region on an as-needed basis. Jackie is ________. A) a contingent worker B) on job rotation C) using job enlargement D) in a benchmark job E) forecasting personnel needs

A Explanation: Temporary workers are known as contingent workers, so a nurse who floats from one assignment to another on a temporary basis is a contingent worker. Job rotation occurs when an employer systematically moves a worker from one job to another to broaden the worker's experience.

Which of the following will be the most likely result of the ADA Amendments Act of 2008?

A) Employees will find it easier to prove that their disabilities are limiting.

Which of the following terms refers to a collective bargaining situation that occurs when the parties are not able to move further toward settlement? A) impasse B) picketing C) arbitration D) fact finding E) wildcat strike

Answer: A Explanation: In collective bargaining, an impasse occurs when the parties are not able to move further toward settlement. An impasse usually occurs because one party is demanding more than the other will offer.

A manager who gives a former employee a bad reference may be accused of ________ if the information is both false and harmful. E) defamation

Answer: E

How many interviewers usually question applicants during a structured situational interview? A) 1 B) 2 C) 5 D) 7 E) 9

In Bakke v. Regents of the University of California, which of the following claims was made by Allen Bakke? A) sexual harassment B) racial discrimination C) reverse discrimination D) affirmative action E) quid pro quo

C Explanation: The case serves as an example of reverse discrimination. In Bakke v. Regents of the University of California (1978), the University of California at Davis Medical School denied admission to white student Allen Bakke, allegedly because of the school's affirmative action quota system, which required that a specific number of openings go to minority applicants. In a 5-to-4 vote, the U.S. Supreme Court struck down the policy that made race the only factor in considering applications for a certain number of class openings and thus allowed Bakke's admission.

All structured interviews specify acceptable answers for each question.

________ training is a method in which trainees learn on actual or simulated equipment but are trained away from the job. A) Vestibule B) Virtual-reality C) Programmed D) Job instruction

A) Vestibule

Consider the question: "What work experience do you have in marketing and sales?" What type of question is this? A) background question B) behavioral question C) situational question D) job knowledge question E) structured question

What type of interview would most likely include the following: "It must be difficult to leave a company after such strong accusations of unethical behavior. Tell me about that"? A) situational B) behavioral C) stress D) puzzle E) mass

Employee orientation programs range from brief, informal introductions to lengthy, formal courses

True

All of the following are types of on-the-job training EXCEPT ________. A) programmed learning B) understudy method C) special assignments D) job rotation

A) programmed learning

What type of screening device is designed to measure attitudes regarding tolerance of others who steal and other forms of counterproductivity? A) paper-and-pencil honesty tests

Answer: A

E-Verify is used by employers to ________.

D) determine if an applicant is eligible to work in the U.S.

Which organizational development application involves methods like performance appraisals, reward systems, and diversity programs? A) human process B) strategic applications C) technostructural D) human resource management

D) human resource management

Because EEOC testers are not really seeking employment, they do not have legal standing in court to charge unlawful discriminatory hiring practices.

Behavioral interviews ask interviewees to describe how they would react to a hypothetical situation at some point in the future.

Candidates who ask an interviewer questions are viewed negatively by the interviewer in most situations.

the purpose of a current training needs analysis is to ensure that critical employees receive adequate training and development for future positions with the firm

False

The interview is the most widely used personnel selection procedure.

Sanders Sporting Goods, an international sporting goods chain, is being sued for sexual harassment by a former Sanders employee. The plaintiff asserts that she was the victim of numerous unwanted sexual advances from a male co-worker. The woman claims that Sanders' management condoned a hostile work environment and that the company is liable for the actions of the male employee. Which of the following, if true, would most likely undermine the plaintiff's claim that Sanders is liable for the male employee's conduct?

The male employee was required by HR to participate in a sexual harassment awareness course.

Training sessions should be half-day or three-fourths day in length rather than a full day, because the learning curve goes down late in the day

True

Judy was up for a promotion at Simpson Consulting when her supervisor, Will, encouraged her to develop a sexual relationship with him. He suggested that her promotion would be a sure thing if they were involved. When Judy declined his advances, Will fired her. Which of the following would Judy most likely be able to prove in court if she decided to sue Simpson Consulting?

quid pro quo

What is the second step in the procedure for developing a guide for a structured situational interview? A) rate the job's main duties B) create interview questions C) conduct applicant interviews D) create benchmark answers E) appoint the interview panel

Which of the following interview formats will most likely result in the highest validity? A) structured, situational B) unstructured, situational C) structured, behavioral D) unstructured, behavioral E) structured, job-related

Which of the following is an example of a job knowledge question? A) "What are the legal restrictions regarding the use of telemarketing for consumers who have a past relationship with a company?" B) "Suppose you were confronted with an angry customer who threatened to sue the company. What would you do?" C) "Mike and Todd have $21 between them. Mike has $20 more than Todd has. How much has Mike and how much has Todd?" D) "Why are you leaving your current position?" E) "Can you tell me about a time in the past when you used leadership skills to handle a difficult situation?"

Which of the following statements is representative of what might be asked in a behavioral interview? A) "Consider a time when you were faced with an angry client. What did you do to turn the situation around?" B) "We are concerned with employee pilferage. As a manager here, how would you go about discouraging this behavior?" C) "Employees in this division are frequently under a great deal of pressure. How do you think you would handle the stress of the position?" D) "What would you do if a subordinate threatened to sue the company for discrimination?" E) "What are your occupational and personal goals for the next five years?"

According to ________, an employer can claim that an employment practice is a bona fide occupational qualification for performing the job. A) Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act B) Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973 C) Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 D) Executive Orders 11246 and 11375 E) 1972 Equal Opportunity Act

A Explanation: An employer can claim that the employment practice is a bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ) for performing the job according to Title VII. Title VII provides that "it should not be an unlawful employment practice for an employer to hire an employee . . . on the basis of religion, sex, or national origin in those certain instances where religion, sex, or national origin is a bona fide occupational qualification reasonably necessary to the normal operation of that particular business or enterprise."

What is the typical compensation structure for on-demand recruiting services? A) hourly rate B) commission C) percentage fee D) 20-30% of the hire's salary E) 50% of the hire's signing bonus

A Explanation: On-demand recruiting services (ODRS) provide short-term specialized recruiting to support specific projects without the expense of retaining traditional search firms. These recruiters are paid by the hour or project instead of a percentage fee or a commission.

Qualifications inventories can be tracked and maintained by using all of the following EXCEPT a ________. A) ratio analysis matrix B) personnel replacement chart C) position replacement card D) skills inventory software E) personnel inventory and development record form

A Explanation: Personnel replacement charts, position replacement cards, skills inventory software, and manual personnel inventory and development record forms are all tools for tracking and maintaining qualifications inventories. A ratio analysis is a forecasting technique for determining future staff needs rather than tracking employees for the purpose of transfer or promotion.

Employment planning requires making forecasts of three elements: the supply of inside candidates, the likely supply of outside candidates, and ________. A) personnel needs B) job specifications C) supervisor salaries D) global trends E) labor relations

A Explanation: The process of personnel planning requires forecasts or estimates of three things: personnel needs, the supply of inside candidates, and the likely supply of outside candidates. Forecasting personnel needs can be done through a trend analysis of the firm's employment levels over the last few years.

Which of the following questions would most likely be asked during a stress interview? A) "I see that you switched colleges four times before finally earning your degree. I think that reflects an inability to make good decisions and remain focused. What do you think?" B) "Can you tell me about a time in the past when you used leadership skills to handle a difficult situation?" C) "Mike and Todd have $21 between them. Mike has $20 more than Todd has. How much does Mike have and how much does Todd have?" D) "Why are you leaving your current position and changing careers?" E) "Which courses did you find the most challenging in graduate school?"

A A) situational B) behavioral C) stress D) puzzle E) mass @ C rude questions. The aim is supposedly to spot sensitive applicants and those with low (or high) stress tolerance.

When attempting to understand a candidate's personality, an interviewer using the streamlined interview process will most likely ask questions about a candidate's ________. A) interactions with others B) likes and dislikes C) achievements D) aspirations E) knowledge

A past interpersonal relationships. Managers will ask questions about the person's past interactions (working in a group at school, working with fraternity brothers or sorority sisters, leading the work team on the last job, and so on).

A) Barnum needs to head in a different direction with innovative ideas if it is to remain competitive with other hotel chains.

________ are special software tools that support Internet training by helping employers identify training needs, and to schedule, deliver, assess, and manage the online training itself. A) Learning management systems B) Intelligent tutoring systems C) Computer simulations D) Learning portals

A) Learning management systems

Which of the following best explains why union membership has fallen since the 1970s?

A) Legislation provides workers with protections that were once exclusive to unions.

Who was responsible for forming the American Federation of Labor in 1886?

A) Samuel Gompers

Mark Caffrey, vice president of sales at Samson Pharmaceuticals, manages a sales team of ten employees. Members of Mark's sales force vary in experience level. Four members of the sales team have worked at Samson for less than one year. The other six salespeople have been with Samson anywhere from three to seven years. Mark recently received the annual sales report and noticed that sales have been dropping steadily over the last year. Mark is considering the idea of providing training to his sales team as a way to boost sales. All of the following questions are relevant to Mark's decision to implement a training program for his sales team EXCEPT: A) What methods are used for recruiting and interviewing individuals for sales positions? B) Does every salesperson understand what his or her performance standards are? C) What tools are available to sales team members to help them work efficiently? D) What were the results of attitude surveys distributed to the sales team?

A) What methods are used for recruiting and interviewing individuals for sales positions?

The ________ form of union security means that the company can hire only union members.

A) closed shop

Which of the following best describes the first step in a performance analysis? A) comparing a person's actual performance to the ideal performance B) investigating employee-related customer complaints C) evaluating supervisor performance reviews D) conducting job knowledge assessments

A) comparing a person's actual performance to the ideal performance

What is the final step in the ADDIE training process? A) evaluating the program's successes or failures B) rewarding employees for program participation C) conducting a budget and needs analysis D) training the targeted group of employees

A) evaluating the program's successes or failures

In Griggs v. Duke Power Company, Griggs sued the power company because it required coal handlers to be high school graduates. The Supreme Court ruled in favor of Griggs because ________.

A) high school diplomas were not related to success as a coal handler

Which of the following would most likely occur during the fourth step of the ADDIE training process? A) holding on-the-job training sessions B) selecting employees for training C) preparing online training materials D) asking participants for feedback

A) holding on-the-job training sessions

United Airlines utilizes a checklist of things that pilots should do prior to take-off and landing. This checklist is an example of a(n) ________. A) job aid B) skill sheet C) work function analysis D) electronic support system

A) job aid

The EEOC was initially established to investigate complaints about ________.

A) job discrimination

When jobs consist of a logical sequence of steps and are best taught step-by-step, the most appropriate training method to use is ________. A) job instruction training B) apprenticeship training C) programmed learning D) job rotation

A) job instruction training

Rebekah was hired soon after graduation and assigned to complete a management trainee program. She will move to various jobs each month for a nine-month period of time. Her employer is utilizing the ________ form of training. A) job rotation B) understudy C) job expansion D) informal learning

A) job rotation

Which process involves assessing the company's strategic needs, appraising the current performance of managers, and building skills of managers? A) management development B) performance management C) strategic management D) management by objectives

A) management development

Race, color, religion, sex, or national origin is a motivating factor in a termination, but the employee would have been terminated for failure to perform anyway. Which of the following most likely exists in this situation?

A) mixed motive

Tyler, a new accounts representative at Martin Marketing, is learning the job by actually doing job-related tasks such as contacting customers. Tyler is most likely participating in ________. A) on-the-job training B) socialization C) social learning D) modeling

A) on-the-job training

All of the following are literacy training methods used by employers EXCEPT ________. A) providing computerized simulations B) assigning writing exercises to employees C) holding math and reading classes at work D) sending employees to adult education classes

A) providing computerized simulations

According to the Americans with Disabilities Act, which of the following would be considered a disability?

AIDS

What type of screening is used to reduce absenteeism and establish a baseline for future insurance claims? A) physical exams

Answer: A

What is the LEAST likely reason for the growing number of U.S. firms that are re-shoring jobs? A) free trade areas B) high shipping fees C) inadequate quality D) intellectual property theft

Answer: A Explanation: A) A small but growing band of U.S. manufacturers - including giants such as General Electric, NCR, and Caterpillar..." are actually "reshoring" jobs-bringing them back to United States. Reasons range from rising shipping and labor costs abroad to occasional poor quality goods and intellectual property theft abroad.) Free trade areas increase global trade.

Job analysts collecting information through observations and interviews benefit from the use of a(n) ________ to guide the process and ensure consistency. A) structured list B) electronic diary C) job description D) organization chart

Answer: A Explanation: A) A structured list or checklist is useful for guiding an interview or performing a personal observation. Electronic diaries are completed by the worker and would not be used for observations or interviews.

A ________ is the time it takes to complete a job. A) work cycle B) work week C) shift D) duty

Answer: A Explanation: A) A work cycle is the time it takes to complete a job, which may be one minute for an assembly-line worker or weeks for an engineer. Managers collecting data for a job analysis may observe a worker on the job for a complete work cycle and take notes of the worker's activities.

According to a survey conducted by the American Management Association, most employers who administer tests to applicants are measuring ________. A) job skills B) psychological behaviors C) interpersonal behaviors D) ethical opinions

Answer: A Explanation: A) About 41% of companies that the American Management Association surveyed tested applicants for basic skills (defined as the ability to read instructions, write reports, and do arithmetic adequate to perform common workplace tasks). About 67% of the respondents required employees to take job skills tests, and 29% required some form of psychological measurement.

During the job analysis process, the primary purpose of having workers review and modify data collected about their current positions is to ________. A) confirm that the information is correct and complete B) provide a legal benchmark for employer lawsuits C) encourage employees to seek additional job training D) validate the job specification list provided by HR

Answer: A Explanation: A) Allowing employees to review and modify the information collected about their current positions provides the opportunity to confirm that the data is correct and complete, which may help gain employee acceptance of the job analysis data and conclusions. Job specifications and job descriptions are created after employees review the collected data.

Mark Caffrey, vice president of sales at Samson Pharmaceuticals, manages a sales team of ten employees.Members of Mark's sales force vary in experience level. Four members of the sales team have worked at Samson for less than one year. The other six salespeople have been with Samson anywhere from three to seven years. Mark recently received the annual sales report and noticed that sales have been dropping steadily over the last year. Mark is considering the idea of providing training to his sales team as a way to boost sales. All of the following questions are relevant to Mark's decision to implement a training program for his sales team EXCEPT ________. A) What methods are used for recruiting and interviewing individuals for sales positions? B) Does every salesperson understand what his or her performance standards are? C) What tools are available to sales team members to help them work efficiently? D) What were the results of attitude surveys distributed to the sales team?

Answer: A Explanation: A) Although recruiting and interviewing affect the quality of employees on a salesteam, once the workers are hired the focus should be on training. The other questions relate to the decision of implementing a training program.

Which of the following terms refers to an appraisal that is too open to interpretation? A) unclear standards B) halo effects C) leniency D) biased

Answer: A Explanation: A) An appraisal that is too open to interpretation has unclear standards. Specific standards are likely to result in consistent and more easily explained performance appraisals.

Connor, a manager at boat manufacturing firm, takes a talent management approach to his duties. Which of the following would Connor most likely do? A) coordinate recruitment and compensation activities B) use different competencies for recruitment and development C) rely primarily on applicant testing results for hiring decisions D) manage employees based on their experience with the organization

Answer: A Explanation: A) An effective talent management process should integrate the underlying talent management activities such as recruiting, developing, and compensating employees. The same competencies should be used for recruiting, training, and appraising. Firms should balance talent management tasks with testing and proactively manage workers by segmenting them into groups.

Which of the following human resource management specialties calls for collecting data to write job descriptions? A) job analyst B) job training specialist C) compensation manager D) EEO coordinator

Answer: A Explanation: A) As a job analyst, a human resource manager collects and examines information about jobs to prepare job descriptions. HR managers also act as recruiters, EEO coordinators, compensation managers, training specialists, and labor relations specialists.

Wilson Consulting is a management consulting firm with seventy employees. As associate vice president of marketing, Suzanne Boyle is responsible for conducting performance appraisals of the twelve employees under her direct supervision. Suzanne plans to use the behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS) to evaluate the performance of her subordinates. Which of the following, if true, supports the argument that BARS is the most appropriate performance appraisal tool for Suzanne to use? A) Suzanne wants to provide her subordinates with specific examples of their good and poor job performance during the appraisal interview. B) Suzanne encourages her subordinates to review and make comments about their appraisal during a formal appeals process. C) Wilson Consulting recently installed an electronic performance monitoring system to help supervisors conduct appraisals. D) Suzanne provides her subordinates with upward feedback as a way to illustrate the ratings she assigns to each employee.

Answer: A Explanation: A) BARS, the most accurate appraisal tool, uses critical incidents as support for ratings, which helps supervisors explain appraisals more clearly to subordinates during the appraisal interview. Upward feedback is feedback about supervisors provided by subordinates.

Which of the following statements is representative of what might be asked in a behavioral interview? A) "Consider a time when you were faced with an angry client. What did you do to turn the situation around?" B) "We are concerned with employee pilferage. As a manager here$ how would you go a&out discouraging this behavior?" C) "Employees in this division are frequently under a great deal of pressure. How do you think you would handle the stress of the position?" D) "What would you do if a subordinate threatened to sue the company for discrimination?"

Answer: A Explanation: A) Behavioral questions start with phrases like, "Can you think of a time when... What did you do?" Situational questions start with phrases such as, "Suppose you were faced with the following situation... What would you do?"

Which appraisal method combines the benefits of narrative critical incidents and quantified scales by assigning scale points with specific examples of good or poor performance? A) behaviorally anchored rating scale B) constant sums rating scale C) alternation ranking D) forced distribution

Answer: A Explanation: A) Behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS)is an appraisal method that aims at combining the benefits of narrative critical incidents and quantified ratings by anchoring a quantified scale with specific narrative examples of good and poor performance.

Which of the following has most likely occurred when a supervisor conducting a performance appraisal is influenced by a subordinate's individual differences such as age, sex,and race? A) bias B) halo affect C) central tendency D) unclear standards

Answer: A Explanation: A) Bias refers to the tendency to allow individual differences such as age, race, and sex to affect the appraisal ratings that employees receive. Halo effect, unclear standards, and central tendency are other problems associated with performance appraisals.

Which of the following best describes business process reengineering? A) using computerized systems to combine separate tasks B) creating a visual chart for work flow procedures C) assigning additional activities to new employees D) developing employee skills and behaviors

Answer: A Explanation: A) Business process reengineering means redesigning business processes, usually by combining steps so that small multi-function process teams using information technology do the jobs formerly done by a sequence of departments. A workflow analysis may include a visual diagram of work processes.

Which of the following most likely depends on a job's required skills, education level, safety hazards, and degree of responsibility? A) employee compensation B) organizational culture C) annual training requirements D) OSHA and EEO compliance

Answer: A Explanation: A) Compensation in the form of salaries and bonuses greatly depends upon a job's required skills, education level, safety hazards, and level of responsibility. Managers use the job analysis to determine the relative worth of a specific job and the most appropriate compensation for an employee.

Which of the following would most likely result in a legally questionable appraisal process? A) basing appraisals on subjective supervisory observations B) administering and scoring appraisals in a standardized fashion C) using job performance dimensions that are too clearly defined D) assigning specific trait names when using graphic rating scales

Answer: A Explanation: A) Courts have ruled in favor of employees when performance appraisals were based on subjective factors such as age, sex, or gender rather than actual job performance.Performance appraisals are more legally sound if based on clearly specified job performance dimensions.

Over the next few years, employers may face a severe labor shortage because ________. A) there are fewer people entering the workforce than there are retiring baby boomers B) one-third of single mothers are not employed in the U.S. labor force C) there are too many nontraditional workers holding multiple jobs D) older employees are more family-centric than younger employees

Answer: A Explanation: A) Employers are faced with a possible labor shortage because baby boomers account for a large percentage of the workforce. As these workers reach retirement age, younger workers will need to fill the open positions, except there are fewer younger workers available. The family-centric nature and poor work values of younger workers are problematic for employers, but neither one is the cause of a labor shortage.

An employer is required to make a "reasonable accommodation" for a disabled individual in which of the following situations? A) if a disabled person has the necessary skills, education, and experience to perform the job but is prevented by the job's current structure B) when an employer fails to provide a job description for a position that a disabled person would most likely be able to perform C) if making changes would present the employer with an undue hardship D) each time that a disabled individual applies for a position

Answer: A Explanation: A) Employers are required to make a "reasonable accommodation" when a disabled person has the necessary skills, education, and experience to perform the job but is prevented from doing so by the job's current structure. Employers are not required to make reasonable accommodations if doing so would present an undue hardship on the employer.Employers are not required to have job descriptions, but they are advisable if a discrimination complaint ends up in court.

Answer: A Explanation: A) Employers often have supervisors teach basic skills by giving employees writing and speaking exercises. Another approach is to bring in outside professionals to teach,say, remedial reading or writing. Having employees attend adult education or high school evening classes is another option.Computerized simulations are more appropriate for teaching job skills rather than reading and writing.

Which of the following refers to the standards someone uses to decide what his or her conduct should be? A) ethics B) strategies C) preferences D) competencies

Answer: A Explanation: A) Ethics is the standards used by individuals to determine how to behave or act. In human resources, ethics relates to the decisions made by HR managers regarding workplace safety, security of employee records, employee theft, affirmative action, comparable work, and employee privacy rights.

Answer: A Explanation: A) Evaluating the program is the final step in the training process. After training is complete, employees are often rewarded for using new skills, but not during the training process.

Mike Simmons recently applied for a position with Pfizer Pharmaceuticals. Which personality trait most likely has the strongest correlation to Mike's success as a pharmaceutical sales representative? A) extraversion B) agreeableness C) conscientiousness D) openness to experience

Answer: A Explanation: A) Extraversion represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active, which are necessary characteristics for sales reps. Studies have shown that extraversion correlates to success in sales and management jobs.

________ represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active. A) Extraversion B) Conscientiousness C) Agreeableness D) Openness to experience

Answer: A Explanation: A) Extraversion represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active.Openness to experience is the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, unconventional, and autonomous. Agreeableness is the tendency to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle.Conscientiousness refers to achievement and dependability.

Which of the following best depicts how information technology supports performance management? A) tracking team performance with digital dashboards B) conducting employee training through WebEx software C) filing benefits information through the company intranet D) monitoring market performance with electronic scorecards

Answer: A Explanation: A) Firms that implement performance management often use IT-supported tools like scorecard software and digital dashboards to continuously display, monitor, and assess each team's and employee's performance. IT is used by firms for other HR purposes, but monitoring employee and team performance is related to PM.

Human resource managers generally exert ________ within the human resources department and ________ outside the human resources department. A) line authority; implied authority B) staff authority; line authority C) functional authority; line authority D) staff authority; implied authority

Answer: A Explanation: A) HR managers usually have line authority in the HR department, which means they have the right to issue orders to other managers or employees. However, outside of the HR department, HR managers are likely to exert implied authority because line managers realize that the HR manager has top management's ear in areas like testing and affirmative action. Staff authority refers to a manager's authority to advise managers or employees outside of his/her department.

In most organizations, human resource managers are categorized as ________, who assist and advise ________ in areas like recruiting, hiring, and compensation. A) staff managers; line managers B) line managers; middle managers C) line managers; staff managers D) functional managers; staff managers

Answer: A Explanation: A) Human resource managers are usually staff managers. They assist and advise line managers in areas like recruiting, hiring, and compensation. However, line managers still have human resource duties.

Wells Fargo and Company is a financial services firm that provides banking, insurance, and mortgage services at 10,000 stores nationwide. Wells Fargo offers its employees many professional development opportunities such as training programs and tuition reimbursement.Wells Fargo executives are considering the expansion of the firm's existing training programs after employees have expressed strong interest in the idea. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that Wells Fargo should use intelligent tutoring systems to provide training for loan officers? A) Current Wells Fargo employees indicate that they prefer to work at their own pace and have a variety of learning styles. B) Since Wells Fargo stores are spread throughout the country, the firm needs to provide training at a central location to a large group of current employees at once. C) Wells Fargo's employee orientation program provides new employees with information about the history, culture, and vision of the firm. D) Wells Fargo's board of directors sets training policies and works closely with HR to develop the most appropriate training programs for new employees.

Answer: A Explanation: A) Intelligent tutoring systems learn what questions and approaches worked and did not work for the learner, and therefore adjust the suggested instructional sequence to the trainee's unique needs. Such systems also enable trainees to work at their own pace. Teletraining or videoconferencing would be most effective if employees were spread throughout the country.

All of the following are categorized as computer-based training techniques EXCEPT ________. A) interactive gaming platforms B) intelligent tutoring systems C) computer simulations D) learning portals

Answer: A Explanation: A) Intelligent tutoring systems, computer simulations, and learning portals are types of computer-based training techniques used by many firms. Interactive gaming systems are primarily used for entertainment purposes rather than training, although video-game technology is used to facilitate military training.

Joaquin records every activity in which he participates at work along with the time it takes him to complete each activity. Which of the following approaches to job analysis data collection is most likely being used at Joaquin's workplace? A) diaries B) interviews C) observations D) questionnaires

Answer: A Explanation: A) Joaquin has been asked to keep a diary or a log of his work activities. With diaries and logs, an employee records every activity and the time spent on each in a log, which provides a complete picture of the job. Diaries and logs are often used in conjunction with interviews, observations, and questionnaires.

Which of the following terms refers to systematically moving workers from one job to another? A) Job rotation B) Job enrichment C) Job enlargement D) Job adjustment

Answer: A Explanation: A) Job rotation refers to systematically moving workers from one job to another.Job enrichment is considered the best way to motivate workers by redesigning jobs to increase worker opportunities. Job enlargement is the process of assigning workers additional same-level activities.

Answer: A Explanation: A) Job rotation, in which an employee (usually a management trainee) moves from job to job at planned intervals, is another OJT technique. With the understudy method, an experienced worker or the trainee's supervisor trains the employee.

Which of the following refers to the human requirements needed for a job, such as education, skills, and personality? A) job specifications B) job analysis C) job placement D) job descriptions

Answer: A Explanation: A) Job specifications are the human requirements needed for a particular job like education, skills, and personality. A job description is a list of the job's duties and responsibilities. Both job descriptions and job specifications are products of a job analysis.

Murray, Inc. emphasizes a desire for detail-oriented, motivated employees with strong social skills as indicated in the firm's job ________. A) specifications B) analysis C) reports D) descriptions

Answer: A Explanation: A) Job specifications summarize the personal qualities, traits, skills, and background required for getting a job done. Murray, Inc. wants detail-oriented, motivate employees, which would be described in the firm's job specifications. Job descriptions address the activities and responsibilities of a job. Both job descriptions and job specifications are products of a job analysis.

According to Kurt Lewin, in order for organizational change to occur, which stage must occur first? A) unfreezing B) moving C) refreezing D) freezing

Answer: A Explanation: A) Kurt Lewin's model of change indicates that unfreezing is the first step. Moving and refreezing are the next steps in the process.

Which process involves assessing the company's strategic needs, appraising the current performance of managers, and developing the managers? A) management development B) performance management C) strategic management D) management by objectives

Answer: A Explanation: A) Management development is any attempt to improve managerial performance by imparting knowledge, changing attitudes, or increasing skills. The management development process consists of assessing the company's strategic needs, appraising managers' current performance, and then developing the managers.

Which data collection method is most frequently used in conjunction with direct observation? A) interview B) questionnaire C) electronic log D) survey

Answer: A Explanation: A) Managers frequently combine direct observation with personal interviews to gather job analysis information. Often, managers observe the worker for a complete work cycle to gather as much information as possible, and then they follow up with an interview to gain clarification. Another option is to observe and interview at the same time by asking the worker questions as he or she works.

Which of the following best explains the shift from manufacturing to service jobs in the U.S.? A) creation of integrated supply chains B) firms producing their own raw materials C) global environmental concerns and legislation D) Web-based training programs for blue-collar workers

Answer: A Explanation: A) Manufacturers are collaborating with their suppliers to create integrated supply chains. Such actions eliminate slack and inefficiencies out of the production system and enable firms to produce more products with fewer employees.

Which of the following terms refers to a performance appraisal based on surveys from peers,supervisors, subordinates, and customers? A) 360-degree feedback B) team appraisals C) upward feedback D) rating committee

Answer: A Explanation: A) Many firms expand the idea of upward and peer feedback into "360-degree feedback." Here ratings are collected "all around" an employee, from supervisors, subordinates, peers, and internal or external customers.

Answer: A Explanation: A) Many jobs (or parts of jobs) consist of a logical sequence of steps that one best learns step-by-step. This step-by-step training is called job instruction training (JIT).

Tina is applying for a job as an assembly worker at Honda. As part of the selection procedure, Tina received classroom instruction and was asked to practice assembling windshield wipers onto cars. Tina most likely participated in ________. A) miniature job training and evaluation B) situational judgment tests C) assessment centers D) management games

Answer: A Explanation: A) Miniature job training and evaluation means training candidates to perform several of the job's tasks, and then evaluating the candidates' performance prior to hire.Situational judgment tests, assessment centers, and management games are less likely to involve training sessions.

Which of the following personality dimensions represents a tendency to exhibit poor emotional adjustment and experience negative effects such as anxiety, insecurity, and hostility? A) neuroticism B) extroversion C) conscientiousness D) openness to experience

Answer: A Explanation: A) Neuroticism relates to anxiety and insecurity. Extraversion represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active. Openness to experience is the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, unconventional, and autonomous. Conscientiousness refers to achievement and dependability.

Answer: A Explanation: A) On-the-job training (OJT) means having a person learn a job by actually doing it. Every employee, from mailroom clerk to CEO, gets on-the-job training when he or she joins a firm.

Which of the following terms refers to helping new employees appreciate the values and culture of a firm? A) onboarding B) outsourcing C) organizing D) offshoring

Answer: A Explanation: A) Onboarding is synonymous with employee orientation, which involves providing new employees with the information they need to function. However, onboarding also tries to help new employees understand a firm's values and culture.

Which of the following describes the most significant demographic trend facing the U.S. work force? A) increased number of aging workers B) decreased number of contingent workers C) increased number of blue-collar workers D) decreased number of bilingual workers

Answer: A Explanation: A) One of the most significant demographic trends facing the U.S. workforce is the increasing number of aging workers, who are those over age 55. There are not enough younger workers to replace the projected number of baby boom era older-worker retirees. As a result, many retirees are returning to the workforce.

What type of screening device is designed to measure attitudes regarding tolerance of others who steal and other forms of counter productivity? A) paper-and-pencil honesty tests B) interest inventories C) personality tests D) graphology

Answer: A Explanation: A) Paper-and-pencil (or online) honesty tests are psychological tests designed to predict job applicants' proneness to dishonesty and other forms of counter productivity. Most measure attitudes regarding things like tolerance of others who steal, acceptance of rationalizations for theft, and admission of theft-related activities.

Peer appraisals have been shown to result in a(n) ________. A) reduction of social loafing B) reduction of group cohesion C) decrease in task motivation D) decrease in group satisfaction

Answer: A Explanation: A) Peer appraisals have been shown to improve social loafing, group viability,cohesion, task motivation, and satisfaction. Employees are often motivated to meet the expectations of their colleagues.

Which function of the management process requires a manager to establish goals and standards and to develop rules and procedures? A) planning B) organizing C) staffing D) leading

Answer: A Explanation: A) Planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling are the five main functions of management. The planning function involves establishing goals and standards, developing rules and procedures, and forecasting.

What type of screening is used to reduce absenteeism and establish a baseline for future insurance claims? A) physical exams B) personality tests C) substance abuse screening D) fine motor skills assessments

Answer: A Explanation: A) Preemployment medical exams are used to verify that the applicant meets the position's physical requirements, to discover any medical limitations you should consider in placing him or her, and to establish a baseline for future insurance or compensation claims.

All of the following are types of on-the-job training EXCEPT ________. A) programmed learning B) understudy method C) special assignments D) job rotation

Answer: A Explanation: A) Programmed learning is not a type of OJT but another method for training employees. The most familiar on-the-job training is the coaching or understudy method, which is when an experienced worker trains the employee. Job rotation involves an employee moving from job to job at planned intervals, and special assignments give lower-level executives firsthand experience in working on actual problems.

The best way to reduce the problem of central tendency in performance appraisals is to ________. A) rank employees B) use graphic rating scales C) limit the number of appraisals D) appraise personal characteristics

Answer: A Explanation: A) Ranking employees instead of using graphic rating scales can reduce the problem of central tendency. Ranking means you can't rate all employees as average.

A reliable employment test will most likely yield ________. A) consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test B) improved scores when a person takes the same test more than once in a single day C) high scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test on different occasions D) similar scores when two different people are administered the test at different times

Answer: A Explanation: A) Reliability is a test's first requirement and refers to its consistency: A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions.

The most important consideration when developing an online job analysis is to ________. A) make questions and the process as clear as possible B) provide monetary rewards for timely completion C) limit the number of questions to less than twenty D) ask open-ended questions to ensure honest responses

Answer: A Explanation: A) Removing the ambiguity from both questions and the job analysis process will greatly improve the validity of online results. The purpose of collecting data online is to save time and money, so minimal intervention and guidance should be necessary. The number and type of questions is less important than the clarity of the questions.

The basic aim of ________ is to increase the participant's insight into his or her own behavior and the behavior of others by encouraging an open expression of feelings in a trainer-guided group. A) laboratory training B) action research C) group therapy D) diversity training

Answer: A Explanation: A) Sensitivity, laboratory, or t-group (the t is for "training") training's basic aim is to increase the participant's insight into his or her own behavior by encouraging an open expression of feelings in the trainer-guided t-group. Typically, 10 to 15 people meet to focus on the feelings and emotions of the members in the group at the meeting.

