Improvements I Need For The Final Exam

A person with unexplained weight loss went to the doctor. Lab work revealed elevated blood potassium levels and decreased blood sodium levels. The doctor asked the patient if he spent much time tanning, and the patient said he avoided the sun. What disorder is this patient afflicted with? Cushing's syndrome Addison's disease Cretinism Type I diabetes Acromegaly I DON'T KNOW YET

Addison's disease The person is afflicted with Addison's disease, which is characterized by high blood potassium ion levels and low blood sodium ion levels. Addison's disease is caused by an aldosterone deficiency. Aldosterone functions to increase blood sodium ions and lower blood potassium ions. A lack of aldosterone will result in the noted lab values. The loss of sodium ions makes it more difficult to retain fluids; thus weight loss occurs with people suffering from Addison's disease. Lastly, Addison's disease results in the skin turning a bronze color. Acromegaly is due to excess growth hormone, which results in facial deformities and enlarged limbs. Cushing's syndrome is due to excess cortisol. Characteristics include a swollen face, facial hair in females, and fat deposits on the back of the lower neck. Cretinism is due to a lack of thyroid hormone. Symptoms include short stature, cognative impairment, and lack of secondary sexual characteristics. Type 1 diabetes mellitus is due to a lack of insulin. Symptoms include high blood sugar levels and much urination.

Pick the true statement concerning the all-or-none aspect of nerve cell conduction. All action potentials utilize a neurotransmitter. All action potentials are created at the same frequency. All action potentials travel at the same velocity. All action potentials are created on the dendrites provided threshold is reached All action potentials have the same intensity. I DON'T KNOW YET

All action potentials have the same intensity. The all-or-none aspect of nerve cell conduction states that all action potentials (AP) have the same intensity. The same intensity means they have the same height or strength. There is no such thing as a large AP or a small AP. They are all the same. Either a stimulus is strong enough to cause a neuron to reach threshold and an AP is created and all are the same, or if the stimulus is not strong enough to cross threshold, then an AP is not created. All APs do not travel at the same velocity. Myelinated axons have faster action potential propagation due to their saltatory conduction properties. While all action potentials occur once threshold is reached, action potentials are NOT created on the dendrites, APs are created on the axon hillock. AP cause the axon to release a neurotransmitter, but this does not deal with whether and how an AP is formed. AP frequency is how often they are made. AP frequencies can vary, and this is how the body distinguishes strong from weak stimuli.

Insufficient production of acetylcholine in the synapses of the brain, abnormal tangled neurons, and large deposits of beta-amyloid are problems associated with which one of the following diseases? rabies Parkinson's disease Alzheimer's disease meningitis epilepsy

Alzheimer's disease

During synaptic transmission, the influx of ________ causes vesicles in the axon bulb to fuse with the cell membrane, releasing ________. Na+; K+ Ca2+; neurotransmitter K+; Na+ neurotransmitters; Ca2+ Na+; receptors

Ca2+; neurotransmitter

When a person wakes up in the morning, which of the following is most likely true? Insulin levels are elevated, and glycogen is broken down into glucose. Glucagon levels are decreased, and glycogen is broken down into glucose. Glucagon levels are elevated, and glycogen is broken down into glucose. Glucagon levels are elevated, and glucose is converted into glycogen. Insulin levels are decreased, and glucose is converted into glycogen. I DON'T KNOW YET

Glucagon levels are elevated, and glycogen is broken down into glucose. When a person wakes up in the morning, glucagon levels are elevated, and glycogen is broken down into glucose. One must consider what the functions of glucagon and insulin are, along with determining whether blood sugar levels will be elevated or decreased in the morning. Since no food has been recently ingested, then blood sugar levels will be decreased. Homeostasis will be maintained by the secretion of glucagon, which will break down glycogen. The breakdown of glycogen will result in the release of glucose into the bloodstream. Glucagon levels will be elevated, not decreased, since the function of glucagon is to elevate blood sugar levels. Also, decreased glucagon levels will not result in glycogen broken down into glucose. Elevated insulin levels will promote a lowering of blood glucose. Insulin will be elevated after a meal, not the next morning. The conversion of glycogen to glucose elevates glucose levels and is not a function of insulin. While insulin levels will be decreased in the morning, glucose is not converted into glycogen; it is broken down into glucose. While glucagon levels will be increased in the morning, it does not cause glucose to turn into glycogen.

A person arrives at the doctor and complains of unexplained weight loss. Vitals are taken, and an elevated heart rate is detected. Exophthalmos is observed. What condition does this person have? underproduction of testosterone Addison's disease Graves' disease overproduction of epinephrine Cretinism I DON'T KNOW YET

Graves' disease The person is suffering from Graves' disease. Graves disease is an autoimmune disorder that produces antibodies resembling the shape of the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) molecules. An antibody is part of the immune system and is meant to help eliminate foregn bacteria, viruses, and proteins. Once in a while, problems occur, and antibodies are produced that target cellular structures. In this case, the antibody is able to bind to the TSH receptor and constantly stimulates it. Recall that TSH is controlled by a negative feedback mechanism, which would prevent TH levels from rising. The antibody is not controlled by negative feedback; thus it continually stimulates the TSH receptor on the thyroid gland, causing thyroid hormone (TH) levels to elevate. TH increases metabolism, causing weight loss due to burning of calories, increases heart rate, and excessive amounts of the hormone causes a characteristic bulging of the eyes known as exopthalmos. Overproduction of epinephrine, which can occur due to a tumor of the adrenal medulla, can cause weight loss and an elevated heart rate. However, exopthalmsosis is not associated with excessive amounts of epinephrine. Underproduction of testosterone would cause a lack of secondary sexual characteristics in males. Secondary hair and deepening of the voice would not occur. Addison's disease is characterized by weight loss; however, bronzing of the skin occurs, and exophthalmosdoes not occur. Cretinism is due to a defiency of TH. Cretinism is characterized by short stature, impaired cognative abilities, and lack of secondary sexual characteristics.

Most peptic ulcers are caused by _____? See Section 14.4 (Page) intrinsic factor antacids excess mucus Helicobacter pylori bacteria

Helicobacter pylori bacteria Antacids increase the pH allowing temporary relief from the gastric acid secretions. H. pylori can live in the acidic environment of the stomach and can cause damage to the mucosal lining.

