Immunology Exam 3

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CAD is a nuclease that is activated as part of the intrinsic apoptosis pathway. How is CAD activated?

CAD is activated when caspase-3 cleaves ICAD.

Dendritic Cells secrete (________), attracting T cells to the developing lymph node

CCL19

Dermis: CCL17, E-selectin

CCR4, cutaneous lymphocyte antigen (CLA)

Gut lamina propria: MAdCAM-1, CCL25

CCR9, α4β7 integrin

Effector CD4+ TH1 cell get a co-stimulation signal from macrophage in the form of....

CD40/CD40 ligand.

Two signals are required to activate a naive B cell. These signals can come from T cells (thymic dependent) or PAMPs (Thymic independent). Select the co-stimulatory complex associated with thymic dependent activation of a B cell.

CD40::CD40 ligand

Select the co-receptor for an effector cytotoxic T cell.

CD8

Select the molecular structures on the surface of an effector cytotoxic T cell that are involved in the interaction with an antigen presenting cell.

CD8, LFA-1, T cell receptor (TCR)

Recall some Effector B-Cells

CR1/FcR CXCR4-CXCR12 AID/UNG

This chemokine gradient is generated by falicular dendritic cells and recruits naive B cells that express the CCR5 receptor.

CXCL13

Which chemokine gradient stimulates the formation of the lymph node follicle?

CXCL13

Why are desensitization treatments important?

Can lead to iTreg cell production Can lead an increase in IgG production

Diapedesis is the process of the T cell moving between the endothelial cells. This process is mediated by...

Chemokine Gradient

How do T cells find their way around?

Chemokine gradient, Adhesion Molecules, Activation

How do helper T cells stimulate isotype switiching?

Cytokine specific activation of promoters upstream of each variant heavy chain.

Dust mite allergin is a protein called...

Der-P1

Macrophage are the commander in the fields of the immune system. The express a wide variety of TLRs and thus can sense many PAMPs. The also express many Fc receptors and thus can identify a wide variety of antigens. Select all of the Fc receptors listed below that are found on the surface of macrophage.

Fcα/μR FcγRI FcγRII-A FcγRIII

Allergic reactions (type I hypersensitivity) are caused when mast cells release histamine. These reactions are the consequence of the body making IgE to non-pathogenic environmental antigens (eg. dust mite poop or peanut allergen). The release of histamine is caused by a signal being transduced though the antibody to an Fc receptor on the surface of the mast cell. Select all of the Fc receptors listed below that are found on the surface of mast cells, bind to IgE and can stimulate degranulation.

FcεRI

Select the all proteins listed below that are found in the cytotoxic granuals of a CD8+ T cell.

Granulysin, Granzymes, Perforin

Granulysin

Has antimicrobial actions and can induce apoptosis

TH1 cell secrete __________ in order to activate resting macrophage.

IFN-γ

T-bet

IFN-γ and IL-12

GATA-3

IL-4

BCL-6

IL-6

How is Memory T cell kept active?

IL-7,IL-15 and binding to self antigen in MHC

TH1 cells

ILC1

TH2 cells

ILC2

TH17 cells

ILC3

NK cells express FcγRIII on their surface. This means NK cell can be activated by this subset of antibodies to kill cells with antigen on their surface.

IgG

TI-2 antigens can stimulate dendritic cells to release the cytokine BAFF. BAFF is a non-T cell cytokine that can stimulate B cells to isotype switch from IgM to...

IgG

Select all of the following statements below about the functions of the different isotypes that are correct.

IgG1 and IgG3 are good at activating NK cells A fetus is likely to have its mothers IgG1, IgG3 and to a lesser extent IgG2 in its blood the day of its birth. IgM, IgG 1-4 and IgA are all capable of neutralizing toxins, bacteria and viruses. IgM, IgG1 and IgG3 are good at stimulating the classical complement cascade. IgA is capable of stimulating the alternate complement cascade but not the classical complement cascade as it does not interact with C1qrs gG1, and IgG3 are capable of activating Mast Cells but IgE is better. IgD has no listed function on Figure 10.27. Its like is does nothing...

Treg cells

Inhibition of other T cell responses.

Low concentration of TI-1 requires

Innate and Ig signaling

Granzyme B is released by cytotoxic CD8+ T cells. What does it do?