Carl recently participated in a selection test for a position at Northern Aeronautics. The test measured Carl's finger dexterity and reaction time, so it was most likely a ________ test. A) motor ability B) personality C) cognitive D) interest

Answer: A Explanation: A) Some jobs require applicants be tested for motor abilities, such as finger dexterity, manual dexterity, and (if hiring pilots) reaction time. For example, the Crawford Small Parts Dexterity Test measures the speed and accuracy of simple judgment as well as the speed of finger, hand, and arm movements.

________ functions involve assisting and advising line managers, and they are the central aspect of a human resource manager's job. A) Staff B) Advocacy C) Line D) Coordinative

Answer: A Explanation: A) Staff functions involve assisting and advising line managers, and they are the heart of the human resource manager's job. He or she advises the CEO so the CEO can better understand the personnel aspects of the company's strategic options. HR also assists in hiring, training, evaluating, rewarding, counseling, promoting, and firing employees. Line and coordinative functions are the other two primary duties of an HR manager.

Strategic human resource management refers to ________. A) formulating and executing human resource policies and practices that produce the employee competencies and behaviors the company needs to achieve strategic aims B) planning the balance of internal strengths and weaknesses with external opportunities and threats to maintain competitive advantage C) emphasizing the knowledge, education, training, skills, and expertise of a firm's workers D) extending a firm's sales, ownership, and manufacturing to new markets

Answer: A Explanation: A) Strategic human resource management involves formulating and executing human resource policies and practices that produce the employee competencies and behaviors the company needs to achieve strategic aims. Strategic human resource plans enable a company to hire the employees who will exhibit the behaviors the company needs to accomplish its goals.

Which of the following would provide the best solution for a global firm's HR department that needs to immediately provide employees with corporate information? A) streaming desktop video B) electronic outsourcing C) productivity software D) network monitoring

Answer: A Explanation: A) Streaming desktop videos are used by firms to facilitate distance learning and training or to provide corporate information to employees quickly and inexpensively. For a global firm, streaming videos is the best way to provide information to workers around the world.

Which of the following is most likely NOT a role played by the HR department in the performance appraisal process? A) conducting appraisals of employees B) monitoring the appraisal system's effectiveness C) providing performance appraisal training to supervisors D) ensuring the appraisal system's compliance with EEO laws

Answer: A Explanation: A) Supervisors rather than HR managers conduct the actual appraisals. However,the HR department monitors the system's effectiveness and compliance with EEO laws. HR managers also provide supervisors with tools, advice, and training in regards to performance appraisals.

Answer: A Explanation: A) Task analysis is a detailed study of the job to determine what specific skills- like Java (in the case of a Web developer) or interviewing (in the case of a supervisor)-the job requires. Strategic training needs analysis focuses on identifying the training that employees will need to fill these new future jobs, and current training needs analysis focuses on improving the performance of new or deficient employees.

SMART goals are best described as ________. A) specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and timely B) straightforward, meaningful, accessible, real, and tested C) strategic, moderate, achievable, relevant, and timely D) supportive, meaningful, attainable, real, and timely

Answer: A Explanation: A) The acronym SMART stands for specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and timely.

Answer: A Explanation: A) The basic analysis-design-develop-implement-evaluate (ADDIE) training process model has been used by training experts for years. The fourth step involves providing the training to a targeted employee group. Training methods vary but may include on-the-job training or online training.

Shelly, an HR manager, recently had a meeting with the production manager to determine if the firm's vacation policy was been strictly followed in the production department. Shelly was most likely performing a ________ function. A) coordinative B) procedural C) staff D) line

Answer: A Explanation: A) The coordinative function of an HR manager involves coordinating personnel activities, a duty often referred to as functional authority (or functional control). Here he or she ensures that line managers are implementing the firm's human resource policies and practices, such as vacation policies.

Roberta Whitman has recently been hired by Jackson Pharmaceuticals as the senior vice president of human resources. Jackson Pharmaceuticals has a history of problems within its HR department including difficulties recruiting and retaining qualified employees, EEO violations, inadequate employee training programs, and confusion regarding health benefit enrollment and coverage. With years of experience transforming HR departments in other firms, Whitman believes she can correct the problems at Jackson Pharmaceuticals. Which of the following best supports the argument that Whitman should create embedded HR units and assign relationship managers to each department within the firm? A) Employees frequently complain about the inconsistent assistance they receive from the HR department due to its large size. B) The global nature of the firm makes it difficult for the HR department to effectively communicate corporate messages to employees scattered around the world. C) Centralized call centers would enable the HR department to provide specialized support on daily transactional activities. D) Line managers want to implement additional screening and evaluations to improve the quality of their subordinates.

Answer: A Explanation: A) The embedded HR unit assigns HR generalists (also known as "relationship managers" or "HR business partners") directly to departments like sales and production, to provide the localized human resource management assistance the departments need. If employees are unable to receive the HR assistance they need on a regular basis, then it would be appropriate for the firm to assign HR generalists to each department as a direct line to the HR department.

What is the final step in conducting a job analysis? A) writing a job description and job specifications B) validating all of the collected job data C) collecting data on specific job activities D) reviewing relevant background information

Answer: A Explanation: A) The final step in the job analysis process involves developing a job description and job specifications, which are the two tangible products of a job analysis. This step occurs after job data has been collected and validated, and background information has been reviewed.

Answer: A Explanation: A) The first step in performance analysis is usually to compare the person's actual performance to what it should be. Doing so helps to confirm that there is a performance deficiency and may also help the manager to identify its cause.

Jennifer, a manager at an engineering firm, has been assigned the task of conducting a job analysis. What should be Jennifer's first step in the process? A) deciding how the gathered information will be used B) collecting data on job activities and working conditions C) selecting representative job positions to assess D) reviewing relevant background information

Answer: A Explanation: A) The first step in performing a job analysis is deciding how the job analysis will be used because this determines the data that will be collected and how it will be collected.Collecting data, selecting which job positions to analyze, reviewing background information like organization charts and process charts, and writing job descriptions are additional steps in the job analysis process.

Which of the following measurement methods is similar to grading on a curve? A) forced distribution B) graphic rating scale C) constant sums rating D) behaviorally anchored rating scale

Answer: A Explanation: A) The forced distribution method is similar to grading on a curve. With this method, you place predetermined percentages of ratees into several performance categories.

Which of the following is an example of a coordinative function performed by HR managers? A) ensuring that line managers are adhering to a firm's sexual harassment policies B) voicing employee concerns about health benefits and wages to upper management C) providing upper management with relevant data on national employment trends D) assisting line managers with hiring, evaluating, and firing employees

Answer: A Explanation: A) The human resource manager performs coordinative functions which require coordinating personnel activities. This function is often referred to as functional authority (or functional control). Here he or she ensures that line managers are implementing the firm's human resource policies and practices, such as adhering to sexual harassment policies.

What type of information is contained in the job identification section of a job description? A) job title B) job summary C) major functions or activities D) standards of performance

Answer: A Explanation: A) The job identification section of a job description includes the job title, FLSA status, and date. The job summary sections describe the major functions and activities of a job.The standards of performance is a separate section of a job description.

In the management process, which of the following is an activity associated with the leading function? A) maintaining employee morale B) setting performance standards C) training new employees D) developing procedures

Answer: A Explanation: A) The management process includes five functions--planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling. The leading function requires a manager to get employees to accomplish their jobs, maintaining morale, and motivating subordinates.

Which of the following is the person responsible for accomplishing an organization's goals by planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling personnel? A) manager B) entrepreneur C) generalist D) marketer

Answer: A Explanation: A) The manager is the person responsible for accomplishing an organization's goals by planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling the efforts of the organization's people. An entrepreneur may manage people or may hire a manager to do so instead, but entrepreneurs are defined as individuals who start their own businesses.

In most organizations, who is primarily responsible for appraising an employee's performance? A) employee's direct supervisor B) company appraiser C) human resources manager D) employee's subordinates

Answer: A Explanation: A) The supervisor—not HR—usually does the actual appraising, and a supervisor who rates his or her employees too high or too low (or all average) is doing a disservice to them and to the company. Subordinates rate supervisors in some organizations, but the upward feedback is not the primary appraisal of the supervisor.

Which of the following methods for gathering background information about a job applicant is NOT recommended because of potential legal violations? A) searching social networking sites for posted information about the applicant B) using a database to access information about the applicant's credit history C) locating references other than the ones provided by the applicant D) using a search engine to find information about the applicant

Answer: A Explanation: A) Using a search engine like Google is acceptable, but checking social networking sites raises legal issues, especially when done without the candidate's prior approval.Using databases and contacting references are recommended for finding useful information about an applicant.

________ training is a method in which trainees learn on actual or simulated equipment but are trained away from the job. A) Vestibule B) Virtual-reality C) Programmed D) Job instruction

Answer: A Explanation: A) Vestibule training is a method in which trainees learn on the actual or simulated equipment they will use on the job, but are trained off the job (perhaps in a separate room or vestibule). Vestibule training is necessary when it's too costly or dangerous to train employees on the job.

What is an underlying goal of Whirlpool's ECE program? A) giving job candidates a positive impression of the firm B) selecting a diverse group of job candidates for the firm C) clarifying the corporate culture for job candidates D) ensuring selection validity among job candidates

Answer: A Explanation: A) Whirlpool calls its candidate selection process, the Exceptional Candidate Experience (ECE). The ECE doesn't just aim to select the &est candidates. It also aims to make every candidate a loyal customer by carefully managing the selection process to make sure the candidate gets a consistent and positive impression of the company.

What is the primary disadvantage of using concurrent validation? A) Current employees may not be representative of new applicants. B) New applicants are recent college graduates with limited experience. C) Limited correlation exists between high test scores and job performance. D) Test batteries have not been administered by professional industrial psychologists.

Answer: A Explanation: A) With concurrent validation, the test scores of current employees are compared with their current job performance. The disadvantage is that current employees may not be representative of new applicants because current employees have already had on-the-job training.

The Department of Labor procedure uses a set of standard basic activities known as ________ to describe what a worker must do with respect to data, people, and things. A) worker functions B) employee duties C) job procedures D) job requirements

Answer: A Explanation: A) With the DOL procedure, standard basic activities known as worker functions are used to describe what a worker must do in a specific job with respect to three main categories--data, people, and things. Each worker function is given an importance rating for coding purposes.

Which of the following is the primary advantage of the work sampling technique? A) Applicants find it difficult to fake answers. B) Employers learn about an applicant's personality. C) Applicants can evaluate their own performance. D) Fine motor skills can be accurately assessed over time.

Answer: A Explanation: A) Work sampling has several advantages. It measures actual job tasks, so it's harder to fake answers. Work sampling doesn't delve into the applicant's personality, so there's almost no chance of applicants viewing it as an invasion of privacy. Fine motor skills are not necessarily part of the work sampling unless such skills are related to the specific job.

When an employee's performance is so poor that a written warning is required, the warning should ________. A) identify the standards by which the employee is judged B) provide examples of employees who met the standards C) provide examples of times when the employee met the standards D) be written by a labor law attorney in accordance with federal guidelines

Answer: A Explanation: A) Written warnings should identify the employee's standards, make it clear that the employee was aware of the standard, specify any deficiencies relative to the standard, and show the employee had an opportunity to correct his or her performance.

According to a survey conducted by the American Management Association, most employers who administer tests to applicants are measuring ________. A) job skills B) aptitudes C) psychological behaviors D) interpersonal behaviors E) ethical opinions

Answer: A Explanation: About 41% of companies that the American Management Association surveyed tested applicants for basic skills (defined as the ability to read instructions, write reports, and do arithmetic adequate to perform common workplace tasks). About 67% of the respondents required employees to take job skills tests, and 29% required some form of psychological measurement.

Answer: A Explanation: Neuroticism relates to anxiety and insecurity. Extraversion represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active. Openness to experience is the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, unconventional, and autonomous. Agreeableness is the tendency to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle. Conscientiousness refers to achievement and dependability.

The National Air Traffic Controllers Association and the Federal Aviation Administration have reached an impasse during collective bargaining. Which of the following will most likely be used to reach a settlement? A) fact finding B) mediation C) binding arbitration D) interest arbitration E) non-binding arbitration

Answer: A Explanation: Presidential emergency fact-finding boards have successfully resolved impasses in certain critical transportation disputes. Choices B, C, D, and E are less likely to be used during this national emergency strike.

Answer: A Explanation: Reliability is a test's first requirement and refers to its consistency: A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions.

________ tests measure finger dexterity, manual dexterity, and reaction time. A) Motor ability B) Personality C) Achievement D) Cognitive E) Interest

Answer: A Explanation: Some jobs require applicants be tested for motor abilities, such as finger dexterity, manual dexterity, and (if hiring pilots) reaction time. For example, the Crawford Small Parts Dexterity Test measures the speed and accuracy of simple judgment as well as the speed of finger, hand, and arm movements.

Which of the following best describes the AFL-CIO? A) voluntary federation of national and international labor unions B) local union for automobile workers in Detroit, Michigan C) political lobbying group for public school teachers D) federation of firms that fight unionization in their plants E) regional branch of the National Labor Relations Board

Answer: A Explanation: The American Federation of Labor and Congress of Industrial Organizations (AFL-CIO) is a voluntary federation of about 56 national and international labor unions in the United States.

Which of the following terms refers to the group of employees the union will be authorized to represent? A) bargaining unit B) union delegation C) mediating group D) negotiating team E) grievance committee

Answer: A Explanation: The bargaining unit is the group of employees that the union will be authorized to represent and bargain for collectively. If the entire organization is the bargaining unit, the union will represent all nonsupervisory, nonmanagerial, and nonconfidential employees, even though the union may be oriented mostly toward blue collar workers.

Hyper-Tech Enterprises manufactures mechanical parts used in air conditioning and heating units. The company employs over 300 workers at its Alabama facility. None of the Hyper-Tech employees belong to a union; however, management believes that unionization is in the near future. A representative of a local union has recently visited Hyper-Tech in an attempt to solicit members and have them sign authorization cards. Enough eligible employees have signed authorization cards to petition the NLRB for an election. Hyper-Tech's top executives are considering fighting the unionization efforts. Which of the following questions is LEAST relevant to the decision by Hyper-Tech to fight unionization efforts? A) How many Hyper-Tech employees were hired within the last year? B) What percentage of Hyper-Tech employees signed authorization cards? C) Does Hyper-Tech qualify for coverage by the National Labor Relations Board? D) What is the opinion of Hyper-Tech's shareholders and creditors regarding unionization? E) What are the laws regarding what Hyper-Tech managers can and cannot do during a campaign?

Answer: A Explanation: The number of newly hired employees is least relevant to the firm's decision to fight unionization. Choices B, C, D, and E are more relevant to the decision.

What is the primary disadvantage of using concurrent validation? A) Current employees may not be representative of new applicants. B) Current employees have not been employed for a significant time. C) New applicants are recent college graduates with limited experience. D) Limited correlation exists between high test scores and job performance. E) Test batteries have not been administered by professional industrial psychologists.

Answer: A Explanation: With concurrent validation, the test scores of current employees are compared with their current job performance. The disadvantage is that current employees may not be representative of new applicants because current employees have already had on-the-job training.

Answer: B

Which selection tool is considered the LEAST useful by most HR managers? B) reference letters

Answer: B

With the work sampling technique, applicants are ________. B) tested on their ability to perform several tasks crucial to performing the job of interest

Answer: B

Fact finding seeks to end an impasse by ________. A) assisting the principals in reaching an agreement B) studying the issues and making a public recommendation C) determining and dictating the settlement terms D) interpreting and analyzing existing contract terms E) communicating assessments of the likelihood of a strike

Answer: B Explanation: A fact finder is a neutral party who studies the issues in a dispute and makes a public recommendation for a reasonable settlement.

While some personality characteristics are associated with success in different types of jobs, which personality trait is most frequently associated with job performance in all jobs? A) openness to experience B) conscientiousness C) extroversion D) agreeableness E) neuroticism

Answer: B Explanation: According to research, conscientiousness has been the most consistent and universal predictor of job performance. Conscientiousness is comprised of two related facets: achievement and dependability.

Which of the following measures reliability by administering two different yet comparable tests and then comparing the two test scores? A) retest estimate B) equivalent form estimate C) internal consistency assessment D) internal comparison estimate E) criterion validity measurement

Answer: B Explanation: An equivalent form estimate involves administering a test and then administering what experts believe to be an equivalent test later. The internal reliability or consistency of the test is measured by an internal comparison estimate. A retest estimate involves administering the same test.

Royall & Company streamlined its annual benefits package enrollments by digitizing and aggregating the former paper benefits reports, electronic spreadsheets, and benefit summaries and providing the materials at a single location on the company intranet. Royall is most likely using a(n) ________. A) spam filter B) Web portal C) query processor D) software license

Answer: B Explanation: B) A Web portal is most likely being used by Royall. Web portals are used by employers to enable employees to sign up for and manage their own benefits packages and to update their personal information.

Which performance appraisal technique lists traits and a range of performance values for each trait? A) behaviorally anchored rating scale B) graphic rating scale C) forced distribution D) critical incident

Answer: B Explanation: B) A graphic rating scale lists traits (such as "quality and reliability" or "teamwork") and a range of performance values (from "unsatisfactory" to "outstanding," or "below expectations" to "role model") for each trait. The supervisor rates each subordinate by circling or checking the score that best describes the subordinate's performance for each trait.The assigned values for the traits are then totaled.

Which of the following is the primary source of information an employer uses to write a job specification? A) job summary B) job description C) performance standards D) personnel replacement charts

Answer: B Explanation: B) A job analysis is used to produce a job description, which is then used to write a job specification. A job summary is one of the elements typically found in a job description, but the entire job description serves as the source for a job specification. Personnel replacement charts indicate the performance and promotability of internal candidates for positions.

All of the following are usually measured by a graphic rating scale EXCEPT ________. A) generic dimensions of performance B) performance of co-workers C) achievement of objectives D) job-related competencies

Answer: B Explanation: B) A paired comparison method involves making comparisons of employees with their co-workers. The graphic rating scale measures four job-relevant job dimensions including generic job dimensions, a job's actual duties, competencies, and objectives.

A(n) ________ shows the flow of inputs to and outputs from a job being analyzed. A) organization chart B) process chart C) job analysis D) job description

Answer: B Explanation: B) A process chart is a work-flow chart that shows the flow of inputs to and outputs from a particular job. In the second step of performing a job analysis, background information such as process charts, organization charts, and job descriptions are reviewed.

Which of the following terms refers to a teaching method that uses special collaboration software to enable multiple remote learners to participate in live audio and visual discussions via a PC or laptop? A) computer simulation B) virtual classroom C) intelligent tutoring system D) learning portal

Answer: B Explanation: B) A virtual classroom is a teaching method that uses special collaboration software to enable multiple remote learners, using their PCs or laptops, to participate in live audio and visual discussions, communicate via written text, and learn via content such as PowerPoint slides.

While some personality characteristics are associated with success in different types of jobs,which personality trait is most frequently associated with job performance in all jobs? A) openness to experience B) conscientiousness C) extroversion D) agreeableness

Answer: B Explanation: B) According to research, conscientiousness has been the most consistent and universal predictor of job performance. Conscientiousness is comprised of two related facets:achievement and dependability.

According to research, each of the following work behaviors is considered important in all jobs EXCEPT ________. A) attendance B) experience C) schedule flexibility D) industriousness

Answer: B Explanation: B) According to research, industriousness, thoroughness, schedule flexibility, and attendance are job-related behaviors that are important to all jobs. Experience is not a behavior,and in many entry-level jobs, experience is not necessary.

According to the ADA, job duties that employees must be able to perform, with or without reasonable accommodation, are called ________. A) job requirements B) essential job functions C) work activities D) job specifications

Answer: B Explanation: B) According to the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), essential job functions are the job duties that employees must be able to perform, with or without reasonable accommodation. Most ADA legal actions center on the concept of whether a job function is essential or not.

Which of the following enables management trainees to work full-time analyzing and solving problems in other departments? A) management games B) action learning C) role playing D) job rotation

Answer: B Explanation: B) Action learning programs give managers and others released time to work analyzing and solving problems in departments other than their own. The basics include carefully selected teams of 5 to 25 members, assigning the teams real-world business problems that extend beyond their usual areas of expertise, and structured learning through coaching and feedback.

Which of the following has historically been an integral part of every line manager's duties? A) responding to customer complaints B) handling personnel issues C) creating personnel policies D) establishing dress codes

Answer: B Explanation: B) All line managers directly handle issues related to their subordinates, such as training new employees, creating department morale, and protecting employees' health and safety. Although line managers are involved in interpreting a firm's policies, they are not always involved in creating policies.

Trainees should be provided adequate practice and be allowed to work at their own pace during a training session in order to ________. A) screen applicants based on ability B) transfer skills more easily to the job C) provide employers with feedback D) determine appropriate pay scales

Answer: B Explanation: B) Allowing trainees to work at their own pace, providing adequate practice, and maximizing the similarity between the training situation and the work situation are all techniques that enable trainees to transfer new skills from the training site to the work site.

All of the following are ways in which employers use technology to support their human resource management activities EXCEPT ________. A) paying employees and suppliers electronically B) offshoring and outsourcing benefits administration services C) offering online employee training through streaming desktop videos D) developing data warehouses to compare employees' skills with the firm's needs

Answer: B Explanation: B) Although outsourcing services such as benefits administration is becoming common among employers, the activity is not related to technology changes in HR management activities. Technological applications that are used to support HR include using electronic payment systems, providing training through streaming videos, using data warehouses to monitor HR systems, and monitoring the e-mail and Internet usage of employees.

Which of the following measures reliability by administering two different yet comparable tests and then comparing the two test scores? A) retest estimate B) equivalent form estimate C) internal comparison estimate D) criterion validity measurement

Answer: B Explanation: B) An equivalent form estimate involves administering a test and then administering what experts believe to be an equivalent test later. The internal reliability or consistency of the test is measured by an internal comparison estimate. A retest estimate involves administering the same test.

Which of the following refers to a procedure designed to obtain information from a person through oral responses to oral inquiries? A) work sample simulation B) interview C) reference check D) arbitration

Answer: B Explanation: B) An interview is a procedure designed to obtain information from a person through oral responses to oral inquiries.

Mark Caffrey, vice president of sales at Samson Pharmaceuticals, manages a sales team of ten employees. Members of Mark's sales force vary in experience level. Four members of the sales team have worked at Samson for less than one year. The other six salespeople have been with Samson anywhere from three to seven years. Mark recently received the annual sales report and noticed that sales have been dropping steadily over the last year. Mark is considering the idea of providing training to his sales team as a way to boost sales. Which of the following most likely undermines the argument that the drop in Samson's sales can be solved through training? A) The newest members of the Samson sales force are unfamiliar with the procedures used by the firm to measure the effectiveness of new drugs. B) Samson recently eliminated its long-standing policy of paying salespeople commissions on top of base salaries, which angered employees. C) Samson's most experienced salesperson retired after working at the firm for more than twenty years. D) Samson sales team members recently received their annual performance appraisals.

Answer: B Explanation: B) Angry employees may lack the motivation to perform, and training would not likely change their attitudes. Training can help eliminate problems associated with a lack of job knowledge.

Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause a supervisor's performance appraisal of a subordinate to be biased? A) purpose of the appraisal B) location and time of the appraisal C) personal characteristics of the subordinate D) relationship between supervisor and subordinate

Answer: B Explanation: B) Appraisal bias has been shown to be caused by the appraisal's purpose but not the location or time of the appraisal. The personality of the supervisor, personal characteristics of the subordinate, and relationship between the two parties all tend to lead to bias.

Which of the following best describes a behaviorally anchored rating scale? A) chart of paired subordinates ranked in order of performance B) combination of narrative critical incidents and quantified performance scales C) diary of positive and negative examples of a subordinate's work performance D) list of subordinates from highest to lowest based on specific performance traits

Answer: B Explanation: B) Behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS) is an appraisal method that aims at combining the benefits of narrative critical incidents and quantified ratings by anchoring a quantified scale with specific narrative examples of good and poor performance.

Carter Vacuums needs to hire 20 new employees to fill positions at its manufacturing facility. The HR department wants to minimize the costs related to screening applicants but also wants the assessment method to be highly valid to the specific jobs. Which of the following would be the best choice for Carter Vacuums? A) structured interviews B) cognitive ability tests C) assessment centers D) work samples

Answer: B Explanation: B) Cognitive ability tests are highly valid and the costs related to developing and administering the tests are low. Structured interviews, work samples, and assessment centers have high validity, but they are also costly to develop and administer.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the critical incident method for performance appraisal? A) providing examples of excellent work performance B) comparing and ranking employees within a group C) reflecting performance throughout the appraisal period D) compiling examples of ineffective work performance

Answer: B Explanation: B) Compiling incidents provides examples of good and poor performance, makes the supervisor think about the subordinate's appraisal all during the year, and provides examples of what specifically the subordinate can do to eliminate deficiencies. The downside is that without some numerical rating, this method is not too useful for comparing employees or for salary decisions.

Stacey is using a behaviorally anchored rating scale as a performance appraisal tool. She has already asked employees and supervisors to describe critical incidents of effective and ineffective job performance. What should Stacey most likely do next? A) create a final appraisal instrument B) develop performance dimensions C) reallocate the incidents D) rate the incidents

Answer: B Explanation: B) Developing performance dimensions is the second step of the BARS process. Stacey should have these people group the incidents into 5 or 10 dimensions and then define each dimension, such as "salesmanship skills." The next steps involve reallocating incidents,rating the incidents, and developing a final instrument.

The methods used to give new or present employees the skills they need to perform their jobs are called ________. A) orientation B) training C) development D) management

Answer: B Explanation: B) Directly after orientation, training should begin. Training means giving new or current employees the skills they need to perform their jobs. Training is essential to good management.

Nick supervises a team of data entry specialists. Lately, productivity has been down, and Nick believes his subordinates are not working as efficiently as possible. Which of the following tools would provide Nick with daily information about each employee's rate, accuracy, and time spent entering data? A) digital dashboard device B) electronic performance monitoring system C) Web-based management oversight device D) electronic performance support system

Answer: B Explanation: B) Electronic performance monitoring (EPM) systems use computer network technology to allow managers access to their employees' computers and telephones. They thus allow managers to monitor the employees' rate, accuracy, and time spent working online.

Travel agents at Apollo Travel Services follow a computer program that displays question prompts and dialogue boxes with travel policies as the agent enters information about the consumer's travel plans. This is an example of a(n) ________. A) audiovisual-based training method B) electronic performance support system C) intelligent tutoring system D) computer-based training module

Answer: B Explanation: B) Electronic performance support systems (EPSS) are computerized tools and displays that automate training, documentation, and phone support. In this example, a client calling the travel service is asked questions that are prompted by an EPSS to take both the client and travel agent step-by-step, through an analytical sequence.

According to experts, the primary hindrance to a firm's productivity is its inability to ________. A) establish effective manufacturing facilities B) acquire and maintain human capital C) use advanced accounting controls D) attain adequate cash and credit

Answer: B Explanation: B) Experts assert that it's the work force and the company's inability to recruit and maintain a good work force that constitutes a bottleneck for production. Projects backed by good ideas, vigor, and enthusiasm are less likely to be stopped by a shortage of cash than a shortage of human capital, which is the knowledge, education, training, skills and expertise of a firm's workers.

Which of the following is a performance appraisal problem that occurs when a supervisor's rating of a subordinate on one trait biases the rating of that person on other traits? A) recency effect B) halo effect C) central tendency D) stereotyping

Answer: B Explanation: B) Experts define halo effect as "the influence of a rater's general impression on ratings of specific ratee qualities." For example, supervisors often rate unfriendly employees lower on all traits, rather than just on "gets along well with others."

Which of the following best explains why top HR executives are being paid increasingly high salaries? A) A firm's vision is only effective when HR managers play a strategic role in its development. B) Effective HR managers increase corporate profitability and organizational performance. C) Transactional activities are more cost-effective when outsourced by HR. D) Business strategies developed by HR managers are quantifiable.

Answer: B Explanation: B) From top management's point of view, it's not sufficient that HR management just oversee activities such as recruiting and benefits. It must add value, particularly by boosting profitability and performance in measurable ways. So, many top-ranked human resource managers earn multi-million dollar total take home pay.

________ refers to the tendency of firms to extend their sales, ownership, and/or manufacturing to new markets abroad. A) Expansion B) Globalization C) Export growth D) Diversification

Answer: B Explanation: B) Globalization is the tendency of firms to extend their sales, ownership, and/or manufacturing to new markets abroad. Firms usually expand globally to expand sales, cut labor costs, or form partnerships with foreign firms.

All of the following guidelines will most likely improve the effectiveness of a performance appraisal EXCEPT ________. A) maintaining a diary of employees' performance during the year B) using a graphic rating scale to ensure fair and consistent ratings C) knowing the advantages and disadvantages of different appraisal tools D) developing a plan to assist employees with performance improvement

Answer: B Explanation: B) Graphic rating scales do not necessarily lead to effective performance appraisals, and they are susceptible to problems like bias and central tendency. Keeping a diary,knowing which tool to use, and forming a performance improvement plan are all methods for improving the effectiveness of a performance appraisal.

All of the following are examples of human resource specialties EXCEPT ________. A) job analyst B) financial advisor C) compensation manager D) labor relations specialist

Answer: B Explanation: B) HR management specialties include recruiter, EEO coordinator, job analyst, compensation manager, training specialist, and labor relations specialist. HR managers are less likely to serve as financial advisors.

What term refers to the knowledge, education, training, skills, and expertise of a firm's workers? A) human resources B) human capital C) intangible assets D) contingent personnel

Answer: B Explanation: B) Human capital is the knowledge, education, training, skills, and expertise of a firm's workers. In the modern workforce, employment is shifting from manual workers to knowledge workers.

According to experts known as human lie detectors, which of the following characteristics most likely indicates that a job candidate is being deceptive? A) uncrossed legs B) irregular breathing C) unchanging pupils D) slow verbal responses

Answer: B Explanation: B) Human lie detectors are experts who may (or may not) be able to identify lying just by watching candidates. Signs include pupils changing size (which often corresponds to emotions, such as fear); irregular breathing (may flag nervousness); micro-expressions (quick transitory facial expressions that may portray emotions such as fear); crossing legs ("liars typically try to distance themselves from an untruth"); and quick verbal responses (possibly reflecting scripted statements).

________ is the process of acquiring, training, appraising, and compensating employees, and attending to their labor relations, health and safety, and fairness concerns. A) Labor relations B) Human resource management C) Behavioral management D) Organizational health and safety management

Answer: B Explanation: B) Human resource management is the process of acquiring, training, appraising, and compensating employees, and attending to their labor relations, health and safety, and fairness concerns. HRM falls under the staffing function of the management process.

Tara Robles earned an MBA degree and is now an HR manager for a Fortune 500 company. In which of the following tasks does Tara's advanced degree benefit her the most? A) using application service providers to expedite employee services B) assisting upper management in formulating business strategies C) distributing pension payments to retiring employees D) recruiting college graduates for entry-level positions

Answer: B Explanation: B) Human resource managers in today's workforce still need skills in areas such as employee selection, training, and compensation, as HR managers in the past did. However, modern HR managers also require broader business knowledge and proficiencies, which can be gained through an MBA program. For example, to assist top management in formulating strategies, the human resource manager needs to be familiar with strategic planning, marketing, production, and finance. He or she must also be able to "speak the CFO's language," by explaining human resource activities in financially measurable terms, such as return on investment and cost per unit of service.

An HR generalist at Wilson Manufacturing has been assigned to the sales department to provide HR management assistance as needed. Which of the following best describes the structure of the HR services provided at Wilson Manufacturing? A) transactional HR groups B) embedded HR units C) HR centers of expertise D) corporate HR groups

Answer: B Explanation: B) In the embedded HR unit structure, an HR generalist is assigned directly to a department within an organization to provide localized human resource management assistance as needed. Transactional, corporate, and centers of expertise are three other typical organizational approaches to HR.

Unlike HR managers of the past, modern HR managers must be able to ________. A) assist with employee training in various departments within a firm B) explain HR activities in terms of a firm's finances and productivity C) determine the most appropriate compensation for employees D) hire workers who are well-matched to a firm's HR needs

Answer: B Explanation: B) In the past, HR managers mainly focused on employee training, compensation, and hiring. Now, HR managers need to be familiar with strategic planning, marketing, production, and finance. He or she must also be able to "speak the CFO's language," by explaining human resource activities in financially measurable terms, such as return on investment and cost per unit of service.

Which of the following is another term for an unstructured interview? A) directive B) nondirective C) unformatted D) administrative

Answer: B Explanation: B) In unstructured or nondirective interviews, the manager follows no set format. A few questions might be specified in advance, but they're usually not, and there is seldom a formal guide for scoring "right" or "wrong" answers. structured interviews are known as directive interviews.

MTR Enterprises failed to provide adequate safety training to one of its employees. As a result, the employee harmed a customer. A court would most likely find MTR liable for ________. A) discrimination B) negligent training C) occupational fraud D) hazardous training

Answer: B Explanation: B) Inadequate training can also expose employers to negligent training liability. If an employer fails to train adequately and an employee harms a third party, it is likely that the court will find the employer liable.

The Big Five personality dimensions include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) neuroticism B) optimism C) extraversion D) conscientiousness

Answer: B Explanation: B) Industrial psychologists often focus on the "big five" personality dimensions: extraversion, emotional stability/neuroticism, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and openness to experience. Optimism is not one of the big five.

Grafton Industries administers selection tests to job candidates. The tests measure a range of abilities including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability, so they are most likely ________ tests. A) standardized B) intelligence C) achievement D) personality

Answer: B Explanation: B) Intelligence (IQ) tests are tests of general intellectual abilities. They measure not a single trait but rather a range of abilities, including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability. Achievement tests measure what someone has learned.