Which of the following is true about calcitonin? Low levels promote low levels of blood calcium ions. It is released by the thyroid gland. It requires iodine to function. High levels promote loss of bone density. It is released by the same gland that releases parathyroid hormone. I DON'T KNOW YET

It is released by the thyroid gland. Calcitonin is released by the thyroid gland. The thyroid gland secretes two different hormones. Thyroid hormone is produced by the follicular cells, while calcitonin is produced by the parafollicular cells. Calcitonin is released when blood calcium ions are elevated. The hormone activates osteoblasts to deposit more calcium into bone, thereby lowering blood calcium levels. High levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH) promote loss of bone density. Calcitonin and PTH are antagonistic to each other. PTH activates osteoclasts, which will break down bone to release calcium ions into the bloodstream. Calcitonin causes blood calcium levels to go down; hence low levels of calcitonin will not have low levels of blood calcium but will have high levels of blood calcium. The parathyroid gland releases PTH, while the thyroid gland releases TH. The parathyroid gland is so named since these glands are attached to the back portion of the thyroid gland. Iodine is required to produce thyroid hormone, not calcitonin. A lack of iodine results in an inability to produce thyroid hormone.

Which is true of an ascending tract? It is involved in the last step of a reflex arc. It sends sensory input to the brain. It is gray. It is part of the peripheral nervous system. It contains bundles of cell bodies. I DON'T KNOW YET

It sends sensory input to the brain. Ascending tracts send sensory input to the brain. Ascending tracts are named for the direction of sensory input. These are bundles of axons that are sending sensory input from sensory receptors to the brain. Recall that tracts means groups of axons in the central nervous system (CNS). Ascendng means "to go up," hence information is going from the body to the brain. Bundles of cell bodies are called a ganglion if they are located in the peripheral nervous system or a nucleus if located in the CNS. Axons are typically myelinated and thus are white, not gray. Ascending tracts form the white matter of the spinal cord. Bundles of axons are located in the PNS. Tracts are bundles of axons located in the CNS. Sensory input goes with the first steps of a reflex arc. Motor output to an effector goes with the last step of a reflex arc.

Which of the following is an example of negative feedback? Low levels of blood calcium ions cause the the release of parathyroid hormone (PTH), while high levels of blood calcium ions cause the release of calcitonin. Low levels of blood sugar cause the release of glucagon. The head of a baby presses against the cervix, resulting in neural impulses going to the hypothalamus. The hypothalamus causes the posterior pituitary to release oxytocin (OT). OT travels through the bloodstream and reaches the muscles of the uterus and stimulates them to contract more. The contractions increase dilation of the cervix, ultimately resulting in further release of OT and more contractions follow. Both glucagon and epinephrine target the liver to release glucose from glucagon. However, both hormones working together cause the liver to release more glucagon than if either hormone was working alone. The hypothalamus releases thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH) that causes the anterior pituitary to release thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). TSH causes the thyroid to release thyroid hormone (TH). High levels of TH prevent the release of TRH and TSH. I DON'T KNOW YET

Low levels of blood calcium ions cause the the release of parathyroid hormone (PTH), while high levels of blood calcium ions cause the release of calcitonin. High levels of TH inhibiting the release of TRH and TSH is an example of negative feedback. Negative feedback is exemplified by a pathway in which the response cancels or diminishes the initial stimulus. The key bit of information that shows the negative feedback is that high levels of TH inhibit the release of TRH and TSH. TH is the response since it was at the end of the pathway. TRH and TSH are the stimuli that cause the release of TH. Negative feedback mechanisms are the main way hormone concentrations are maintained. Too much of a hormone initiates the pathway that causes the secretion of the hormone to turn off, while too little of a hormone initiates the pathway that causes the secretion of the hormone to turn on. Low levels of blood sugar causes glucagon to be secreted; this is an example of a stimulus and a response. Low blood sugar levels is the stimulus, and glucagon secretion is the response. Low levels of blood calcium ions causing the release of PTH and high levels of blood calcium levels causing the release of calcitonin are two examples of stimulus and response. The stimulus is the blood calcium levels, and the response is the release of the hormone. This example differs from the glucagon example since two hormones that are antagonistic to each other were described. The childbirth example exemplifies positive feedback since the response enhances the initial stimulus. The response is uterine contraction, and the initial stimulus is the release of oxytocin. Glucagon and epinephrine working together is an example of a synergistic hormone interaction. Both hormones work better together than either one individually. Think of this as 2 + 2 = 5. Either hormone raises blood sugar a level of "two" units. But both together raise blood sugar "five" units.

Describe the ion and charge distribution of the resting membrane potential (RMP). Outside of the cell has more sodium ions and is more positive. Inside of the cell has more calcium ions and is more negative. Outside of the cell has more sodium ions and is more positive. Inside of the cell has more potassium ions and is more negative. Outside of the cell has more potassium ions and is more negative. Inside of the cell has more sodium ions and is more positive. Outside of the cell has more sodium ions and is more negative. Inside of the cell has more potassium ions and is more positive. Outside of the cell has more potassium ions and is more positive. Inside of the cell has more sodium ions and is more negative. I DON'T KNOW YET

Outside of the cell has more sodium ions and is more positive. Inside of the cell has more potassium ions and is more negative. The ion and charge distribution of the resting membrane potential is the following: Outside of the cell has more sodium ions and is more positive. Inside of the cell has more potassium ions and is more negative. The sodium potassium pump accounts for the ion and charge distribution. The pump uses ATP energy to actively transport three sodium ions from the cytoplasm to out of the cell. At the same time, it pumps two potassium ions from the extracellular fluid into the cell. This accounts for the ion distribution, but why is the outside more positive than the inside if both sodium and potassium have a positive charge? Two factors account for this. First, there are some negatively charged proteins inside the cell and not outside the cell. Second, potassium ions can "leak out" of the cell, and they do this because they are following their concentration gradient. Losing a positive charge from inside the cell makes the inside relatively negative compared to the outside. While the outside has more sodium ions and the inside has more potassium ions, the charge of the outside is positive and not negative. The charge of the inside is negative and not positive. All of the wrong choices either have the ions in the wrong location or the charges in the wrong location for the resting membrane potential, or both are in the wrong location. The key is to recall that the sodium-potassium pump pumps sodium out of the cell and potassium into the cell. Then, remember that the inside of the cell has negatively charged proteins causing the inside to be negatively charged compared to the outside.