It cleave cytosolic Bid into tBid.

Lymph node HEV: ICAM-1, CD34

LFA-1, L-selectin

IgA

Mucus membranes (respiratory tract, lungs, eyes, stomach, intestines and colon) and mammary gland secretions (milk).

Which is a type of mechanism of IgA protection

Neutralization in endosomes Neutralization in Lamina propria Neutralization in mucus

How do activated macrophage kill intracellular pathogens?

Production of oxygen radicals (oxidative bursts)

What is an anatomical feature of the mucosal immune system

specialized antigen-uptake mechanisms

What chemical in the blood attracts T cells out of the lymph node?

S1P

Granzymes

Serine proteases which activate apoptosis one in the cytoplasm of the target cell.

What does T cell memory consist of?

Short 1/2 life, high expression of IL-7 receptor

IgE

Skin and mucus membranes (respiratory tract, lungs, stomach, intestines and colon).

What is the CD4 reg T cell function?

Suppress T-cell responses

Thymic dependent antigens are always at least partially proteins because....

T cell antigen recognition is done via MHC.

The immunological synaps is the structure that forms between T cells and antigen presenting cells. There are to domains. The outer ring (pSMAC) is involved in adhesion. The inner ring (cSMAC) is involved in antigen inspection and signaling. Select all of the proteins that would be found in the cSMAC of a cytotoxic T cell inspecting the internal antigens of an epithelial cell.

T cell receptor, CD8,

TH1 cells secrete IL-3 and GM-CSF. What do these cytokines do?

stimulate the development of macrophage

Cytotoxic T Cells activate

T cell release of granules TCR/CD8 binding to MHC class I

TH1 Activation of Macrophages causes which of the following

T cells to release IFN-g CD40 ligand on T-cell to bind to CD40 on Macrophage

Activation

TCR binding to MHC/antigen CD4/8 binding to MHC class 1/2

Figure 11.18 depicts an experiment designed to ascertain the function of IL-12. Select the statement below that is supported by the data in figure 11.18.

TH1 cells require IL-12 supplemented from other host cells to control Leishmania major infections.

Figure 11.12 shows to activities coordinated by activated TH1 cells. Select the statement below that is not correct about TH1 cells.

TH1 produce IL-4 and IL-5 to stimulate the isotype switching in B cells.

Figure 11.16 shows the activities mediated by TH17 cells related to the control of extra cellular pathogens. Select the statement below that is not true about TH17 cells.

TH17 cells IL-10 suppressing other T cell activation.

Figure 11.15 shows how TH2 cells induce protective responses to intestinal helminths. Select the statement below that is not correct about TH2 cells.

TH2 cells produce IFN-γ to activate macrophage and prevent the differentiation of more TH2 cells.

ILCs function as signal adaptors. They are activated by one cytokine and release other cytokines. Effector T cells can do this as well. Select the cytokine signal that can cause TH2 cells to release IL-5 and IL-13.

TSLP and IL-33

Some effector T cells have plasticity and can be stimulated to develop into other effector types. What would happen if you stimulate a TH17 cell with IL-12?

Th1

ILC3s regulate immune responces the same way as this type of helper T cell.

Th17

A naive T cell exposed to IL-4 when activated by a dendritic cell in a lymph node will differentiate into a...

Th2

Figure 11.34 shows some data related to memory B cell activity in response to repeated infection with the Influenza virus. That do these data show.

The body tends to expand B cells to bind to shared epitopes between the strains over stimulating the expansion of B cells that bind to new epitopes.

When a cytotoxic T cell releases its granual onto the surface of the antigen presenting cells....

the antigen presenting cell will die via the intrinsic apoptotic pathway.

Cytotoxic T cells are rapid killers of infected target cells. Within minutes of the interaction of a cytotoxic T cell with a target cell, the program of apoptosis in the target cell is initiated. This rapid activity is a consequence of:

The expression and packaging of perforin and granzymes in cytotoxic granules prior to target cell encounter

B cells in the germinal center undergo affinity maturation and somatic hyper mutation. This process leads to B cell clones with changes in the amino acids of the....(select all that are correct).