Which of the following data collection techniques would be most useful when writing a job description for a software engineer? A) distributing position analysis questionnaires B) interviewing employees C) analyzing organization charts D) developing a job process chart

Answer: B Explanation: B) Interviewing employees to determine what the job entails is an effective method of collecting data for writing a job description. Position analysis questionnaires are useful for compensation purposes rather than for writing job descriptions.

In most firms, line managers work in conjunction with HR managers when ________. A) visiting college campuses to recruit B) interviewing job applicants C) administering preemployment tests D) testing employees for drugs

Answer: B Explanation: B) Interviewing job applicants is a duty shared by line managers and HR managers in over 60% of firms. Recruiting at college campuses, administering preemployment tests, and testing employees for drugs are primarily the responsibilities of HR managers.

The most popular method for ranking employees is the ________ method. A) graphic ranking scale B) alternation ranking C) paired comparison D) forced distribution

Answer: B Explanation: B) It is usually easier to distinguish between the worst and best employees, and the alternation ranking method is the most popular choice for supervisors. Paired comparison and forced distribution are less popular methods for ranking employees from best to worst on a traitor traits. A graphic rating not ranking scale is a popular appraisal tool.

Which of the following terms refers to redesigning jobs in a way that increases the opportunities for the worker to experience feelings of responsibility, achievement, growth, and recognition? A) Job rotation B) Job enrichment C) Job reengineering D) Job enlargement

Answer: B Explanation: B) Job enrichment refers to redesigning jobs in a way that increases the opportunities for the worker to experience feelings of responsibility, achievement, growth, and recognition. Job enrichment is considered by some experts as the best way to motivate workers through worker empowerment. Job rotation refers to systematically moving workers from one job to another. Job enlargement is the process of assigning workers additional same-level activities.

Jack is an employee at a Best Western Hotel. Some weeks he works with the catering group,and other weeks he assists the reservations clerk or the parking attendant. This is an example of ________. A) job enlargement B) job rotation C) job enrichment D) job specialization

Answer: B Explanation: B) Job rotation refers to systematically moving workers from one job to another, so when Jack moves from department to department he is participating in job rotation. Job enlargement would occur if Jack was given additional same-level activities, such as washing both sheets and towels as part of his housekeeping duties. Job enrichment occurs when a worker's opportunities are increased to enhance feelings of responsibility and recognition.

Which of the following terms refers to setting specific measurable goals with each employee and then periodically reviewing the progress made? A) behaviorally anchored rating scale B) management by objective C) mixed standard scales D) forced distribution

Answer: B Explanation: B) MBO refers to setting specific measurable goals with each employee and then periodically reviewing the progress made. MBO is used as a primary appraisal method and as a supplement to other methods.

A manager uses the information in a job analysis for all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) assessing training requirements B) complying with FCC regulations C) determining appropriate compensation D) providing accurate performance appraisals

Answer: B Explanation: B) Managers use information gathered from a job analysis for many activities including providing performance appraisals, recruiting, determining compensation, and assessing training requirements. Job analysis plays a major role in EEO (Equal Employment Opportunity Commission) compliance but not with FCC (Federal Communications Commission) regulations.

Which of the following terms refers to the process of allowing subordinates to rate their supervisor's performance anonymously? A) supplemental evaluation B) upward feedback C) paired evaluation D) peer evaluation

Answer: B Explanation: B) Many employers let subordinates anonymously rate their supervisor's performance, a process some call upward feedback. The process helps top managers diagnose management styles, identify potential "people" problems, and take corrective action with individual managers as required.

In most firms, a rating committee used for performance appraisals consists of ________ members. A) 1-2 B) 3-4 C) 5-6 D) 7-8

Answer: B Explanation: B) Many employers use rating committees. These committees usually contain the employee's immediate supervisor and two or three other supervisors.

Which term refers to a set of quantitative performance measures that human resource managers use to assess their operations? A) case studies B) metrics C) practices D) ratios

Answer: B Explanation: B) Metrics are quantitative performance measures used by HR managers to assess operations. Metrics are used in evidence-based human resource management to make decisions about HR management practices and policies.

What is the primary goal of using mixed standard scales? A) improving validity B) reducing rating errors C) clarifying performance standards D) illustrating feedback for subordinates

Answer: B Explanation: B) Mixed standard scales generally list just a few behavioral examples for each performance dimensions. The employer then "mixes" the resulting behavioral examples statements when listing them. The aim is to reduce rating errors such as leniency, by making it less obvious to the supervisor (1) what performance dimensions he or she is rating, and (2)whether the behavioral example statements represent high, medium, or low performance.

All of the following are reasons for appraising an employee's performance EXCEPT ________. A) correcting any work-related deficiencies B) creating an organizational strategy map C) determining appropriate salary and bonuses D) making decisions about promotions

Answer: B Explanation: B) Most employers still base pay and promotional decisions on the employee's appraisal. Appraisals also lets the boss and subordinate develop a plan for correcting any deficiencies, and serve a useful career planning purpose. Creating a strategy map is not a likely purpose for conducting a performance appraisal.

According to surveys of HR managers, which of the following is most frequently verified during an employment background investigation? A) age B) references C) credit ratings D) driving records

Answer: B Explanation: B) Nearly 90% of HR managers reported conducting reference checks. Credit checks were performed by 35% of HR managers, while 56% investigated an applicant's driving history.

Which of the following terms refers to hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards? A) employment malpractice B) negligent hiring C) improper hiring D) invalid screening

Answer: B Explanation: B) Negligent hiring means hiring employees with criminal records or other problems who then use access to customers' homes (or similar opportunities) to commit crimes.Employers can be sued for negligent hiring.

Which term refers to using external vendors to perform HR jobs that were once handled by a firm internally? A) freelancing B) outsourcing C) rightsizing D) warehousing

Answer: B Explanation: B) Outsourcing refers to using outside vendors to provide a service that was once handled internally by a firm's employees. Many transactional HR services are being outsourced, such as issuing checks and handling benefits administration.

What is the first step of any performance appraisal? A) giving feedback B) setting work standards C) making plans to provide training D) assessing the employee's performance

Answer: B Explanation: B) Performance appraisal always involves the 3-step performance appraisal process: (1) setting work standards, (2) assessing the employee's actual performance relative to those standards; and (3) providing feedback to the employee with the aim of helping him or her to eliminate performance deficiencies or to continue to perform above par.

Which of the following terms refers to the process of evaluating an employee's current and/or past performance relative to his or her performance standards? A) employee selection B) performance appraisal C) employee orientation D) organizational development

Answer: B Explanation: B) Performance appraisal means evaluating an employee's current and/or past performance relative to his or her performance standards. Performance appraisal always involves setting work standards, assessing the employee's actual performance relative to those standards,and providing feedback to the employee.

Employee performance appraisals are conducted by all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) peers B) competitors C) subordinates D) rating committees

Answer: B Explanation: B) Performance appraisals are primarily performed by supervisors. However, firms are increasingly using peers, rating committees, and subordinates to conduct appraisals.Competitors are not used for performance appraisals.

Oshman manufactures small kitchen appliances, such as blenders, toasters, and mixers. The firm has nearly 80,000 employees in 22 countries. Employees receive annual performance appraisals from their supervisors that combine critical incidents with a graphic rating scale.However, the firm's CEO advocates shifting from performance appraisals to performance management in an attempt to make Oshman more competitive and performance driven. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument to replace Oshman's traditional appraisal methods with the performance management approach? A) Oshman's competitors in the small appliance industry monitor the performance of their employees through electronic performance monitoring systems. B) Oshman executives want to align the firm's strategic plan with individual employee goals and development needs. C) Oshman has experienced problems associated with central tendency and bias, and the firm wants to ensure that appraisals are legally sound. D) Oshman uses management by objectives as a primary appraisal method and requires supervisors to develop SMART goals.

Answer: B Explanation: B) Performance management refers to the continuous process of aligning the performance of individuals and teams with an organization's goals. Performance management does not necessarily eliminate problems like central tendency and bias. Instead, the approach focuses on monitoring an employee's performance and making sure it matches the needs of the firm.

Red Robin Gourmet Burgers is a national restaurant chain with nearly 36,000 employee that began as a small restaurant in Seattle. Over the years, Red Robin has attempted to develop a reputation as a fun, family restaurant that offers both excellent food and service. Red Robin'score values -- honor, integrity, having fun, and continually seeking knowledge -- serve as the basis for all of the firm's decisions and are even embroidered on the sleeves of every employee's uniform. As Red Robin continues to expand, executives are considering adding tests to the screening process.Which of the following, if true, would best support the argument that Red Robin should use personality tests in the employee selection process? A) Red Robin encourages employees to participate in the firm's environmental stewardship program to show community support. B) Red Robin seeks outgoing, motivated, and compassionate employees to enhance the experience of its customers. C) Red Robin offers monetary incentives to managers who meet quarterly sales targets and exceed performance expectations. D) Red Robin desires employees with extensive knowledge of the restaurant industry and at least two years of experience serving customers.

Answer: B Explanation: B) Personality traits, as uncovered by personality tests, often correlate to job performance. Red Robin seeks employees that match the firm's core values of honor, integrity,having fun, and continually seeking knowledge, and personality tests would indicate an applicant's level of extraversion and openness to experiences.

________ validation is considered the most dependable method of validating an employment test. A) Applicable B) Predictive C) Concurrent D) Statistical

Answer: B Explanation: B) Predictive validation is a more dependable way to validate a test than concurrent validation, which is the other method. With predictive validation, a test is administered to applicants before hiring. Applicants are hired using only existing selection techniques, not the results of the new tests. After they have been on the job for some time,measure their performance and compare it to their earlier test scores. You can then determine whether you could have used their performance on the new test to predict their subsequent job performance.

Which of the following is a systematic method for teaching job skills that involves presenting questions or facts, allowing the person to respond, and giving the learner immediate feedback on the accuracy of his or her answers? A) job instruction training B) programmed learning C) apprenticeship training D) simulated learning

Answer: B Explanation: B) Programmed learning (or programmed instruction) is a step-by-step, self-learning method that consists of three parts: presenting questions, facts, or problems to the learner; allowing the person to respond; and providing feedback on the accuracy of answers.

All of the following are most likely assessed on personality tests EXCEPT ________. A) introversion B) reasoning C) sensitivity D) emotional stability

Answer: B Explanation: B) Reasoning skills are tested with aptitude tests. Personality tests measure introversion, sensitivity, motivation, and emotional stability among other qualities.

Red Robin Gourmet Burgers is a national restaurant chain with nearly 36,000 employee that began as a small restaurant in Seattle. Over the years, Red Robin has attempted to develop a reputation as a fun, family restaurant that offers both excellent food and service. Red Robin'score values -- honor, integrity, having fun, and continually seeking knowledge -- serve as the basis for all of the firm's decisions and are even embroidered on the sleeves of every employee's uniform. As Red Robin continues to expand, executives are considering adding tests to the screening process.Which of the following, if true, would most likely undermine the argument that Red Robin should use achievement tests in the employee selection process? A) Red Robin receives so many applications that it only considers individuals with previous job experience in the restaurant industry. B) Red Robin provides a two-week training session to all new hires, which are frequently college students with little experience in the restaurant industry. C) Red Robin expects applicants for management positions to understand current EEO laws and be aware of ADA requirements. D) Red Robin requires applicants for cashier positions to take typing tests to assess their speed at the cash register.

Answer: B Explanation: B) Red Robin will train new hires and does not need to assess their job knowledge,so achievement tests are unnecessary. If Red Robin expected applicants to have a certain level of skill or knowledge then achievement tests would be appropriate.

The fundamental rethinking and radical redesign of business processes to achieve dramatic improvements in performance is called ________. A) job redesign B) reengineering C) process engineering D) job enlargement

Answer: B Explanation: B) Reengineering, or business process reengineering, refers to redesigning a business process so that small multidisciplinary self-managing teams complete a task together.This differs from the typical business process which is similar to a relay race where one person completes a step and then passes the task to another person.

Which of the following terms refers to the consistency of scores obtained by the same person when retested with alternate forms of the same test? A) equivalency B) reliability C) expectancy D) validity

Answer: B Explanation: B) Reliability is a test's first requirement and refers to its consistency: A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions.

When an interview is used to predict future job performance on the basis of an applicant/s oral responses to oral inquiries, it is called a(n) ________ interview. A) group B) selection C) benchmark D) background

Answer: B Explanation: B) Selection interviews are designed to predict future job performance based on the applicant/s oral responses to oral inquiries, interviews may be one-on-one or may be conducted in group settings.

How do situational interviews differ from behavioral interviews? A) situational interviews are based on an applicant's responses to actual past situations B) situational interviews are based on how an applicant might behave in a hypothetical situation C) situational interviews ask applicants job-related questions to assess their knowledge and skills D) behavioral interviews ask applicants to describe their emotions in different hypothetical situations

Answer: B Explanation: B) Situational interviews ask applicants to describe how they would react to a hypothetical situation today or tomorrow, and behavioral interviews ask applicants to describe how they reacted to actual situations in the past. Job-related interviews ask job-related questions to assess the applicant's ability to perform the job.

Pocket dictating machines and pagers have replaced traditional diary/log methods in many firms. Which of the following problems have the modern methods most likely eliminated? A) work time required to fill out forms and surveys B) employee forgetfulness regarding daily activities C) costs associated with copying and filing paperwork D) employee frustration towards bureaucratic requirements

Answer: B Explanation: B) Some firms provide employees with pocket dictating machines and pagers to keep diaries and logs. At random times during the day, the employee is paged. The employee then dictates what he or she is doing. With this method, employers do not have to rely on workers to remember what they did hours earlier when they complete their logs at the end of the day, which was the main problem with paper/pencil diaries.

Which of the following consolidates information regarding required tasks and skills in a format that is helpful for determining training requirements? A) training assessment form B) task analysis record form C) organizational skills sheet D) work function analysis

Answer: B Explanation: B) Some managers supplement the job description and specification with a task analysis record form. This consolidates information regarding required tasks and skills in a form that's especially helpful for determining training requirements.

Which performance appraisal problem is associated with supervisors giving all of their subordinates consistently high ratings? A) central tendency B) leniency C) strictness D) halo effect

Answer: B Explanation: B) Some supervisors tend to rate all their subordinates consistently high or low.Leniency refers to giving high ratings, while strictness refers to giving low ratings. Central tendency refers to giving average scores.

Which of the following is most likely true regarding substance abuse screening? A) According to federal law, all employers must test all employees for illegal drugs. B) Some urine sample tests cannot distinguish between legal and illegal substances. C) Most employers test potential applicants during the recruitment process. D) Most urine sample tests measure the degree of impairment.

Answer: B Explanation: B) Some urine sample tests cannot tell the difference between legal and illegal substances, such as Advil and marijuana. Drug testing is not mandatory for all employers. Drug test are typically given just before a candidate is formally hired. Breathalyzers can measure impairment but not drug tests.

________ is a detailed study of the job to determine what specific skills the job requires. A) Needs analysis B) Task analysis C) Training strategy D) Development planning

Answer: B Explanation: B) Task analysis is a detailed study of the job to determine what specific skills the job requires. Job descriptions and job specifications are important here because they list the job's specific duties and skills, which are the basic reference points in determining the training required.

For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past,each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However,as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests.Which of the following questions is most relevant to Golden Creamery's decision to implement preemployment testing for all franchises? A) Should Golden Creamery use internal or external sources for job candidates? B) How will Golden Creamery ensure the confidentiality of an applicant's test results? C) How does testing correlate with Golden Creamery's mission and vision statements? D) What is the role of testing in Golden Creamery's strategic performance management system?

Answer: B Explanation: B) Test takers have the right to the confidentiality of test results, so it is important that Golden Creamery develops a plan for maintaining privacy prior to administering tests.Determining whether to hire internally or externally is a recruiting issue rather than a testing concern. Although a firm's mission and vision statements guide its general direction, such statements are not directly relevant to testing.

Which of the following terms refers to the accuracy with which a test fulfills the function for which it was designed?A) reliability B) validity C) expectancy D) consistency

Answer: B Explanation: B) Test validity answers the question "Does this test measure what it's supposed to measure?" Validity refers to the correctness of the inferences that we can make based on the test and the accuracy with which a test or interview fulfills the function it was designed to fill.

According to the ________, an individual must have the requisite skills, educational background, and experience to perform a job's essential functions. A) DOL B) ADA C) FCC D) SIC

Answer: B Explanation: B) The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) was enacted by Congress to reduce or eliminate discrimination against disabled individuals. According to the ADA, an individual must have the requisite skills, educational background, and experience to perform a job's essential functions.

Experts at the ________ performed the earliest form of job analysis and published the Dictionary of Occupational Titles .A) EEOC B) DOL C) BLS D) DHS

Answer: B Explanation: B) The Department of Labor performed the earliest work in job analysis which resulted in the Dictionary of Occupational Titles. The book contained detailed information on nearly every job in America based on ratings of data, people, and things. The DOL work eventually led to the development of position analysis questionnaires (PAQ).

Which of the following is identified by the FLSA status section of a job description? A) whether the employer is a non-profit organization B) whether a job is exempt or nonexempt C) whether the employer is a private or public firm D) whether a job requires a college degree

Answer: B Explanation: B) The FLSA status section identifies a job as exempt or nonexempt. According to the Fair Labor Standards Act, certain positions, mostly administrative and professional, are exempt from the act's overtime and minimum wage provisions.

Which organization provides professional certification for human resource managers? A) Association of Certified HR Managers B) Society for Human Resource Management C) Academy of Human Resource Executives D) Association of Business Administration

Answer: B Explanation: B) The Society for Human Resource Management (SHRM) provides professional certification to HR managers. SHRM exams test the professional's knowledge of all aspects of human resource management, including ethics, management practices, staffing, development, compensation, labor relations, and health and safety.

Which of the following will most likely occur during the third step of the ADDIE training process? A) training a targeted group B) creating training materials C) evaluating the success of the program D) estimating a budget for the training program

Answer: B Explanation: B) The basic analysis-design-develop-implement-evaluate (ADDIE) training process model has been used by training experts for years. The third step, developing the course,involves assembling and creating the training materials.

Which of the following is one of the primary complaints regarding the use of the forced distribution method for performance appraisals? A) difficult to implement B) harm to employee morale C) high costs of administration D) time consuming to administer

Answer: B Explanation: B) The biggest complaints regarding the forced distribution method are that it damages morale, and it creates interdepartmental inequities. The tool is not difficult to implement, time consuming, or costly.

A graphic model that presents a precise overview of the knowledge, skills, and behaviors someone would need to perform a job well is known as a ________. A) scatter plot B) competency model C) classification table D) organizational chart

Answer: B Explanation: B) The competency model consolidates, usually in one diagram, a precise overview of the competencies (for example, in terms of knowledge, skills, and behaviors)someone would need to do a job well.

John, the supervisor of the manufacturing department at a computer firm, is in the process of evaluating his staff's performance. He has determined that 15% of the group will be identified as high performers, 20% as above average performers, 30% as average performers, 20% as below average performers, and 15% as poor performers. Which performance appraisal tool has John chosen to use? A) behaviorally anchored rating scale B) forced distribution C) alternation ranking D) paired comparison

Answer: B Explanation: B) The forced distribution method is similar to grading on a curve. With this method, you place predetermined percentages of ratees into several performance categories.

Which of the following is the easiest and most popular technique for appraising employee performance? A) alternation ranking B) graphic rating scale C) forced distribution D) constant sum rating scale

Answer: B Explanation: B) The graphic rating scale is the simplest and most popular method for appraising performance. A graphic rating scale lists traits and a range of performance values for each trait.The supervisor rates each subordinate by circling or checking the score that best describes the subordinate's performance for each trait.

What has been the most significant impact of modern technology on job analysis methods? A) Extensive use of the Internet by HR managers enables more people to telecommute from locations far from corporate headquarters. B) Corporate use of the Internet and intranet has enabled HR managers to distribute and collect job analysis surveys to employees in multiple geographic locations. C) Worker functions have changed as a result of modern technology, so the DOL procedure for data collection has been modified and categories have been altered. D) The ability to falsify information on Internet surveys has led to an increase in interviews and observations by HR managers to collect accurate job analysis information.

Answer: B Explanation: B) The greatest impact of modern technology on job analysis methods has been the ability of HR mangers to use the Internet and intranet to distribute and collect job analysis data to geographically dispersed employees. Face-to-face interviews and observations are difficult and time consuming, especially for a global firm, so questionnaires distributed online are more frequently used. Although falsifying information is always a problem with job analysis, it is too costly for HR managers to perform more interviews or observations.

According to Kurt Lewin, all of the following should occur in the moving stage of organizational change EXCEPT ________. A) developing a vision B) mobilizing commitment C) consolidating gains D) creating a leading coalition

Answer: B Explanation: B) The moving stage is characterized by helping employees make the change,developing a vision, consolidating gains, and creating a leading coalition. Mobilizing commitment occurs in the unfreezing stage.

Jolene, a manager, delegates the responsibility for a project to Lee, her subordinate. Jolene is most likely involved in which function of the management process? A) staffing B) organizing C) motivating D) leading

Answer: B Explanation: B) The organizing function of the management process includes delegating authority to subordinates and establishing channels of communication. The organizing function also includes establishing departments and coordinating the work of subordinates.

Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using interviews to collect job analysis data? A) Interviews are a complicated method for collecting information. B) Employees may exaggerate or minimize some information. C) Interviews provide only general information about a worker's duties. D) Interviews may require managers to reveal the job analysis function.

Answer: B Explanation: B) The primary disadvantage of conducting employee interviews for the purpose of gathering job analysis data is the distortion of information. Employees may misunderstand the purpose of the interview and either purposely or mistakenly provide incorrect information.Interviews are considered a simple method for collecting detailed job information especially regarding uncommon but important employee activities.

Purrfect Pets is a local pet supply store with a following of loyal customers who appreciate the personal service the store's employees provide. After a very profitable year, Purrfect Pets is expanding by opening two more stores. Before hiring employees for the new stores, the manager is considering the idea of conducting a job analysis for each position. Which of the following, if true, would best support the argument that the manager should use a position analysis questionnaire to collect job analysis information? A) Compliance with EEO laws requires businesses to compile quantitative data. B) Management wants to develop a pay scale for all employees at Purrfect Pets. C) Purrfect Pets managers are unfamiliar with the typical routines of most employees. D) Managers believe that some Purrfect Pets employees are overlooking important daily tasks.

Answer: B Explanation: B) The primary reason to use a position analysis questionnaire is to gather quantitative data that enables managers to compare jobs for pay purposes. Although a PAQ provides quantitative data, businesses are not required by EEO laws to use them. Interviews or observations would be more appropriate for uncovering overlooked tasks or becoming familiar with an employee's duties.

All of the following are the most common reasons that firms decide to globalize EXCEPT ________. A) reducing labor costs B) supervising quality control methods C) seeking new foreign products to sell D) forming international partnerships

Answer: B Explanation: B) The primary reasons that firms decide to expand abroad are to reduce labor costs, seek new foreign products or services to sell, and form international partnerships. For consumers, lower prices and higher quality are benefits of globalization, but firms are less likely to decide to globalize because they want to improve quality control.

The primary purpose of providing employees with feedback during a performance appraisal is to motivate employees to ________. A) apply for managerial positions B) remove any performance deficiencies C) revise their performance standards D) enroll in work-related training programs

Answer: B Explanation: B) The purpose of providing feedback to the employee is to motivate him or her to eliminate performance deficiencies or to continue to perform above par.

________ is the right to make decisions, to direct the work of others, and to give orders. A) Leadership B) Authority C) Management D) Responsibility

Answer: B Explanation: B) The right to make decisions, to direct the work of others, and to give orders is known as authority. Line authority gives managers the right to issue orders to other managers or employees. In contrast, staff authority gives the manager the authority to advise other managers or employees.

Which of the following should occur during the second step of the on-the-job training process? A) The supervisor puts the learner at ease and explains the purpose of the training. B) The trainee explains the steps as the supervisor performs the task at a slow pace. C) The supervisor explains the whole job and relates it to the trainee's other tasks. D) The trainee performs the job several times slowly as the supervisor observes.

Answer: B Explanation: B) The second step of the OJT process involves the supervisor presenting the operation to the trainee. At this stage, the supervisor should perform the task slowly while explaining each step. In the third step, the trainee performs the task.

With the work sampling technique, applicants are ________. A) asked to submit examples of projects they have completed for other employers B) tested on their ability to perform several tasks crucial to performing the job of interest C) tested on their ability to perform a range of tasks related to several positions in a firm D) given video-based situational interviews to assess their critical thinking skills

Answer: B Explanation: B) The work sampling technique tries to predict job performance by requiring job candidates to perform one or more samples of the job's basic tasks. An observer monitors performance on each task and rates the applicant's performance.

Answer: B Explanation: B) Vestibule training is a method in which trainees learn on the actual or simulated equipment they will use on the job, but are trained off the job. Vestibule training is necessary when it's too costly or dangerous to train employees on the job, such as with pilots.

When a supervisor must criticize a subordinate in an appraisal interview, it is most important for the supervisor to ________. A) limit negative feedback to once every year B) provide specific examples of critical incidents C) acknowledge the supervisor's personal biases in the situation D) hold the meeting with other people who can document the situation

Answer: B Explanation: B) When you must criticize, it should be done privately and should include examples of critical incidents and specific suggestions of what to do and why. Avoid once-a-year "critical broadsides" by giving feedback periodically, so that the formal review contains no surprises. Criticism should be objective and free of personal bias.

The first step in developing a behaviorally anchored rating scale is to ________. A) develop performance dimensions B) generate critical incidents C) compare subordinates D) scale incidents

Answer: B Explanation: B) Writing about critical incidents is the first step in BARS. A supervisor will ask persons who know the job (jobholders and/or supervisors) to describe specific illustrations(critical incidents) of effective and ineffective job performance.

What is the first step in the union drive process? A) obtaining authorization cards from employees B) making initial contact with employees C) holding an initial organization hearing D) campaigning for employee votes E) holding a consent election

Answer: B Explanation: During the initial contact stage, the union determines the employees' interest in organizing, and establishes an organizing committee. The initiative for the first contact between the employees and the union may come from the employees, from a union already representing other employees of the firm, or from a union representing workers elsewhere. Obtaining authorization cards, holding hearings, and campaigning for election votes occur later in the process.

Mike Simmons has recently applied for a position with Pfizer Pharmaceuticals. Which personality trait most likely has the strongest correlation to Mike's success as a pharmaceutical sales representative? A) neuroticism B) extroversion C) agreeableness D) conscientiousness E) openness to experience

Answer: B Explanation: Extraversion represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active, which are necessary characteristics for sales reps. Studies have shown that extraversion correlates to success in sales and management jobs.

________ represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active. A) Neuroticism B) Extroversion C) Conscientiousness D) Agreeableness E) Openness to experience

Answer: B Explanation: Extraversion represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active. Openness to experience is the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, unconventional, and autonomous. Agreeableness is the tendency to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle. Conscientiousness refers to achievement and dependability, and neuroticism relates to anxiety and insecurity.

Hyper-Tech Enterprises manufactures mechanical parts used in air conditioning and heating units. The company employs over 300 workers at its Alabama facility. None of the Hyper-Tech employees belong to a union; however, management believes that unionization is in the near future. A representative of a local union has recently visited Hyper-Tech in an attempt to solicit members and have them sign authorization cards. Enough eligible employees have signed authorization cards to petition the NLRB for an election. Hyper-Tech's top executives are considering fighting the unionization efforts. Which of the following, if true, best supports the suggestion that Hyper-Tech will lose an NLRB election? A) Hyper-Tech recently distributed employee surveys that indicated overall job satisfaction. B) Hyper-Tech executives have decided that a committee should manage the campaign. C) Hyper-Tech is focusing exclusively on employee wages and benefits in its campaign efforts. D) Hyper-Tech managers have been told to share their opinions about unions with subordinates. E) Hyper-Tech managers have been told to avoid making promises to their subordinates.

Answer: B Explanation: Forming a committee to manage a campaign is usually detrimental to firms because of the slow nature of committees in making decisions. Experts suggest giving full responsibility to a single, decisive executive. Sharing opinions about unions is acceptable. Focusing too much on wages and benefits can also be detrimental as many employees want to feel fairly treated.

Which of the following is a characteristic of good faith bargaining? A) overlooking bargaining items B) making counterproposals C) making unilateral changes in conditions D) bypassing the union representative E) imposing unreasonable conditions

Answer: B Explanation: Good faith bargaining is characterized by both parties making every reasonable effort to arrive at an agreement. Proposals are matched with counterproposals in good faith bargaining. Choices A, C, D, and E indicate that bargaining is not in good faith.

Which of the following is an illegal bargaining item? A) membership of bargaining team B) discriminatory treatment C) employee drug testing D) continuance of past contract E) employment of strikebreaker

Answer: B Explanation: Illegal bargaining items are items in collective bargaining that are forbidden by law, such as discriminatory treatment. Choices A, D, and E are permissible items, and Choice C is a mandatory item.

The Big Five personality dimensions include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) neuroticism B) optimism C) extroversion D) conscientiousness E) agreeableness

Answer: B Explanation: Industrial psychologists often focus on the "big five" personality dimensions: extraversion, emotional stability/neuroticism, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and openness to experience. Optimism is not one of the big five.

Union tactics designed to impede or disrupt production by encouraging employees to slow the pace of work, refuse to work overtime, and participate in sick-outs are called ________. A) espionage B) inside games C) lockouts D) injunctions E) strikes

Answer: B Explanation: Inside games are union efforts to convince employees to impede or to disrupt production, such as by slowing the work pace, refusing to work overtime, and filing mass charges with government agencies. Inside games are basically strikes in which the company continues to pay the employees.

Tests that measure a range of abilities including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability are called ________. A) standardized tests B) intelligence tests C) achievement tests D) personality tests E) comprehensive tests

Answer: B Explanation: Intelligence (IQ) tests are tests of general intellectual abilities. They measure not a single trait but rather a range of abilities, including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability. Achievement tests measure what someone has learned, while aptitude tests measure a person's specific mental abilities.

All of the following most likely explain the decline in union membership EXCEPT ________. A) legislative protections for workers B) improved wages and benefits C) increased global competition D) technological improvements E) just-in-time production systems

Answer: B Explanation: Laws like OSHA and Title VII reduced the need for union protection. Increased global competition and new technologies like the Internet and just-in-time production systems forced employers to reduce inefficiencies and cut costs. Changes in salaries and wages are less likely to be a cause.

Which of the following terms refers to hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards? A) employment malpractice B) negligent hiring C) unreliable testing D) improper hiring E) invalid screening

Answer: B Explanation: Negligent hiring means hiring employees with criminal records or other problems who then use access to customers' homes (or similar opportunities) to commit crimes. Employers can be sued for negligent hiring.

All of the following are most likely assessed on personality tests EXCEPT ________. A) introversion B) reasoning C) sensitivity D) motivation E) emotional stability

Answer: B Explanation: Reasoning skills are tested with aptitude tests. Personality tests measure introversion, sensitivity, motivation, and emotional stability among other qualities.

Answer: B Explanation: Reliability is a test's first requirement and refers to its consistency: A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions.

The term ________ describes statutory or constitutional provisions banning the requirement of union membership as a condition of employment. A) termination at will B) right to work C) open shop D) free labor E) yellow dog

Answer: B Explanation: Right to work is a term used to describe state statutory or constitutional provisions banning the requirement of union membership as a condition of employment. Right to work laws don't outlaw unions, but they do outlaw any form of union security.

Right to work laws inhibit union formation by ________. A) outlawing unions in right to work states B) prohibiting any form of union security C) making union membership a precondition for employment D) leaving the question of union affiliation up to each company E) leaving the question of union security up to each company

Answer: B Explanation: Right-to-work laws don't outlaw unions. They do outlaw (within those states) any form of union security. Right to work is a term used to describe state statutory or constitutional provisions banning the requirement of union membership as a condition of employment.

For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests. Which of the following questions is most relevant to Golden Creamery's decision to implement preemployment testing for all franchises? A) Should Golden Creamery use internal or external sources for job candidates? B) How will Golden Creamery ensure the confidentiality of an applicant's test results? C) How does testing correlate with Golden Creamery's mission and vision statements? D) What is the best way for Golden Creamery to recruit both hourly and salaried employees? E) What is the role of testing in Golden Creamery's strategic performance management system?

Answer: B Explanation: Test takers have the right to the confidentiality of test results, so it is important that Golden Creamery develops a plan for maintaining privacy prior to administering tests. Choices A and D relate to recruiting efforts rather than testing. Although a firm's mission and vision statements guide its general direction, such statements are not directly relevant to testing.

Which of the following is a union organizing tactic by which union members are placed on nonunion job sites? A) featherbedding B) union salting C) mediating D) bargaining E) picketing

Answer: B Explanation: The National Labor Relations Board defines union salting as "placing of union members on nonunion job sites for the purpose of organizing." Featherbedding involves requiring an employer to pay an employee for services not performed.

Which of the following guaranteed each employee the right to bargain collectively without interference, restraint, or coercion? A) National Labor Relations Act B) Norris-LaGuardia Act C) National Labor Relations Board D) AFL-CIO E) Taft-Hartley Act

Answer: B Explanation: The Norris-LaGuardia Act of 1932 guaranteed to each employee the right to bargain collectively "free from interference, restraint, or coercion." The National Labor Relations Act added on to Norris-LaGuardia by banning certain unfair labor practices.

You are a manager at a manufacturing facility, and you tell your subordinates that unions are dangerous to the economy. Which law protects your right to express these views? A) Norris-LaGuardia Act B) Taft-Hartley Act C) Gompers Act D) Wagner Act E) Landrum-Griffin Act

Answer: B Explanation: The Taft-Hartley Act explicitly gave employers certain rights, such as expressing their views concerning union organization.

Prior to 1930, employers attempted to limit the influence of unions using all of the following methods EXCEPT ________. A) spies B) collective bargaining C) firing union agitators D) blacklisting union members E) requiring yellow dog contracts

Answer: B Explanation: Until about 1930, there were no special labor laws. Employers were not required to engage in collective bargaining with employees and were virtually unrestrained in their behavior toward unions; the use of spies and firing of union agitators were widespread. "Yellow dog" contracts were widely enforced.