Achalasia is a defect of the the muscularis. What is a result of this defect? Nutrients is not absorbed. Enzymes are not secreted. Peristalsis is impeded. Mucus is not made. Neural impulses are impeded. I DON'T KNOW YET

Peristalsis is impeded. A result of achalasia is impeded peristalsis. The muscularis is the smooth muscle of the GI tract. It is composed of two layers that run in perpendicular directions. The longitudinal layers run lengthwise and the circular layer encircles the tube. Peristalsis is created by the alternate contraction and relaxation of each layer, creating a motion similar to the movement of an earthworm. This motion propels food through the GI tract. The mucous membranes make mucus. The membranes are found in the innermost layer. Achalasia is a defect of the smooth muscle, not a defect of the mucous membranes. Nutrients are absorbed by epithelial tissues associated with the mucous membranes. A defect of the epithelial tissues could result in inability to absorb nutrients. Parasympathetic nerves are found in the submucosa. A problem with the parasympathetic nervous system can impact neural impulse conduction. The pancreas makes the majority of enzymes secreted into the GI system. A problem with the pancreas can impact enzyme secretion. Achalasia is limited to impacting peristalsis and the operation of sphincters.

What is the result of not being able to produce HCl? Anemia will result. Glucose can't be digested Starch can't be digested. Proteins can't be digested. Lipids can't be digested. I DON'T KNOW YET

Proteins can't be digested. Proteins can't be digested if HCl is not present. Parietal cells release HCl. The HCL converts an inactive enzyme called pepsinogen into an active enzyme called pepsin. Pepsin starts the chemical digestion of proteins. The reason for cells producing inactive pepsinogen as opposed to active pepsin is to prevent the pepsin from digesting the stomach cells. Pepsinogen is activated in the lumen of the stomach and can't self digest the stomach since the surface is covered with a thick mucus layer. Starch is digested by salivary and pancreatic amylase. These enzymes are released in an active state and thus do not need HCl to activate them. Lipids need to be emulsified by bile before they are digested. Thus, bile is necessary to bring about lipid digestion. Anemia results if vitamin B12, folic acid, vitamin K, or certain other vitamins are deficient. This can occur due to a lack of instrinsic factor that helps with the absorption of vitamin B12. Glucose is a monsaccharide produced at the end of carbohydrate digestion. Glucose is absorbed into the bloodstream and is then processed by the liver. HCl just influences protein digestion since HCl is required to convert inactive pepsinogen into active pepsin.

A jellyroll-like structure on a neuron is observed in the electron microscope. What is being observed? cell bodies Schwann cells Schwann cells and an axon axon dendrites I DON'T KNOW YET

Schwann cells and an axon Schwann cells and an axon appear as a jellylike roll. Schwann cells are a type of glial cell that function to make myelin and thereby "insulate" axons. The Schwann cells wrap around the axon numerous times, just like electrical tape wraps around a wire. The Schwann cells do not cover the entire axon but leave unmyelinated gaps. These gaps are called nodes of Ranvier and are where sodium and potassium channels are located. Axons that are myelinated display a process called saltatory conduction, which increases rate of action potential transmission as compared to unmyelinated axons. Dendrites are short extensions going into a cell body. They have receptors that bind neurotransmitters. The cell body is the portion of a neuron that contains the nucleus and other organelles. Note that the choices axon and Schwann cells are not the best answer when chosen individually since Schwann cells wrap around axons. If the jellyroll-like structure is observed, then an axon will be at the center of the structure.

Which hormone causes the release of bicarbonate? Chylomicron Gastrin Cholecystokinin Secretin Pepsin I DON'T KNOW YET

Secretin Secretin causes the pancreas to release bicarbonate. Secretin is produced by cells in the duodenum, and the stimulus for release is acidic chyme. Secretin targets the pancreas to release bicarbonate, which is a weak base. The bicarbonate functions to neutralize the acidic chyme. Cholecystokinin (CCK) is another hormone produced by cells in the duodenum. The stimulus for CCK release is chyme that is rich with fat and proteins. CCK causes the pancreas to release an enzyme rich secretion that includes pancreatic lipase, carboxypeptidase, trypsin, and chymotrypsin. The first enzyme breaks down lipids, while the last three are enzymes that catabolize proteins. Gastrin is a hormone produced in the stomach and targets the stomach. Proteins stimulate stomach cells to release gastrin, which causes the stomach to release HCl and pepsin. Pepsin is an enzyme, not a hormone, that starts protein digestion. Chylomicrons are not hormones but a type of lipoprotein that transfers lipids from the small intestines to the lymphatic vessels called lacteals. The lacteals are round in each villus. Each hormone has its own function or functions. Secretin causes the release of bicarbonate to neutralize the acidic chyme.

What is true about essential amino acids? The body cannot make them. Essential amino acids always form enzymes needed to digest food. Incomplete proteins are a good source of all the essential amino acids. There are 20 essential amino acids. Complete proteins are missing one or more essential amino acids. I DON'T KNOW YET

The body cannot make them. Essential amino acids cannot be made by the body. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins. There are a total of 20 different amino acids. In order to make a protein, all of the amino acids must be present that are in the "ingredients" for that protein. The body is able to produce 12 amino acids; thus if those amino acids are not present in the diet, this is not a problem. However, if a protein is made and the ingredients require one of the 8 essential amino acids, then this protein will not be manufactured and there will be nutritional deficiencies as a consequence. Recall that proteins function as enzymes, as structural support, as certain hormones, and many other roles. If a protein cannot be manufactured due to missing an essential amino acid, then an enzyme will not be made and the biochemical pathway that requires this enzyme will not function. Incomplete proteins do not have all 8 essential amino acids; hence nutritional deficiencies will result. Plant-based proteins are more likely to have incomplete proteins. Eating a mixture of complementary protein sources ensures that all 8 essential amino acids are in the diet. Complete proteins have all 8 essential amino acids and will be a good source to produce any protein the body needs. Animal proteins are a very good source of complete proteins, provided it is lean to avoid the excess fat. The body will produce the nonessential amino acids, thus having complete proteins or a complementary protein source ensures that all proteins the body needs will be manufactured. Essential amino acids form enzymes but also proteins that have other functions. There are a total of 20 amino acids. Eight are essential, while the other 12 are nonessential.

