HRM EXAM final Review
High-performance work systems are designed around team processes and capabilities that cannot be transported, duplicated, or copied by rival firms. Which of the following criteria is described in the statement above? a. Difficult to imitate b. Organized c. Valuable d. Rare
Difficult to imitate
In _____, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that employees can file discrimination suits with the EEOC even when the employer has a mandatory arbitration agreement that is signed by the employee. a. EEOC v. Waffle House Inc. b. EEOC v. Adams c. EEOC v. Interstate/Johnson Lane Corp. d. EEOC v. United States
EEOC v. Waffle House Inc.
Which of the following is NOT an example of how an implied contract may become binding? a. Telling employees their jobs are secure as long as they perform satisfactorily and are loyal to the organization b. Failing to create an employee handbook or conducting performance appraisals on a routine basis c. Stating in the employee handbook that employees will not be terminated without the right of defense or access to an appeal procedure d. Urging an employee to leave another organization by promising higher wages and benefits, then reneging on those promises after the person has been hired
Failing to create an employee handbook or conducting performance appraisals on a routine basis
One of the basis for compensation centers on whether employees are classified as nonexempt or exempt under the _____. a. Equal Pay Act b. Fair Labor Standards Act c. Taft-Hartley Act d. Employment Classification Act
Fair Labor Standards Act
The major provisions of which act are concerned with minimum wage rates and overtime payments, child labor, and equal rights? a. Equal Pay Act b. Davis-Bacon Act c. Fair Labor Standards Act d. Walsh-Healy Act
Fair Labor Standards Act
65. The Equal Pay Act was passed as an amendment to the: a. Civil Rights Act. b. Fair Labor Standards Act. c. Equal Employment Opportunity Act. d. Age Discrimination in Employment Act.
Fair Labor Standards Act.
All of the following questions may be considered appropriate during an interview EXCEPT: a. Have you ever been arrested? b. Do you have a legal right to work in the U.S.? c. Are you physically able to perform the essential duties of the job? d. Did you finish school?
Have you ever been arrested?
. Identify a benefit of panel interviews. a. Cost-efficiency b. Unilateral decision making c. Longer decision-making period d. Higher reliability because of multiple inputs
Higher reliability because of multiple inputs
What type of fit describes high-performance work systems that complement and reinforce one another? a. Lateral fit b. Depth fit c. Vertical fit d. Horizontal fit
Horizontal fit
When the determination of a bonus includes both production employees and nonproduction employees and this bonus is based on overall group productivity, which type of gainsharing program is being used? a. Profit sharing b. The Rucker Plan c. Improshare d. The Scanlon Plan
Improshare
According to studies, _____ of applicants test positive for drugs. a. One-third b. About one-quarter c. Ten percent d. Less than five percent
Less than five percent
The major source of Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) standards is the: a. federal government. b. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH). c. American Medical Association (AMA). d. state government.
National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH).
Which popular method of job analysis was pioneered by the U.S. Air Force? a. Dynamic job analysis b. Team-based analysis c. Task inventory analysis d. Competency-based analysis
Task inventory analysis
Which of the following type of formats gives both managers and employees an opportunity to release and iron out any frustrating feelings they might have? a. Tell-and-develop b. Tell-and-listen c. Tell-and-sell d. Problem-solving
Tell-and-listen
90. The procedural document developed by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission is the: a. Uniform Commercial Code. b. Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures. c. Affirmative Action Guide. d. Business Code of Ethics.
Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures.