Which third-party intervention uses a neutral third party to assist the principals in reaching agreement? A) fact finding B) mediation C) binding arbitration D) interest arbitration E) non-binding arbitration

Answer: B Explanation: With mediation, a neutral third party tries to assist the principals in reaching agreement. The mediator usually holds meetings with each party to determine where each stands regarding its position, and then uses this information to find common ground for further bargaining.

The ________ form of union security means that the company can hire nonunion people, but those people must join the union within a prescribed period of time and pay dues. A) closed shop B) union shop C) agency shop D) open shop E) maintenance of agreement

Answer: B Explanation: With the union shop, the company can hire nonunion people, but they must join the union after a prescribed period and pay dues. Under the closed shop form of union security, the company can hire only current union members.

Which of the following was NOT designated an unfair labor practice by the Wagner Act? A) bribing employees B) requiring yellow dog contracts C) using company spy systems D) moving businesses to avoid unionization E) black-listing union sympathizers

Answer: B Explanation: Yellow-dog contracts were deemed unenforceable under the Norris-LaGuardia Act. The Wagner Act deemed it unfair to bribe employees, use company spy systems, move a business to avoid unionization, and black-list union sympathizers.

A(n) ________ is a simulation in which candidates perform realistic tasks in hypothetical situations and are scored on their performance. C) management assessment center

Answer: C

Employers most likely conduct background investigations and reference checks to verify a candidate's ________. C) military service

Answer: C

Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers include all of the following EXCEPT ________. C) motor skills assessments

Answer: C

Which of the following is used to measure job knowledge? C) achievement tests

Answer: C

According to experts, most people are hired for their qualifications and fired for their ________. A) physical limitations B) lack of aptitude C) nonperformance D) psychological issues E) cognitive abilities

Answer: C Explanation: A person's cognitive and physical abilities alone seldom explain his or her job performance. Most people are hired based on qualifications, but most are fired for nonperformance, which is usually the "result of personal characteristics, such as attitude, motivation, and especially, temperament."

If a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is ________. A) valid B) invalid C) reliable D) unreliable E) inconsistent

Answer: C Explanation: A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions. Scores of 78 and 79 on the same test suggest that the test is reliable because it is measuring with consistency.

A strike that results from a failure to agree on the terms of a contract, such as wages and benefits, is known as a(n) ________ strike. A) arbitrary B) wildcat C) economic D) sympathy E) unfair labor practices

Answer: C Explanation: An economic strike results from a failure to agree on the terms of a contract. Unions call unfair labor practice strikes to protest illegal conduct by the employer. A wildcat strike is an unauthorized strike occurring during the term of a contract.

Which intervention method listed below is the most definitive of all third-party interventions? A) fact finding B) mediation C) binding arbitration D) interest arbitration E) non-binding arbitration

Answer: C Explanation: Arbitration is the most definitive type of third-party intervention, because the arbitrator often has the power to determine and dictate the settlement terms. Unlike mediation and fact finding, arbitration can guarantee a solution to an impasse. With binding arbitration, both parties are committed to accepting the arbitrator's award, but with nonbinding arbitration, they are not.

Which of the following terms refers to a formal method for testing the effectiveness of a training program? A) electronic performance monitoring B) factor comparison method C) controlled experimentation D) performance management

Answer: C Explanation: C) A controlled experiment uses both a training group and a control group that receives no training to test the effectiveness of a training program. Data are obtained both before and after the group is exposed to training and before and after a corresponding work period in the control group.

________ refers to an integrated set of human resource management policies and practices that together result in superior employee performance. A) Strategic planning B) Strategic human resource management C) High-performance work system D) Human resource scorecard approach

Answer: C Explanation: C) A high-performance work system is a set of human resource management policies and practices that together produce superior employee performance. Firms that use such systems typically have higher overall performance, higher profits, lower operating costs, and lower worker turnover in comparison to low-performance work systems.

Which of the following is a written statement that describes the activities, responsibilities,working conditions, and supervisory responsibilities of a job? A) job specification B) job analysis C) job description D) job context

Answer: C Explanation: C) A job description is a written list of a job's duties, responsibilities, reporting relationships, working conditions, and supervisory responsibilities, and it is the result of a job analysis. Job specifications focus on the human requirements for a particular job, such as personality and education. Job context refers to the physical working conditions or work schedule associated with a job.

Gerard is authorized to direct the work of subordinates and is responsible for accomplishing the organization's tasks. Gerard is most likely a ________. A) training specialist B) staff manager C) line manager D) recruiter

Answer: C Explanation: C) A line manager is authorized to direct the work of subordinates and is responsible for accomplishing the organization's tasks. Unlike line managers, staff managers lack the authority to issue orders down the chain of command. Recruiters and training specialists are specialties within the HR department, and HR managers are usually staff managers rather than line managers.

A(n) ________ is a multi-day simulation in which candidates perform realistic tasks in hypothetical situations and are scored on their performance. A) work sampling event B) situational judgment test C) management assessment center D) applicant personality test

Answer: C Explanation: C) A management assessment center is a 2- to 3-day simulation in which 10 to 12 candidates perform realistic management tasks (like making presentations) under the observation of experts who appraise each candidate's leadership potential. The center itself may be a simple conference room, but more likely a special room with a one-way mirror to facilitate observation.

According to experts, most people are hired for their qualifications and fired for their ________. A) physical limitations B) lack of aptitude C) nonperformance D) psychological issues

Answer: C Explanation: C) A person's cognitive and physical abilities alone seldom explain his or her job performance. Most people are hired based on qualifications, but most are fired for nonperformance, which is usually the "result of personal characteristics, such as attitude,motivation, and especially, temperament."

A(n) ________ is used to collect quantifiable data concerning the duties and responsibilities of various jobs. A) electronic diary/log B) group interview C) position analysis questionnaire D) Internet-based survey

Answer: C Explanation: C) A position analysis questionnaire is used to collect quantifiable data concerning the duties and responsibilities of various jobs. A PAQ contains 194 items that are based on five PAQ basic activities: having decision-making/communication/social responsibilities, performing skilled activities, being physically active, operating vehicles/equipment, and processing information.

If a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when retested on another day, you would most likely conclude that this test is ________. A) valid B) invalid C) reliable D) unreliable

Answer: C Explanation: C) A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions. Scores of 78 and 79 on the same test suggest that the test is reliable because it is measuring with consistency.

When repetitive questions appear on a questionnaire, which of the following is most likely being measured? A) test validity B) retest estimate C) internal consistency D) criterion validity

Answer: C Explanation: C) A test's internal consistency is measured by making internal comparison estimates. Internal consistency explains why apparently repetitive questions are found on some test questionnaires.

Which of the following is used to measure job knowledge? A) aptitude tests B) interest inventories C) achievement tests D) projective tests

Answer: C Explanation: C) Achievement tests measure what someone has learned. They measure your "job knowledge" in areas like economics, marketing, or human resources. Projective tests measure personality, while aptitude tests measure an applicant's specific mental abilities.

The tendency for one to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle is the personality dimension known as ________. A) extroversion B) conscientiousness C) agreeableness D) openness to experience

Answer: C Explanation: C) Agreeableness is the tendency to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle. Neuroticism, extraversion, conscientiousness, and openness to experience are the other personality traits known as the big five.

Which of the following is the primary advantage of lecturing as a method of training? A) motivational for employees B) effective for informal learning C) appropriate for large groups D) requires limited preparation

Answer: C Explanation: C) Although some correctly view lectures as being boring, studies and practical experience show that they can be effective. Lecturing is a quick and simple way to present knowledge to large groups of trainees, as when the sales force needs to learn a new product's features.

All of the following are considered best practices for administering fair performance appraisals EXCEPT ________. A) explaining how subordinates can improve their performance B) basing the appraisal on observable job behaviors C) using subjective performance data for appraisals D) training supervisors how to conduct appraisals

Answer: C Explanation: C) Appraisals should be based on objective rather than subjective performance data and also on observable job behaviors. Appraisers should explain how subordinates can improve their performance, clarify in advance the performance objectives, and train supervisors in how to conduct appraisals.

A structured process by which people become skilled workers through a combination of classroom instruction and on-the-job training is called ________. A) job instruction training B) programmed learning C) apprenticeship training D) coaching technique

Answer: C Explanation: C) Apprenticeship training is a process by which people become skilled workers,usually through a combination of formal learning and long-term on-the-job training. It traditionally involves having the learner/apprentice study under the tutelage of a master crafts person.

Which form of on-the-job training usually involves having a learner study under the tutelage of a master crafts person? A) understudy training B) mentoring C) apprenticeship training D) coaching

Answer: C Explanation: C) Apprenticeship training traditionally involves having the learner/apprentice study under the tutelage of a master crafts person. It is a process by which people become skilled workers, usually through a combination of formal learning and long-term on-the-job training.

A supervisor who frequently rates all employees as average on performance appraisals most likely has a problem known as ________. A) halo effect B) stereotyping C) central tendency D) leniency

Answer: C Explanation: C) Central tendency refers to the tendency of supervisors to rate all employees the same way, such as rating them all average.

Which of the following best supports the argument that jobs should be described in terms of competencies rather than duties? A) New employees in high-performance work systems receive extensive job skills training for their specific positions. B) Managers in global firms are empowered to implement job rotation, job enlargement, and job enrichment in order to maximize productivity. C) In high-performance work systems, employees serve as team members rotating among various jobs. D) Globalization and telecommuting require workers to be able to self-manage and perform duties without close supervision.

Answer: C Explanation: C) Competency-based job descriptions are more appropriate than traditional job descriptions when high-performance work systems are the goal. In a HPWS, workers are encouraged to serve as team members and to rotate freely among jobs, so competencies should be the focus rather than a list of specific job duties which might hinder employee flexibility.

The primary drawback of performing a job analysis regards the ________. A) unverifiable data a job analysis typically provides B) certification required to conduct a job analysis C) amount of time a job analysis takes to complete D) redundant information gathered during a job analysis E) costs associated with the technology needed for a job analyis

Answer: C Explanation: C) Conducting a job analysis can be time-consuming because it may take days to interview multiple employees and their managers, which is why an abbreviated version is often used by managers. The information gathered through a job analysis is typically verifiable and useful, and the main cost is time rather than money. Although management training may be necessary to perform an adequate job analysis, it is unlikely that certification is required.

Which personality characteristic is comprised of both achievement and dependability? A) neuroticism B) extroversion C) conscientiousness D) agreeableness

Answer: C Explanation: C) Conscientiousness is comprised of two related facets: achievement and dependability. According to research, conscientiousness has been the most consistent and universal predictor of job performance.

What is the primary purpose of implementing a cross training program at a firm? A) compiling skills records B) creating a diverse environment C) facilitating flexible job assignments D) assessing employee technical skills

Answer: C Explanation: C) Cross training means training employees to do different tasks or jobs than their own; doing so facilitates flexibility and job rotation, as when you expect team members to occasionally share jobs.

An HR manager who wants to analyze the costs associated with each new hire will most likely use which of the following? A) podcasts B) Web portal C) data warehouse D) public domain software

Answer: C Explanation: C) Data warehouses and computerized analytical programs help HR managers monitor their HR systems. Both make it simpler for HR managers to assess things like cost per hire and to compare current employees' skills with the firm's projected strategic needs.

Demonstrating the content validity of a test can be best accomplished by showing that ________. A) tasks performed on the test are general enough to apply to any type of job B) higher test scores are statistically equivalent to proven, long-term job success C) conditions under which the test is administered resemble the work situation D) scores on the test are both internally and externally reliable

Answer: C Explanation: C) Demonstrating content validity can be accomplished by showing that the tasks the person performs on the test are really a comprehensive and random sample of the tasks performed on the job. Content validity can also be shown by demonstrating that the condition sunder which the person takes the test resemble the work situation, although this is not always easy.

For which of the following jobs is direct observation NOT a recommended method for collecting job analysis data? A) assembly-line worker B) accounting clerk C) attorney D) nurse

Answer: C Explanation: C) Direct observation is particularly useful when jobs consist mainly of observable physical activities, such as with nurses, accounting clerks, assembly-line workers, and salespersons. Observation is less appropriate when a job involves mostly mental activity such as with lawyers and design engineers.

Which component of performance management refers to communicating a firm's higher-level goals throughout the organization and then translating them into departmental and individual goals? A) goal alignment B) performance monitoring C) direction sharing D) developmental support

Answer: C Explanation: C) Direction sharing means communicating the company's higher-level goals(including its vision, mission, and strategy) throughout the company and then translating these into doable departmental, team, and individual goals. Coaching and developmental support, goal alignment, and performance monitoring are other elements of performance management.

Which of the following is most likely NOT one of the goals of a firm's employee orientation program? A) making new employees feel like part of a team B) helping new employees become socialized into the firm C) assisting new employees in selecting the best labor union D) teaching new employees about the firm's history and strategies E) providing basic information to new employees to help them work

Answer: C Explanation: C) During employee orientation, firms try to make the new employee feel welcome and at home and part of the team, make sure the new employee has the basic information to function effectively, help the new employee understand the organization in a broad sense, and start the person on the process of becoming socialized into the firm's culture, values, and ways of doing things. It is less likely that the firm would help employees join a labor union.

E-Verify is primarily used by employers to ________. A) review an applicant's employment records B) file an applicant's income tax information C) determine if an applicant is eligible to work in the U.S. D) report an applicant's work status to the U.S. government

Answer: C Explanation: C) E-Verify is the federal government's voluntary electronic employment verification program used by many employers. Federal contractors are required to use E-Verify to determine if an applicant is eligible to work in the U.S.

Which of the following is NOT one of the recommended guidelines for setting effective employee goals? A) creating specific goals B) assigning measurable goals C) administering consequences for failure to meet goals D) encouraging employees to participate in setting goals

Answer: C Explanation: C) Effective goals should be specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and timely.Goals should be challenging but doable, and employee participation should be encouraged.Giving consequences for failing to meet goals is not recommended and unlikely to motivate employees.

On Alicia's first day of work at a software firm, she attended a meeting with the HR manager and other new employees. Alicia learned about employee benefits packages, personnel policies,and the structure of the company. In which of the following did Alicia most likely participate? A) recruitment B) selection C) orientation D) development

Answer: C Explanation: C) Employee orientation is the process of providing new employees with basic background information about the firm. Orientation should help new employees start getting emotionally attached to the firm as well.

What usually occurs when employees rate themselves for performance appraisals? A) Ratings are reliable but invalid. B) Ratings are subject to halo effects. C) Ratings are higher than when provided by supervisors. D) Ratings are about the same as when determined by peers.

Answer: C Explanation: C) Employees usually rate themselves higher than they are rated by supervisors or peers. Self-ratings are neither reliable nor valid in most cases.

Employers most likely conduct background investigations and reference checks to verify a candidate's ________. A) age B) marital status C) military service D) disability history

Answer: C Explanation: C) Employers verify data regarding military service, employment history,education, and credit. An applicant's age, marital status, ethnicity, and medical history or disabilities are considered irrelevant to hiring, and an employer may violate EEO laws by requesting such information.

The best method for reducing the problems of leniency or strictness in performance appraisals is to ________. A) keep critical incident logs B) require multiple appraisals C) impose a performance distribution D) reconsider the timing of the appraisal

Answer: C Explanation: C) Enforcing a performance distribution is one way of correcting leniency/strictness problems. Another option is to rank employees.

Jason is a conscientious employee, but he is viewed by most of his co-workers as unfriendly. Jason's supervisor rates him low on the traits "gets along well with others" and "quality of work." Which of the following problems has most likely affected Jason's performance appraisal? A) central tendency B) leniency C) halo effect D) recency effect

Answer: C Explanation: C) Experts define halo effect as "the influence of a rater's general impression on ratings of specific ratee qualities." Central tendency refers to rating all employees average.Recency effect means focusing on the most recent behavior of an employee rather than his or her performance over a year.

All of the following are useful methods for ensuring success after on-the-job training has occurred EXCEPT ________. A) gradually decreasing supervision B) complimenting the learner's good work C) providing turnkey training packages for learners D) designating to whom the learner should go for help

Answer: C Explanation: C) Follow-up with learners should include designating to whom the learner should go for help, gradually decreasing supervision, checking work from time to time, correcting faulty work patterns before they become a habit., and complimenting good work. Employers often use pre-made training packages for their workers to use, but such training tools do not improve the chances of success.

Which of the following refers to the authority exerted by an HR manager as coordinator of personnel activities? A) staff authority B) line authority C) functional authority D) corporate authority

Answer: C Explanation: C) Functional authority refers to the authority exerted by an HR manager as coordinator of personnel activities. An HR manager ensures that line managers are implementing the firm's HR policies and practices. Line authority is a a manager's right to issue orders to other managers or employees, which creates a superior-subordinate relationship. Staff authority refers to a manager's right to advise other managers or employees, which creates an advisory relationship.

Globalization, competition, and technology have led to which of the following trends in human resource management? A) HR managers primarily focus on providing transactional services like recruiting and hiring. B) Metrics used to measure employee potential have been replaced by standardized testing. C) HR managers assist top management with developing and implementing new strategies. D) Employee contracts are frequently used by HR managers to protect the interests of the firm.

Answer: C Explanation: C) Globalization, competition, workforce trends, and economic upheaval have led HR managers to become more involved with top management in developing and implementing the firm's strategies or long-term plans. HR managers are focusing more on the big picture and less on transactional services, which are being increasingly outsourced.

Which of the following is the primary advantage of using graphic rating scales as performance appraisal tools? A) eliminates central tendency errors B) offers extremely high rate of accuracy C) provides quantitative rating for each employee D) links with mutually agreed upon performance objectives

Answer: C Explanation: C) Graphic rating scales are simple to use and provide quantitative ratings for each employee. However the tool has problems with central tendency and unclear standards.

Wilson Consulting is a management consulting firm with seventy employees. As associate vice president of marketing, Suzanne Boyle is responsible for conducting performance appraisals of the twelve employees under her direct supervision. Suzanne plans to use a graphic rating scale to evaluate the performance of her subordinates. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that a graphic rating scale is the most appropriate performance appraisal tool for Suzanne to use? A) The firm wants Suzanne to evaluate her subordinates on an ongoing basis and to keep a log of critical incidents. B) Suzanne wants to ensure that the firm is protected from employee discrimination lawsuits, so she has conducted a job analysis of each position. C) Suzanne wants a quantitative rating of each employee based on competencies important to the firm, such as problem-solving skills. D) Employees in Suzanne's department participated in developing their own performance standards when they were first hired by the firm.

Answer: C Explanation: C) Graphic rating scales with competency-based appraisal forms enable an employer to focus on the extent to which an employee exhibits the competencies essential for the job. Graphic rating scales do not track critical incidents, and they are not the best tool for protecting a firm from legal charges because of problems with bias, central tendency, and halo effect.

Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality traits, is also called ________. A) numerology B) reasoning analysis C) handwriting analysis D) polygraph output assessment

Answer: C Explanation: C) Graphology refers to the use of handwriting analysis to determine the writer's basic personality traits. Graphology thus has some resemblance to projective personality tests,although graphology's validity is highly suspect.

For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past,each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However,as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests.Which of the following, if true, supports the argument that Golden Creamery should require franchise owners to use the firm's preemployment tests? A) Hourly employees at Golden Creamery stores typically remain with the company long enough to be promoted to management positions. B) Golden Creamery franchise owners pay an initial franchise fee and receive a percentage of sales royalties in return. C) Annual turnover rates for hourly employees of Golden Creamery stores are three times the rate of comparable businesses. D) Individuals interested in working at a Golden Creamery store can complete online applications on the firm's Web site.

Answer: C Explanation: C) High turnover rates suggest that Golden Creamery has problems hiring the most appropriate employees, which supports the implementation of a testing program. If hourly workers remained at the firm for a long time, then that would suggest the firm's current hiring practices do not need to be modified.

All of the following are characteristics of most interactive training programs, such assimulations, EXCEPT ________. A) instructional consistency B) responsive feedback C) increased learning time D) increased retention rate

Answer: C Explanation: C) In general, interactive technologies reduce learning time by an average of 50%.Other advantages include instructional consistency (computers, unlike human trainers, don't have good days and bad days), mastery of learning (if the trainee doesn't learn it, he or she generally can't move on to the next step), increased retention, and increased trainee motivation (resulting from responsive feedback).

In general, how many human resource employees would be on staff for a firm with 500 total employees? A) 1 B) 2 C) 5 D) 10

Answer: C Explanation: C) In most firms, there is one HR employee for every 100 company employees. Therefore, a firm with 500 company employees would require 5 HR employees to handle all of the firm's HR issues.

Which of the following is an advantage of using a nondirective format when interviewing job candidates? A) allows candidates to ask questions B) uses a manager/s time more effectively C) pursues points of interest as they develop D) scores and compares candidates with consistency

Answer: C Explanation: C) In unstructured or nondirective interviews, the manager follows no set format and there is seldom a formal guide for scoring "right" or "wrong" answers. With unstructured interviews$ an interviewer can pursue points of interest as they develop and ask follow up questions because of the format's flexibility.

An interest inventory compares an applicant's current interests with the interests of ________. A) retired workers B) other people in the same industry C) other people in various occupations D) managers and executives in the firm

Answer: C Explanation: C) Interest inventories compare an applicant's interests with those of people in various occupations. Thus, a person who takes the Strong-Campbell Interests Inventory would receive a report comparing his or her interests to those of people already in occupations like accounting, engineering, or management.

Which of the following is the most commonly used selection tool? A) telephone reference B) reference letter C) interview D) personality test

Answer: C Explanation: C) Interviews are the most widely used selection procedure Not all managers use tests, reference checks, or situational tests, but most interview a person before hiring.

Allison, a manager at large clothing retail store, needs to determine essential duties that have not been assigned to specific employees. Which of the following would most likely provide Allison with this information? A) work activities B) job context C) job analysis D) performance standards

Answer: C Explanation: C) Job analysis can help reveal duties that need to be assigned to a specific employee. Work activities, performance standards, and job context are the types of information that are provided through a job analysis, but they do not necessarily uncover unassigned tasks.

Which of the following terms refers to the procedure used to determine the duties associated with job positions and the characteristics of the people to hire for those positions?A) job description B) job specification C) job analysis D) job context

Answer: C Explanation: C) Job analysis is the process of determining the duties of a specific job and the characteristics of the people who would be most appropriate for the job. A job analysis produces the necessary information to develop job descriptions and job specifications.

Which HR specialty involves preparing job descriptions? A) compensation manager B) EEO coordinator C) job analyst D) recruiter

Answer: C Explanation: C) Job analysts collect and examine information about jobs to prepare job descriptions. Compensation managers develop compensation plans and handle the employee benefits program.

Job ________ means assigning workers additional same-level activities. A) enrichment B) assignment C) enlargement D) rotation

Answer: C Explanation: C) Job enlargement refers to assigning workers additional same-level activities. For example, a worker who previously only bolted the seat to the legs of a chair might attach the back as well. Job rotation refers to systematically moving workers from one job to another. Job enrichment refers to redesigning jobs to empower workers and allowing them opportunities to grow and be recognized.

All of the following are on-the-job training methods used for managerial positions EXCEPT ________. A) job rotation B) action learning C) case study method D) understudy approach

Answer: C Explanation: C) Job rotation, action learning, and the coaching/understudy approach are managerial on-the-job training methods. The case study method is considered an off-the-job management training technique.

The vice president of marketing tells a marketing manager to prepare a presentation by the end of the week. The vice president is most likely exercising which of the following? A) staff authority B) procedural authority C) line authority D) functional authority

Answer: C Explanation: C) Line authority traditionally gives managers the right to issue orders to other managers or employees. Line authority therefore creates a superior (order giver)—subordinate (order receiver) relationship. Staff authority gives a manager the right to adviseother managers or employees. It creates an advisory relationship.

All of the following are examples of self-reported personality tests EXCEPT ________. A) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory B) Guilford-Zimmerman Survey C) Make a Picture Story D) Myers Briggs Test

Answer: C Explanation: C) Make a Picture Story is a projective personality test. Guilford-Zimmerman Survey, MMPI, and Myers Briggs are self-reported personality tests which are filled out by the applicants.

All of the following are ways in which an HR manager most likely assists and advises line managers EXCEPT ________. A) administering health and accident insurance programs B) representing employees' interests to upper management C) making strategic business planning decisions D) hiring, training, and evaluating employees

Answer: C Explanation: C) Making strategic business plans is typically the job of upper level managers. HR managers also represent the interests of employees to top management and assist line managers with hiring, training, and evaluating employees.

Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) objective tests B) leaderless group discussions C) motor skills assessments D) individual presentations

Answer: C Explanation: C) Management assessment center tasks include the in-basket, leaderless group discussion, management games, individual presentations, objective tests, and interviews. Motor skills are not assessed.

Any attempt to improve managerial performance by imparting knowledge, changing attitudes, or increasing skills is called ________. A) human resource management B) performance enhancement C) management development D) talent management

Answer: C Explanation: C) Management development is any attempt to improve managerial performance by imparting knowledge, changing attitudes, or increasing skills. Talent management is the goal-oriented and integrated process of planning for, recruiting, selecting, developing, and compensating employees.

Which of the following best describes a nontraditional worker? A) workers near retirement age B) ethnically diverse workers C) workers with multiple jobs D) service-based workers

Answer: C Explanation: C) Nontraditional workers include those who hold multiple jobs, or who are "contingent" or part-time workers, or who are working in alternative work arrangements. Today, almost 10% of American workers fit this nontraditional workforce category. Of these, about 8 million are independent contractors who work on specific projects and move on once they complete the projects.

Purrfect Pets is a local pet supply store with a following of loyal customers who appreciate the personal service the store's employees provide. After a very profitable year, Purrfect Pets is expanding by opening two more stores. Before hiring employees for the new stores, the manager is considering the idea of conducting a job analysis for each position.Which of the following, if true, undermines the argument that the Purrfect Pets manager should observe workers in order to gather job analysis information? A) Purrfect Pets lacks the technology to perform quantitative job assessments. B) Part-time and seasonal workers fill most of the positions at Purrfect Pets. C) The tasks of most Purrfect Pets employees vary widely from day to day. D) During the morning, business at Purrfect Pets typically slows down.

Answer: C Explanation: C) Observation is an inappropriate tool for collecting job analysis information if employees only occasionally participate in certain tasks. If the tasks vary on a daily basis, one day of observation would fail to gather the necessary information. An interview might be the best way to find out what an employee does in this situation.

Which of the following training methods is most frequently used by employers? A) job instruction training B) apprenticeship training C) on-the-job training D) classroom training

Answer: C Explanation: C) On-the-job training (OJT) means having a person learn a job by actually doing it. Every employee, from mailroom clerk to CEO, gets on-the-job training when he or she joins a firm, which is why it is the most popular method. In many firms, OJT is the only training available.

Which of the following indicates the distribution of work within a firm and the lines of authority and communication? A) process chart B) employee matrix C) organization chart D) corporate overview

Answer: C Explanation: C) Organization charts show the organization-wide distribution of work with titles of each position and interconnecting lines that show who reports to and communicates with whom. Organization charts are useful when performing a job analysis, which is a process of determining the duties and skills associated with a specific position.

________ is a special approach to organizational change in which the employees formulate the change that's required and implement it. A) Action research B) Succession planning C) Organizational development D) Participative talent management

Answer: C Explanation: C) Organizational development is a change process through which employees formulate the change that's required and implement it, often with the assistance of trained consultants.

The process of verifying that there is a performance deficiency and determining if such deficiencies should be corrected through training or through some other means is called ________. A) needs analysis B) training assessment C) performance analysis D) performance appraisal

Answer: C Explanation: C) Performance analysis is the process of verifying that there is a performance deficiency and determining whether the employer should correct such deficiencies through training or some other means (like transferring the employee).

A supervisor working for a firm that uses performance management should most likely expect to ________. A) conduct annual performance appraisals B) compare team goals to industry standards C) re-evaluate how employees accomplish tasks D) use paper forms to handle performance appraisals

Answer: C Explanation: C) Performance management means continuously re-evaluating and (if need be)modifying how the employee and team get their work done. Depending on the issue, this may mean additional training, changing work procedures, or instituting new incentive plans, for in-stance. Performance management also involves continuous rather than annual performance appraisals, which are managed through computerized systems.

As part of the selection process for a position at UPS, Jack has been asked to lift weights and jump rope. Which of the following is most likely being measured by UPS? A) interpersonal skills B) cognitive skills C) physical abilities D) achievements

Answer: C Explanation: C) Physical abilities are measured by testing an applicant's static strength (lifting weights), dynamic strength, body coordination (jumping rope), and stamina. A UPS worker needs to have such skills to perform the job.

Which of the following should be done first in the on-the-job training process? A) going through the job at a slow work pace B) explaining quantity and quality requirements C) familiarizing the trainee with equipment and tools D) having the trainee verbalize the steps in the procedure

Answer: C Explanation: C) Preparing the trainee is the first step in the OJT process, and it involves familiarizing a worker with equipment, materials, tools, and trade terms. Performing the job at a slow pace, explaining quantity and quality requirements, and having trainees explain the steps as the trainer performs them occur later in the process.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of programmed learning? A) Training time is significantly reduced. B) Trainees can work at their own pace. C) Trainees benefit from a skilled coach. D) Trainees receive immediate feedback.

Answer: C Explanation: C) Programmed learning's main advantage is that it reduces training time. It also facilitates learning by letting trainees learn at their own pace and receive immediate feedback.However, programmed learning occurs with a book or computer rather than a coach.

Who argued that the best way to motivate workers is to build opportunities for challenge and achievement into their jobs via job enrichment? A) Adam Smith B) Frederick Taylor C) Frederick Herzberg D) Abraham Maslow

Answer: C Explanation: C) Psychologist Frederick Herzberg argued that the best way to motivate workers is to build opportunities for challenge and achievement into their jobs via job enrichment. Herzberg said that empowered employees would do their jobs well because they wanted to, so quality and productivity would rise. Smith believed that specialized jobs improved efficiency.

One of the problems with direct observation is ________, which is when workers alter their normal activities because they are being watched. A) flexibility B) falsification C) reactivity D) diversion

Answer: C Explanation: C) Reactivity occurs when a worker changes what he or she normally does because observation is taking place for the purpose of job analysis. Knowing that they are being watched may cause some workers to alter their normal work behaviors either on purpose or accidentally.

The ________ problem occurs when supervisors tend to rate all their subordinates consistently low. A) central tendency B) leniency C) strictness D) halo effect

Answer: C Explanation: C) Some supervisors tend to rate all their subordinates consistently high or low.Leniency refers to giving high ratings, while strictness refers to giving low ratings. Central tendency refers to giving average scores.

Which term refers to the alignment of employee goals with departmental and company goals? A) performance management B) employee segmentation C) strategic congruence D) direction sharing

Answer: C Explanation: C) Strategic congruence is central to performance management: each employee's goals must be aligned with departmental and company goals. Direction sharing and segmentation are other aspects of performance management.

All of the following are measured by aptitude tests EXCEPT ________. A) deductive reasoning B) numerical ability C) temperament D) memory

Answer: C Explanation: C) Temperament and other interpersonal skills are measured by personality tests.Aptitude tests measure deductive and inductive reasoning, verbal comprehension, numerical ability, and memory.

Amy, an accounting supervisor, has been asked to provide training for her subordinates about new tax laws. In order to motivate the individuals who attend her training session, Amy should most likely do all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) use as many visual aids as possible during the session B) provide an overview of the material to be covered C) teach new terminology and technical concepts D) give information in logical, meaningful sections

Answer: C Explanation: C) Terms and concepts used during a training session should be familiar to trainees rather than unfamiliar. Using visual aids, providing an overview at the beginning of the session,and organizing information in logical, meaningful units will likely motivate employees.

According to the American Psychological Association, all of the following are rights of test takers EXCEPT the right to expect ________. A) informed consent regarding the use of test results B) scores to be interpreted by qualified individuals C) tests to be the only selection tools for a job D) fairness of the test for all who take it

Answer: C Explanation: C) Tests should be used as supplements and not be the only selection tool. Under the American Psychological Association's (APA) standard for educational and psychological tests, test takers have the the right to the confidentiality of test results, the right to informed consent regarding use of these results, the right to expect that only people qualified to interpret the scores will have access to them, and the right to expect the test is fair to all.

HR managers who take SHRM certification exams are tested on all of the following areas EXCEPT ________. A) strategic management B) workforce planning C) information technology D) occupational health and safety

Answer: C Explanation: C) The Society for Human Resource Management (SHRM) provides professional certification exams that test the professional's knowledge of all aspects of human resource management, including ethics, management practices, staffing, development, compensation, labor relations, strategic management, workforce planning, and health and safety. Information technology is less likely to be covered on the SHRM exam.

The ________ classifies all workers into one of 23 major groups of jobs that are subdivided into minor groups of jobs and detailed occupations. A) Department of Labor Procedure B) Position Analysis Questionnaire C) Standard Occupational Classification D) Dictionary of Occupational Titles

Answer: C Explanation: C) The Standard Occupational Classification classifies all workers into one of 23 major groups of jobs that are subdivided into minor groups of jobs and detailed occupations. The SOC replaced the Dictionary of Occupational Titles, which was used for many years as a source for standard job descriptions.

Which performance appraisal tool requires supervisors to categorize employees from best to worst on various traits? A) graphic rating scale B) critical incident method C) alternation ranking method D) electronic performance monitoring

Answer: C Explanation: C) The alternation ranking method involves ranking employees from best to worst on a particular trait, choosing highest, then lowest, until all are ranked. A graphic rating scale lists a number of traits and a range of performance for each. The employee is then rated by identifying the score that best describes his or her level of performance for each trait.

Which of the following best describes the purpose of an appraisal interview? A) training supervisors in the rating process B) identifying potential interpersonal problems C) making plans to correct employee weaknesses D) discussing and scheduling training programs

Answer: C Explanation: C) The appraisal typically culminates in an appraisal interview. Here, the supervisor and the subordinate review the appraisal and make plans to remedy deficiencies and reinforce strengths.