A doctor is treating a patient for rheumatoid arthritis and tells the patient to stay away from sugary foods. Why did the doctor give this advice? The doctor is afraid the patient may develop Cushing's syndrome from cortisol. Cortisol treatments increase glucagon levels. Cortisol treatments inhibit insulin secretion. Sugary foods exacerbate rheumatoid arthritis symptoms. Sugary foods work against cortisol treatments. I DON'T KNOW YET

The doctor is afraid the patient may develop Cushing's syndrome from cortisol. Rheumatoid arthritis treatments, which involves cortisol, can cause Cushing's syndrome. Cortisol is a glucocorticoid. As the name implies, it is a steroid that influences glucose metabolism. It is used to treat inflammatory diseases, such as rheumatoid arthritis, since it dampens the inflammatory response. However, cortisol raises blood sugar levels through a process called gluconeogeneis; thus additional sugar in the diet should be avoided. Many people take in too many simple sugars, as will be mentioned in the digestion chapter, and limiting simple sugars can promote better health. Cortisol treatments would stimulate, not inhibit, insulin secretion because insulin is released when blood sugar levels go up. Glucagon levels would decline, not increase, with cortisol treatments. Glucagon is secreted when sugar levels decrease, but cortisol levels will increase sugar levels. Hence, cortisol levels will decrease glucagon levels, not increase them. Sugary foods do not impact rheumatoid arthritis nor do they work against cortisol treatments.

Read this part

The duodenum is the first section of the small intestines. It is the shortest of three sections of small intestines. It is distinct from the other two sections since the head of the pancreas is surrounded by the duodenum. The ileum is the last section of the small intestines. The ileum connects to the cecum via a sphincter called the ileocecal sphincter The jejunum is the second portion of the small intestines. It is lined with a mucous membrane and contains microvilli to aid in the absorption of nutrients. Lacteals are found within villi of the small intestine and function to absorb fats.

How is a person able to live without a gall bladder? People will take medications to compensate for the removal of the gall bladder. The spleen takes over for it. It is like the appendix; it doesn't seem to serve a useful function. The liver still makes bile. It can regrow itself after surgery. I DON'T KNOW YET

The liver still makes bile. The liver still makes bile, which is still used to emulsify fats. The gall bladder is a sac that concentrates and stores bile. Bile from the liver flows through the cystic duct and is stored in the gall bladder. Removal of the gall bladder does not impact bile production from the liver. The liver will make the bile, which will flow through the common bile duct until it reaches the duodenum. A person without a gall bladder will also eat a lowfat diet since they will not be able to release large amounts of bile. While the spleen is also in the abdominal cavity, it does not function in bile production or storage. The spleen is involved with recycling red blood cells and with processing lymphocytes. The gall bladder concentrates and stores bile and serves a useful purpose. Recent research shows the appendix stores useful bacteria and functions with the lymphatic system. The liver can regrow itself, provided some of it is still present. The gall bladder is not able to regrow itself. There are no medications to compensate for the removal of the gall bladder. People do not take bile or other emulsification agents to make up for the lack of the gall bladder. While the gall bladder enables people to eat high-fat meals, the gall bladder is not essential since the liver still makes bile, and people can modify their diet to consume less fat.

Which one of the following occurs when bright light hits the eye? The muscle arranged radially around the iris contracts. The pupil decreases in size. The photoreceptors no longer respond to the light. The pupil dilates. The muscle arranged circularly around the iris relaxes.

The pupil decreases in size.

The absolute refractory period characteristic of neurons is important in ensuring that action potentials travel in only one direction. True False

True

Increasing the height of a sound wave results in ____________. a longer duration sound a louder sound a higher frequency sound higher frequency and pitch a higher pitched sound I DON'T KNOW YET

a louder sound Increasing the height of a sound wave results in a louder sound. A soundwave is represented as a sine wave on a graph. Sine waves have a peak known as the crest. The more energy a sound wave has, the higher the crest. This directly relates to the loudness of a sound. The loudness of a sound is subjective since a person who is hard of hearing will perceive a sound to be not loud, while a normal hearing person will perceive a sound to be loud. An objective way to measure the loudness of a sound is to measure it using an instrument, which will assign it a decibel level. The pitch is a subjective measure of how the sound waves sound. Does it sound like a soprano singing or a bass singing? The soprano has the highest pitch, while the bass has the lowest pitch. Pitch changes when the distance between two crests of a sound wave changes. High-pitched sounds have sound waves with crests that are closer together, while lower-pitched soundwaves have crests that are further apart. While pitch is subjective, it can be measured objectively in terms of its frequency. A higher-pitched sound creates a higher frequency, which is measured in hertz. The duration of a sound is how long that sound lasts. This is independent of the loudness and the pitch.

Cortisol production occurs in the __________ and is stimulated by __________. See Section 13.5 (Page) adrenal cortex; ACTH adrenal medulla; FSH thymus gland; growth hormone thyroid gland; TSH

adrenal cortex; ACTH The adrenal cortex produces glucocorticoids, including cortisol, which is stimulated by ACTH from the anterior pituitary.

The olfactory bulb is __________. See Section 12.3 (Page) an area of the brain where olfactory receptor cells synapse with other neurons an area of the nose where olfactory cells are highly concentrated the site of origin for olfactory receptor cells the area of the brain where smells are interpreted

an area of the brain where olfactory receptor cells synapse with other neurons

Ménière's syndrome is a condition in which __________. See Section 12.7 (Page) the middle ear is inflamed the retina detaches from the choroid an individual suffers from dizziness and hearing loss olfactory receptors are damaged

an individual suffers from dizziness and hearing loss Ménière's syndrome affects the inner ear, causing dizziness and hearing loss.

An obese person had a portion of their stomach removed. What will result? an inability to make erythropoetin an inability to emulsify fats an inability to digest starch anemia an inability to digest lipids I DON'T KNOW YET

anemia A person missing a portion of his or her stomach will most likely suffer from a type of anemia, which is called pernicious anemia. The stomach contains parietal cells that make HCl an intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor binds to vitamin B12 and allows it to be absorbed into the blood. Vitamin B12 is required for red blood cell production; thus a lack of vitamin B12 results in pernicious anemia. The removal of the stomach causes a loss of the parietal cells, resulting in a lack of instrinsic factor. Starch digestion begins in the mouth by the action of salivary amylase and continues in the small intestines by the action of pancreatic amylase. The stomach is not involved with starch digestion, so removal of the stomach will not impact starch digestion. Lipids need to be emulsified before they can be chemically digested. Bile is an emulsifying agent produced by the liver and stored by the gall bladder. Gall bladder removal will result in less bile released and can impact lipid digestion. The kidneys release erythropoietin (EPO), not the stomach; thus the stomach will not impact EPO production. Recall that fats are a type of lipid. An inability to emulsify fats will be due to a lack of bile made by the liver and stored in the gall bladder.