During the 1970s, in which case did the Supreme Court rule that applicants must be evaluated on an individual basis, and race can be one factor used in the evaluation process as long as other competitive factors are considered? a. Ricci v. DeStefano b. Griggs v. Duke Power c. University of California Regents v. Bakke d. Hazelwood School District v. United States
University of California Regents v. Bakke
High-performance work systems establish ways to increase innovation and efficiency, decrease costs, improve processes, and provide something unique to customers to focus on which of the following criteria? a. Rare b. Difficult to imitate c. Valuable d. Organized
Valuable
_____ is a situation in which a high-performance work system supports an organization's goals and strategies. a. Totalitarianism b. Vertical fit c. Absenteeism d. Flattening
Vertical fit
____ interviews are attractive because of their convenience and low cost and they make it easier to interview people in different geographic areas. a. Video b. Behavioral description c. Panel d. Structured
Video
Discharge for refusing to violate a professional code of conduct falls under which exception to employment-at-will doctrine? a. Violation of public policy b. Implied contract c. Implied covenant d. Does not fall under an exception
Violation of public policy
. Which of the following is an inappropriate interview question? a. Have you ever worked under a different name? b. If hired, can you prove your age? c. What is your race? d. What is your address?
What is your race?
A coach who recruits a basketball player who has superb shooting skills but lacks ball-handling and defensive skills is employing a _____ selection decision model. a. multiple hurdle b. compensatory c. multiple cut-off d. clinical
compensatory
. In the _____ to decision making, those making the selection decision review all the data on the applicants. a. statistical approach b. clinical approach c. subjective iterative approach d. demonstrated approach
clinical approach
Equity theory is also known as: a. procedural justice. b. distributive fairness. c. administrative justice. d. moral justice.
distributive fairness.
The disadvantages of profit sharing include all of the following EXCEPT that: a. payments may lose their motivational value as they are made only once a year. b. plans may not pay off for several years in a row. c. effective profit sharing plans require a second HR program. d. employee morale could drop during time periods after no bonus has been given.
effective profit sharing plans require a second HR program.
The employment of individuals in a fair and nonbiased manner is called: a. reasonable accomodation. b. equal employment opportunity. c. civil rights policy. d. diversity management.
equal employment opportunity.
The fact that people make comparisons to others is central to: a. expectancy theory. b. the need for pay secrecy. c. pay-for-performance programs. d. equity theory.
equity theory.
The first step in choosing an HRIS is for the HR personnel to: a. evaluate the most time-consuming tasks. b. examine the user-friendliness of the software. c. calculate the cost savings in using an HRIS. d. calculate the time required to train the HR staff.
evaluate the most time-consuming tasks.
When the organization pays wages that are relatively equal to that of other employers for similar work, it is the basis of: a. comparable worth. b. external equity. c. compensable factors. d. equal pay.
external equity.
A 401(k) plan is also called a cash-balance pension plan.
f
A compressed work week includes anything less than 40 hours worked per week. a. True b. False
f
A disabled person must have an obvious physical impairment or deformity to be considered disabled under the Americans with Disabilities Act a. True b. False
f
A point manual can be used to determine the external equity of a job. a. True b. False
f
An advantage of flexible benefit plans is that if employees make poor selections and do not use their benefits, it saves the employer money.
f
Bill has been found guilty of theft, a termination offense. Before he is discharged, his manager must ensure that all the steps of progressive discipline are followed.
f
Concurrent validity involves testing applicants and obtaining criterion data after they have been on the job for some indefinite period.
f
Federal employees are not covered by the federal Whistleblower Protection Act.
f
Predictive validity is assessed when the test scores of job applicants are held against the performance data of existing employees.
f
Some states provide rights to employees that are lesser than those provided by the Family and Medical Leave Act.
f
The bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ) exception does not apply to discrimination based on national origin. a. True b. False
f
The major advantage of the compressed workweek involves federal laws regarding overtime. a. True b. False
f
Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, the purpose of essential functions in a job description is to help match job requirements to organizational goals. a. True b. False
f
Under the Family and Medical Leave Act, a convenience store owner with 20 employees is required to provide up to 12 weeks of unpaid leave to an eligible employee for medical reasons.
f
Under the Family and Medical Leave Act, an employee returning to work does not necessarily have to be restored to his or her original job or to an equivalent job.
f
Unlike defined benefit pension plan, which guarantees nothing, the 401(k) plan guarantees payments based on years of service.
f
Wrongful discharge is legal under the employment-at-will doctrine.
f
Executive Order 11246 provides equal employment opportunities to: a. federal employees and individuals employed by government contractors. b. state and local government employees. c. all employees of public and private employers. d. union members.
federal employees and individuals employed by government contractors.