What is the second step in the ADDIE training process? A) developing training aids B) defining the training objectives C) designing the overall training program D) designating employees who need training

Answer: C Explanation: C) The basic analysis-design-develop-implement-evaluate (ADDIE) training process model has been used by training experts for years. The second step of the process is designing the overall training program.

Which of the following is the best way for a supervisor to correct a performance appraisal problem caused by unclear standards? A) focusing on performance instead of personality traits B) using graphic rating scales to rank employees C) using descriptive phrases to illustrate traits D) allowing employees to rate themselves first

Answer: C Explanation: C) The best way to fix a problem associated with unclear standards is to include descriptive phrases that define or illustrate each trait. Specificity results in more consistent and more easily explained appraisals.

Larry, a manager at a commercial real estate firm, has established a monthly sales quota for his sales team. Which basic function of management best describes Larry's actions? A) planning B) organizing C) controlling D) staffing

Answer: C Explanation: C) The controlling function involves setting standards such as sales quotas and production levels. Comparing actual performance with the standards is also an aspect of the controlling function.

When managers use metrics to assess performance and then develop strategies for corrective action, they are performing the ________ function of the management process. A) planning B) leading C) controlling D) organizing

Answer: C Explanation: C) The controlling function of the management process requires managers to set standards such as sales quotas, quality, standards, or production levels. Managers then compare actual performance with the standards, which often involves the use of metrics. Corrective action is then taken when necessary.

Which of the following would most likely provide assistance to executives about long-term strategic plans? A) centers of expertise B) embedded HR units C) corporate HR groups D) professional employee organizations

Answer: C Explanation: C) The corporate HR group focuses on assisting top management in "top level" big picture issues such as developing and explaining the personnel aspects of the company's long-term strategic plan.The centers of expertise are like specialized HR consulting firms within the company-for instance, they provide specialized assistance in areas such as organizational change.The embedded HR unit assigns HR generalists directly to departments like sales and production.

As the HR manager at Johnson Manufacturing, Derek is responsible for deciding which selection tools are most appropriate. When deciding on a specific selection tool, Derek should most likely consider all of the following factors EXCEPT the tool's ________. A) return on investment B) adverse impact C) persistence D) usability

Answer: C Explanation: C) The employer needs to consider several things before deciding to use a particular selection tool. These include the tool's reliability and validity; its return on investment(in terms of utility analysis); applicant reactions; usability (in terms of your managers' and employees' willingness and ability to use it); adverse impact; and the tool's selection ratio.

The first step in the test validation process is ________. A) creating a test battery B) administering tests C) analyzing the job D) cross-validating

Answer: C Explanation: C) The first step in validating a test is to analyze the job and write job descriptions and job specifications. The point is to specify the human traits and skills you believe are required for adequate job performance. Choosing tests and perhaps creating a test battery are part of the second step, which is followed by test administration. Relating test scores and criteria with an expectancy chart is the next step. Cross-validating is the final step in the process.

The basic functions of the management process include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) planning B) organizing C) outsourcing D) leading

Answer: C Explanation: C) The five basic functions of the management process include planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling. Outsourcing jobs may be an aspect of human resources, but it is not one of the primary management functions.

The fourth step in conducting a job analysis most likely involves collecting data about all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) required employee abilities B) typical working conditions C) employee turnover rates D) specific job activities

Answer: C Explanation: C) The fourth step in analyzing a job requires collecting data about job activities,required employee behaviors, working conditions, and human traits and abilities needed to perform the job. Interviews, questionnaires, and observations are the most popular methods for gathering data. It is unlikely that data regarding employee turnover rates would be gathered during a job analysis.

What is the first step in the ADDIE training process? A) assessing the program's successes B) appraising the program's budget C) analyzing the training need D) acquiring training materials

Answer: C Explanation: C) The gold standard of training programs is the basic analysis-design-develop-implement-evaluate (ADDIE) training process model that training experts have used for years.The first step is to analyze the training need.

Graphic rating scales are subject to all of the following problems EXCEPT ________. A) unclear standards B) halo effects C) complexity D) leniency

Answer: C Explanation: C) The graphic rating scale is the simplest and most popular method for appraising performance. However, graphic-type rating scales in particular are susceptible to several problems including unclear standards, halo effect, central tendency, leniency or strictness, and bias.

Which of the following includes five basic functions--planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling? A) job analysis B) strategic management C) management process D) adaptability screening

Answer: C Explanation: C) The management process includes five basic functions--planning, organizing, staffing, leading, and controlling. Strategic management refers to the process of identifying and executing the organization's mission by matching its capabilities with the demands of its environment.

Mario hopes to be promoted to the head of his department next year. In the meantime, he has been assigned to spend a year as an assistant to the current department head. Which type of training is most likely being used in this example? A) job rotation B) job instruction C) coaching method D) informal learning

Answer: C Explanation: C) The most familiar on-the-job training is the coaching or understudy method.Here, an experienced worker or the trainee's supervisor trains the employee. This may involve simply acquiring skills by observing the supervisor, or (preferably) having the supervisor or job expert show the new employee the ropes, step-by-step.

Kendra needs to rate five of her subordinates. She makes a chart of all possible pairs of employees for each trait being evaluated. Then, she indicates the better employee of each pair with a positive symbol on the chart. Finally, she totals the number of positive symbols for each employee. Which method of performance appraisal has Kendra most likely used? A) graphic ranking scale B) alternation ranking C) paired comparison D) forced distribution

Answer: C Explanation: C) The paired comparison method helps make the ranking method more precise.For every trait (quantity of work, quality of work, and so on), you pair and compare every subordinate with every other subordinate.

What is the primary benefit of using a position analysis questionnaire to gather data for a job analysis? A) providing the opportunity for employees to vent job frustrations B) sorting information for government statistics and records C) classifying jobs for the purpose of assigning salaries D) uncovering important yet infrequent job tasks

Answer: C Explanation: C) The primary benefit of using a PAQ is classifying jobs based on scores in the five different categories. With this data, a manager can quantitatively compare jobs relative to one another and then assign pay for each job. Interviewing often allows employees to vent frustrations and often leads to the discovery of important yet infrequent tasks.

Administering health benefits programs, helping line managers comply with EEO laws, and assisting with labor relations are all elements of the ________ function. A) coordinative B) procedural C) staff D) line

Answer: C Explanation: C) The staff function of HRM involves administering various benefit programs (health and accident insurance, retirement, vacation, and so on). It helps line managers comply with equal employment and occupational safety laws, and plays an important role in handling grievances and labor relations.

During the job analysis process, it is most important to ________ before collecting data about specific job duties and working conditions. A) test job questionnaires on a small group of workers B) confirm the job activity list with employees C) select a sample of similar jobs to analyze D) assemble the job specifications list

Answer: C Explanation: C) The third step of the job analysis process involves selecting representative positions to analyze. If there are too many similar jobs in a firm, it is best to select are presentative sample. After representative positions have been chosen, analysis of the job can occur, which may include interviewing employees or using questionnaires. Job specifications are not developed until the final step of the job analysis process.

Roberta Whitman has recently been hired by Jackson Pharmaceuticals as the senior vice president of human resources. Jackson Pharmaceuticals has a history of problems within its HR department including difficulties recruiting and retaining qualified employees, EEO violations, inadequate employee training programs, and confusion regarding health benefit enrollment and coverage. With years of experience transforming HR departments in other firms, Whitman believes she can correct the problems at Jackson Pharmaceuticals. Which of the following best supports Whitman's idea to develop a transactional HR group to handle benefits administration? A) An embedded HR unit would assist top management with big picture issues as well as benefits administration. B) Extensive training has been provided to line managers so that they fully understand the different insurance options available to employees. C) Outside vendors specializing in all aspects of benefits administration would provide improved support to the firm's employees. D) Lower insurance premiums would eliminate the need for outsourcing services and improve employee health coverage.

Answer: C Explanation: C) The transactional HR group focuses on using centralized call centers and outsourcing arrangements with vendors (such as benefits advisors) to provide specialized support in day-to-day transactional HR activities (such as changing benefits plans and providing updated appraisal forms) to the company's employees. By outsourcing benefits administration, Jackson would allow HR managers to focus on other issues and enable benefits specialists to handle benefits enrollment and coverage issues. Corporate HR groups rather than embedded HR units work with top management. It is not the role of line managers to handle benefits administration.

When designing an actual appraisal method, the two basic considerations are ________. A) when to measure and what to measure B) what to measure and who should measure C) what to measure and how to measure D) when to measure and how to measure

Answer: C Explanation: C) The two basic questions in designing the actual appraisal tool are what to measure and how to measure it. For example, in terms of what to measure, we may measure the employee's performance in terms of generic dimensions or with respect to achieving specific goals. In terms of how to measure it, there are various methodologies, including graphic rating scales, the alternation ranking method, and "MBO." Who should do the appraisal and when are less critical issues to address.

Which of the following is most likely NOT measured when evaluating a training program? A) what trainees learned from the program B) participants' reactions to the program C) overall organizational productivity D) changes in on-the-job behavior

Answer: C Explanation: C) There are several things firms can measure to evaluate a training program, such as the participants' reactions to the program, what (if anything) the trainees learned from the program, and to what extent their on-the-job behavior or results changed as a result of the program. It would be difficult to link overall organizational productivity to a training program.

Which of the following is the primary reason that firms conduct background investigations of job applicants? A) adhere to legal hiring practices B) limit the number of applicants C) uncover false information D) report criminals to police

Answer: C Explanation: C) There are two main reasons to check backgrounds—to verify the applicant's information (name and so forth) and to uncover damaging information, such as criminal activities or falsified information about education and experience.

According to research, what is the typical result of upward feedback? A) Firms are protected against biased appraisals. B) Organizational strategies are quickly implemented. C) Supervisors make changes to their management styles. D) Critical incidents are documented and ranked by top managers.

Answer: C Explanation: C) Upward feedback lets subordinates anonymously rate their supervisor's performance. Research indicates that most managers make changes based on the evaluations they receive.

Which of the following will most likely help a speaker improve the effectiveness of a training lecture? A) opening with a familiar joke B) talking from a prepared script C) watching the audience's body language D) using hand gestures to emphasize points

Answer: C Explanation: C) Watching for negative signals in the audience's body language can help a speaker realize that he or she needs to made modifications to the lecture. Irrelevant or old jokes are not effective openers. Speakers should use notes rather than a script and control their hands.Speeches are more effective when broken into short talks.

Jerome, a manager at an electronics company, needs to gather job analysis information from a large number of employees who perform similar work. Which of the following would be most appropriate for Jerome? A) observing all employees B) interviewing the HR manager C) holding group interview with a supervisor D) conducting telephone surveys of all employees

Answer: C Explanation: C) When a large number of employees perform similar or identical work,conducting a group interview is a fast way to gather information. In most cases, the workers'immediate supervisor attends the group session. It would be costly and time consuming to observe each worker.

Eric is in a group with five other management trainees at Coca-Cola. Eric's group is competing against other management trainees at the firm in a simulated marketplace. Each group must decide how much to spend on advertising and how many products to manufacture over the next three years. In which of the following activities is Eric most likely participating? A) on-demand learning B) apprenticeship training C) management games D) behavior modeling

Answer: C Explanation: C) With computerized management games, trainees divide into five- or six-person groups, each of which competes with the others in a simulated marketplace. Each group typically must make managerial decisions related to advertising, production, and inventory.

With job instruction training, which of the following should most likely be included beside each step listed? A) sources for more information B) any legal requirements C) key points or guidelines D) quality requirements

Answer: C Explanation: C) With job instruction training, all the steps in a job are listed in the correct order,and any key points or guidelines are listed beside each step to provide clarification to the trainee.

Which performance appraisal tools requires a supervisor to maintain a log of positive and negative examples of a subordinate's work-related behavior? A) alternation ranking B) paired comparison C) critical incident D) graphic rating

Answer: C Explanation: C) With the critical incident method, the supervisor keeps a log of positive and negative examples (critical incidents) of a subordinate's work-related behavior. Every 6 months or so, supervisor and subordinate meet to discuss the latter's performance, using the incidents as examples.

Blue Bay Hotels is in the process of modifying the assessment methods the company uses to hire new employees. In the past, the hotel chain has been accused by minority organizations of violating EEO laws in its hiring practices. Which of the following applicant assessment methods would most likely have the LEAST adverse impact on minorities? A) aptitude tests B) cognitive ability tests C) work sampling technique D) job knowledge tests

Answer: C Explanation: C) Work samples have a low adverse impact on applicants. Cognitive ability tests,also known as aptitude tests, and job knowledge tests have a high adverse impact against minorities.

A workflow analyst would most likely focus on which of the following? A) methods used by the firm to accomplish tasks B) behaviors needed to complete specific work C) a single, identifiable work process D) a quantifiable worker skill

Answer: C Explanation: C) Workflow analysis is a detailed study of the flow of work from job to job in a work process. Usually, the analyst focuses on one identifiable work process, rather than on how the company gets all its work done.

Which personality characteristic is comprised of both achievement and dependability? A) neuroticism B) extroversion C) conscientiousness D) agreeableness E) openness to experience

Answer: C Explanation: Conscientiousness is comprised of two related facets: achievement and dependability. According to research, conscientiousness has been the most consistent and universal predictor of job performance.

Demonstrating the content validity of a test can be accomplished by showing that ________. A) tasks performed on the test are general enough to apply to any type of job B) higher test scores are statistically equivalent to proven, long-term job success C) conditions under which the test is administered resemble the work situation D) scores on the test are both internally and externally reliable E) administered tests provide equivalent questions and scenarios

Answer: C Explanation: Demonstrating content validity can be accomplished by showing that the tasks the person performs on the test are really a comprehensive and random sample of the tasks performed on the job. Content validity can also be shown by demonstrating that the conditions under which the person takes the test resemble the work situation, although this is not always easy.

All of the following increase the likelihood that an employer will lose an NLRB election EXCEPT ________. A) focusing primarily on wage and benefits issues B) appointing a committee to manage the campaign C) distributing employee need and attitude surveys D) delegating personnel relations issues to plant managers E) focusing on salaried professionals instead of hourly workers

Answer: C Explanation: Employers tend to lose elections when they focus too much on wages and benefits, appoint uniformed committees to manage campaigns, and delegate union issues. Employers are more likely to win if they address the attitudes and concerns of all workers by sending out surveys and responding to their needs.

Firms should most likely use certified psychologists when developing and validating selection tests in order to ________. A) protect the confidentiality of the firm B) demonstrate familiarity with privacy laws C) ensure compliance with EEO laws D) persuade applicants of testing legitimacy E) use scores for benchmarking purposes

Answer: C Explanation: Firms should use a certified psychologist to develop and validate screening tests because of the EEO and ethical issues involved with testing. Selection tests should be consistent with equal employment laws, ethical, and considerate of the test taker's privacy.

For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests. Which of the following, if true, supports the argument that Golden Creamery should require franchise owners to use the firm's preemployment tests? A) Hourly employees at Golden Creamery stores typically remain with the company long enough to be promoted to management positions. B) Golden Creamery franchise owners pay an initial franchise fee and receive a percentage of sales royalties in return. C) Annual turnover rates for hourly employees of Golden Creamery stores are three times the rate of comparable businesses. D) Individuals interested in working at a Golden Creamery store can complete online applications on the firm's Web site. E) Golden Creamery uses a series of videos to train new hires as well as a mentoring program that has proven successful in the past.

Answer: C Explanation: High turnover rates suggest that Golden Creamery has problems hiring the most appropriate employees, which supports the implementation of a testing program. If hourly workers remained at the firm for a long time, then that would suggest the firm's current hiring practices do not need to be modified.

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Wagner Act? A) guaranteeing each employee the right to bargain collectively free from interference and coercion B) banning unions from preventing employees from exercising their guaranteed bargaining rights C) allowing secret-ballot elections for determining whether a firm's employees would unionize D) making it illegal for a union to refuse to bargain in god faith with the employer E) protecting union members from possible wrongdoing on the part of their unions

Answer: C Explanation: In 1935, Congress passed the National Labor Relations (or Wagner) Act to add teeth to Norris-LaGuardia. It did this by (1) banning certain unfair labor practices, (2) providing for secret-ballot elections and majority rule for determining whether a firm's employees would unionize, and (3) creating the National Labor Relations Board.

Which of the following was passed in 1935 to amend the Norris -LaGuardia Act? A) Taft-Hartley Act B) New Deal Act C) Wagner Act D) Landrum-Griffin Act E) Equal Pay Act

All of the following are examples of self-reported personality tests EXCEPT ________. A) Guilford-Zimmerman Survey B) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory C) Make a Picture Story D) Wonderlic Personal Characteristics Inventory E) Sales Achievement Predictor

Answer: C Explanation: Make a Picture Story is a projective personality test. Guilford-Zimmerman Survey, MMPI, Wonderlic Personal Characteristics Inventory, and Sales Achievement Predictor are self-reported personality tests which are filled out by the applicants.

All of the following are examples of permissible bargaining items EXCEPT ________. A) cafeteria prices B) use of union label C) severance pay D) scope of bargaining unit E) pension benefits for retired employees

Answer: C Explanation: Mandatory bargaining items are items in collective bargaining that a party must bargain over if they are introduced by the other party, such as severance pay. Permissible bargaining items become a part of negotiations only through the joint agreement of both management and union. Choices A, B, D, and E are permissible bargaining items.

Red Robin Gourmet Burgers is a national restaurant chain with nearly 36,000 employee that began as a small restaurant in Seattle. Over the years, Red Robin has attempted to develop a reputation as a fun, family restaurant that offers both excellent food and service. Red Robin's core values -- honor, integrity, having fun, and continually seeking knowledge -- serve as the basis for all of the firm's decisions and are even embroidered on the sleeves of every employee's uniform. As Red Robin continues to expand, executives are considering adding tests to the screening process. Which of the following, if true, would best support the argument that Red Robin should use personality tests in the employee selection process? A) Red Robin employees receive extensive training and are provided with opportunities to be promoted to management positions. B) Red Robin encourages employees to participate in the firm's environmental stewardship program to show community support. C) Red Robin seeks outgoing, motivated, and compassionate employees to enhance the experience of its customers. D) Red Robin offers monetary incentives to managers who meet quarterly sales targets and exceed performance expectations. E) Red Robin desires employees with extensive knowledge of the restaurant industry and at least two years of experience serving customers.

Answer: C Explanation: Personality traits, as uncovered by personality tests, often correlate to job performance. Red Robin seeks employees that match the firm's core values of honor, integrity, having fun, and continually seeking knowledge, and personality tests would indicate an applicant's level of extraversion and openness to experiences.

Answer: C Explanation: Physical abilities are measured by testing an applicant's static strength (lifting weights), dynamic strength, body coordination (jumping rope), and stamina. A UPS worker needs to have such skills to perform the job.

________ validation is considered the most dependable method of validating an employment test. A) Applicable B) Subjective C) Predictive D) Concurrent E) Statistical

Answer: C Explanation: Predictive validation is a more dependable way to validate a test than concurrent validation, which is the other method. With predictive validation, a test is administered to applicants before hiring. Applicants are hired using only existing selection techniques, not the results of the new tests. After they have been on the job for some time, measure their performance and compare it to their earlier test scores. You can then determine whether you could have used their performance on the new test to predict their subsequent job performance.

Which of the following terms refers to the accuracy with which a test fulfills the function for which it was designed? A) reliability B) relevancy C) validity D) expectancy E) consistency

Answer: C Explanation: Test validity answers the question "Does this test measure what it's supposed to measure?" Validity refers to the correctness of the inferences that we can make based on the test and the accuracy with which a test or interview fulfills the function it was designed to fill.

Which of the following was established by the Wagner Act? A) National Labor Relations Committee B) Labor Management Relations Board C) National Labor Relations Board D) Knights of Labor E) AFL-CIO

Answer: C Explanation: The Wagner Act created the National Labor Relations Board to enforce the provisions of the act.

What percentage of eligible employees in a bargaining unit must sign authorization cards in order for the union to petition the NLRB for an election? A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 E) 50

Answer: C Explanation: Thirty percent of the eligible employees in an appropriate bargaining unit must sign before the union can petition the NLRB for an election

Which form of union security requires employees who do not belong to the union to pay union dues on the assumption that the union's efforts benefit all workers? A) closed shop B) union shop C) agency shop D) open shop E) maintenance of agreement

Answer: C Explanation: With the agency shop, employees who do not belong to the union still must pay the union an amount equal to union dues on the assumption that the union's efforts benefit all the workers.

Janice, a department store manager, is in the process of writing job descriptions using O*NET. Janice has already reviewed the company's business plan, so what should be her next step? A) interview employees B) compose a list of job duties C) develop an organization chart D) observe employees performing their duties

Answer: C Explanation: C) The first step in using O*NET is to review the firm's business plan, which is followed by developing an organization chart that addresses both the current and future structure of the firm. After having employees complete brief questionnaires, obtaining a list of duties from O*NET, and listing the human requirements for the job, a manager is ready to finalize the job description.

What are the three main categories used in the Dictionary of Occupational Titles to rate,classify, and compare different jobs? A) reasoning, language, mathematics B) skills, communication, education C) data, people, things D) people, skills, reasoning

Answer: CExplanation: C) Data, people, and things are the three worker function categories used in theDepartment of Labor procedure that was compiled into the Dictionary of Occupational Titles .The DOL method describes what a worker must do with respect to data, people, and things.

According to state and federal laws, which of the following actions is NOT required of employers who check background information on applicants? D) providing a detailed rationale explaining the reason for any adverse action

Answer: D

An interest inventory compares an applicant's current interests with the interests of ________. D) other people in various occupations

Answer: D

Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality traits, is also called ________. D) handwriting analysis

Answer: D

The National Labor Relations Board was primarily established for the purpose of ________. A) establishing branches in right-to-work states B) negotiating contracts on behalf of local unions C) managing the membership of the AFL-CIO D) investigating unfair labor practice charges E) overseeing the establishment of local unions

Answer: D

Which of the following is the primary reason that firms conduct background investigations of job applicants? D) uncover false information

Answer: D

Work sampling, miniature job training, and video-based tests are examples of ________. D) situational tests

Answer: D

Which of the following best describes a "yellow dog" contract? A) As a condition of employment, an employee agrees not to picket. B) Union members agree to the agency shop form of union security. C) Employers agree to give union members preference in hiring. D) As a condition of employment, an employee agrees to not join a union. E) Employers agree to abide by the guidelines of the local labor unions.

Answer: D Explanation: "Yellow dog" contracts, whereby management could require nonunion membership as a condition for employment, were widely enforced.

________ is used as an estimate of reliability and involves administering a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic and then statistically analyzing the degree to which responses to the items vary together. A) Retest estimate B) Equivalent form estimate C) Content validity estimate D) Internal comparison estimate E) Criterion validity estimate

Answer: D Explanation: A test's internal consistency is another reliability measure. For example, a psychologist includes 10 items on a test of vocational interests, believing that they all measure, in various ways, the test taker's interest in working outdoors. You administer the test and then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to these 10 items vary together. This would provide a measure of the internal reliability of the test and is known as an internal comparison estimate.

When repetitive questions appear on a questionnaire, which of the following is most likely being measured? A) test validity B) retest estimate C) equivalent form D) internal consistency E) criterion validity

Answer: D Explanation: A test's internal consistency is measured by making internal comparison estimates. Internal consistency explains why apparently repetitive questions are found on some test questionnaires.

The tendency for one to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle is the personality dimension known as ________. A) neuroticism B) extroversion C) conscientiousness D) agreeableness E) openness to experience

Answer: D Explanation: Agreeableness is the tendency to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle. Neuroticism, extraversion, conscientiousness, and openness to experience are the other personality traits known as the big five.

________ tests include assessments of general reasoning ability and of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning. A) Motor ability B) Personality C) Achievement D) Cognitive E) Physical ability

Answer: D Explanation: Cognitive tests include tests of general reasoning ability (intelligence) and tests of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning. Employers may also use tests to measure an applicants motor and physical abilities. Achievement tests measure what someone has learned, and personality tests measure aspects of an applicant's personality, such as stability, motivation, and introversion.

Elliot, a manager at Harwood Publishing, gave a bad reference to a former employee. Elliot could most likely be accused of ________ if the information is both false and harmful. A) discrimination B) adverse impact C) arbitration D) defamation

Answer: D Explanation: D) A communication is defamatory if it is false and tends to harm the reputation of another by lowering the person in the estimation of the community or by deterring other persons from associating or dealing with him or her. Managers, supervisors, and employers can be sued for defamation if comments are found to be false and harmful.

Which of the following requires workers to make daily listings of the activities in which they engage as well as the amount of time each activity takes? A) flowchart B) agenda C) outline D) log

Answer: D Explanation: D) A diary or a log requires workers to make daily listings of the activities in which they engage as well as the amount of time each activity takes. Diaries and logs can be useful in the job analysis process because they often produce a complete picture of the job,especially when used in conjunction with an interview.

Wilson Consulting is a management consulting firm with seventy employees. As associate vice president of marketing, Suzanne Boyle is responsible for conducting performance appraisals of the twelve employees under her direct supervision. Suzanne plans to use the critical incident method to evaluate the performance of her subordinates. Which of the following, if true, most likely undermines the argument that the critical incident method is the most appropriate performance appraisal tool for Suzanne to use? A) Employee performance standards are closely aligned with Wilson Consulting's long-term strategic plans. B) Suzanne will be conducting performance appraisals in conjunction with the HR manager to ensure EEO compliance. C) Wilson Consulting will be allowing employees to rate themselves as part of its organizational development strategy. D) Due to economic difficulties, the firm will be laying off the two lowest performing employees in Suzanne's department.

Answer: D Explanation: D) A firm that will be laying off the two lowest performing employees needs employees to be ranked from best to worst, and the critical incident method makes ranking difficult. Strategic plans, EEO compliance, and organizational development are less relevant to the decision.

Which of the following terms refers to a set of instructions, diagrams, or similar methods available at the job site to guide the worker? A) task analysis record form B) position replacement card C) skills sheet D) job aid

Answer: D Explanation: D) A job aid is a set of instructions, diagrams, or similar methods available at the job site to guide the worker. Job aids work particularly well on complex jobs that require multiple steps, or where it's dangerous to forget a step.

In order for Hollis Construction to be in full compliance with the Americans with Disabilities Act, the manager needs a ________ for each position to validate all human resource activities.A) performance appraisal B) compensation schedule C) workflow system D) job analysis

Answer: D Explanation: D) A job analysis is needed for each job at a firm to ensure compliance with the EEOC. According to the U.S. Federal Agencies' Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection, a job analysis is needed to validate all major human resource activities. A firm that is in compliance with the Americans with Disabilities Act, for example, should know the essential job functions of each job which requires a job analysis.

Which of the following terms refers to a section of an employer's Web site that provides employees with online access to job-related training courses? A) virtual classroom B) video conferencing C) job simulation D) learning portal

Answer: D Explanation: D) A learning portal is a section of an employer's Web site that offers employees online access to many or all of the training courses they need to succeed at their jobs. When employees go to their firm's learning portal, they actually access the menu of training courses that the ASP company contracted with the employer to offer.

Answer: D Explanation: D) A test's internal consistency is another reliability measure. For example, a psychologist includes 10 items on a test of vocational interests, believing that they all measure,in various ways, the test taker's interest in working outdoors. You administer the test and then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to these 10 items vary together. This would provide a measure of the internal reliability of the test and is known as an internal comparison estimate.

All of the following topics are typically addressed during employee orientation EXCEPT ________. A) employee benefits B) personnel policies C) daily routine D) wage curves

Answer: D Explanation: D) A wage curve is the graphic relationship between the value of the job and the average wage paid for the job. It is unlikely that wage curves would be addressed during orientation, which usually covers benefits, policies, routines, and safety measures.

While performing the fifth step of a job analysis, it is essential to confirm the validity of collected data with the ________. A) EEOC representative B) HR manager C) legal department D) worker

Answer: D Explanation: D) According to the fifth step of a job analysis, collected data should be confirmed with the worker performing the job and his/her immediate supervisor. Although HR managers play a role in the job analysis process by observing workers, it is the worker and his/her immediate supervisor that provide direct knowledge of the duties involved in a specific job.

Applicant tracking systems are mostly used by employers to ________. A) develop work samples B) develop specific job descriptions C) verify a candidate's U.S. citizenship D) screen and rank candidates based on skills

Answer: D Explanation: D) Applicant tracking systems are used for screening and tracking candidates,compiling resumes, and assisting with applicant testing. Online testing can be handled by an ATS but not situational tests like work sampling.

Which of the following occupations most likely does NOT use apprenticeship training to prepare new employees? A) professional chef B) dental assistant C) fire medic D) banker

Answer: D Explanation: D) Chef, electrician, dental assistant, and fire medic are some of the most popular occupations using the apprenticeship method of training. A banker would most likely not be trained with an apprentice, but would probably be trained through OJT instead.

________ tests include assessments of general reasoning ability and of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning. A) Motor ability B) Personality C) Achievement D) Cognitive

Answer: D Explanation: D) Cognitive tests include tests of general reasoning ability (intelligence) and tests of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning. Employers may also use tests to measure an applicant's motor and physical abilities. Achievement tests measure what someone has learned, and personality tests measure aspects of an applicant's personality, such as stability,motivation, and introversion.

Wells Fargo and Company is a financial services firm that provides banking, insurance, and mortgage services at 10,000 stores nationwide. Wells Fargo offers its employees many professional development opportunities such as training programs and tuition reimbursement.Wells Fargo executives are considering the expansion of the firm's existing training programs after employees have expressed strong interest in the idea. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that Wells Fargo should integrate computer simulations into its training program for bank tellers? A) The Wells Fargo intranet-based learning portal provides employees with access to a variety of training courses. B) Wells Fargo is one of the few financial institutions to require all employees to participate in at least 30 hours of training each year. C) Wells Fargo bank tellers use electronic performance support systems to assist them with handling complicated bank transactions. D) Employee surveys indicate that many Wells Fargo bank tellers are uncertain about the best methods for handling angry customers.

Answer: D Explanation: D) Computer simulations provide a representation of a situation and the tasks to be performed in the situation. Simulations can help employees learn conflict resolution skills to deal with angry bank customers.

The process of cross-validating a test involves all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) using a new sample of employees B) administering additional tests C) evaluating the relationship between scores and performance D) developing and analyzing a scatter plot of scores versus performance

Answer: D Explanation: D) Cross-validating involves administering additional tests to a new sample of employees. This final step also requires an assessment of predictive validation and an evaluation of the relationship between scores and job performance. An expectancy chart might be developed but not a scatter plot.

________ attempts to foster harmonious working relationships and to develop cross-cultural sensitivity among the employees of a firm. A) Adaptability screening B) Multicultural simulation C) Mandatory arbitration D) Diversity training

Answer: D Explanation: D) Diversity training aims to create better cross-cultural sensitivity, with the goal of fostering more harmonious working relationships among a firm's employees. Such training typically includes improving interpersonal skills, understanding and valuing cultural differences,improving technical skills, socializing employees into the corporate culture, and indoctrinating new workers into the U.S. work ethic.

Which of the following enables supervisors to oversee the amount of computerized data an employee is processing each day? A) computerized performance appraisal system B) online management assessment center C) digitized high-performance work center D) electronic performance monitoring system

Answer: D Explanation: D) Electronic performance monitoring (EPM) systems use computer network technology to allow managers access to their employees' computers and telephones. They thus allow managers to monitor the employees' rate, accuracy, and time spent working online.

All of the following are benefits of using computerized or Web-based performance appraisal systems EXCEPT ________. A) merging examples with performance ratings B) helping managers maintain computerized notes C) combining different performance appraisal tools D) enabling managers to monitor employees' computers

Answer: D Explanation: D) Employers increasingly use computerized or Web-based performance appraisal systems. These enable managers to keep computerized notes on subordinates during the year,merge notes with ratings, and generate written text to support each part of the appraisal. Most appraisal software combines several appraisal methods. Electronic performance monitoring(EPM) systems use computer network technology to allow managers access to their employees'computers and telephones.

According to state and federal laws, which of the following actions is NOT required of employers who check background information on applicants? A) disclosing to the applicant that a credit report will be requested B) certifying to the reporting agency of the employer's legal compliance C) providing copies of reports to the applicant if adverse action is considered D) providing a detailed rationale explaining the reason for any adverse action

Answer: D Explanation: D) Employers must disclose to the applicant that a report will be requested and certify with the reporting agency that the employer has the consent of the applicant. If adverse action, such as withdrawing an employment offer, is being considered or occurs, then the employer must provide the applicant with a copy of the report.

Which of the following steps will most likely NOT help employers protect themselves against charges of negligent training? A) confirming an employee's claims of skill and experience B) providing extensive and appropriate training C) evaluating the effectiveness of the training D) paying employees for their training time

Answer: D Explanation: D) Employers should confirm the applicant/employee's claims of skill and experience, provide adequate training (particularly where employees use dangerous equipment),and evaluate the training to ensure that it's actually reducing risks. Paying employees for training will not necessarily protect an employer.

All of the following are functions of the human resource manager EXCEPT ________. A) ensuring that line managers are implementing HR policies B) advising line managers about how to implement EEO laws C) representing the interests of employees to senior management D) integrating the duties of line managers with staff managers

Answer: D Explanation: D) Ensuring that line managers implement HR policies, advising line managers about EEO laws, and representing employee interests to senior management are common HRM functions. Integrating line and staff manager functions is not an HRM activity.

You are conducting an appraisal interview with an employee whose performance is satisfactory but for whom promotion is not possible. Which incentive listed below would most likely be the LEAST effective option for maintaining satisfactory performance in this situation? A) time off B) small bonus C) schedule flexibility D) professional development

Answer: D Explanation: D) For employees whose performance is satisfactory but for whom promotion is not possible, the objective is to maintain satisfactory performance. The best option is usually to find incentives that are important to the person and sufficient to maintain performance, such as extra time off, a small bonus, praise, and schedule flexibility. Professional development would most likely be motivating for an employee who cannot be promoted.