Water-soluble vitamins __________ stored in the liver and __________ consumed daily. See Section 14.11 (Page) are not; do not need to be are not; do need to be are; do need to be are; do not need to be

are not; do need to be Fat-soluble vitamins, not water-soluble vitamins, are stored in the liver. Water-soluble vitamins are excreted daily in the urine, and so they are not stored in the body.

An irregular curvature of the lens results in ____________. astigmatism farsightedness myopia vision that improves the closer an object is placed toward the eyes cataracts I DON'T KNOW YET

astigmatism An irregular curvature of the lens results in astigmatism, which causes the image to not be properly focused on the fovea. This results in a blurred image that is not fixed by either moving closer or further from the object. Astigmatism can also be caused by an irregular curvature of the cornea. A corrective lens will correct this problem. Myopia is the technical name for nearsightedness. This problem results from an elongated eyeball that causes the image to focus in front of the fovea. Moving the object closer brings the object into focus. Farsightedness, or hyperopia, results from a short eyeball that causes the image to focus behind the fovea. Moving the object further away brings the object into focus. A cloudiness of the lens is due to cataracts, which can be due to exposure to ultraviolet light or cigarette smoke.

Which portion of a neuron releases the neurotransmitter? postsynaptic membrane dell body node of Ranvier dendrite axon ending I DON'T KNOW YET

axon ending The axon ending releases the neurotransmitter. The end of the axons release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, which can start an action potential in skeletal muscle cells.. Other axons can release other neurotransmitters that can turn an effector off. Dendrites are short branching extensions that come from the cell body. Dendrites and the cell body have receptors that bind neurotransmitters that were released from the end of an axon. The nodes of Ranvier are unmyelinated areas found on axons. The myelination helps to speed up action of potential transmission. Neurotransmitter receptors are found on the postsynaptic membrane. Axon endings release the neurotransmitter, which travels across the synaptic cleft and binds to receptors on the postsynaptic membranes.

The base of the cochlear duct is formed by the __________, which vibrates in response to sound pressure waves passing through the duct. See Section 12.4 (Page) auditory nerve tectorial membrane basilar membrane vestibular apparatus

basilar membrane The basilar membrane is the base of the cochlear duct and its vibration bends hair cells that are the mechanoreceptor cells of the ear.

A person was involved in a car wreck. The occipital bone was fractured and the lobe behind it damaged.. What problem will this person most likely experience? inability to speak blindness inability to make a decision deafness paralysis I DON'T KNOW YET

blindness Damage to the occipital lobe will result in blindness. Each lobe of the cerebrum is specialized for certain functions. The occipital lobe processes visual information in the visual area and then makes sense of it in the visual association area. Damage to the occipital lobe will result in some type of vision problem. The temporal lobe has a couple of functions, including processing aromas and sound. Damage to this area will leave an individual with an inability to smell or with problems processing auditory inputs. An inability to speak could result from a problem in the frontal lobe. The speech center, also calle Broca's area, is located in the frontal lobe. The frontal lobe also has the primary motor area and premotor cortex, which controls voluntary muscle movements. Damage with these areas can lead to paralysis. Damage to the prefrontal cortex could impact ability to make a decision. This area is a very complex association area involved with decision making, being aware of consequence, and other complicated attributes that are part of our personality.

Please identify the second messenger. receptor TSH glycogen breaks down to glucose ATP cAMP I DON'T KNOW YET

cAMP The second messenger is cAMP. Second messengers are associated with water soluble protein-based hormones and some other types of water soluble hormones. Recall that proteins typically are not able to enter cells due to the selective permeability of the cell membrane. Hence, a protein-based hormone is not able to enter the cell. Then how does a protein-based hormone cause a cell to change its activity? It binds to a receptor on the cell membrane. Binding to a receptor causes the receptor to turn on an enzyme that converts ATP to cyclic AMP (cAMP). cAMP is produced within the cytoplasm and functions as a second messenger. In other words, even though the hormone (the primary messenger) didn't enter the cell, it caused the creation of cAMP, which conveys the hormone's effects by turning on enzymes within the cell, thereby changing how the cell behaves in order to promote homeostasis. ATP is the substrate that is converted in cAMP. ATP does not turn on or off enzymes within the cell. The receptor is a protein that spans the entire membrane. The primary messenger, the hormone, binds to the receptor starting a biochemical pathway that results in cAMP production. TSH is thyroid-stimulating hormone and is an example of a protein-based hormone. TSH will bind to an appropriate receptor and cause the production of cAMP. Glycogen breaking down into glucose is an example of a change in cellular activity due to the production of cAMP.

Postmenopausal women are often advised to take the mineral ________ as a supplement to their diet in order to prevent bone loss due to osteoporosis.

calcium

Trans fats are a risk factor for ____________. diverticulosis constipation cardiovascular disease diarrhea scurvy I DON'T KNOW YET

cardiovascular disease Trans fats are a risk factor for cardiovascular disease. Trans fats are found in products that contain hydrogenated oils. These oils are processed with hydrogen to turn them from an oil to a more solid product. Margarine is a product that contains hydrogenated fats. Read nutritional labels to minimize ingestion of foods that contain trans fats. Diverticulosis is typically due to age-related weakening of the muscularis layer in the intestines. This causes indentations that form in the wall of the intestines. Seeds may get stuck in these indentations. Irritation can occur, and eventually inflammation leads to a condition call diverticulitis. Constipation can occur for a variety of reasons, including a lack of fiber in the diet, age-related slowing down of peristalsis, or dehydration. Diarrhea can be due to a variety of reasons, including food poisoning, Crohn's disease, and food allergies. Scurvy is a bleeding disorder due to a lack of vitamin C, which is required to make connective tissues. Each of these disorders is due to a different underlying cause. Minimizing or eliminating trans fats from the diet helps to promote heart health. Exercise and avoiding saturated fats also will help with overall cardiovascular health.