Under the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA), employers must do all of the following EXCEPT: a. fire employees who have been injured or have become ill due to work-related factors. b. keep records of all work-related accidents and injuries. c. inform employees of Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) requirements. d. refrain from disciplining employees who have filed safety complaints with the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).
fire employees who have been injured or have become ill due to work-related factors.
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) considers inspection of imminent danger situations as a ____ priority. a. first-level b. second-level c. third-level d. fourth-level
first-level
Efforts to design high-performance work systems in line with vertical fit issues such as competitive challenges and company values help in: a. creating empowerment in workers. b. focusing the design on strategic priorities. c. improving horizontal fit accordingly. d. making the implementation stage easier.
focusing the design on strategic priorities.
A popular plan that offers employees an opportunity to save through payroll deductions and have their contributions matched by the employer is known as the: a. 401(k) plan. b. tax reduction plan. c. ERISA benefit plan. d. Individual Retirement Plan.
401(k) plan.
One of the limitations of the Family and Medical Leave Act is that it only applies to companies that have ____ or more employees during 20 or more calendar workweeks in the current or preceding year. a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 60
50
. Today, about _____ of households nearing retirement have 401(k)-type of accounts. a. 20 percent b. 30 percent c. 50 percent d. 60 percent
60 percent
Under the law, discrimination charges must be filed within _____ days of the alleged unlawful practice. a. 60 b. 90 c. 120 d. 180
180
98. An employer interviews 150 qualified applicants, 100 whites and 50 Hispanics. If 25 whites are hired, a minimum of how many Hispanics would have to be hired to avoid charges of adverse impact? a. 20 b. 13 c. 10 d. 8
20
97. An employer interviews 100 qualified applicants, 60 whites and 40 blacks. If 30 whites are hired, a minimum of how many blacks should be hired to avoid charges of adverse impact? a. 24 b. 20 c. 16 d. 12
24
The Fair Labor Standards Act permits employers to pay a "training wage" of _____ per hour for employees younger than the age of twenty during their first ninety days of employment, provided their employment does not displace other workers. a. $5.26 b. $5.76 c. $6.16 d. $6.56
$6.16
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) considers conducting special-emphasis inspections aimed at specific high-hazard industries, occupations, or substances that are injurious to health as a _____ priority. a. first-level b. second-level c. third-level d. fourth-level
fourth-level
A job analysis approach that utilizes an inventory of the various types of work activities that can constitute any job is known as: a. functional job analysis. b. the critical incident method. c. task inventory analysis. d. the position analysis questionnaire system.
functional job analysis
The Equal Pay Act prohibits wage discrimination based on: a. seniority. b. gender. c. merit. d. individual incentive.
gender
A behavioral description interview is more effective than a situational interview for: a. lower-level positions. b. higher-level positions. c. recent college graduates. d. first line supervisors.
higher-level positions.
HR Scorecards can be used to diagnose: a. short-term organizational efficiency. b. long-term organizational efficiency. c. competitive strategic alignment. d. horizontal fit and vertical fit.
horizontal fit and vertical fit.
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) may cite employers under all of the following violations EXCEPT: a. willful violations. b. serious violations. c. other-than-serious violations. d. minor violations.
minor violations
A selection model in which an applicant moves on to the next stage in the process on the condition that she or he satisfies a score criterion on previous parts of the process is referred to as a _____ model. a. multiple cutoff b. multiple hurdle c. compensatory d. contingency
multiple hurdle
. The type of interview that allows the applicant maximum amount of freedom in determining the course of the discussion is the: a. nondirective interview. b. depth interview. c. situational interview. d. structured interview.
nondirective interview
The type of interview that allows the applicant maximum amount of freedom in determining the course of the discussion is the: a. nondirective interview. b. depth interview. c. situational interview. d. structured interview.
nondirective interview
Employees covered by the overtime provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act are labeled: a. protected workers. b. nonexempt employees. c. salaried workers. d. exempt employees
nonexempt employees.