Stephanie manages the accounting department at an advertising agency. She needs to conduct performance appraisals for the eight employees in her department. Stephanie wants a performance appraisal tool that is highly accurate, ranks employees, and uses critical incidents to help explain ratings to appraisees. Which performance appraisal tool is best suited for Stephanie? A) graphic rating scale B) alternation ranking method C) critical incident method D) behaviorally anchored rating scale

Answer: D Explanation: D) For those for whom accuracy is a great concern, BARS are superior, but require much more time to develop and use. The integration of critical incidents help a supervisor explain ratings to appraisees. Graphic rating scales and alternation rankings do not include critical incidents, while the critical incident method includes examples without rankings.

According to employer surveys, one of the primary challenges of Generation Y employees is their ________. A) inability to use information technology B) inadequate multi-tasking skills C) inability to balance work and family D) need for constant praise and recognition

Answer: D Explanation: D) Generation Y has been described as "the most high maintenance workforce in the history of the world," which is why the primary challenge of Generation Y employees is their constant need for feedback and recognition. However, Generation Y grew up using computers, so their greatest strength relates to their ability to use information technology.

Which of the following best explains why human resource management is important to all managers? A) Technological changes and global competition require clear organization charts. B) Sophisticated accounting controls are supported by human resource managers. C) An enthusiastic labor force is likely to provide financial support to local unions. D) Investing in human capital enables managers to achieve positive results for the firm.

Answer: D Explanation: D) Getting results is the bottom line of managing, and it is primarily accomplished through human capital, which is the knowledge, education, training, skills and expertise of a firm's workers. Managers throughout a firm need good people to get results, and hiring and retaining good people is the objective of HRM.

How have globalization and increased competition most likely affected human resource management? A) Corporate intranets are used by HR managers to communicate important messages. B) HR managers need to focus on integrating ethics into a firm's policies and practices. C) Benefits administration is increasingly being handled internally as a way to lower costs. D) HR managers need to focus on big picture issues to help firms achieve their strategic goals.

Answer: D Explanation: D) Globalization and increased competition are significant trends in the business world, and as a result firms must be more competitive, responsive, and cost-effective. HR managers are now focusing on big picture issues such as helping firms achieve their strategic goals. Transactional services like benefits administration are frequently being outsourced.

Which of the following is a potential disadvantage to consumers of the globalization trend among businesses? A) increased costs of goods B) increased insurance costs C) higher labor union fees D) reduced job security

Answer: D Explanation: D) Globalization brings both benefits and threats to consumers. It means lower prices and higher quality on practically everything from computers to cars, but also the prospect of working harder, and perhaps having less secure jobs.

Which of the following is most likely a line function of the human resource manager? A) ensuring that line managers are implementing HR policies B) advising line managers about how to implement EEO laws C) representing the interests of employees to senior management D) directing the activities of subordinates in the HR department

Answer: D Explanation: D) HR managers carry out three primary functions--line, coordinative, and staff. Directing members of the HR staff is a line function. Ensuring that line managers implement HR policies is a coordinative function. Advising line managers and representing employee interests to senior management are staff functions.

Personnel activities associated with human resource management most likely include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) orienting and training new employees B) appraising employee performance C) building employee commitment D) developing customer relationships

Answer: D Explanation: D) Human resource management involves numerous personnel-related activities, and HR managers are less likely to interact with customers. Managing compensation, orienting new employees, appraising employee performance, and developing employee commitment are typical aspects of the HR manager's job.

A line manager's human resource responsibilities most likely include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) maintaining department morale B) controlling labor costs C) protecting employees' health D) marketing new products and services

Answer: D Explanation: D) Human resource management most often involves creating and maintaining department morale, controlling labor costs, and protecting employees' health and physical condition. Handling personnel is an integral part of every line manager's duties, but marketing new products is not a personnel issue and would be handled by the marketing department.

Mark Caffrey, vice president of sales at Samson Pharmaceuticals, manages a sales team of ten employees. Members of Mark's sales force vary in experience level. Four members of the sales team have worked at Samson for less than one year. The other six salespeople have been with Samson anywhere from three to seven years. Mark recently received the annual sales report and noticed that sales have been dropping steadily over the last year. Mark is considering the idea of providing training to his sales team as a way to boost sales. Which of the following best supports the argument that the drop in Samson's sales can be solved through training? A) Attitude surveys sent to Samson personnel suggest that the firm's elimination of year-end bonuses has angered many employees. B) Recent studies suggest that sales of name-brand pharmaceuticals, such as Samson, are dropping as more people are choosing to use generic drugs instead. C) The rising costs associated with college recruiting have forced Samson to hire sales associates through online job sites. D) Members of the sales team have expressed that they do not fully understand the benefits and side effects of the latest medications released by Samson.

Answer: D Explanation: D) If the sales force does not understand the benefits and side effects of Samson's latest drugs, then it is most likely unable to sell the products effectively. Training would provide salespeople with the necessary information. Poor attitudes suggest that the sales team doesn't want to sell products, which is not an issue that can be corrected with training.

Which of the following is a graph that shows the relationship between test scores and job performance for a group of people? A) performance standard B) digital dashboard C) competency model D) expectancy chart

Answer: D Explanation: D) If there is a correlation between test and job performance, you can develop an expectancy chart during the process of validating an employment test. An expectancy chart presents the relationship between test scores and job performance graphically.

Which of the following responsibilities is shared by line managers and human resource managers in most firms? A) preemployment testing B) benefits administration C) initial screening interviews D) performance appraisals

Answer: D Explanation: D) In most firms, line managers and HR managers both have HR responsibilities, but they typically share activities like employment interviews, performance appraisals, and skills training. Preemployment testing, benefits administration, and initial screening interviews are usually handled by HR managers rather than line managers.

Which of the following terms refers to computer-based training systems that adjust to meet each trainee's specific learning needs? A) virtual learning systems B) video-based simulations C) multi-media training plans D) intelligent tutoring systems

Answer: D Explanation: D) Intelligent tutoring systems are computerized, supercharged, programmed instruction programs. In addition to the usual programmed learning, intelligent tutoring systems learn what questions and approaches worked and did not work for the learner, and therefore adjust the suggested instructional sequence to the trainee's unique needs.

Oshman manufactures small kitchen appliances, such as blenders, toasters, and mixers. The firm has nearly 80,000 employees in 22 countries. Employees receive annual performance appraisals from their supervisors that combine critical incidents with a graphic rating scale.However, the firm's CEO advocates shifting from performance appraisals to performance management in an attempt to make Oshman more competitive and performance driven. All of the following questions are relevant to Oshman's decision to replace its traditional appraisal methods with the performance management approach EXCEPT ________. A) What technology is available to help managers gain immediate access to employee performance data? B) How would work procedures need to be modified to provide more frequent feedback to employees? C) How would the firm's mission and vision translate into departmental, team, and individual goals? D) What procedures are already in place to effectively identify and measure critical incidents?

Answer: D Explanation: D) Issues related to performance management include the technology used to monitor employee performance, methods for providing feedback, development of goals, and incentives. Identifying critical incidents is an issue related to traditional appraisal methods rather than performance management.

The ________ lists a job's specific duties as well as the skills and training needed to perform a particular job. A) organization chart B) job analysis C) work aid D) job description

Answer: D Explanation: D) Job descriptions list the specific duties, skills, and training related to a particular job. Organization charts show the distribution of work within a company but not specific duties. A job description is created after a job analysis has been performed.

Which of the following best defines line authority? A) management over a small staff in a public firm B) management with flexible decision-making powers C) a manager's right to advise other managers or employees D) a manager's right to issue orders to other managers or employees

Answer: D Explanation: D) Line authority is a a manager's right to issue order to other managers or employees, which creates a superior-subordinate relationship. Staff authority refers to a manager's right to advise other managers or employees, which creates an advisory relationship.

One of the ________ functions of a human resource manager includes directing the activities of his or her subordinates in the HR department. A) coordinative B) corporate C) staff D) line

Answer: D Explanation: D) Line functions, staff functions, and coordinative functions are the three primary functions of HR managers. Examples of line functions include a human resource manager directing the activities of the people in his or her own department or perhaps in related areas (like the plant cafeteria).

In which of the following situations is it NOT legal to require an applicant to take a polygraph test as part of the selection process? A) electrical engineer at the Department of Energy B) pharmacist's assistant at Walgreen's C) security guard at Wells Fargo Bank D) cashier at J.C. Penney's

Answer: D Explanation: D) Local, state, and federal government employers can use polygraphs, but state laws restrict many local and state governments. Private employers can use polygraph testing, but only under strictly limited circumstances, such as for security personnel or for positions with access to drugs. Cashiers at retail stores should not be asked to take polygraph tests.

Which of the following is the primary advantage of using management assessment centers in the selection process?A) Development costs are very low. B) Minimal time is required for test administration. C) Industrial psychologists are involved in the testing process. D) Peers are effectively able to predict the success of applicants.

Answer: D Explanation: D) Management assessment centers are expensive to develop, take much longer than conventional tests, require managers acting as assessors, and often require psychologists.However, studies suggest they are worth it. because peers' evaluations of candidates during the center are especially useful.

The unreliability of a test is best explained by all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) poor sampling of question material B) lack of equivalence between tests C) inconsistent testing conditions D) failure to predict job performance

Answer: D Explanation: D) Many things could cause a test to be unreliable. For example, the questions may do a poor job of sampling the material or there might be errors due to changes in the testing conditions. A lack of equivalence between tests would also explain a test's unreliability. Validity rather than reliability refers to a test's ability to measure what is intended to be measured, such as job performance.

Which of the following terms refers to training candidates to perform several of the job's tasks and then assessing the candidates' performance prior to hire? A) achievement testing B) work sampling technique C) management assessment center D) miniature job training

Answer: D Explanation: D) Miniature job training and evaluation means training candidates to perform several of the job's tasks, and then evaluating the candidates' performance prior to hire. The approach assumes that a person who demonstrates that he or she can learn and perform the sample of tasks will be able to learn and perform the job itself. Work sampling and management assessment centers involve situational tests rather than actual job tasks.

Most job descriptions contain sections that cover all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) performance standards B) working conditions C) responsibilities D) required overtime

Answer: D Explanation: D) Most job descriptions contain sections that cover job identification, job summary, responsibilities and duties, authority of incumbent, performance standards, working conditions, and job specifications. Although information regarding salary and/or pay scale may be included, it is less likely that the amount of overtime required in the position will be included.

Which of the following Web sites was developed by the U.S. Department of Labor and serves as a source for managers who need to write job descriptions? A) bls.gov B) opm.gov C) usajobs.gov D) onetcenter.org

Answer: D Explanation: D) O*NET is a Web tool that was developed by the U.S. Department of Labor to allow managers, workers, and job seekers to see the essential characteristics of various occupations. Managers use the site to develop job descriptions.

Which personality characteristic refers to the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming,and unconventional? A) extroversion B) conscientiousness C) neuroticism D) openness to experience

Answer: D Explanation: D) Openness to experience is the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming,unconventional, and autonomous. Conscientiousness refers to achievement and dependability,and neuroticism relates to anxiety and insecurity.

The continuous process of identifying, measuring, and developing the performance of individuals and teams and aligning their performance with the organization's goals is known as ________. A) strategic management B) performance analysis C) performance appraisal D) performance management

Answer: D Explanation: D) Performance management is the continuous process of identifying, measuring,and developing the performance of individuals and teams and aligning their performance with the organization's goals.

Make a Picture Story and the Forer Structured Sentence Completion Test are examples of ________ tests. A) intelligence B) apperception C) self-reported D) projective

Answer: D Explanation: D) Projective techniques include Make a Picture Story (MAPS), House-Tree-Person (H-T-P), and the Forer Structured Sentence Completion Test. With projective tests, the psychologist presents an ambiguous stimulus (like an inkblot or clouded picture) to the person who then reacts to it.

Evidence-based human resource management relies on all of the following types of evidence EXCEPT ________. A) scientific rigor B) existing data C) research studies D) qualitative opinions

Answer: D Explanation: D) Qualitative information or opinions are not characteristic of evidence-based HR management because neither can be measured.Evidence-based human resource management is based on the use of data, facts, analytics, scientific rigor, critical evaluation, and critically evaluated research/case studies to support human resource management proposals, decisions, practices, and conclusions.

If a person scores a 70 on an intelligence test on one day and scores 110 when retested on another day, you would most likely conclude that this test is ________. A) valid B) invalid C) reliable D) unreliable

Answer: D Explanation: D) Reliability is a test's first requirement and refers to its consistency: A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions. If a person scores 70 on an intelligence test on a Monday and 110 when retested on Tuesday, you probably wouldn't have much faith in the test

According to the text, selection interviews are classified by all of the following factors EXECPT _________. A) administration B) structure C) content D) length

Answer: D Explanation: D) Selection interviews are classified according to how structured they are, their "content" - the types of questions they contain, and how the firm administers the interviews. Length is not a category.

Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using structured interviews during the employee selection process? A) higher potential for bias B) limited validity and reliability C) inconsistency across candidates D) reduced opportunities for asking follow-up questions

Answer: D Explanation: D) Structured interviews when followed blindly limit the interviewer/s chance to ask follow-up questions. Structured interviews are typically reliable, valid, consistent, and have a lower potential for bias. As a result, they have a greater ability to withstand legal challenges.

Who is in the best position to observe and evaluate an employee's performance for the purposes of a performance appraisal? A) customers B) rating committees C) top management D) immediate supervisor

Answer: D Explanation: D) Supervisors' ratings are the heart of most appraisals. The supervisor usually is in the best position to evaluate the subordinate's performance and is responsible for that person's performance.

Which term refers to the integrated process of recruiting, developing, supervising, and compensating employees? A) job analysis B) HR alignment C) strategic planning D) talent management

Answer: D Explanation: D) Talent management is the goal-oriented and integrated process of planning,recruiting, developing, managing, and compensating employees. Talent management means getting the right people (in terms of competencies) in the right jobs, at the right time, doing their jobs correctly. Job analysis and strategic planning are important elements of effective talent management.

Which of the following questions will most likely be addressed by a manager who is writing a job description based on a competency-based job analysis? A) What are the typical duties associated with this job? B) What are the working conditions and safety issues related to this job? C) What opportunities for advancement are available to an employee in this job? D) What should the employee be able to do in order to competently perform this job? E) What machines or equipment is the job holder responsible for operating on a daily basis?

Answer: D Explanation: D) The focus of a competency-based job analysis is the skills of the worker rather than the duties , equipment, or working conditions of the job. Traditional job-analysis is more job-focused while competency-based analysis is more worker-focused.

Which performance appraisal tool is being used when a supervisor places predetermined percentages of ratees into various performance categories? A) behaviorally anchored rating scale B) graphic ranking scale C) alternation ranking D) forced distribution

Answer: D Explanation: D) The forced distribution method is similar to grading on a curve. With this method, you place predetermined percentages of ratees into several performance categories.

Celeste spends most of her time at work establishing goals for her staff of fifty employees and developing procedures for various tasks. In which function of the management process does Celeste spend most of her time? A) leading B) controlling C) organizing D) planning

Answer: D Explanation: D) The planning function of the management process requires managers to establish goals and standards, develop rules and procedures, and develop plans and forecast. Leading involves motivating staff, while controlling requires a manger to set standards, such as sales quotas. Assigning tasks to employees is an aspect of the organizing function.

Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using questionnaires to gather job analysis information? A) Questionnaires are the most expensive method of collecting data. B) Supervisors are required to verify all collected questionnaire data. C) Questionnaires are too open-ended for statistical information. D) Developing and testing questionnaires is time-consuming.

Answer: D Explanation: D) The primary drawback of questionnaires is the time required to develop questionnaires and test them to ensure that workers understand the questions. Questionnaires can be structured or open-ended, and many are a combination of the two. Questionnaires are less costly than interviews.

All of the following are ethical issues that must be considered by human resource managers EXCEPT ________. A) comparable work B) workplace safety C) affirmative action D) FCC regulations

Answer: D Explanation: D) The regulations of the Federal Communications Commission are not likely to affect decisions made by HR managers. Ethical issues faced by HR managers include workplace safety, security of employee records, employee theft, affirmative action, comparable work, and employee privacy rights.

Which function of the management process includes selecting employees, setting performance standards, and compensating employees? A) organizing B) planning C) motivating D) staffing

Answer: D Explanation: D) The staffing function of the management process is also known as the human resource management function. The staffing function addresses the process of acquiring, training, appraising, and compensating employees, as well as addressing issues of labor relations, worker safety, and fairness.

Answer: D Explanation: D) There are four basic categories of OD applications: human process,techno structural, human resource management, and strategic applications. HR management involves performance appraisals, reward systems, diversity programs, and goal setting.

Which of the following best describes how to use a retest estimate to assess reliability? A) administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to effectively perform the job in question B) administer the same test to different people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1 C) administer different tests to a group of people and compare the range of collected test scores D) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with their scores at time 1

Answer: D Explanation: D) There are several ways to estimate consistency or reliability. You could administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time, comparing their test scores at time two with their scores at time one; this would be a retest estimate.

For an employer to administer a polygraph exam during an ongoing investigation of theft, an employer must do all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) prove that the accused had access to the property B) document a reasonable suspicion prior to requesting a polygraph C) explain the details of the investigation and the questions to be asked during the polygraph D) subject all employees with access to the property in question to the same polygraph examination as the accused employee

Answer: D Explanation: D) To administer a polygraph test for an ongoing investigation, an employer must meet four standards. First, the employer must show that it suffered an economic loss or injury.Second, it must show that the employee in question had access to the property. Third, it must have a reasonable suspicion before asking the employee to take the polygraph. Fourth, the employee must receive the details of the investigation before the test, as well as the questions to be asked on the polygraph test. All employees are not required to take a polygraph.

Which of the following focuses on using centralized call centers and outsourcing arrangements with vendors as a way to provide specialized support for certain HR activities? A) embedded HR units B) corporate HR groups C) HR centers of expertise D) transactional HR groups

Answer: D Explanation: D) Transactional HR groups focus on using centralized call centers and outsourcing arrangements with vendors, such as benefits advisors, to provide specialized support in day-to-day transactional HR activities to a firm's employees. Activities may include changing benefits plans and providing updated appraisal forms.

Interviews for the purpose of collecting job analysis data will most likely address all of the following topics EXCEPT ________. A) hazardous conditions B) primary work duties C) required education D) personal hobbies

Answer: D Explanation: D) Typical questions for job analysis interviews address subjects such as the job's major duties, hazardous conditions, performance standards, and required experience and education. It is less likely that an interviewer would ask an employee questions not related specifically to the job, such as personal questions about the worker's hobbies and free time.

For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past,each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However,as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests.Which of the following best supports the argument that Golden Creamery should use a certified psychologist to develop preemployment tests? A) Golden Creamery needs to comply with all federal and state laws. B) Golden Creamery competitors use psychologists for test development. C) Golden Creamery strives to create a conscientious organizational culture. D) Golden Creamery needs to ensure that tests are legally and ethically appropriate.

Answer: D Explanation: D) Using a psychologist to develop and validate tests will help Golden Creamery remain protected both legally and ethically. Firms are not required by law to use a psychologist for test development.

All of the following are used for estimating reliability of a test EXCEPT ________. A) test-retest estimate B) internal comparison estimate C) equivalent form estimate D) content validity measurement

Answer: D Explanation: D) Validity indicates whether a test is measuring what it is supposed to be measuring, while reliability indicates whether a test is measuring something consistently.Internal comparison estimates are used to measure the internal consistency of a test. Test-retest estimates and equivalent form estimates also measure reliability.

Purrfect Pets is a local pet supply store with a following of loyal customers who appreciate the personal service the store's employees provide. After a very profitable year, Purrfect Pets is expanding by opening two more stores. Before hiring employees for the new stores, the manager is considering the idea of conducting a job analysis for each position.Which of the following, if true, would best support the argument that the manager should conduct group interviews to gather job analysis information? A) Purrfect Pets is an excellent place to work because of the positive work environment. B) Most of the young employees of Purrfect Pets would feel awkward during a one-on-one interview. C) Employees at Purrfect Pets work well with their colleagues, and few staffing conflicts occur. D) Numerous employees at Purrfect Pets perform similar tasks during the work day.

Answer: D Explanation: D) When a large number of employees perform similar or identical tasks, then a group interview is a quick and inexpensive way to gather job analysis information. The work environment or age of the employees are not important factors in deciding whether a group interview is appropriate.

When conducting an appraisal interview, supervisors should do all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) ask open-ended questions B) give specific examples of poor performance C) write up an action plan with goals and dates D) compare the person's performance to that of other employees

Answer: D Explanation: D) When a supervisor conducts an appraisal interview, it is advisable to speak in terms of objective work data with specific examples of poor performance. A supervisor should also ask the employee open-ended questions to encourage conversation and write up an action plan. It is inappropriate to compare a person's performance with another person.

When a sales job is being filled by an untrained individual, the job specifications list will most likely include ________ as a way to predict which candidate will perform the job well. A) age and gender B) past job performance C) relevant certification D) personality traits

Answer: D Explanation: D) When filling jobs with untrained people that the employer intends to train, the employer will most likely specify qualities like physical traits, personality, interests, or sensory skills that imply some potential for performing or for being trained to do the job. Age and gender should not be elements of a job specification list. Certification and past job performance are less likely to predict the success of a person's job performance in an area for which they have never received training.

Which of the following involves a trainer in a central location teaching groups of employees at remote locations over cable broadband lines or the Internet? A) audiovisual-based instruction B) programmed learning C) vestibule training D) videoconferencing

Answer: D Explanation: D) With videoconferencing, a trainer in a central location teaches groups of employees at remote locations via cable broadband lines, the Internet, or satellite. Vestibule training is a method in which trainees learn on the actual or simulated equipment they will use on the job, but are trained off the job.

All of the following types of information will most likely be collected by a human resources specialist through a job analysis EXCEPT ________. A) work activities B) human behaviors C) performance standards D) employee benefits options

Answer: D Explanation: D) Work activities, human behaviors, work aids, performance standards, job context, and human requirements are the types of information typically collected through a job analysis. Information gathered through a job analysis is used to develop job descriptions and job specifications. Managers use job analysis for the purpose of recruitment, compensation, training,and performance appraisal but not for assessing employee benefits options.

Employers will most likely use all of the following methods to identify training needs for new employees EXCEPT ________. A) analyzing job descriptions B) reviewing performance standards C) questioning current job holders D) conducting a work sampling

Answer: D Explanation: D) Work sampling is a method used for screening job applicants and will not likely be used to identify training needs. Managers can uncover training needs by reviewing performance standards, assessing job descriptions, performing the job, and questioning current job holders and their supervisors.

All of the following requirements are typically addressed in job specifications EXCEPT ________. A) desired personality traits B) required education levels C) necessary experience D) working conditions

Answer: D Explanation: D) Working conditions, responsibilities, and job duties are addressed in a job description rather than the job specifications. Job specifications focus on the human requirements for a job, such as personality, education, skills, and experience.

Hyper-Tech Enterprises manufactures mechanical parts used in air conditioning and heating units. The company employs over 300 workers at its Alabama facility. None of the Hyper-Tech employees belong to a union; however, management believes that unionization is in the near future. A representative of a local union has recently visited Hyper-Tech in an attempt to solicit members and have them sign authorization cards. Enough eligible employees have signed authorization cards to petition the NLRB for an election. Hyper-Tech's top executives are considering fighting the unionization efforts. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that Hyper-Tech should contest the union's right to an election? A) Hyper-Tech has hired a labor relations consultant to provide advice on union campaign procedures and any relevant laws. B) Managers believe that they may have inadvertently hired union salts, who most likely instigated the unionization movement at Hyper-Tech. C) The process outlined at Hyper-Tech for filing employee grievances differs from the grievance procedures at other firms in the same industry. D) Hyper-Tech management believes that if employees are provided with additional information from the firm that they will revoke their authorization cards. E) Hyper-Tech managers will soon be conducting annual employee performance appraisals and determining what salary adjustments to make.

Answer: D Explanation: If Hyper-Tech wants to contest the union's right, it can insist on a hearing to determine those issues. An employer's decision about whether to insist on a hearing is a strategic one. Management bases it on the facts of each case, and on whether it feels it needs more time to try to persuade employees not to elect a union.

Managers from Ford and representatives from United Auto Workers are in the first stage of collective bargaining over benefits and wages. Which of the following is most likely occurring? A) Subcommittes are forming to create alternatives. B) Each side is trading some of its demands. C) Each side is checking terms with superiors. D) Each side is presenting its demands. E) Both parties are signing an agreement.

Answer: D Explanation: In the first stage of bargaining, each side presents its demands. At this stage, both parties are usually quite far apart on some issues. Choices A, B, C, and E are other steps in the bargaining process.

Jeff is a manager at a paper mill. He has received a grievance from a group of employees who are union members. The grievance claims that a plant rule barring employees from eating during unscheduled breaks is arbitrary and unfair. What should Jeff do? A) Discuss the case privately with the union steward. B) Respond to the grievance with long, written answers. C) Agree to make informal changes to the rules. D) Examine the grievants' personnel records. E) Make special arrangements with the grievants.

Answer: D Explanation: It is appropriate for Jeff to review the employees' personnel files. However, Choices A, B, C, and E are considered inappropriate methods for handling grievances.

All of the following are examples of mandatory bargaining items EXCEPT ________. A) employee security B) shift differentials C) profit-sharing plans D) indemnity bonds E) employee drug testing

Answer: D Explanation: Mandatory bargaining items are items in collective bargaining that a party must bargain over if they are introduced by the other party, such as employee security, shift differentials, profit-sharing plans, and drug testing. Voluntary bargaining items, such as indemnity bonds, become a part of negotiations only through the joint agreement of both management and union.

The unreliability of a test may be explained by all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) poor sampling of question material B) lack of equivalence between tests C) inconsistent testing conditions D) failure to predict job performance E) lack of internal consistency

Answer: D Explanation: Many things could cause a test to be unreliable. For example, the questions may do a poor job of sampling the material or there might be errors due to changes in the testing conditions. Poor internal consistency or a lack of equivalence between tests would also explain a test's unreliability. Validity rather than reliability refers to a test's ability to measure what is intended to be measured, such as job performance.

If a person scores a 70 on an intelligence test on one day and scores 110 when retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is ________. A) valid B) invalid C) reliable D) unreliable E) consistent

Answer: D Explanation: Reliability is a test's first requirement and refers to its consistency: A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions. If a person scores 70 on an intelligence test on a Monday and 110 when retested on Tuesday, you probably wouldn't have much faith in the test.

All of the following are measured by aptitude tests EXCEPT ________. A) deductive reasoning B) verbal comprehension C) numerical ability D) temperament E) memory

Answer: D Explanation: Temperament and other interpersonal skills are measured by personality tests. Aptitude tests measure deductive and inductive reasoning, verbal comprehension, numerical ability, and memory.

According to the American Psychological Association, all of the following are rights of test takers EXCEPT the right to expect ________. A) confidentiality of test results B) informed consent regarding the use of test results C) scores to be interpreted by qualified individuals D) tests to be the only selection tools for a job E) fairness of the test for all who take it

Answer: D Explanation: Tests should be used as supplements and not be the only selection tool. Under the American Psychological Association's (APA) standard for educational and psychological tests, test takers have the the right to the confidentiality of test results, the right to informed consent regarding use of these results, the right to expect that only people qualified to interpret the scores will have access to them, and the right to expect the test is fair to all.

According to the Landrum-Griffin Act, national and international unions must elect officers at least once every ________ years. A) two B) three C) four D) five E) six

Answer: D Explanation: The Landrum-Griffin Act laid out rules regarding union elections. For example, national and international unions must elect officers at least once every 5 years, using some type of secret-ballot mechanism.

The Taft-Hartley Act amended the Wagner Act in all of the following ways EXCEPT by ________. A) prohibiting unfair labor practices B) enumerating the rights of employers C) enumerating the rights of employees as union members D) limiting the power of the National Labor Review Board E) allowing the U.S. President to bar national emergency strikes

Answer: D Explanation: The Taft-Hartley Act did not alter the power of the NLRB. The law prohibited unfair labor practices, enumerated the rights of employers and employees, and allowed the President to bar national emergency strikes on a temporary basis.

The first step in the test validation process is ________. A) creating a test battery B) developing an expectancy chart C) administering tests D) analyzing the job E) cross-validating

Answer: D Explanation: The first step in validating a test is to analyze the job and write job descriptions and job specifications. The point is to specify the human traits and skills you believe are required for adequate job performance. Choosing tests and perhaps creating a test battery are part of the second step, which is followed by test administration. Relating test scores and criteria with an expectancy chart is the next step. Cross-validating is the final step in the process.

Which of the following terms refers to the formal process for addressing any factor involving wages, hours, or conditions of employment that is used as a complaint against the employer? A) negotiation B) collective bargaining C) court injunction D) grievance procedure E) arbitration method

Answer: D Explanation: The grievance procedure provides an orderly system whereby both employer and union determine whether some action violated the contract. The grievance process allows both parties to interpret and give meaning to various clauses, and transforms the contract into a "living organism."

________ is the process of legally terminating a union's right to represent employees. A) Union salting B) Featherbedding C) Certification D) Decertification E) Collective bargaining

Answer: D Explanation: The same law that grants employees the right to unionize also gives them a way to terminate legally their union's right to represent them. The process is called decertification.

According to research, which of the following variables has the greatest influence on NLRB elections? A) bargaining unit demographics B) employer tactics C) election background D) union tactics E) employer characteristics

Answer: D Explanation: The union's tactics explained "more of the variance in election outcomes than any other group of variables, including employer tactics, bargaining unit demographics, organizer background, election background, employer characteristics, and election environment."

Union authorization cards serve all of the following functions EXCEPT ________. A) authorizing a union election B) subjecting the employee to union rules C) stating that the employee has applied for membership D) enabling employers to modify employment conditions E) designating the union as a bargaining representative

Answer: D Explanation: Union authorization cards authorize the union to seek a representation election and designate the union as a bargaining representative. They state that the employee has applied to join the union and is subject to union rules. The cards do not permit employers to modify employment conditions.

If passed, the Employee Free Choice Act would ________. A) ban union membership for federal employees B) allow mass union e-mails at the work place C) allow the formation of global unions D) institute a card check system E) overturn the Wagner Act

Answer: D Explanation: Unions are pushing Congress to pass the Employee Free Choice Act. This would make it more difficult for employers to inhibit workers from organizing. Instead of secret-ballot elections, the act would institute a "card check" system. Here, the union would win recognition when a majority of workers signed authorization cards saying they want the union.

Which of the following situations would most likely improve a union's chances of winning a certification election at your firm? A) geographic area with low percentage of union workers B) high unemployment in the geographic area C) affiliation with the Teamsters union D) small bargaining units E) a large portion of workers voting

Answer: D Explanation: Unions have a higher probability of success in geographic areas with a higher percentage of union workers. High unemployment seems to lead to poorer results for the union. The larger the bargaining unit, the smaller the probability of union victory. The more workers vote, the less likely a union victory. The Teamsters union is less likely to win an election.

Which of the following best defines the preferential shop form of union security? A) A company can hire nonunion people, but they must then join the union. B) A company can hire only current union members. C) Employees who do not belong to the union must still pay dues. D) A company gives hiring advantages to union members. E) Union members must maintain membership for the contract period.

Answer: D Explanation: With preferential shop, union members receive preference in hiring. With the agency shop, employees who do not belong to the union still must pay the union an amount equal to union dues. Choice B describes the closed shop.

With the maintenance of membership arrangement of union security, how long must union members employed by a firm maintain union membership? A) until the union disbands B) until negotiations are over C) until there is a wage increase D) for the contract period E) for at least one year

Answer: D Explanation: With the maintenance of membership arrangement, employees do not have to belong to the union. However, union members employed by the firm must maintain membership in the union for the contract period.

For an employer to administer a polygraph exam during an ongoing investigation of theft, an employer must do all of the following EXCEPT ________. E) subject all employees with access to the property in question to the same polygraph examination as the accused employee

Answer: E

In which of the following situations is it NOT legal to require an applicant to take a polygraph test as part of the selection process? E) cashier at J.C. Penney's

Answer: E

Which of the following is an indirect method for predicting job performance during the selection process? E) intelligence tests

Answer: E

Which of the following is the primary advantage of using management assessment centers in the selection process? E) Peers are effectively able to predict the success of applicants.

Answer: E

Which of the following terms refers to training candidates to perform several of the job's tasks and then assessing the candidates' performance prior to hire? E) miniature job training

Answer: E

Which of the following terms refers to a strike that takes place when one union strikes in support of another union? A) wildcat strike B) economic strike C) unfair labor practices strike D) bargaining strike E) sympathy strike

Answer: E Explanation: A sympathy strike occurs when one union strikes in support of the strike of another union. A wildcat strike is an unauthorized strike occurring during the term of a contract.

When representatives of Ford's management and autoworkers union meet to negotiate a labor agreement, which of the following is most likely occurring? A) certification B) union salting C) featherbedding D) decertification E) collective bargaining

Answer: E Explanation: Collective bargaining is the process through which representatives of management and the union meet to negotiate a labor agreement.

Which of the following bans certain unfair labor practices and provides for majority rule and secret ballot elections? E) Wagner Act

Answer: E Explanation: Congress passed the National Labor Relations (or Wagner) Act to add teeth to Norris-LaGuardia. It did this by banning certain unfair labor practices and by providing for secret-ballot elections and majority rule for determining whether a firm's employees would unionize.

The process of cross-validating a test involves all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) using a new sample of employees B) administering additional tests C) assessing predictive validation D) evaluating the relationship between scores and performance E) developing and analyzing a scatter plot of scores versus performance

Answer: E Explanation: Cross-validating involves administering additional tests to a new sample of employees. This final step also requires an assessment of predictive validation and an evaluation of the relationship between scores and job performance. An expectancy chart might be developed but not a scatter plot.