People who are intoxicated cannot coordinate their movements or walk a straight line because alcohol disrupts the normal function of which region of the brain? cerebrum hypothalamus corpus callosum thalamus cerebellum

cerebellum

The region of brain that coordinates antagonistic muscle movements is the pons occipital lobe medulla oblongata cerebellum thalamus

cerebellum

Conscious thought is associated with which one of the following? thalamus cerebellum cerebral cortex medulla oblongata hypothalamus

cerebral cortex

Insulin does all of the following except ____________. lower blood sugar levels promote conversion of amino acids and fatty acids to glucose convert glycogen to glucose promote muscles cells to take up glucose promote adipose tissue to convert glucose to fat I DON'T KNOW YET

convert glycogen to glucose Insulin does not promote the conversion of glycogen to glucose. Insulin is released from the pancreas when blood sugar levels increase. Insulin functions to decrease blood sugar levels by converting glucose to glycogen. Recall that glycogen is a polysaccharide that the body uses to store sugar in the liver and muscles. Glycogen breaking down into glucose raises blood sugar levels; it doesn't lower them. Insulin lowers glucose by not only converting glucose to glycogen, but by increasing the transport of glucose into cells. Glucose enters muscle cells, which uses the glucose either for cellular respiration or for glycogen production. Glucose can also enter fat cells, which will convert glucose to triglycerides. Insulin's function is to lower blood sugar levels, not increase them. The conversion of amino acids and fatty acids to glucose would be done by glucagon, not by insulin.

The left and right cerebral hemispheres are interconnected by a nerve tract network called the ________. vermis of cerebellum pons interpeduncular fossa corpus callosum

corpus callosum

Which is not part of the limbic system? cerebrum amygdala corpus callosum hippocampus thalamus I DON'T KNOW YET

corpus callosum The corpus callosum is not part of the limbic system. The corpus callosum is white matter tracts that connect the left and right cerebral hemispheres. Recall that a tract is a group of axons in the central nervous system. It is white since the axons are myelinated. The limbic system is sometimes referred to as the emotional brain. It is not a single structure but a diverse group of structures that work together. It processes sensory input, helps form memories, and helps put emotional feelings to the sensory input that impacts bodily functions. For example, a person gets angry due to being cut off on the highway; the heart rate goes up and is an example of how sensory input can create emotional feelings that changes bodily function. The hippocampus functions in turning short-term memories or working memory into long-term memories that can last a lifetime. The amygdala also is involved with memory processing. The cerebral cortex initially processes the sensory input in the various sensory areas (visual, olfactory, auditory). Before sensory input goes to the cerebral cortex, it first travels through the thalamus.

A person is born with an undeveloped thyroid gland. Which condition will they must likely have? diabetes insipidus Cushing's syndrome cretinism Grave's disease Addison's disease I DON'T KNOW YET

cretinism Cretinism is the result of an underdeveloped thyroid gland. The thyroid gland secretes thyroid hormone (TH), which is essentially used by most cells of the body to function properly. Cretinism is characterized by short stature, underdeveloped secondary sexual characteristics, and cognative impairment. TH is required for proper functioning of the skeletal system, reproductive system, and nervous system. A lack of ADH results in diabetes insipidus. ADH causes the body to produce less urine during states of dehydration. A lack of ADH will cause greater urination, which will cause the body to dehydrate. Diabetes means overflow, and insipid means tasteless Hence, people with diabetes insipidus will urinate a lot and have urine that is tasteless, as compared to diabetes mellitus that will have a sweet taste due to the presence of glucose in the urine. Addison's disease is due to a lack of aldosterone. People suffering from Addison's disease will have low blood pressure, elevated blood potassium levels, and bronze-colored skin. Excessive cortisol results in Cushing's syndrome, which is characterized by a swollen face, a hump on the back of the lower neck, and facial hair development in females. Excessive TH can result in weight loss and a bulging of the eyes called exopthalmos.

Choose the function that does not belong. decreases salivation relaxes bladder muscles decreases breathing rate stimulates secretion of epinephrine inhibits defecation I DON'T KNOW YET

decreases breathing rate Decreases breathing rate does not belong on the list. All of the functions deal with a sympathetic nervous system (fight-or-flight) response except for one which deals with a rest and reposeresponse. The parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) modulates organ system activities when the body is in a restful state. Breathing and heart rate decrease, while digestive functions can increase if a person is eating. Defecation is promoted by the PNS but is inhibited by the sympathetic nervous system (SNS). Epinephrine, which is also known as adrenaline, is released when the SNS turns on. Epinephrine is a hormone that causes breathing and heart rate to increase and digestive functions to stop. Voiding is inhibited when the bladder is relaxed, and this occurs with sympathetic stimulation. Decreased salivation occurs with sympathetic stimulation. Hence, all the incorrect answers deal with sympathetic stimulation.

A lack of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) results in ____________. goiter diabetes insipidus Addison's disease lack of secondary sexual characteristics diabetes mellitus I DON'T KNOW YET

diabetes insipidus A lack of ADH results in diabetes insipidus. ADH causes the body to produce less urine during states of dehydration. A lack of ADH will cause greater urination, which will cause the body to dehydrate. Diabetes means overflow, and insipid means tasteless Hence, people with diabetes insipidus will urinate a lot and have urine that is tasteless, as compared to diabetes mellitus that will have a sweet taste due to the presence of glucose in the urine. Be careful not to confuse diabetes insipidus with diabetes mellitus. Diabetes mellitus is due to a lack of insulin. It also causes a lot of urination; however, sugar is also found in the urine. Diabetes insipidus is not characterized by sugar in the urine. Addison's disease is due to a lack of aldosterone. People suffering from Addison's disease will have low blood pressure, elevated blood potassium levels, and bronze-colored skin. Goiters are due to problems with the thyroid gland. A goiter is an overgrowth of the gland; thus the goiter is found as an enlargement of the upper front portion of the neck. Typically, goiters arise from a deficiency of iodine in the diet. A deficiency of estrogen can account for a lack of secondary sexual characteristics in a female, while a deficiency of testosterone can cause it in a male.

What is the order of meninges starting at the skull? arachnoid mater, dura mater, pia mater arachnoid mater, pia mater, dura mater dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater I DON'T KNOW YET

dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater The correct order of meninges starting at the skull is dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater. The meninges are a set of three connective tissues that function to protect the brain and spinal cord. The outermost layer is the dura mater. Note its name "dura," which means "strong." The next layer toward the brain is the arachnoid mater. It has extensions that look like a spider's web, thus "arachnoid.". Cerebrospinal fluid flows in the subarachnoid space, which is a space below the arachnoid mater. Blood vessels are also associated with the arachnoid mater. Lastly is the very thin and delicate pia mater, which directly covers the surface of the brain. "Pia" means tender Read the question carefully and go in the proper direction, either toward or away from the brain. Pia mater, arachnoid mater, and dura mater go from the brain to the surface, hence doesn't answer the question. The most superficial layer is the strong dura mater, not the web-like arachnoid mater. The layer covering the brain is the pia mater, not the arachnoid mater.