A Gallup poll found that the average employee with Internet access spends more than _____ per day surfing websites that have nothing to do with their jobs. a. one hour b. two hours c. three hours d. four hours
one hour
. A low selection ratio means: a. the cutoff score for selection decisions will be relatively low. b. there are very few qualified applicants. c. only the most promising applicants will be hired. d. little selectivity among applicants will be possible.
only the most promising applicants will be hired.
To achieve vertical fit, organizations must first analyze all of the following EXCEPT: a. competitive challenges. b. organizational values. c. other HR components. d. employee concerns.
other HR components.
Bona fide occupational qualifications can: a. be used to identify adverse impact. b. be based on employer preference. c. permit discrimination by an employer. d. require reasonable accommodation on the part of the employer.
permit discrimination by an employer.
Giving applicants a clerical aptitude test and then tracking their performance six months later is an example of: a. predictive validity. b. concurrent validity. c. content validity. d. correlational validity.
predictive validity.
Before firing an employee, employers should apply the: a. principles of just cause. b. standards of employment conduct. c. rules of fair employment. d. policies of equity and responsibility.
principles of just cause.
Discipline programs designed to motivate an employee to correct his or her misconduct voluntarily are known as: Select one: a. progressive discipline programs. b. respect-discipline programs. c. hot-stove programs. d. step help programs.
progressive discipline programs.
The Family and Medical Leave Act provides all of the following EXCEPT: a. up to 12 weeks of unpaid leave. b. promotions missed during leave. c. continuation of medical benefits. d. job protection.
promotions missed during leave.
Major federal EEO laws have been enacted to prevent discrimination against groups of workers most often affected by unfair employment practices. These groups are referred to as: a. significant worker classes. b. privileged classes. c. protected classes. d. equal employment classes.
protected classes.
A major objective of the Pension Protection Act is to _____ 401(k) pension plans. a. reduce the number of b. alter the tax status of c. limit to very small employers the use of d. provide greater control over
provide greater control over
. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) considers investigation of catastrophes, fatalities, and accidents that result in hospitalization of five or more employees as a _____ priority. a. first-level b. second-level c. third-level d. fourth-level
second-level
"It is late at night before your scheduled vacation. You are all packed and ready to go to bed.You get a phone call from the plant asking you to come in and handle a problem that only you can address. What will you do?" This is an example of a ____ question. a. behavioral description interview. b. panel interview. c. situational interview. d. nondirective interview.
situational interview.
An interview in which an applicant is given a hypothetical incident and is asked how he or she would respond to it is a: a. computer interview. b. panel interview. c. situational interview. d. nondirective interview.
situational interview.
During her interview, Angela is told by her future manager that if she is a good employee, she will have a permanent job with the company. This situation is an example of an implied contract.
t
Efforts to achieve vertical fit help focus the design of high-performance work systems on strategic priorities.
t
HR Scorecards can be used to diagnose both horizontal fit and vertical fit in a relatively straightforward way.
t
If people are regarded as having a disability, then they are protected under the Americans with Disabilities Act. a. True b. False
t
In an environment of shared information, the richest communication occurs face to face.
t
One of the best ways to communicate the business needs to employees is to show them the gap between the organization's current performance and capabilities and where it needs to be in the future.
t
One way to help avoid implied contract lawsuits is to have written proof that employees have read the employment-at-will disclaimers.
t
The Family and Medical Leave Act permits substitution of paid leave and vacation during leave.
t
The employment-at-will doctrine gives managers and supervisors the unrestricted right of termination.