Employers dealing with an unfair labor practice strike can use all of the following responses EXCEPT ________. A) shutting down the affected area until the strike ends B) contracting out work to other operations C) continuing operations with supervisors filling in D) hiring temporary replacement workers E) hiring permanent replacement workers

Answer: E Explanation: Employers cannot permanently replace strikers who are protesting unfair labor practices. However, Choices A, B, C, and D are options in such a situation.

Which of the following is a graph that shows the relationship between test scores and job performance for a group of people? A) performance standard B) job analysis chart C) digital dashboard D) competency model E) expectancy chart

Answer: E Explanation: If there is a correlation between test and job performance, you can develop an expectancy chart during the process of validating an employment test. An expectancy chart presents the relationship between test scores and job performance graphically.

Which of the following terms refers to an unfair labor practice in which a union requires an employer to pay an employee for services not performed? A) coercing B) padding C) ballooning D) inflating E) featherbedding

Answer: E Explanation: It is an unfair labor practice for a union to engage in featherbedding. Featherbedding involves requiring an employer to pay an employee for services not performed.

Which of the following is the most likely reason for the passage of the Taft-Hartley Act? A) pressure from AFL-CIO B) high unemployment rates C) significant economic boom D) major shifts in the workforce E) numerous union strikes

Answer: E Explanation: Largely because of a series of massive postwar strikes, public policy began to shift against what many viewed as union excesses. Passage of the Taft-Hartley Act occurred to limit the power of unions.

Negotiators use all of the following types of third-party interventions to overcome an impasse EXCEPT ________. A) binding arbitration B) nonbinding arbitration C) mediation D) fact finding E) picketing

Answer: E Explanation: Negotiators use three types of third-party interventions to overcome an impasse: mediation, fact finding, and arbitration. Arbitration may be either binding or nonbinding. Picketing is not a third-party intervention method.

Which personality characteristic refers to the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, and unconventional? A) agreeableness B) extroversion C) conscientiousness D) neuroticism E) openness to experience

Answer: E Explanation: Openness to experience is the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, unconventional, and autonomous. Agreeableness is the tendency to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle. Conscientiousness refers to achievement and dependability, and neuroticism relates to anxiety and insecurity.

House-Tree-Person and the Forer Structured Sentence Completion Test are examples of ________ tests. A) achievement B) intelligence C) apperception D) self-reported E) projective

Answer: E Explanation: Projective techniques include Make a Picture Story (MAPS), House-Tree-Person (H-T-P), and the Forer Structured Sentence Completion Test. With projective tests, the psychologist presents an ambiguous stimulus (like an inkblot or clouded picture) to the person who then reacts to it. Since the pictures are ambiguous, the person supposedly projects into the picture his or her attitudes.

Which law sought to protect union members from possible wrongdoing on the part of their unions? A) Norris-LaGuardia Act B) Taft-Hartley Act C) Civil Rights Act D) Wagner Act E) Landrum-Griffin Act

Answer: E Explanation: The Landrum-Griffin Act of 1959 was intended to protect union members from possible wrongdoing on the part of their unions.

Hyper-Tech Enterprises manufactures mechanical parts used in air conditioning and heating units. The company employs over 300 workers at its Alabama facility. None of the Hyper-Tech employees belong to a union; however, management believes that unionization is in the near future. A representative of a local union has recently visited Hyper-Tech in an attempt to solicit members and have them sign authorization cards. Enough eligible employees have signed authorization cards to petition the NLRB for an election. Hyper-Tech's top executives are considering fighting the unionization efforts. Which of the following, if true, supports the argument by the NLRB that Hyper-Tech has conducted unfair labor practices? A) Hyper-Tech managers prohibited union representatives from soliciting employees who were on duty. B) Hyper-Tech managers intervened when pro-union employees solicited other employees while both were on duty. C) Hyper-Tech managers barred nonemployee union representatives from entering the firm's building. D) Hyper-Tech managers prevented nonemployee union representatives from the parking lot for safety reasons. E) Hyper-Tech managers prohibited distribution of union literature in the company cafeteria.

Answer: E Explanation: The NLRB has ruled that the act of prohibiting distribution of the literature is an unfair labor practice. Most employers can bar nonemployees from the building's interiors and work areas as a right of private property owners. They can also sometimes bar nonemployees from exterior private areas—such as parking lots—if the reason is not just to interfere with union organizers.

In which human resource activity does a typical labor agreement NOT give the union a role? A) recruitment B) selection C) compensation D) dismissal E) appraisals

Answer: E Explanation: The typical labor agreement also gives the union a role in other human resource activities, including recruiting, selecting, compensating, promoting, training, and discharging employees. Unions typically play no role in performance appraisals.

The union becomes the employees' representative if it receives ________. A) a majority of the votes cast by stockholders B) a majority of the votes cast by the bargaining unit C) signed authorization cards from 30% of employees D) written approval from the employer E) a majority of the votes cast

Answer: E Explanation: The union becomes the employees' representative if it wins the election, and winning means getting a majority of the votes cast, not a majority of the total workers in the bargaining unit.

Which of the following best describes how to use a retest estimate to assess reliability? A) administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to effectively perform the job in question B) administer the same test to different people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1 C) administer different tests to a group of people and compare the range of collected test scores D) administer the same test to a group of people and compare the range of collected test scores E) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with their scores at time 1

Answer: E Explanation: There are several ways to estimate consistency or reliability. You could administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time, comparing their test scores at time two with their scores at time one; this would be a retest estimate.

For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests. Which of the following supports the argument that Golden Creamery should use a certified psychologist to develop preemployment tests? A) Golden Creamery needs to comply with all federal and state laws. B) Golden Creamery competitors use psychologists for test development. C) Golden Creamery strives to create a conscientious organizational culture. D) Golden Creamery employees either work part-time or on flexible schedules. E) Golden Creamery needs to ensure that tests are legally and ethically appropriate.

Answer: E Explanation: Using a psychologist to develop and validate tests will help Golden Creamery remain protected both legally and ethically. Firms are not required by law to use a psychologist for test development.

The Taft-Hartley Act prohibits all of the following union labor practices EXCEPT ________. A) requiring an employer to pay an employee for services not performed B) forcing an employer to fire a worker for failing to attend union meetings C) refusing to bargain in good faith with an employer about wages and hours D) restraining or coercing employees from exercising their guaranteed bargaining rights E) demanding an employer to fire a worker who fails to pay union dues in a closed shop

Answer: E Explanation: Where a closed or union shop prevails (and union membership is therefore a prerequisite to employment), the union may demand the discharge of someone who fails to pay his or her initiation fees and dues. Choices A, B, C, and D are considered unfair union labor practices under the Taft-Hartley Act.

According to studies, which of the following has the most influence on the outcome of a job interview? A) thank-you notes sent from the candidate to the interviewer B) an interviewer's first impression of the candidate C) a candidate's final comments during the interview D) favorable information about the candidate E) a candidate's extroverted personality

Consider the question: "Can you provide an example of a specific instance where you provided leadership in a difficult situation?" What type of question is this? A) background question B) behavioral question C) situational question D) job knowledge question E) descriptive question

Dr. Ross is interviewing for a position as Assistant Professor of Biology. His interview is conducted by a team of other faculty members in the department who interview him simultaneously and then combine their ratings into one score. This is an example of a ________ interview. A) serial B) panel C) sequential D) one-on-one E) mass

George Reyes has recently been hired as the vice president of marketing at Great Toys, a mid-size firm that specializes in classic wooden toys. The CEO of Great Toys wants to expand the firm's presence in the toy market, which is highly competitive. As a result, the marketing department's budget has been significantly increased. George plans to use some of the additional funds to hire a new media planner. George is considering the idea of conducting a structured situational interview in the hiring process. Which of the following most likely undermines the argument that George should use a structured situational interview to hire a media planner? A) The HR department prefers handling job evaluations without the assistance of managers. B) George and the HR manager lack the time required to participate in a lengthy interview process. C) George worked as a media planner at another firm and is familiar with the tasks involved in the job. D) Great Toys has used headhunters in the past to fill executive-level positions at the firm. E) Previous media planners at Great Toys have been hired through the streamlined interview process.

In a stress interview, the interviewer ________. A) provides an applicant with a task to complete in a set amount of time B) tries to make the applicant uncomfortable in order to spot sensitivity C) gives a word problem to see how the candidate thinks under pressure D) describes a hypothetical situation to assess how the applicant responds E) tries to assess an applicant's motivation and conscientiousness

In a structured situational interview, interview questions should primarily address ________. A) emergency situations B) essential job duties C) occupational benefits D) salary requirements E) personality issues

Managers who prepare for an interview using the streamlined interview process should focus on all of the following factors about a candidate EXCEPT ________. A) personality B) age and skills C) motivation D) intellectual capacity E) knowledge and experience

Marion Franklin is the CEO of a local real estate company, Action Realty. The community has seen an increase in population over the last two years, and new neighborhoods are being built as a result. Marion's staff of realtors is very busy, and Marion needs to hire a new agent. Although Marion has hired agents in the past, they have not always turned out to be as successful as she had hoped. Marion is considering using the streamlined interview process to hire a new real estate agent. Which of the following questions would be relevant for Marion to ask if personality is an important aspect of the realtor position? A) What career goals to you have for yourself? B) How do you handle the stress and pressure associated with real estate? C) What steps do you go through to determine the best price for a home? D) What is the difference between assessed value and appraised value? E) What do you like and dislike about selling real estate?

The primary advantage of computer-aided interviews is the ability to ________. A) identify personality traits appropriate for the industry B) reduce time spent with unacceptable candidates C) ask follow-up questions due to system flexibility D) form benchmarks for current firm employees E) assess a candidate's physical and motor skills

What type of interview would most likely include the statement, "Tell me about a time when you worked successfully in a team environment"? A) situational B) behavioral C) subjective D) puzzle E) stress

Which of the following is another term for an unstructured interview? A) directive B) nondirective C) unformatted D) standardized E) administrative

Which question below is an example of a behavioral question? A) "What would you do if you were asked a question during a sales presentation for which you did not know the answer?" B) "Can you tell me about a time when you solved a really difficult problem?" C) "What is your attitude about working with a sales team instead of independently?" D) "What factors do you consider before underwriting an insurance policy for a new client?" E) "What are your long-term goals and aspirations as a social worker?"

Which type of interview follows a performance appraisal and primarily addresses an employee's performance rating? A) selection B) appraisal C) exit D) directive E) structured

Which defense requires showing that there is an overriding company-related purpose for a discriminatory practice and that the practice is therefore acceptable? A) prima facie B) business necessity C) adverse impact D) mixed motive E) organizational preference

B Explanation: "Business necessity" is a defense created by the courts that requires showing that there is an overriding business purpose for the discriminatory practice and that the practice is therefore acceptable. It's not easy to prove business necessity because the Supreme Court made it clear that business necessity does not encompass such matters as avoiding an employer inconvenience, annoyance, or expense.

In regards to on-campus recruiting, which of the following is most likely to help sell the employer to the interviewee? A) recruiter's professional attire B) sincerity of the recruiter C) emphasis on the job location D) well-written job descriptions E) asking only a few questions

B Explanation: A recruiter who has a sincere and informal attitude, shows respect for the applicant, and sends a prompt follow-up letter is more likely to sell the firm to the interviewee than a recruiter who acts superior and is unprepared. Attire, job location, and job descriptions are less likely to have a major impact on an interviewee.

SB&A Consulting plans to do some college recruiting to fill entry-level management positions this year. Which of the following factors is most important for the firm to consider when deciding which colleges to visit? A) location B) reputation C) tuition and fees D) enrollment numbers E) student-teacher ratio

B Explanation: A school's reputation and the performance of previous hires from the school are the primary factors a firm should consider. A school's location, tuition fees, enrollment numbers, and student-teacher ratio are less important factors.

Counselors in state-run employment agencies conduct all of the following activities EXCEPT ________. A) reviewing employer job requirements B) filing employer tax reports C) visiting employer work sites D) writing job descriptions E) filling job positions

B Explanation: Although state-run employment agencies offer tax credit information to employers, they do not file tax reports. State employment agencies assist employers by helping them fill jobs and write job descriptions. Counselors also review job requirements and visit employer work sites.

Finding or attracting applicants for an employer's open positions is known as ________. A) succession planning B) employee recruiting C) personnel planning D) employee contracting E) job posting

B Explanation: Employee recruiting is the process of finding or attracting applicants for an employer's open positions. Recruiting involves building up an applicant pool by posting jobs and succession planning, which is the process of internally filling executive jobs.

The best way for employers to avoid improper applicant screening at private employment agencies is by ________. A) using non-profit agencies to locate advertise open jobs B) providing the agency with an accurate job description C) posting jobs on the firm's intranet and bulletin boards D) developing applicant screening software for internal hires E) sending HR experts to monitor the agency's activities

B Explanation: Employers can avoid improper applicant screening at private employment agencies by providing the agency with an accurate job description. Employers should also make sure that tests, applications, and interviews are part of the agency's selection process. The agency should be screened, but it would be costly and time consuming to have HR managers monitor the agency's activities.

Pamlico River Productions is seeking a top-level manager to oversee its finance division. Qualified candidates can be difficult to find, so the business would most likely benefit from using a(n) ________ to recruit potential candidates. A) state-run employment agency B) executive recruiter C) temporary agency D) Internet-based job site E) alternate staffing recruiter

B Explanation: Executive recruiters or headhunters are special employment agencies retained by employers seeking top executives. State-run agencies and temporary or alternative staffing would be less beneficial to a firm seeking a top executive. Although Internet sites are popular sources for finding employees, headhunters are more appropriate for filling top positions in a firm.

When constructing a job advertisement, all of the following are aspects of the AIDA guide EXCEPT ________. A) attracting attention to the ad B) implying long-term benefits C) creating desire for the job D) prompting applicant action E) developing interest in the job

B Explanation: Experienced advertisers use AIDA when constructing ads, which stands for attention, interest, desire, and action. An ad should attract attention, develop interest in the job, create desire for the job, and prompt readers to take action. Although benefits and salary may be mentioned in ads, implying long-term benefits is not an element of the AIDA guide.

Which of the following is most likely characteristic of a firm effectively implementing a diversity management program? A) Female and minority managers have high turnover rates. B) Female and minority employees have access to international job assignments. C) Female and minority employees report directly to low-level managers. D) Diversity training requirements are only completed by minority and female workers. E) Voluntary mediation occurs frequently among female and minority workers.

B Explanation: In firms with diversity management programs that are successful, female and minority workers would have the same access to international job assignments as white, male employees. Minorities would also report directly to senior management rather than low-level managers, and they would have low turnover rates.

Which of the following is typically responsible for paying the fees charged by a private employment agency when an applicant is placed in a job? A) U.S. Department of Labor B) employers C) employees D) state employment commissions E) independent recruiters

B Explanation: In most situations, employers pay the fees charged by private employment agencies. Private employment agencies are important sources for clerical, white-collar, and managerial personnel, and their fees are set by state law.

Mandatory alternative dispute resolution agreements require ________. A) disgruntled employees to contact the local EEOC office prior to filing formal complaints B) applicants to agree to arbitrate certain legal disputes related to employment or dismissal C) applicants to take unpaid leaves of absence during employment disputes D) employees to meet with human resources officials prior to submitting a resignation E) applicants to agree that they will accept decisions handed down by federal appellate courts

B Explanation: Many employers, cognizant of the high costs of employment litigation, require applicants to agree in writing to mandatory arbitration should a dispute arise. Different federal courts have taken different positions on the enforceability of these "mandatory alternative dispute resolution" clauses.

Newton Building Supplies hopes to generate an extra $4 million in sales next year. A salesperson traditionally generates $800,000 in sales each year. Using ratio analysis, how many new salespeople should Newton hire? A) 2 B) 5 C) 10 D) 15 E) 20

B Explanation: Ratio analysis is used to make a forecast in this case based on the number of salespeople and sales volume. $4 million in sales divided by the $800,000 generated by each salesperson indicates that 5 extra salespeople should be hired by Newton.

Marie Boyd has been hired by Barnum Hotels to manage staffing for the regional hotel chain. Barnum intends to open two new hotels within the next three years and will have many job positions to fill. Historically, employee turnover is high at Barnum as employees remain with the company for one or two years before quitting. Marie realizes that Barnum needs to make significant changes in its personnel strategy in order to meet the company's goals for the future and improve employee retention rates. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that a scatter plot is the most appropriate tool for Marie to use in estimating future personnel needs? A) Productivity levels for Barnum employees typically vary from month to month. B) The size of the two new Barnum hotels will be similar to the chain's other hotels. C) Barnum requires HR to maintain qualifications inventories for all current employees. D) Personnel replacement charts serve as useful tools when filling Barnum's managerial positions. E) Barnum's marketing department will develop a new promotional campaign about the new hotels.

B Explanation: Scatter plots graphically show how two variables are related, such as hotel size and staffing levels. Marie should be able to estimate personnel needs if the new hotels are the same size as current ones. Productivity levels, qualifications inventories, replacement charts, and marketing are less important factors.

The process of deciding how to fill executive positions at a firm is known as ________. A) internal recruiting B) succession planning C) long-term forecasting D) advanced interviewing E) candidate testing

B Explanation: Succession planning refers to the process of deciding how to fill executive positions at a firm. The process is also known as employment or personnel planning, although most firms use the term succession planning when determining how to fill top management positions.

The EEOC describes a(n) ________ as an informal process in which a neutral third party assists the opposing parties to reach a voluntary, negotiated resolution of a charge of discrimination. A) fact-finding conference B) voluntary mediation C) voluntary negotiation D) mandatory arbitration E) alternative dispute resolution

B Explanation: The EEOC refers about 10% of its charges to a voluntary mediation mechanism. This is "an informal process in which a neutral third party assists the opposing parties to reach a voluntary, negotiated resolution of a charge of discrimination."

Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using internal sources of candidates to fill vacant positions in a firm? A) lack of knowledge regarding a candidate's strengths B) potential to lose employees who aren't promoted C) costs associated with transferring employees D) questionable commitment of candidates to the firm E) significant training and orientation requirements

B Explanation: The primary disadvantage of hiring from within is the potential of losing employees who are not promoted. Employees who apply for jobs and don't get them may become discontented. Advantages of hiring internally include the depth of knowledge the employer has about the candidate, the minimal amount of training and orientation required, and the likelihood that the candidate is committed to the firm.

All of the following are common concerns that have been expressed to researchers by temporary employees EXCEPT ________. A) feeling angry towards the corporate world B) being in compliance with equal employment laws C) feeling insecure about their employment situation D) worrying about the lack of insurance benefits E) being treated by employers in an impersonal manner

B Explanation: When working with temporary agencies, managers need to ensure that they have a document from the agency stating that filling temp orders is not discriminating. However, this is not a concern felt among temporary workers. Temp workers have shown to be primarily concerned about their lack of insurance benefits and the way they are treated by managers and permanent staff. Temp worker often feel angry towards the corporate world and insecure about their employment situation because most of them want full-time positions.

Which of the following refers to an error of judgment on the part of the interviewer due to interviewing one or more very good or very bad candidates just before the interview in question? A) context error B) contrast error C) order error D) recency error E) primacy error

B affects how you rate them. An interviewer is more likely to rate a candidate incorrectly based on the candidates that are interviewed just before.

________ means collecting data about a group, department, or organization, and feeding the information back to the employees so they can analyze it and develop hypotheses about what the problems might be. A) Laboratory training B) Action research C) Group therapy D) Diversity training

B) Action research

The ________ provides that a person who commits a crime of violence motivated by gender shall be liable to the party injured.

B) Federal Violence Against Women Act of 1994

Mark Caffrey, vice president of sales at Samson Pharmaceuticals, manages a sales team of ten employees. Members of Mark's sales force vary in experience level. Four members of the sales team have worked at Samson for less than one year. The other six salespeople have been with Samson anywhere from three to seven years. Mark recently received the annual sales report and noticed that sales have been dropping steadily over the last year. Mark is considering the idea of providing training to his sales team as a way to boost sales. Which of the following most likely undermines the argument that the drop in Samson's sales can be solved through training? A) The newest members of the Samson sales force are unfamiliar with the procedures used by the firm to measure the effectiveness of new drugs. B) Samson recently eliminated its long-standing policy of paying salespeople commissions on top of base salaries, which angered employees. C) Samson's most experienced salesperson retired after working at the firm for more than twenty years. D) Samson sales team members recently received their annual performance appraisals

B) Samson recently eliminated its long-standing policy of paying salespeople commissions on top of base salaries, which angered employees.

________ is a detailed study of the job to determine what specific skills the job requires. A) Needs analysis B) Task analysis C) Training strategy D) Development planning

B) Task analysis

B) The job requirements for pilots at Western Airlines are a business necessity due to the human risks associated with hiring unqualified applicants.

The ________ requires certain federal contractors to take affirmative action for disabled persons.

B) Vocational Rehabilitation Act

B) What percentage of employers in the service industry use succession planning?

Which of the following enables management trainees to work full-time analyzing and solving problems in other departments? A) management games B) action learning C) role playing D) job rotation

B) action learning

Under the principles established by Griggs v. Duke Power Company, ________ can be used as a defense for any existing program that has adverse impact.

B) business necessity

Which type of union security was outlawed in 1947?

B) closed shop

A graphic model that presents a precise overview of the knowledge, skills, and behaviors someone would need to perform a job well is known as a(n) ________. A) scatter plot B) competency model C) classification table D) organizational chart

B) competency model

B) creating training materials

B) electronic performance support system

All of the following are ways that an employee or job applicant can show adverse impact EXCEPT ________.

B) holding a fact-finding conference

Which of the following is NOT a tool used by firms to recruit outside candidates?

B) intranet job postings

John is doing is doing a training method to learn a new job where there are sequence of steps he is supposed to learn step-by-step. This method is called: A) task analysis B) job instruction training (JIT) C) informal learning D) job rotation

B) job instruction training (JIT)

B) mobilizing commitment

B) negligent training

B) programmed learning

One of the earliest unions in the United States, the Knights of Labor, was formed by a group of ________.

B) tailors

B) task analysis record form

The methods used to give new or present employees the skills they need to perform their jobs are called ________. A) orientation B) training C) development D) management

B) training

Kevin is interviewing for a position as a public relations specialist in a communications firm. He first meets with the HR manager. Afterwards, he meets with the department manager. Finally, he meets with the company president. Kevin is most likely experiencing a ________ interview. A) board B) panel C) serial D) mass E) team

Marion Franklin is the CEO of a local real estate company, Action Realty. The community has seen an increase in population over the last two years, and new neighborhoods are being built as a result. Marion's staff of realtors is very busy, and Marion needs to hire a new agent. Although Marion has hired agents in the past, they have not always turned out to be as successful as she had hoped. Marion is considering using the streamlined interview process to hire a new real estate agent. Which of the following questions would be relevant for Marion to ask if she wants an employee with extensive knowledge in real estate? A) What did you enjoy most about your last job at a commercial real estate firm? B) How do you handle sellers who believe their home is more valuable than it really is? C) What are the loan options you would suggest for first-time home buyers? D) What is the most frustrating aspect of being a realtor? E) What motivated you to become a real estate agent?

What is the best way to avoid most interview errors? A) conduct panel interviews B) conduct Web-based interviews C) use a structured interviewing format D) utilize computerized interviewing technology E) ask only situational questions during the interview

When an interview is used to predict future job performance on the basis of an applicant's oral responses to oral inquiries, it is called a(n) ________ interview. A) verbal B) group C) selection D) benchmark E) background

When developing a structured situational interview, the first step in the process is to ________. A) rate the job's main duties B) create interview questions C) write a job description D) create benchmark answers E) appoint the interview panel

When interviewing an applicant with a disability who uses assistive technology, which of the following questions should NOT be asked? A) Have you ever experienced any problems between your technology and an employer's information system? B) How have you addressed any barriers or obstacles that you may have encountered in previous jobs? C) What is the severity and exact nature of your disability and how does the technology assist you? D) What specific technology have you successfully used in previous jobs that facilitated your work? E) Are there any transportation or scheduling issues you anticipate with the work schedule expected in this position?

Which of the following best explains why most firms do not provide rejected applicants with detailed explanations about the employment decision? A) lack of technical abilities B) adherence to federal laws C) concerns about legal disputes D) time required of line managers E) associated costs of mailing letters

Which of the following is the most likely outcome of using the same questions with all candidates being interviewed? A) favorable responses B) weaknesses revealed C) reduction of bias D) expression of interest E) limited reliability

Which of the following refers to a procedure designed to obtain information from a person through oral responses to oral inquiries? A) work sample simulation B) writing test C) interview D) reference check E) arbitration

Which of the following statements is representative of what might be asked in a situational interview? A) "Tell me about a time you showed leadership in a difficult situation." B) "How have you handled ethical dilemmas in the past?" C) "Suppose you were confronted with an angry customer who threatened to sue the company. What would you do?" D) "Can you think of a time when you were especially proud of your management skills? Tell me about that." E) "In this position, you are responsible for hiring and firing subordinates. Have you ever fired anyone before? Describe how you handled the situation."

Which of the following terms refers to individuals asked by the EEOC to apply for employment which they do not intend to accept, for the sole purpose of uncovering unlawful discriminatory hiring practices? A) spies B) moles C) testers D) insiders E) graders

A ________ is used to calculate the number of applicants a firm must generate to hire the required number of new employees. A) trend analysis B) ratio analysis C) recruiting yield pyramid D) scatter plot E) log function matrix

C Explanation: A recruiting yield pyramid is used by employers to calculate the number of applicants a firm must generate in order to hire the required number of new employees. A recruiting yield pyramid is the historical arithmetic relationships between recruitment leads and invitees, invitees and interviews, interviews and offers made, and offers made and offers accepted.

For most firms, which of the following is the most effective source for recruiting new hires? A) college recruiting B) regional career fairs C) employee referral programs D) newspaper advertisements E) contingency recruiters

C Explanation: Although Internet job boards are the best source for new hires, employee referral programs are also highly effective. College recruiting, career fairs, ads, and contingency recruiters lead to less new hires than employee referral programs.

Which of the following enhances the security of a firm's database management system by specifying the type of information that a user can obtain? A) file-sharing B) search engine C) access matrix D) main server E) intranet

C Explanation: An access matrix can be incorporated into a firm's database management system to make it difficult for people to gain unauthorized access of personnel files. An access matrix defines the rights of users to various kinds of access, such as "read only" or "write only" to each database element.

Which of the following refers to an informal meeting held early in an EEOC enforcement investigation that attempts to define issues and determine if settlement is possible? A) codetermination B) voluntary mediation C) fact-finding conference D) collective bargaining E) mandatory arbitration

C Explanation: Early in the investigation, the EEOC holds an initial fact-finding conference. The EEOC calls these "informal meetings" for defining issues and determining whether there's a basis for negotiation. However, the EEOC's real focus here is often on settlement. Its investigators use the conferences to find weak spots in each party's position, which are used to push for a settlement.

Employers primarily use bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ) as a defense against charges of discrimination based on ________. A) sexual orientation B) religion C) age D) gender E) nationality

C Explanation: Employers use BFOQ mostly as a defense against charges of intentional discrimination based on age. However, Title VII provides that "it should not be an unlawful employment practice for an employer to hire an employee . . . on the basis of religion, sex, or national origin in those certain instances where religion, sex, or national origin is a bona fide occupational qualification reasonably necessary to the normal operation of that particular business or enterprise."

Which of the following has improved the ability of executive recruiters to find potential candidates? A) electronic performance support systems B) mobility premiums C) Internet-based databases D) corporate intranets E) broadbanding

C Explanation: Internet-based databases have dramatically sped up searches for potential candidates and enabled executive recruiters to fill positions more quickly. The primary challenge for headhunters has been finding qualified candidates, and technology has improved the searching ability of recruiters.

Which of the following is a service that provides short-term specialized recruiting to support specific projects without the expense of retaining traditional search firms? A) top-executive searches B) contingent-based searches C) on-demand recruiting services D) just-in-time recruiting services E) ad hoc recruiting services

C Explanation: On-demand recruiting services (ODRS) provide short-term specialized recruiting to support specific projects without the expense of retaining traditional search firms. These recruiters are paid by the hour or project instead of a percentage fee.

All of the following terms are used to describe the contingent workforce of an organization EXCEPT ________. A) seasonal employees B) part-time employees C) collateral workers D) temporary workers E) just-in-time workers

C Explanation: Part-time workers, just-in-time workers, seasonal employees, and temporary employees are all part of the contingent workforce in a firm. Employers often supplement their permanent workforce by hiring contingent or temporary workers.

Marcus, an HR manager for Samsung, must decide what positions the firm should fill in the next six months., which means Marcus is currently working on ________. A) employee contracting B) screening job candidates C) personnel planning D) interviewing job candidates E) writing job descriptions

C Explanation: Personnel or employment planning is the process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill and how to fill them. The process considers all future positions from maintenance workers to executives, and flows from the firm's strategic plans.

Which of the following contains data regarding employees' education, career development, and special skills and is used by managers when selecting inside candidates for promotion? A) computerized forecasting tools B) replacement charts C) qualifications inventories D) trend records E) personnel files

C Explanation: Qualifications or skills inventories are used by managers when determining which employees should be promoted or transferred. A skills inventory contains data on employees' performance records, educational background, and promotability.

Which of the following motivates most employees over 65 to work? A) overtime payments B) promotion opportunities C) schedule flexibility D) supportive work environments E) additional sick days

C Explanation: Schedule flexibility is the primary motivation for employees over age 65. Older employees want flexible and often abbreviated work schedules, and many only want to work part time. Overtime, promotions, sick days, and supportive work environments are less important factors than flexibility.

When managers need to determine which employees are available for promotion or transfer, they will most likely use ________. A) organizational charts B) scatter plots C) skills inventories D) estimated sales trends E) personnel forecasts

C Explanation: Skills inventories are manual or computerized records listing employees' education, career and development interests, languages, and special skills. They are used in selecting inside candidates for promotion or transfer.

The ________ run by the U.S. Department of Labor enables public employment agency counselors to advise applicants about local and national job openings. A) U.S. Career Center B) American Job Network C) National Job Bank D) National Employment Agency E) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

C Explanation: The National Job Bank maintains a nationwide computerized job bank that enables public employment agency counselors to advise applicants about local and national job openings. The EEOC is a government agency responsible for enforcing federal hiring laws.

Which of the following involves comparing the percentage of the minority/protected group and white workers in an organization with the percentage of the corresponding group in the labor market? A) personnel population comparison approach B) restricted policy comparison method C) population comparisons approach D) McDonnell-Douglas test E) BFOQ method

C Explanation: The population comparisons approach compares (1) the percentage of Hispanic (or black or other minority/protected group) and white workers in the organization with (2) the percentage of the corresponding group in the labor market. The EEOC usually defines labor market as the U.S. Census data for that Standard Metropolitan Statistical Area.

Surveys estimate that as much as X% of what employees learn on the job they learn through informal means. A) 10% B) 50% C) 80% D) 95%

C) 80%

Which of the following does NOT participate in the issuance of uniform guidelines?

C) Better Business Bureau

________ exists when an employer treats an individual differently because that individual is a member of a particular race, religion, gender, or ethnic group.

C) Disparate treatment

Which of the following best explains why employers win the majority of ADA cases?

C) Employees fail to prove that they are disabled yet qualified to perform a job.

Which Supreme Court case was used to define unfair discrimination in conjunction with EEO laws?

C) Griggs v. Duke Power Company

________ is an approach to organizational change in which the employees formulate the change that's required and implement it. A) Action research B) Succession planning C) Organizational development D) Participative talent management

C) Organizational development

C) Trainees benefit from a skilled coach.

What is the first step in the ADDIE training process? A) assessing the program's successes B) appraising the program's budget C) analyzing the training need D) acquiring training materials

C) analyzing the training need

C) apprenticeship training

C) appropriate for large groups

What is the purpose of an applicant tracking system?

C) assisting employers in attracting screening, and managing applicants

C) assisting new employees in selecting the best labor union

All of the following are on-the-job training methods used for managerial positions EXCEPT ________. A) job rotation B) action learning C) case study method D) understudy approach

C) case study method

C) coaching method

C) controlled experimentation

C) designing the overall training program

On Alicia's first day of work at a software firm, she attended a meeting with the HR manager and other new employees. Alicia learned about employee benefits packages, personnel policies, and the structure of the company. In which of the following did Alicia most likely participate? A) recruitment B) selection C) employee orientation D) employee development

C) employee orientation

Under the Civil Rights Act of 1991, once a plaintiff shows disparate impact, who has the burden of proving that the challenged practice is job related?

C) employer

C) facilitating flexible job assignments

One of Alexis' male co-workers has been making sexually suggestive comments to Alexis about her clothing and her appearance, which makes Alexis feel uncomfortable at work. What is the first step Alexis should take to address the problem?

C) filing a verbal complaint with the harasser's boss

Which of the following factors is NOT an acceptable basis for different pay for equal work under the Equal Pay Act of 1963?

C) gender

What is the first step in succession planning?

C) identifying and analyzing key jobs

All of the following are characteristics of most interactive training programs, such as simulations, EXCEPT ________. A) mastery of learning B) responsive feedback C) increased learning time D) increased retention rate

C) increased learning time

C) key points or guidelines

C) management development

Which of the following training methods is most frequently used by employers? A) job instruction training B) apprenticeship training C) on-the-job training D) classroom training

C) on-the-job training

The on-the-job method of ________ involves give lower-level executives firsthand experience in working on actual problems. A) coaching B) informal learning C) special assignments D) programmed learning

C) special assignments

The ongoing process of systematically identifying, assessing, and developing organizational leadership to enhance performance is known as ________.