Which one of the following types of neurotransmitter functions as an inhibitory agent, typically suppressing the sensation of pain? acetylcholine endorphins somatostatin epinephrine serotonin

endorphins

A person goes to the doctor to get a blood sugar test. Why is a person who is afraid of doctors more likely to get a false elevated blood sugar level? Which hormone is most likely increasing their blood sugar levels before the person sees the doctor? insulin glucagon melatonin epinephrine aldosterone I DON'T KNOW YET

epinephrine Epinephrine is most likely raising the person's blood sugar levels. Epinephrine is released from the adrenal medulla when the sympathetic nervous system is activated. Fear can turn on the sympathetic nervous system. Epinenephrine causes a variety of changes to occur in the body, including increased breathing, heart rate, and blood glucose levels. The elevated blood glucose levels can yield results that show high blood sugar levels, when in reality it is just due to epinephrine and not due to diet or insulin levels. Insulin decreases blood sugar levels; it doesn't increase it. While glucagon raises blood sugar levels, glucagon is not released due to fear; it is released when there are low blood sugar levels. Aldosterone is not released due to fear nor does it play a role in sugar metabolism. Melatonin is released when there is a lack of daylight, as happens during the winter. Melatonin influences sleep and daily biological rhythms.

Which hormone binds to receptors located in the nucleus? follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) glucagon insulin calcitonin estrogen I DON'T KNOW YET

estrogen Estrogen binds to receptors located inside the nucleus. Estrogen is a steroid hormone, a hydrophobic molecule produced using cholesterol. Because it is hydrophobic, estrogen can pass through the cell membrane and actually binds to receptors found within the nucleus. The binding of a steroid to its intranuclear receptor promotes transcription, thereby starting the first steps of eventual protein synthesis. Glucagon is a peptide hormone; thus it binds to receptors on the cell membrane. FSH is a glycoprotein (protein with attached carbohydrate groups) that binds to receptors on the cell membrane. Calcitonin and insulin are also protein hormones that bind to receptors on the cell membrane. A key difference between protein hormones and steroid hormones is that steroid hormones actually enter the cell and can interact with receptors in the nucleus and/or cytoplasm. This promotes transcription needed to make mRNA that will be used in translation, which will produce new proteins needed to maintain homeostasis. Protein hormones do not enter the cell; rather, they interact with receptors in the cell membrane. Ultimately, a second messenger called cAMP is produced intracellularly, and this will turn on enzymes within the cell.

Choose the underlying condition that would account for enlarged extremities in an adult and possible facial deformities. excessive aldosterone excessive cortisol lack of iodine excessive growth hormone excessive thyroid hormone (TH) I DON'T KNOW YET

excessive growth hormone Excessive growth hormone causes acromegaly, which accounts for the enlarged extremities. Growth hormone targets the epiphyseal plate to elongate, promoting bone lengthening. It can also promote appositional growth, which results in a thickening of the bones. Facial deformities come from bone and muscle overgrowth. Overgrowth of the jaw results in spaces forming between teeth. GH promotes skeletal muscle growth; thus people with acromegaly can have enlarged tongues. Lack of iodine causes the thyroid gland to grow, producing a goiter, which would be found in the upper front neck region. This would not produce a facial deformity nor enlarged extremities. Excessive cortisol results in Cushing's syndrome, which is characterized by a swollen face, a hump on the back of the lower neck, and facial hair development on females. Excessive TH can result in weight loss and a bulging of the eyes called exopthalmos. Excessive amounts of aldosterone can cause high blood pressure. Understanding that growth hormone impacts the skeletal system helps to identify it as the hormone that creates the problem known as acromegaly.

Please put in the correct order for a person to detect a whistle. external auditory canal, tympanic membrane, malleus, incus, stapes, oval window, semicircular canals external auditory canal, tympanic membrane, malleus, incus, stapes, round window, cochlea auditory tube, tympanic membrane, malleus, incus, stapes, oval window, cochlea external auditory canal, tympanic membrane , malleus, incus, stapes, oval window, cochlea external auditory canal, tympanic membrane, stapes, incus, mallus, oval window, cochlea I DON'T KNOW YET

external auditory canal, tympanic membrane , malleus, incus, stapes, oval window, cochlea The correct order of events is external auditory canal, tympanic membrane, malleus, incus, stapes, oval window, cochlea. Sound goes through the external auditory canal of the outer ear and then causes the tympanic membrane (ear drum) to vibrate. These vibrations cause tiny bones in the middle ear to vibrate. These bones connect in the following order of the malleus, incus, and stapes. The stapes vibrates and causes an oval-shaped membrane to vibrate. Those vibrations are transmitted to the cochlea of the inner ear. The cochlea has receptors that convert vibrations into neural impulses. Remembering the common names for the malleus, incus, and stapes (hammer, anvil, and stirrup) may help in remembering the order of the bones in the middle ear. The hammer hits the anvil and then the anvil hits the stirrup, causing it to vibrate. The stirrup is named since it looks like the stirrups associated with riding a horse. The choice with stapes, incus, malleus is backward; it should be malleus, incus, stapes. The hammer hits the anvil. The stapes hits the oval window, not the round window. This is key since the cochlea is on the other side of the oval window, and the vibrations of the oval window are transmitted to the cochlea. The semicircular canals deal with dynamic equilibrium or balance. They do not have receptors that detect sound. Sound is transmitted through the external auditory canal of the outer ear until it reaches the tympanic membrane. The auditory tube or Eustachian tube connects the middle ear with the throat to minimize pressure differences between outside the ear and the middle ear.

Which is a somatic sensation? tasting the food on the spoon smelling the aroma of the soup on the spoon seeing the spoon hearing the spoon land on the floor after it is accidentally dropped feeling a spoon enter your mouth I DON'T KNOW YET

feeling a spoon enter your mouth Feeling a spoon enter your mouth is a somatic or general sensation. General sensations are any sensation that can be detected on the body and are not only detected by the head. Touch, temperature, vibration, pressure, and pain are all general senses. Feeling the spoon enter your mouth is a touch, thus it is a general sense. Special senses are those limited to the head and include taste, smell, sight, hearing, and detecting body equilibrium (balance). Seeing the spoon, hearing the spoon drop, smelling the aroma of the soup, and tasting the soup are all special senses and are not general senses. General senses can be detected on any region of the body. All those sensations are limited to special sensory receptors located on the head.