VL domain VH domain

Activated peripheral vascular endothelium: VCAM-1, P-selectin

VLA-4, PSGL-1

Activated T cells and activated B cells meet at the boarder between the B and T cell zones of the lymph node because...

they both express the same chemokine receptors and a pulled to the mid point between the activated dendritic cells and the folicular dendritic cells.

A caspase is....

a host protein involved in the apoptosis cascade.

Select the cell type in the lymph node that presents antigen to naive CD8+ T cells.

activated conventional dendritic cells

An antigen, when purified at high concentrations that causes polyclonal, non-specific B cell activation and proliferation is...

thymic independent type I

How does NK cell degradation begin?

antibodies bind to antigens on target cell

Proteins of Cytotoxic T Cells activate

are serine proteases, activating apoptosis once in cytoplasm

Thymic independent-1 antigens (TI-1).....

contain some form of covalently linked PAMP and can activate non-specific naive B cells at high concentrations.

Activation-induced cytidine deaminase (AID) plays a central role in both isotype switching and somatic hypermutaion and affinity maturation. What is the substrate for this enzyme (select all that are correct)?

cytidine

Where would a T cell expressing CCR4 and CLA home?

dermis

TFH cells are found in lymph nodes and release cytokines that activate and stimulate ....

differentiation in naive B cells.

A cytotoxic T cell is like a suicide bomber. When it finds its target, it kills it self and the target cell simultaneously.

false

Select all of the isoforms of antibody that can activate the classical complement cascade via interactions with C1q.

gG2 IgG1 IgM IgG3

Amish people have fewer allergies becasue their house dust has more....

gram-negative bacteria

The germinal center has a light zone and a dark zone. Each of these zones is maintained by chemokine gradients. B cells that express the chemokine receptor CXCR5 but not CXCR4 will migrate ...

to the light zone.

Phagocytes like macrophage and neutorphis have Fc receptors and complement receptors. This allows them to....

uptake and degrade antibody coated pathogens.

When does the adaptive immune system get involved with a new infection?

when naive B cells and naive T cells encounter antigen, activate and proliferate

A B cell is presenting antigen to a TH2 cell. Let us assume only IL-4 is secreted by the T cell. Select all of the isotypes heavy genes that will be transcribed.

y1, epsilon

A B cell is presenting antigen to a TH 1 cell. Let us assume only IFN-γ is secreted by the T cell. Select all of the isotypes heavy genes that will be transcribed.

y2a, y3

A B cell is presenting antigen to a TH 17 cell. Let us assume only TGF-β is secreted by the T cell. Select all of the isotypes heavy genes that will be transcribed.

y2b, alpha

Infections can be divided into several distinct phases. Put the following stages of infection in the correct order (11-1).

1. Local infection, penetration of epithelium. 2. Local infection of tissue 3. Lymphatic spread 4. Adaptive immunity

Once B cells activate in the lymph node due to binding to antigen and receive help from a T cell, they will proliferate. Some of these cells will form a primary focus. Others will form a germinal center and undergo somatic hypermutation. Select the enzyme that becomes active in the primary focus and stimulates hypermutations in the antibody variable region.

AID

Somatic hyper mutation is initiated by.....

AID

Select all of the enzymes below that are involved in both somatic hypermutation and class switching recombination.

AID, UNG, APE1

TH1 cells

Activation of Macrophage

Antibodies that bind to a toxin, preventing it from killing a cell, are...

neutralizing the toxin

Perforin

Aids in delivering contents of granules into the cytoplasm of target cells.

Select the statment below that is incorrect about antigen presentation.

All are correct dendritic cells present antigens to activate naive t cells macrophages present antigens to become activated b cells present antigens to retrieve t cell help epithelial cells present antigens so they can die if infected

What is an example of a hypersensitivity reaction for IgE

Allergic asthma

TFH cells

B cell differentiation into memory and plasma cells, isotype switching and affinity maturation of antibodies.

All thymic dependent antigens are...

proteins or partially proteins

Survival

B7 binding to CD28

IgM

Blood

IgG

Blood, tissue, fetus

Where can B cell memory be found?

Bone marrow and lymph memory node cells

no antibodies are usually found here

Brain and CSF

T cell migration into the lymph node via HEVs happens in 4 stages. Put each of the stages listed below in the correct order.