C) succession planning

Amy, an accounting supervisor, has been asked to provide training for her subordinates about new tax laws. In order to motivate the individuals who attend her training session, Amy should most likely do all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) use as many visual aids as possible during the session B) provide an overview of the material to be covered C) use new terminology and technical concepts D) give information in logical, meaningful sections

C) use new terminology and technical concepts

C) watching the audience's body language

According to research studies, which of the following characteristics is typically viewed LEAST favorably by interviewers? A) high-eye-contact B) physical attractiveness C) extroverted behavior D) low voice modulation E) male gender

After creating questions for a structured situational interview, ________ need to be developed for scoring purposes. A) grade definitions B) alternative rankings C) process charts D) benchmark answers E) human resource metrics

All of the following will most likely improve the structure of an interview EXCEPT ________. A) using the same questions for all candidates B) rating candidate answers against a scale C) basing questions on actual job duties D) asking candidates to describe themselves E) using a standardized interview form

Consider the question: "What factors should be considered when developing a customer database?" What type of question is this? A) background question B) past behavior question C) situational question D) job knowledge question E) structured question

Managers using the streamlined interview process should first ________. A) ask questions about significant areas in a candidate's life B) devise a plan for the interview C) probe specific factors during the interview D) prepare for the interview E) match the candidate to the job

Situational questions like "How would you organize a promotional event?" seek information regarding a candidate's ________ factor. A) motivation B) intellectual C) personality D) knowledge E) leadership

What is the second step of the streamlined interview process? A) writing a job description B) conducting the interview C) conducting a job analysis D) developing interview questions E) matching the candidate to the job

Which of the following is an advantage of using a nondirective format when interviewing job candidates? A) provides benefits information B) allows candidates to ask questions C) uses a manager's time more effectively D) pursues points of interest as they develop E) scores and compares candidates with consistency

Which of the following is most likely an example of a discriminatory selection standard? A) measuring a software designer applicant's knowledge about a computer language B) requiring a high school teacher applicant to have a four-year college degree C) collecting work history information from a managerial applicant D) requiring engineer applicants to meet specific height standards E) asking prison guard applicants to reveal their arrest records

Which of the following is NOT information that should be requested on application forms? A) work history B) experience C) technical skills D) marital status E) training

D Explanation: According to EEO law, application forms should not request information about an applicant's marital status. Asking about an applicant's work history, experience, training, and skills is considered acceptable.

Which of the following terms refers to the use of nontraditional recruitment sources? A) negligent hiring B) personnel planning C) human resource management D) alternative staffing E) organizational development

D Explanation: Alternative staffing refers to the use of nontraditional recruitment sources. Alternative staffing examples include in-house temporary employees, contract technical employees, outsourcing, and offshoring.

When using either a trend analysis or a ratio analysis, it is assumed that ________ will remain the same. A) staffing levels B) currency rates C) economic forecasts D) productivity levels E) recruitment plans

D Explanation: Both a trend analysis and a ratio analysis assume that productivity remains about the same. For example, when using a ratio analysis, an assumption is made that you cannot motivate a salesperson to produce more than he or she has sold in the past. With a trend analysis, historical productivity trends are used and are the basis for predicting the future.

Marie Boyd has been hired by Barnum Hotels to manage staffing for the regional hotel chain. Barnum intends to open two new hotels within the next three years and will have many job positions to fill. Historically, employee turnover is high at Barnum as employees remain with the company for one or two years before quitting. Marie realizes that Barnum needs to make significant changes in its personnel strategy in order to meet the company's goals for the future and improve employee retention rates. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that Marie should implement a computerized skills inventory database? A) Barnum offers its employees the opportunities to participate in job rotation and job expansion experiences. B) Barnum primarily recruits for management trainee positions at college campuses and through online job boards. C) Barnum's recruiting yield pyramid indicates that the firm should generate 1,000 leads in order to fill 100 positions. D) Barnum executives would like to transfer the firm's most qualified employees to the new hotels to fill supervisory positions. E) HR managers at Barnum frequently receive discrimination complaints that must be investigated by the EEOC.

D Explanation: Computerized skills inventory databases provide firms with easy access to information about all employees. If Barnum wants to hire internally, then a database would provide the skills inventory needed to determine the most qualified candidates to staff the new hotels. Recruiting, job rotation, and discrimination claims are less relevant to implementing a computerized skills inventory database.

A firm's ________ should guide employment planning and determine the types of skills and competencies the firm needs. A) job analysis B) organization chart C) marketing plan D) strategic plan E) recruitment process

D Explanation: Employment planning should flow from the firm's strategic plans. For example, plans to enter new businesses or reduce costs all influence the types of positions a firm will need to fill or eliminate.

________ are special employment agencies retained by employers to seek out top management talent for their clients. A) State-run employment agencies B) Private employment agencies C) Temporary agencies D) Executive recruiters E) Job banks

D Explanation: Executive recruiters, or headhunters, are special employment agencies retained by employers to seek out top management talent for their clients. State-run, employment agencies, private employment agencies, and temporary agencies are less likely to be used by firms seeking top executives.

The formula used by federal agencies to determine disparate rejection rates is based on a selection rate for any racial, ethnic, or sex group less than ________ percent of the rate for the group with the highest rate. A) 25 B) 50 C) 75 D) 80 E) 100

D Explanation: Federal agencies use a "4/5ths rule" to assess disparate rejection rates: "A selection rate for any racial, ethnic, or sex group which is less than four-fifths or 80% of the rate for the group with the highest rate will generally be regarded as evidence of adverse impact, while a greater than four-fifths rate will generally not be regarded as evidence of adverse impact."

Smith Industries has set a goal of recruiting minority applicants. Which of the following methods is LEAST likely to be successful for Smith Industries? A) implementing employee referral campaigns B) offering flexible work schedules C) providing flexible benefits plans D) utilizing executive recruiters E) collaborating with professional organizations

D Explanation: Firms that provide flexible work schedules and benefits plans are more likely to attract minority workers, especially women. Collaborating with professional organizations, such as the National Society of Hispanic MBAs will also improve the chances of hiring minorities. Executive recruiters are the least likely method for attracting minorities.

Jessica Garza is a manager at a large retail store. Currently, Jessica has four temporary workers under her supervision that a local staffing agency has provided. In which of the following tasks should Jessica become directly involved? A) negotiating the pay rate of a temporary worker B) discussing job opportunities with a temporary worker C) discussing harassment issues with a temporary worker D) answering task-related questions posed by a temporary worker E) terminating a temporary worker directly

D Explanation: For legal purposes, companies should treat temporary employees as if the temp agency is the worker's employer. Managers should let the temp agency handle matters such as pay, harassment, and termination. A manager who thinks a temp worker might be suitable for a permanent position should refer the worker to publicly available job postings. However, answering questions is not problematic as long as the manager is not training the worker.

Which of the following is used by lawyers in disparate impact cases to show intentional disparate treatment? A) disparate rejection rates B) restricted policy approach C) population comparisons D) McDonnell-Douglas test E) 4/5ths rule

D Explanation: Lawyers in disparate impact cases use disparate rejection rates, restricted policy approaches, and population comparisons to test whether an employer's policies or actions have the effect of unintentionally screening out disproportionate numbers of women or minorities. Lawyers use the McDonnell-Douglas test for showing (intentional) disparate treatment, rather than (unintentional) disparate impact. The 4/5ths rule is used to assess disparate rejection rates

An employer will most likely use a private employment agency in order to ________. A) reach unemployed individuals B) receive assistance writing job ads C) adhere to federal hiring practices D) fill a specific job opening quickly E) spend more time recruiting applicants

D Explanation: One of the main reasons an employer uses a private employment agency is to fill a specific job opening quickly. Other reasons include spending less time recruiting and reaching currently employed individuals who might feel more comfortable dealing with an agency than a competing firm.

Which of the following is a recommended method for HR departments to protect employee data? A) hiring temporary employees to manage personal employment information B) requiring HR data access through peer-to-peer file-sharing applications C) retaining written rather than computerized personnel files D) performing random background checks on employees with HR database access E) providing full database access to employee files only through a firm's intranet

D Explanation: Random background and drug tests is recommended to screen out potential identity thieves, especially on employees with access to personal information. Firms are advised against hiring temporary employees but to use trusted workers at all times when dealing with personnel information. Access to employee files should be limited since intruders can strike from both inside and outside a firm.

All of the following are advantages of a firm recruiting through a central office EXCEPT ________. A) reducing the duplication of efforts B) implementing company-wide strategic priorities C) ensuring EEO compliance among recruiters D) developing autonomous divisions and Web sites E) simplifying the recruiting process

D Explanation: Recruitment through a central office is beneficial for a number of reasons, such as the reduction of duplicated efforts and the simplification of the process for both employers and employees. Having a central office also makes it easier to ensure that recruiters who understand EEO law are involved in recruiting. A central office enables a firm to apply its strategic priorities on a company-wide basis. Firm Web sites provide central locations for recruitment and they eliminate the need for autonomous recruiting divisions.

In 2006, which of the following became a major focus for the EEOC? A) age discrimination cases B) voluntary mediation C) grievance procedures D) cases of systemic discrimination E) diversity management programs

D Explanation: The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission voted unanimously in 2006 to focus more on big,"systemic" cases, those that reflect a pattern or practice of alleged discrimination. Its systemic cases task force recently issued specific recommendations the EEOC can use to uncover and remedy systemic discrimination.

Which of the following best explains why firms are using temporary workers more frequently? A) low cost when hired through agencies B) workers' desires for flexible schedules C) high cost of workers' compensation insurance D) need of businesses to increase productivity E) desire of businesses to avoid paying overtime

D Explanation: The desire and need among firms to increase productivity contributes to the growing popularity of temporary workers. Productivity is measured in terms of output per hour paid for, and temps are only paid when they are working. However, temps cost employees more than permanent workers because temp agencies receive a fee.

The fastest growing labor force segment in the United States over the next few years will be those from ________ years old. A) 18-22 B) 23-29 C) 30-44 D) 45-64 E) 65+

D Explanation: The fastest-growing segment of the U.S. labor force in the next few years will be among workers 45-64 years old. Workers between 25-34 will decline by almost 3 million.

Which of the following is the primary advantage of college recruiting? A) minimal preparation required B) flexible, short-term interview schedule C) inexpensive method of screening applicants D) access to a source of management trainees E) opportunity to keep firm's identity confidential

D Explanation: The primary advantage of college recruiting is the extensive source of management trainees and professional and technical employees. Disadvantages include the fact that on-campus recruiting is both expensive and time-consuming because schedules must be planned far in advance and company brochures must be printed.

Which of the following tests for adverse impact and involves demonstrating that the employer's policy either intentionally or unintentionally excludes members of a protected group? A) McDonnell-Douglas test B) BFOQ approach C) systemic method D) restricted policy E) prima facie

D Explanation: The restricted policy approach means demonstrating that the employer's policy intentionally or unintentionally excluded members of a protected group. Lawyers use the McDonnell-Douglas test for showing (intentional) disparate treatment, rather than (unintentional) disparate impact.

Which of the following would be the best option for a business that needs to attract local applicants for hourly jobs? A) employee referral campaigns B) on-demand recruiting services C) college recruiting D) walk-ins E) headhunters

D Explanation: Walk-ins, which are direct applications made at an office, are a major source of hourly workers. Companies that post "Help Wanted" signs are able to cost-effectively attract many local applicants. Employee referral campaigns do not necessarily attract local applicants, and they typically cost $400-$900 per hire, which makes them an unlikely method for hiring hourly workers.

The application requirements for Western Airlines pilot positions require candidates to have logged at least 200 hours piloting an aircraft within the previous 36 months. In addition, applicants must have 2,500 hours of experience in the air with at least 1,000 hours as the commanding pilot of a commercial airplane. A four-year college degree is also required. Jeff Sanchez, who is Hispanic, applied for a position as a pilot and was rejected because he has a degree from a 2-year college and only 2,000 hours of flight experience. Jeff is suing Western Airlines for discriminatory hiring practices. Which of the following, if true, best supports Western Airlines' defense? A) At Western Airlines, turnover is high among minority employees working as pilots and flight attendants. B) Recent experiences with college recruiting have led Western Airlines to increase the percentage of its minority pilots. C) Job capability as a Western Airlines pilot depends most heavily on age, gender, and previous job experiences. D) The total number of hours spent flying a commercial airline is a valid predictor of performance for most Western Airlines pilots. E) Western Airlines bases its selection tests and hiring practices on industry guidelines for commercial pilots.

D Explanation: Western Airlines' best defense involves proving that its selection tests or other employment practices are valid predictors of performance on the job. Where the employer can establish such validity, the courts have generally supported using the test or other employment practice as a business necessity. In this example, the number of flight hours is a predictor of job performance. Turnover, recruiting, age, gender, and industry guidelines are less important factors.

Ellen is interviewing along with several other talented candidates for a position as a journalist at a newspaper. A team of interviewers will meet with all the candidates at once. The team will pose problems to the candidates and see which candidate takes the lead in formulating an answer. This is most likely an example of a ________ interview. A) serial B) sequential C) board D) mass E) panel

D of interviewers, who together interview each candidate and then combine their ratings into a final panel score. A sequential or serial interview occurs when several interviewers assess a single candidate one-on-one, sequentially.

Paul is a 49-year-old American of Anglo-Saxon descent. What legislation is most likely intended to protect Paul from discrimination?

D) Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1963

D) Diversity training

Mark Caffrey, vice president of sales at Samson Pharmaceuticals, manages a sales team of ten employees. Members of Mark's sales force vary in experience level. Four members of the sales team have worked at Samson for less than one year. The other six salespeople have been with Samson anywhere from three to seven years. Mark recently received the annual sales report and noticed that sales have been dropping steadily over the last year. Mark is considering the idea of providing training to his sales team as a way to boost sales. Which of the following best supports the argument that the drop in Samson's sales can be solved through training? A) Attitude surveys sent to Samson personnel suggest that the firm's elimination of year-end bonuses has angered many employees. B) Recent studies suggest that sales of name-brand pharmaceuticals, such as Samson, are dropping as more people are choosing to use generic drugs instead. C) The rising costs associated with college recruiting have forced Samson to hire sales associates through online job sites. D) Members of the sales team have expressed that they do not fully understand the benefits and side effects of the latest medications released by Samson.

D) Members of the sales team have expressed that they do not fully understand the benefits and side effects of the latest medications released by Samson

Which of the following refers to the overall effect of employer practices that result in significantly higher percentages of members of protected groups being rejected for employment, placement, or promotion?

D) adverse impact

D) conducting a work sampling

Which of the following best explains why employers frequently use Internet recruiting methods to find outside candidates for jobs?

D) cost effectiveness

John is currently being trained on the job and is at the first step in the OTJ process, which is: A) showing the trainee how do the task B) verbalizing the steps of the task C) checking to make sure the task was learned by the trainee D) familiarizing the trainee with equipment, tools, and trade terms

D) familiarizing the trainee with equipment, tools, and trade terms

In which of the following situations does sexual harassment NOT violate Title VII?

D) if the conduct is motivated by both age and gender

D) intelligent tutoring systems

D) job aid

D) learning portal

Which of the following will most likely NOT help employers protect themselves against charges of negligent training? A) confirming an employee's claims of skill and experience B) providing extensive and appropriate training C) evaluating the effectiveness of the training D) paying employees for their training time

D) paying employees for their training time

Which of the following refers to highly recommended procedures issued by federal agencies regarding employee selection, record keeping, and preemployment inquiries?

D) uniform guidelines

D) videoconferencing

All of the following topics are typically addressed during employee orientation EXCEPT ________. A) employee benefits B) personnel policies C) work behavior expectations D) wage curves

D) wage curves

Which of the following best explains why an increasing number of firms use the Internet to conduct prescreening interviews? A) high number of foreign applicants B) globalization of manufacturing firms C) lawsuits involving panel interviews D) improved technical skills of applicants E) reduced recruitment budgets

Which of the following is a T statement regarding structured situational interviews? A) Portions of the interview are conducted online. B) Answers are compared to industry standards. C) Hypothetical questions are typically avoided. D) Job descriptions are written after the interview. E) Interviews are usually conducted by a panel.

Which question below is an example of a background question? A) "Can you provide an example of a time when you developed a highly effective ad campaign?" B) "Suppose a coworker with more experience was not following standard work procedures. What would you do?" C) "What steps would you follow to conduct a brainstorming session with a group of employees on safety?" D) "What is the procedure you would follow when examining a patient complaining of chest pain?" E) "What experience and training have you had with drafting designs for commercial buildings?"

Pictures and Promotions Modeling Studio seeks to hire male models for an upcoming fashion show featuring men's wear. The studio is using ________ as a justification for not considering women for the jobs. A) BARS B) ADEA C) ADA D) EEOC E) BFOQ

E Explanation: An employer can claim that the employment practice is a bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ) for performing the job. In this case, a specific gender is necessary for the job. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) permits disparate treatment in cases where age is a BFOQ, which is not the issue in this example.

A small software firm is seeking several permanent employees with experience in the semiconductor industry and advanced degrees in computer science. The firm is a small one and cannot afford to pay a traditional recruiting firm a fee of 30% per each hire's salary. Instead, this firm should consider using a(n) ________. A) contingency-based recruiter B) state-run employment agency C) temporary staffing agency D) outsourcing staffing service E) on-demand recruiting service

E Explanation: An on-demand recruiting service would be the best solution for a small firm that cannot pay high fees to recruit employees. ODRS provide short-term specialized recruiting assistance to support specific projects without the expense of traditional search firms. An ODRS charges by time or project

Marie Boyd has been hired by Barnum Hotels to manage staffing for the regional hotel chain. Barnum intends to open two new hotels within the next three years and will have many job positions to fill. Historically, employee turnover is high at Barnum as employees remain with the company for one or two years before quitting. Marie realizes that Barnum needs to make significant changes in its personnel strategy in order to meet the company's goals for the future and improve employee retention rates. Which of the following, if true, best supports Marie's plan to centralize Barnum's recruitment efforts? A) Online screening tests are given to all candidates for positions at Barnum to assess their potential and skills. B) Barnum plans to end its succession planning program, which the firm believes is to blame for poor candidate assessment. C) Barnum executives believe that the high turnover rate at the firm is due to inadequate training requirements. D) Barnum enforces a strict policy about hiring friends and family members of current employees. E) EEO selection violations have occurred in the past when hiring responsibilities were given to Barnum managers at each individual hotel.

E Explanation: Centralized recruiting makes it easier to ensure that recruitment experts who know EEO law are doing the recruiting. If EEO violations have occurred in the past, then it is a good idea for the firm to centralize the hiring process.

Which of the following is most frequently used by retailers to estimate short-term personnel needs? A) recruiting yield pyramids B) position replacement cards C) personnel replacement charts D) qualifications inventories E) computerized forecasting programs

E Explanation: Computerized forecasting programs are used to translate projected productivity and sales levels into anticipated personnel needs. Many firms, especially retailers, use computerized employee forecasting systems to estimate short-term needs.

Recruiting is necessary to ________. A) determine whether to use inside or outside candidates B) forecast the short-term supply of outside candidates C) create positive word-of-mouth about a firm D) create qualifications inventories E) develop an applicant pool

E Explanation: Developing an applicant pool is the primary reason to recruit. Forecasting the supply of outside candidates and determining whether to hire internally or externally are considerations made by HR managers before they begin the recruiting process.

Which of the following refers to the variety of demographic features that characterize a company's workforce? A) competency B) ethnocentricity C) globalization D) mobility E) diversity

E Explanation: Diversity refers to the variety or multiplicity of demographic features that characterize a company's workforce, particularly in terms of race, sex, culture, national origin, handicap, age, and religion. Globalization requires employers to hire minority members with the cultural and language skills to deal with customers abroad.

In which of the following jobs would gender most likely be appropriate to use as a BFOQ? A) fire fighter in a metropolitan fire department B) parole officer for a county court system C) prison guard at a federal penitentiary D) teacher at a private, all-girls school E) actor in a toothpaste commercial

E Explanation: Gender may be a BFOQ for positions like actor, model, and restroom attendant requiring physical characteristics possessed by one sex. However, for most jobs today, it's difficult to claim that gender is a BFOQ. For example, gender is not a BFOQ for parole and probation officers or teachers. It is not a BFOQ for positions just because the positions require lifting heavy objects, such as with fire fighters.

________ is the process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill and how to fill them. A) Recruitment B) Selection C) Job analysis D) Interviewing E) Personnel planning

E Explanation: Personnel or employment planning is the process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill and how to fill them. The process considers all future positions from maintenance workers to executives, and flows from the firm's strategic plans.

What is the first step in the recruitment and selection process? A) performing initial screening interviews B) building a pool of candidates C) performing candidate background checks D) interviewing possible candidates E) deciding what positions to fill

E Explanation: The first step of the recruitment and selection process is deciding what positions to fill through personnel planning and forecasting. Building a candidate pool, having candidates complete applications, and performing background checks are the next steps in the process. The final step is interviewing candidates and making job offers.

Which of the following is a false statement about union membership?

E) Employers prefer nonunion workers, so they pay them higher wages than union members.

All of the following are methods used by firms to develop high-potential candidates for future positions EXCEPT ________.

E) developing skills inventories

Which of the following is NOT a form of sexual harassment according to EEOC guidelines?

E) mutually consensual physical conduct of a sexual nature between co-workers

Uniform guidelines from the EEOC are recommended for employers to use in matters regarding all of the following EXCEPT ________.

E) psychological testing

Applicant tracking systems are used by employers to ________.

E) screen and rank candidates based on skills

According to the Civil Rights Act of 1991, an employee who claims intentional discrimination can sue for all of the following EXCEPT ________.

E) substantive consolidation

A structured behavioral interview contains a series of hypothetical job-oriented questions with predetermined answers that interviewers ask of all applicants for the job.

Candidates who make an initial bad impression on an interviewer are typically able to reverse the situation if they close the interview in a strong manner.

Computer-aided interviews are primarily used to administer and score essay questions.

Exit interviews follow a performance appraisal and focus on a discussion of the employee's rating and possible remedial actions.

First impressions created from a candidate's application forms or personal appearance rarely affect interviewer ratings of candidates because of EEO laws.

Interviewers tend to rate candidates who promote themselves and use impression management tactics more poorly on candidate-job fit.

Nonstructured interviews are preferred to directive interviews because they are more reliable and valid.

Structured situational interviews contain situational questions, job knowledge questions, and willingness questions but not behavioral questions.

When rejecting a job candidate, it is best to refrain from providing an explanation detailing the reason for the rejection because most candidates view an employer more positively when they don't know the reason for the rejection.

Willingness questions assess an applicant's ability to meet the job requirements.

With the streamlined interview process, the four most important factors to address are motivation, personality, intellectual capacity, and interests.

Surveys estimate that approximately 20% of what employees learn on the job is learned through informal means while the rest is learned through formal training programs.

False

Employers typically base decisions on F impressions and stereotypes when they fail to clarify in advance what traits and knowledge are necessary for a specific job.

Interviews can be made more effective if the interviewer studies the job description and uses a standardized interview form.

Nondirective interviews follow no set format so the interviewer can ask follow-up questions and pursue points of interest as they develop.

The majority of selection interviews are one-on-one and sequential.

When developing a structured situational interview, it is important that people familiar with the job rate the job's main duties based on importance and time.

When interviewing disabled people, interviewers tend to avoid directly addressing the disability, which limits an interviewer's opportunity to adequately determine whether or not a candidate can perform the job.

Attitude surveys, employee diaries, tests, and performance appraisals are tools for conducting a performance analysis

True

Providing learning content on demand through cell phones and laptops is known as mobile learning.

True

Team training is used by many firms to develop strong management teams, enhance interpersonal skills, and encourage job flexibility.

True

With a lifelong learning account, employers and employees can contribute money that can be used by employees to attend school.

True

lower level managers who are given firsthand experience working on existing problems are being trained through the special assignments approach

True

Which of the following is a true statement regarding U.S. EEO laws and international employees?

U.S. EEO laws apply inside the U.S. when the employer is a U.S. entity and the employee is a foreigner legally authorized to work in the U.S.

Gus is always making sexual jokes at work. Many employees find the jokes funny, but Shelley, Gus's executive assistant, is uncomfortable with the jokes. Eventually, she decides to quit her job rather than endure the jokes any longer. What form of sexual harassment has Shelley experienced?

hostile environment created by supervisors

All of the following are principles established by Griggs v. Duke Power Company EXCEPT ________.

performance standards should be unambiguous

Under ADA, those who can carry out the essential functions of the job are known as which of the following?

qualified individuals

According to the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967, it is unlawful to ________.

require employees to retire at age 65

During an interview, Tanya discusses her numerous accomplishments at previous jobs and praises the interviewer frequently. Tanya is most likely using ________. A) impression management B) talent management C) mixed motives D) behavior modification E) job enrichment

Interview questions designed to probe such areas as a person's aspirations and energy level seek information regarding a candidate's ________ factor. A) motivation B) intellectual C) personality D) knowledge E) experience

What is the most common next step in the EEOC enforcement process after a person files an employment discrimination claim? A) The EEOC either accepts or refers the charge. B) The two parties are required to participate in mediation. C) A commission investigates the claim in an open-meeting. D) The EEOC determines if the charge is based on Title VII rules. E) The employer and EEOC bring a civil suit in a federal district court.

Which of the following describes a job in terms of measurable and observable behaviors that an employee doing the job must exhibit to do the job well? A) competency-based job analysis B) Department of Labor procedure C) functional job analysis D) high-performance work matrix

Answer: A Explanation: A) A competency-based job analysis refers to describing a job in terms of measurable, observable, behavioral competencies that an employee doing the job must exhibit to do the job well. This method contrasts with traditional job analysis that describes jobs in terms of job duties and responsibilities. Competency-based analysis is worker-focused.

Answer: A Explanation: A) A job aid is a set of instructions, diagrams, or similar methods available at the job site to guide the worker. Job aids work particularly well on complex jobs that require multiple steps, or where it's dangerous to forget a step, such as airplane take-off.

The information resulting from a job analysis is used for writing ________. A) job descriptions B) corporate objectives C) personnel questionnaires D) training requirements

Answer: A Explanation: A) A job description is a list of what a job entails, and it is derived from a jobanalysis. Job analysis is the procedure through which you determine the duties of job positionsand the characteristics of the people that should be hired for the positions.

Which court case provided details regarding how employers could validate the relationship between screening tools and job performance?

B) Albemarle Paper Company v. Moody

Work sampling, miniature job training, and video-based tests are examples of ________. A) intelligence tests B) personality tests C) situational tests D) interests inventories

Answer: C Explanation: C) Situational tests, such as work sampling, miniature job training, and video- based tests, require examinees to respond to situations representative of the job.

Trainees should be provided adequate practice and be allowed to work at their own pace during a training session in order to ________. A) screen applicants based on ability B) transfer skills more easily to the job C) reduce training costs D) determine appropriate pay scales

B) transfer skills more easily to the job

B) virtual classroom

In order to conduct an effective interview, interviewers should NOT ask job candidates about their ________. A) knowledge B) job skills C) lifelong goals D) willingness E) motivation

An employer can most likely increase the reliability of a panel interview by ________. A) using an unstructured interview format B) asking all candidates different puzzle questions C) interviewing multiple candidates simultaneously D) providing interviewers with scoring sheets and sample answers E) requiring candidates to participate in work sampling techniques

During an interview, a job candidate benefits from all of the following actions EXCEPT ________. A) using appropriate humor B) learning about the employer C) asking the interviewer questions D) answering questions quickly E) speaking enthusiastically

Marion Franklin is the CEO of a local real estate company, Action Realty. The community has seen an increase in population over the last two years, and new neighborhoods are being built as a result. Marion's staff of realtors is very busy, and Marion needs to hire a new agent. Although Marion has hired agents in the past, they have not always turned out to be as successful as she had hoped. Marion is considering using the streamlined interview process to hire a new real estate agent. Which of the following supports the argument that Marion should use the streamlined interview process to hire an agent for her company? A) Downturns in the housing market have led Action Realty's competitors to downsize their staff rather than hire new employees. B) Marion likes applicants to evaluate themselves and to describe their goals and aspirations. C) Marion is viewed as a concerned and fair employer by the real estate agents at Action Realty. D) Action Realty needs an agent with the personality, motivation, and experience to be successful in a competitive industry. E) Most real estate agents at Action Realty were hired through a nondirective interview with Marion.

Which of the following is recommended advice for conducting an effective interview? A) ask questions that can be answered yes or no B) telegraph the desired answer to the candidate C) allow the candidate to control the interview D) ask the candidate for specific examples E) ask the candidate about work-related injuries

A series of job-relevant questions with predetermined answers that interviewers ask of all applicants for a job is known as a ________. A) directive behavioral interview B) nondirective situational interview C) structured behavioral interview D) nondirective behavioral interview E) structured situational interview

According to the streamlined interview process, a(n) ________ is a useful tool for guiding the flow of an interview. A) organizational chart B) benchmark metric C) expectancy chart D) scatter plot E) chronological plan

All of the following are common characteristics of computerized selection interviews EXCEPT ________. A) questions presented rapidly B) questions formatted as multiple-choice C) response times measured for any delays D) questions focused on experience and skills E) essay questions based on hypothetical situations

All of the following are guidelines for conducting an effective interview EXCEPT ________. A) scheduling a private room for the interview B) taking brief notes during the interview C) reviewing the candidate's qualifications before the interview D) showing courtesy and friendliness towards the candidate E) asking the candidate questions that require yes or no answers

All of the following recruitment practices are potentially discriminatory EXCEPT ________. A) spreading information about job openings through word-of-mouth among a firm's predominantly Hispanic workforce B) providing misleading information to Asian and Indian job applicants C) refusing to advise older applicants about work opportunities D) posting help wanted ads that specify young, male applicants E) posting job advertisements only in local newspapers

George Reyes has recently been hired as the vice president of marketing at Great Toys, a mid-size firm that specializes in classic wooden toys. The CEO of Great Toys wants to expand the firm's presence in the toy market, which is highly competitive. As a result, the marketing department's budget has been significantly increased. George plans to use some of the additional funds to hire a new media planner. George is considering the idea of conducting a structured situational interview in the hiring process. Which of the following, if T, supports the argument that George should use a structured situational interview to hire a media planner? A) Great Toys' HR department has developed a job description for the new media planner position. B) Great Toys' competitors typically use structured situational interviews to avoid legal issues in the hiring process. C) Great Toys' employees typically remain with the company for many years because they feel comfortable with the organizational culture. D) Great Toys has successfully used structured situational interviews in the past for its top-level positions. E) Great Toys' executives want to ensure that the interview process is fair to all candidates and that the best candidate is hired.

In a ________ interview, a panel questions several candidates simultaneously. A) formal B) reliable C) topical D) panel E) mass

What type of interview would most likely include the following statement? "Imagine that you have just been assigned the task of winning the business of our competition's biggest client. How would you proceed?" A) job-related B) behavioral C) stress D) puzzle E) situational

Which of the following refers to company records showing present performance and promotability of inside candidates for a firm's top positions? A) yield pyramids B) trend analysis charts C) succession planning tools D) employee scatter plots E) personnel replacement charts

E Explanation: Personnel replacement charts are company records showing present performance and promotability of inside candidates for a firm's top positions. Such charts show the present performance and promotability for each position's potential replacement. Succession planning is the term used when referring to employment planning that focuses on filling executive jobs, but it is a process rather than a tool for managing employee records.

All of the following are characteristics of a job posting EXCEPT ________. A) listing the job's attributes B) providing the job's pay rate C) publicizing the open job to employees D) listing the job's required qualifications E) indicating the preferred number of applicants

E Explanation: Posting a job means to publicize an open job to employees by posting it on company intranets or bulletin boards. Such postings list the jobs' attributes, such as qualifications, supervisor, work schedule, and pay rate. The preferred number of applicants is less likely to appear on a job posting.

Which of the following is a primary goal of college recruiters? A) supporting employment diversity programs B) building relationships with college career centers C) cutting future recruiting costs for the firm D) developing a pool of temporary workers E) attracting good candidates

E Explanation: The two main goals of college recruiters are attracting good candidates and determining if candidates are worthy of further consideration. It is helpful if firms develop ties with college career centers to gain feedback on its recruiting programs, but the main goal of college recruiters is to find employees.

A trend analysis is limited in its usefulness because it ________. A) overlooks the passage of time in regards to staffing B) considers too many possible influences on employment C) addresses only the financial impact of employment changes D) assumes constant increases in worker productivity E) overlooks how changes in sales volume affect staffing

E Explanation: Trend analysis provides an initial estimate of future staffing needs, but employment levels rarely depend only on the passage of time. Factors such as changes in sales volume and productivity also affect staffing needs, which is why a trend analysis is limited in its usefulness.

Which of the following best describes the closed shop form of union security?

E) A company can hire only union members.

Studies suggest that interviewers tend to evaluate applicants less favorably in telephone interviews than in face-to-face interviews.

F attractive. Telephone interviews can actually be more accurate than face-to-face interviews for judging an applicant's conscientiousness, intelligence, and interpersonal skills.

Evidence suggests that Web-based instruction is significantly more effective than classroom instruction for teaching information about how to perform a job-related task.

False

Hiring highly-skilled employees with great potential eliminates the need to provide orientation and training

False

Sanders Sporting Goods, an international sporting goods chain, is being sued for sexual harassment by a former Sanders employee. The plaintiff asserts that she was the victim of numerous unwanted sexual advances from a male co-worker. The woman claims that Sanders' management condoned a hostile work environment and that the company is liable for the actions of the male employee. Which of the following, if true, would best support the plaintiff's argument that Sanders is liable for sexual harassment?

Sanders lacks a management response system for handling sexual harassment complaints.

Companies generally conduct structured situational interviews using a panel, rather than sequentially.

In a stress interview, the interviewer seeks to make the applicant uncomfortable with rude questions.

Interviewers tend to be more influenced by unfavorable than favorable information about a candidate.

The EEOC uses testers who apply for employment which they do not intend to accept for the purpose of uncovering unlawful discriminatory hiring practices.

The Web serves as a tool for many firms who need to save money when conducting selection interviews.

All of the following are ways that an employer can minimize liability in sexual harassment claims EXCEPT ________.

HRM 146(7 until q10)89, Test 1

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MCI Electronic Mathematics 2018-08

ATI Fundamentals - Practice A

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