t
The employment-at-will doctrine states that either employees or their employers may terminate the employment relationship for any reason.
t
The multiple hurdle model is a sequential strategy in which only the applicants with the highest scores at an initial test stage go on to subsequent stages.
t
The selection ratio is the ratio of the number of applicants to be selected to the total number of applicants. a. True b. False
t
Typically, in a 401(k) savings plan, an employer matches an employee contribution at the rate of 25 to 50 cents for every worker dollar contributed.
t
Under the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA), an employer must pay an employee for whatever work the employer "suffers or permits" the employee to perform, even if the work is done away from the workplace and even if it is not specifically expected or requested.
t
The appraisal interview that requires interviewers to possess the ability to persuade an employee to change his or her behavior in a certain way is: a. tell-and-develop. b. tell-and-listen. c. tell-and-sell. d. problem-solving.
tell-and-sell.
59. A factor that appears to have influenced the growth of Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO) legislation is: a. the changing attitudes of society at large. b. the post-war baby boom. c. a shortage of qualified labor. d. an influx of illegal immigrants.
the changing attitudes of society at large.
A job analysis method by which important job tasks are identified for job success is known as: a. functional job analysis. b. the critical incident method. c. task inventory analysis. d. the position analysis questionnaire system.
the critical incident method.
Employers can determine adverse impact by using: a. the four-fifths rule. b. the McDonnell-Douglas test. c. the ratio rule. d. the two-thirds rule.
the four-fifths rule.
An inappropriate interview technique in which praise serves to cushion criticism by alternating positive statements with negative statements is known as: a. the sandwich technique. b. the cushioning technique. c. the rollercoaster technique. d. sympathetic interviewing.
the sandwich technique.
. The difference between the situational interview and the behavioral description interview is that: a. there is no difference, the terms are synonymous. b. the situational interview is for technical positions, while the behavioral description interview applies to upper-level management positions. c. the situational interview is hypothetical, while the behavioral description interview is based upon actual experience. d. the behavioral description interview is hypothetical, while the situational interview is based upon actual experience.
the situational interview is hypothetical, while the behavioral description interview is based upon actual experience.
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) considers investigation of valid employee complaints of alleged violations of standards or of unsafe or unhealthful working conditions as a ____ priority. a. first-level b. second-level c. third-level d. fourth-level
third-level
Companies may match employee contributions to a 401(k) with cash or company stock
t
Compensation specialists often see flexible benefits plans as ideal.
t
Under the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA), employees are eligible to take leave if they have worked for their employers for at least twelve months, have at least _____ hours of service, and work in organizations that have 50 or more employees within a 75-mile radius a. 750 b. 1,000 c. 1,250 d. 1,500
1,250
A ratio of 0.10, for example, means that _____ percent of the applicants will be selected. a. 0.1 b. 1 c. 10 d. 90
10
The Fair Labor Standards Act prohibits the employment of those between the ages of _____ in hazardous occupations such as mining, logging, and meatpacking. a. 14 and 21 b. 16 and 18 c. 16 and 21 d. 18 and 21
16 and 18
. In 1908, the Supreme Court upheld the employment-at-will doctrine in _____. a. NLRB v. Weingarten, Inc. b. EEOC v. Waffle House, Inc. c. International Union v. Johnson Controls d. Adair v. United States
Adair v. United States
Which of the following includes the different types of diversity training? a. Equal employment and affirmative action b. Process and behavior c. Awareness building and skill building d. Conventional and non-conventional
Awareness building and skill building
66. The legislative act that bars discrimination in all HR activities, including hiring, training, promotion, pay, employee benefits, and other conditions of employment is known as the: a. Equal Pay Act of 1963. b. Civil Rights Act of 1964. c. Equal Employment Act of 1972. d. Civil Rights Act of 1991.
Civil Rights Act of 1964.