1.) T cell migration into the lymph node via HEVs happens in 4 stages. Put each of the stages listed below in the correct order. 2.) CCL21 binding to CCR7 causing an confirmation change in LFA-1 ("activation of LFA-1"). 3.) High affinity interaction between LFA-1 on the T cell with ICAM-1 on the endothelial cell. 4.) Diapedesis of T cell between endothelial cells of the HEV and migration up the CCL21 gradient mediated by CCR7.

B cells in the folical dark zone interact with ____(1)________ and under go_____(2)____.

1.) follicular stromal cells 2.) somatic hyper-mutation

What is the half-life of memory T cells

8-15 years

When do dendritic cells (DC) express the most B7 on the surface of their cells?

Activated DC's in the lymph node

You wish to study lepromatious leprosy in 9 banded armadillos (the only other animal that gets infected by Mycobacterium leprae). Select the antibody you will inject the test animals with to ensure they develop lepromatious leprosy.

Anti-IFN-gmma

After graduation you are having trouble finding your place in the world. One day you mother suggest "Why don't you try being and Evil Scientist like you cousin Olivia Octavius." With nothing better to do you decide to give it a try. Your fist plan in to try and cause an epidemic of Leprosy. You plan is to inject people with Mycobacterium leprea and an antibody to ensure they develop tubercular lepracy (that way they don't show symptoms and spread the bacteria to others. What antibody should you pair with your bacteria to ensure the victims present with tubercular lepracy not lepromatious lepracy?

Anti-IL-4

How do CD8+ T cells kill antigen presenting cells?

Apoptosis

When granzyme is translocated into the cytosol, via perforin, it will cleave this protein in order to stimulate apoptosis.

BID

What chemokine is produced by lymph node stromal cells, starting the process of cellular recruitment into the lymph node?

CCL21

What chemokine receptor is expressed on activated Dendritic cells that causes them to migrate to the lymph node?

CCR7

When a B cell first activates in the follicle it will seek T cell help. It does this by expressing one or more chemokine receptors. Select all of the chemokine receptors that are expressed by a B cell within a lymph node follicle after it activates as a result of binding to antigen.

CCR7 CXCR5

T cells that activate in the Peyer's patches of the small intestines become effector T cells that will home to the lamina propria. These T cells are able to home to the lamina propria becasue they express...

CCR9 and alpha 4; beta 7 integrin

Dendritic cells in the lamina propria are able to sample antigens from the luman of the gut. The can do this becasue they express the integrin...

CD103 (alpha E: beta 7 integrin)

Select to co-stimulation complex between a TH1 cell and Macrophage.

CD40 and CD40 ligand

Select all of the proteins that would be in the cSMAC of a cytotoxic T cell interacting with an epithelial cell.

CD8, TCR, MHC 1

Differentiation

Cytokines binding to cytokine receptors.

Dendritic cells have a resting form observed in the tissue and an activated form found in the lymph node. Select the proteins listed below that are in greater abundance on the surface of a resting Dendritic cell then on the surface of an activated Dendritic cell.

Dectin-1 TLR-4 CCR6

. MHc class 1

Ebola virus RNA dependent RNA polymerase, Andenovurs matrix protein

Fc receptors bind to the ___________ region of an antibody.

Fc region

Select the Fc receptor found on the surface of Mast cells that interact with IgE and mediate degranuation in the presence of antigen.

Fc-epsilon R1

Macrophage and neutrophil activation can be mediated by the .....

Fc-gamma R1

Treg cell secrete _________ in order to supress the activity of other effector T cells

IL-10

TH2 cells can stimulate epithelial cell proliferation by secreting...

IL-13

FoxP3

IL-2

When a naive CD8+ T cell becomes activated for the first time it will secrete this cytokine and its receptor in order to proliferate.

IL-2

RORγT

IL-6 and IL-23

What cytokine is required to maintain memory T cells.

IL-7

Select all of the follow things that memory cytotoxic T cells requre to survive a long time and proliferate upon second exposed to antigen.

IL-7, Self antigen MHC, CD4+ T cells

Select the isotypes of antibody that are capable of being transpored accross th placenta and thus would be found in the blood of a fetus before birth.

IgG1,2,3,4

Select the isotypes of antibody that are capable of interacting with the complement protein C1q and activating the classical complement cascade.

IgM, IgG1,2,3

Select all of the following types of vaccine that is used to stimulate a protective CD8+ T cell response.

MHC class I restricted peptide loaded, cytokine activated dendritic cells Listeria monocytogenses ActA mutant that secretes the protein you are trying to vaccinate against.

B cells communicate with T cells about the antigens that bind to their B cell receptor (membrane bound antibody) via...

MHC class II: peptide complexes

TH2 cells

Mucus production, differentiation of eosionphils, basophils and mast cells and isotype switching of B cells to produce IgE.

This structure in the mucosal layer contains both naive B cells, naive T cells, activated dendritic cells, macrophage and M cells

Peyers patch

TH17 cells

Promotion of barrier defenses, differentiation of neutrophils, recruitment of neutrophils. Increased secretion of antimicrobial peptides.

What type(s) of vaccine was developed and tested in the Hemao-Restrepo et al 2017 paper?

Recombinate vesicular stomatitis virus expressing one or more EBV protein.

When do dendritic cells (DC) express the most phagocytic receptors like Dectin-1 and DC-SIGN?

Resting DC's in the tissue

This is the site of recombination between between different heavy chain isotypes.

S region

MHC class II

Salmonella enterica suptype Typhimurium Type III secretion system SpiA (part of the needle complex)., Klebsiella pneumonia flagella, Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli type I pilus, Enterohemeragic Escherichia coli shiga toxin

Naive T cells enter lymph nodes via endotheial cells call HEVs. The first stage of entry is "rolling" along the HEVs. What on the surface of the T cell stimulates the "rolling?"

Selectins

Tuberculoid leprasy

TH1

What type of effector T cell is required for control of a Leishmania major infection in mice?

TH1 cells

Lepromatous leprosy

TH2

What type of pathogen specific T cells lead to lepromatious lepracy?

TH2 cells

After somatic hypermutation B cells get a survival signal from ...

Tfh cells

One of the key steps in the activation of a T cell is when IL-2 and the IL-2 alpha chain are expressed in the activated cell. What happens when these two proteins meet on the surface of the activated T cell.

The T cell proliferates.

Activated T cells and activated B cells meet at the marginal zone of the lymph node focus becasue...

They both express CXCR5 and CCR7

What type of hypersensitivity involves IgE and mast cells?

Type 1

This enzyme removes the side chain of a missmatched nuceotide, like when AID modifieds cytosine into uridine.

UNG

MHC/ antigen

activation

Movement between the dark and light zone of the folical is determined by expression of...

chemokine receptors

After somatic hypermutation a B cell tests it new antibody by....

competing with older antibodies on the surface of follicular dendritic cells for the antigen found there

Intrinsic apoptosis is marked by this protein in the cytosol.

cytochrome C

Recombination between S regions is initiated by AID, and enzyme that modifies nucleotides into uridine. Select all of the following that are substrates for AID.

cytosine

cytokines

differentiation

The activity of AID, UNG and APE1 causes double stranded breaks in transcribed S regions of the antibody locus. Select the enzyme/enzyme comples that repairs this damage and sometimes causes isotype switching

double stranded break repair machinery

Where do we find the fallicular dendric cells?

follicule

TH17 cells secrete the cytokines IL-17, IL-22 and CCL20. Select all of the following things that is stimulated by these cytokines (directly or indirectly).

increased antimicrobial peptides, increased epithelial cell turnover, and chemotaxis of Th17 cells

An effector T cell that has CCR10 and αE:β7 intigrin will home to...

large intestine epithelial barrier.

Within which tissue do naive B cells activate, mature to effector and undergo isotype switching and somatic hyper mutations?

lymph nodes and spleen

Which memory cell has a longer half-life.

memory b cells

IgA binding to a toxin in the mucus is an example of...

neutralization

When a T cell activates it starts to express both IL-2 and the alpha subunit of the IL-2 receptor. The dual expression of these two proteins causes the T cell to...

proliferate

Granzymes are.....

serine proteases

T cell polarity is governed by the fact the cytokines of one type of T cell prevent other types of T cells from developing. An example of this is that TH1 cell produce IFN-γ. IFN-γ...

suppresses the differentiation of TH2 cells

B7

survival

Eating leafy green vegtables, like kale, is good for you becasue...

they are converted to buterate by clostridium and bacteroides. buterate diffuses across the epithelial barrier and causes lamina propria T cells to release IL-10


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