Which of the following is NOT a form of pay equity? a. Internal equity b. External equity c. Collective equity d. Individual equity
Collective equity
Under the employment-at-will doctrine, who can terminate an employment relationship? a. Only employees b. Only employers c. Government or unions d. Employees or employers
Employees or employers
69. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act created the: a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA). b. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC). c. Equal Rights Compliance Agency (ERCA). d. Justice Department (JD).
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC).
Equal employment opportunity refers to actions required of employers to correct past discrimination against minorities. a. True b. False
F
If the criteria used to hire and evaluate employees are vague and not job-related, employers are less likely to find themselves being accused of discriminating against the members of protected classes. a. True b. False
F
State and local governments are exempted from the provisions of the Civil Rights Act and Equal Employment law. a. True b. False
F
Millennials are also known as: a. baby boomers. b. Generation X. c. Generation Y. d. screenagers.
Generation Y.
_____ may create problems for managers who wish to maintain pay secrecy among employees. a. NASDAQ information b. Internet salary survey data c. FLSA requirements d. Davis-Bacon standards
Internet salary survey data
Which of the following would most likely help managers develop a strong relationship with a union in implementing high-performance work systems? Select one: a. Concentrating efforts on achieving all of the organization's objectives b. Involving them early in the design process c. Concentrating accountability for union relations with the top management d. Relying on informal communication
Involving them early in the design process
Which of the following is NOT a primary impact that technology has had on human resources management (HRM)? a. It has altered the methods of collecting employment information. b. It has quickened the processing of employment data. c. It has diminished the role of supervisors in managing employees. d. It has improved the processes of internal and external communications.
It has diminished the role of supervisors in managing employees.
. Which of the following is NOT a basis for age discrimination? a. Excluding older workers from important work activities b. Making positive changes in the performance evaluations of older employees c. Selecting younger applicants over better-qualified older applicants d. Reducing job duties and responsibilities of older employees
Making positive changes in the performance evaluations of older employees
Criticisms of Occupational Safety and Health Administration's (OSHA's) enforcement of rules include all of the following EXCEPT: a. OSHA standards are outdated. b. OSHA both sets and enforces its own standards. c. OSHA enforces unevenly from on political administration to the next. d. OSHA is overly zealous.
OSHA both sets and enforces its own standards
High-performance work systems combine the talents of employees and rapidly deploy them in new assignments with maximum flexibility in order to focus on which of the following criteria? a. Valuable b. Rare c. Organized d. Difficult to imitate
Organized
Which of the following actions does NOT reduce retaliation discharges? a. Taking no adverse action against employees when they file complaints. b. Publicizing employee complaints to place other employees on notice. c. Being consistent and objective in the treatment of employees. d. Harboring no animosity toward employees if they file discrimination lawsuits.
Publicizing employee complaints to place other employees on notice.
_____ is the most frequent equal employment opportunity (EEO) complaint. a. Wrongful discharge b. Discrimination c. Retaliation d. Harassment
Retaliation
With respect to pay equity, which of the following is NOT considered an input? a. Salary b. Ability c. Skill d. Experience
Salary
Identify the circumstances that are of the highest priority for Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) inspections. a. Situations that present imminent danger to employees b. Investigations of catastrophes, fatalities, or injuries of several workers c. Investigations of employee complaints d. High-risk industries
Situations that present imminent danger to employees
5. Training in and knowledge of equal employment opportunity (EEO) laws are essential for managers and supervisors because organizations can be held accountable and legally responsible for their managers' decisions. a. True b. False
T
According to a recent report by the American Management Association, a third of employers have fired workers for misusing the Internet.
T
The Civil Rights Act of 1964 established the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission. a. True b. False
T
The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) considers an employer guilty of sexual harassment if the employer knew about harassment activity but failed to take any corrective action. a. True b. False
T
Women and minority groups are referred to as protected classes. a. True b. False
T
Which of the following is the dominant principle governing private-sector employment relationships? a. The employment-at-will doctrine b. The job-as-property doctrine c. The implied contract rules d. The implied covenant rules
The employment-at-will doctrine
. Which of the following is NOT a problem frequently associated with job descriptions? a. They tend to broaden the scope of activities of the jobholder. b. They may be vague or poorly written. c. They include illegal specifications. d. They require frequent updating.
They tend to broaden the scope of activities of the jobholder.
Determining whether a high-performance work system has been implemented as designed is achieved by: a. an HR Scorecard. b. a process audit. c. cross-training. d. employee surveys.
a process audit.
A job description is: a. a group of related activities and duties of a job. b. a set of different duties and responsibilities performed by one employee. c. a statement of the knowledge, skills, and abilities required to perform a job. d. a statement of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job.
a statement of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job.
Which of the following would NOT be considered a recordable case under the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)? a. an employee killed on the job b. a coal miner's black lung disease c. an employee's broken leg suffered in a fall on a slippery spot on the plant floor d. an employee's depression caused by family problems
an employee's depression caused by family problems
Since the passage of the Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988: a. drugs in the workplace are prohibited. b. employers are prohibited from conducting random drug tests. c. all employees must submit to drug tests on demand. d. applicants and employees of federal contractors are subject to testing for illegal drug use.
applicants and employees of federal contractors are subject to testing for illegal drug use.
Flexible benefit plans: a. are offered to employees who then must purchase each benefit they select. b. are favored by employers because they reduce administration costs. c. result in wasted benefits because of the number of different types available to employees. d. allow employees to choose benefits suited to their needs.
are favored by employers because they reduce administration costs.
Strategic Partnership Programs (SPPs): a. attempt to get employers to go beyond the basics of the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) law and provide workers with better protection on the job. b. allow employers to sidestep Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) legislation. c. are long-term agreements between employers and the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) aimed at reducing serious workplace hazards and achieving a high level of worker safety and health. d. cover only transportation-related industries.
are long-term agreements between employers and the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) aimed at reducing serious workplace hazards and achieving a high level of worker safety and health.
82. Fair employment practice laws: a. are often more comprehensive than federal laws. b. are established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission. c. cannot bar discrimination based on marital status or political affiliation. d. are provisions under the Veterans' Readjustment Act.
are often more comprehensive than federal laws.
Under the Fair Labor Standards Act, exempt employees: a. are required to be paid at the rate of one and a half times their regular pay rate for hours worked in excess of 40 hours in a week. b. must be paid at the rate of one and a half times their regular hourly wage for time worked in excess of eight hours in a day. c. are those employees not covered by the overtime provisions of the Act. d. include most hourly personnel employed in interstate commerce.
are those employees not covered by the overtime provisions of the Act.
Voluntary protection programs (VPPs): a. attempt to get employers to go beyond the basics of Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) and provide workers with better protection on the job. b. allow employers to sidestep Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) legislation. c. are contained within state-based, right-to-know legislations. d. cover only transportation-related industries.
attempt to get employers to go beyond the basics of Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) and provide workers with better protection on the job.
"Tell me about the last time you disciplined an employee" is an example of a: a. behavioral description interview question. b. panel interview question. c. computer interview question. d. closed response interview question.
behavioral description interview question.
In a fast-moving environment where job analysis must accommodate change, many organizations may adopt a _____, where the emphasis is on characteristics of successful performers rather than standard duties. a. dynamic job analysis b. team-based analysis c. strategic analysis of jobs d. competency-based analysis
competency-based analysis
A disability under the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 can be defined by all of the following EXCEPT: a. a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major activities. b. conditions caused due to the demands of the work environment. c. having a record of physical or mental impairment. d. being regarded as having a physical or mental impairment.
conditions caused due to the demands of the work environment.
Profit sharing refers to any procedure by which an employer pays employees: a. an incentive based on their merit. b. an incentive based on labor cost savings. c. a bonus based on the overall productivity of their particular work group. d. current or deferred sums based on the organization's financial performance.
current or deferred sums based on the organization's financial performance.
Under the Family and Medical Leave Act, if an employee is returned to an equivalent job, rather than his/her original job, the equivalent job must have: a. identical pay, benefits, and terms of employment. b. terms of employment and promotional opportunity. c. promotional opportunity and benefits. d. identical pay, benefits, and promotional opportunity.
identical pay, benefits, and terms of employment.
Termination meetings should be held: a. in the manager's office. b. at the employee's work station. c. in the parking lot or outside the employer's premises. d. in a neutral location, such as a conference room.
in a neutral location, such as a conference room.
Job evaluation helps to establish: a. job classifications. b. the organization's ability to pay. c. internal equity. d. labor market conditions that affect pay.
internal equity.
Interviews as a method of selection are popular for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: a. interviews are the most valid method of selection. b. interviews are practical for dealing with a small number of applicants. c. interviews function as a public relations tool. d. interviewers have faith in their ability to make selection judgments.
interviews are the most valid method of selection.
The use of polygraph tests to screen applicants: a. is a recommended procedure for all potential employees. b. should be used only in high-security employment areas. c. is prohibited by federal law for most private employers. d. is prohibited by executive order for government contractors only.
is prohibited by federal law for most private employers.
The interview remains a mainstay of selection because of all of the following, EXCEPT: a. it absolves the organization of legal liability. b. it is practical. c. it serves public relations purposes. d. interviewers maintain confidence in their judgments.
it absolves the organization of legal liability.
The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) conducts its operations through: a. state and local government offices. b. its administrative headquarters, district offices, and area offices. c. the Department of Justice. d. the Department of Labor
its administrative headquarters, district offices, and area offices.
The process of obtaining information about jobs by determining their duties, tasks, or activities is called: a. job design. b. job evaluation. c. job analysis. d. job search.
job analysis.
The set of standardized questions used in a structured interview is based on: a. job analysis. b. hypothetical situations. c. the applicant's area of specialization. d. effective communication techniques.
job analysis.
The Family and Medical Leave Act: a. applies to employers having 10 or more employees during 20 or more calendar workweeks in the current or preceding year. b. preempts state laws under all circumstances. c. mandates continuation of medical coverage. d. requires the employer to provide up to 24 weeks of unpaid, job-protected leave for certain family and medical reasons.
mandates continuation of medical coverage.
The American with Disabilities Act does NOT: a. require employers to make reasonable accommodation to disabled persons. b. define disability as a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major activities. c. provide protection for adjustment disorders. d. protect people regarded as having disabilities.
provide protection for adjustment disorders.
An implied contract may result from statements found in employee handbooks or other employment documents
t
. A comprehensive training program to prevent discrimination would include all of the following EXCEPT: a. understanding the prohibitions of EEO laws. b. how to respond to complaints of discrimination. c. procedures for investigating complaints. d. standards for employee conduct.
standards for employee conduct.
The approach to decision making that identifies candidates with the highest scores based on quantitative predictors is the: a. personal judgment approach. b. quantitative approach. c. objective approach. d. statistical approach.
statistical approach.
In the telephone industry, mobile phones and VOIP (Voice-over-the Internet Protocol) are examples of _____ for traditional firms. a. companions b. rivals c. substitutes d. supplements
substitutes
A 401(k) plan transfers responsibility for investment choices to the employee.
t
An important step in avoiding discriminatory practices during selection is to: a. base selection decisions solely on interviews. b. use multiple interviewers for each applicant. c. use validation studies to demonstrate the job-relatedness of a selection instrument. d. require all applicants to complete an application form.
use validation studies to demonstrate the job-relatedness of a selection instrument.
Employment stability, team-based behaviors, and strategy-focused behaviors are used as part of an HR Scorecard to assess: a. workforce deliverables. b. HR deliverables. c. external objectives. d. top management support.
workforce deliverables