A genetic defect results in nonfunctional hair cells. This person will suffer from an inability to ____________. feel pain gain a sense of balance smell coordinate muscle movements taste I DON'T KNOW YET

gain a sense of balance This person will have an inability to gain a sense of balance. Hair cells are found in semicircular canals and in the vestibule. The semicircular canals are a set of three gel-filled tubes with hair cells. Rotational movement causes the gel to move and the hair bend in the direction of gel flow. The bending of the hair creates action potentials. The vestibule also has hair cells embedded in a gel-like material. However, this structure is specialized to determine head position relative to the ground. Nonfunctioning hair cells will prevent these processes from occurring, and a person will not be able to get a sense of balance. The person could also be deaf since hair cells function in converting vibrations to action potentials. Pain is detected by unencapsulated nerve endings. Taste is detected by by taste cells. While taste cells do indeed have structures called "taste hairs," the question was asking about hair cells. Be careful to discriminate the best answer to the question. Muscle movements are detected by encapsulated receptors called muscle spindles and tendon receptors. Smell is detected by specialized cells called olfactory receptor cells.

Which is not a part of a neuron? glial body cell body node of Ranvier dendrite axon I DON'T KNOW YET

glial body Glial bodies are not part of a neuron. Glial or neuroglial are cells that help neurons function. Glial cells, such as Schwann cells, form myelin on axons to increase action potential velocity. Other glial cells release substances to promote neuron growth. Others form a framework to serve as structural support of neurons. Saltatory conduction occurs with myelinated neurons. Thus, axons covered with Schwann cells will have saltatory conduction. Glial cells even communicate with each other and neurons. All neurons contain an axon, which functions to transmit action potentials to other neurons or to effectors. Axons are typically long and only branch by their ends. Dendrites are short branching extensions that come from the cell body. Dendrites receive sensory input from sensory receptors or from other neurons. The cell body is the main portion of the cell that contains the nucleus and other organelles. The node of Ranvier is a specialized portion of a axon that does not have any myelin covering it.

Mucin, a component of saliva, functions to __________. See Section 14.2 (Page) hold food particles together inhibit bacterial growth digest carbohydrates maintain the pH of the mouth

hold food particles together Mucin contains mucous and helps to hold food particles together.

Regulation of the production of breast milk, carbohydrate metabolism, and temperature control are some of the functions of the hypothalamus thalamus medulla oblongata. frontal lobe midbrain.

hypothalamus

Which one of the following parts of the brain effectively links the nervous system and the endocrine system? medulla oblongata cerebellum cerebral cortex hypothalamus corpus callosum

hypothalamus

Where are neuroendocrine cells found? thyroid gland posterior pituitary and anterior pituitary hypothalamus and posterior pituitary adrenal cortex hypothalamus and anterior pituitary I DON'T KNOW YET

hypothalamus and posterior pituitary The hypothalamus and posterior pituitary contain neuroendocrine cells. The posterior pituitary, sometimes called the neurohypophysis, is a direct extension of the hypothalamus. The cell bodies of neuroendocrine cells (neurons) are found in the hypothalamus, and the axons extend into the posterior pituitary. The cell bodies synthesize oxytocin and ADH, which then travel down the axons and are stored in the posterior pituitary. An appropriate stimulus causes the posterior pituitary to secrete the hormones into the blood. While the posterior pituitary has neuroendocrine cells, the anterior pituitary does not. However, the endocrine hormones produced by the neuroendocrine cells do influence the actions of the anterior pituitary. The anterior pituitary contains epithelial cells that produce a variety of hormones that target glands throughout the body. Some hormones of the anterior pituitary include growth hormone and thyroid-stimulating hormone. The adrenal cortex and the thyroid gland both contain epithelial tissues that produce a variety of hormones. The adrenal cortex produces cortisol and aldosterone, while the thyroid gland produces thyroid hormone and calcitonin. Each gland has different specialized cells that produce different hormones; hence one gland may have multiple cell types, and each type is responsible for producing a different hormone.

Glaucoma results from ____________. elongated lens cloudiness in the lens defective cones deficient amounts of vitreous produced improper drainage of aqueous humor I DON'T KNOW YET

improper drainage of aqueous humor Glaucoma results from improper drainage of the aqueous humor. Aquesous humor flows in the anterior portion of the eye, supplying nutrients and getting rid of wastes. It also supports the eye, keeping it inflated. Aqueous humor is constantly being made and drained. Some individuals can't drain the fluid, and it builds up, increasing the pressure within the eye. This excessive pressure can damage the optic nerve, leading to blindness. Deficient amounts of vitreous humor would cause the eyeball not to keep its shape. A cloudiness of the lens is due to cataracts, which can be due to exposure to ultraviolet light or cigarette smoke. An elongated lens causes nearsightedness in which objects need to be moved closer to the eye bring the image into focus. Cones function in color vision; hence defective cones will result in some form of color blindness.

A person had a stroke in an association area. Which problem will he or she most likely suffer from? inability to recognize a hot dog after looking at it inability to see no awareness of any sensory input, such as touch or temperature inability to hear can't control heart rate DON'T KNOW YET

inability to recognize a hot dog after looking at it A problem with an association area can cause a person to not be able to recognize a hot dog after looking at it. Association areas are fascinating parts of the brain that make sense of sensory input. In other words, sight is the ability to see something, but it does not mean you will recognize what you see. You can touch something but not know what you are touching. Association areas put meaning to the sensory input, so you understand what you are seeing, touching, smelling ,etc. Even though a person will not be able to recognize a hot dog by sight, they will be able to identify it by smell or taste or touch. A problem with an association area in one lobe does not impact how other association areas work. The inability to see is a problem either with the eye itself, an optic nerve, or the visual area in the occipital lobe. A problem with controlling the heart rate can be due to problems with the autonomic nervous system (NS). Both the parasympathetic and sympathetic NS influence heart rate. The temporal lobe processes auditory input. The auditory association area helps process language. If this area was not working, then the person would be able to hear but not understand what he or she was hearing. The parietal lobe deals with detecting sensation in the primary sensory area. A defect in this region would cause a lack of sensation. A defect in the association area would have a person still having sensation, just not understanding what he or she was touching or feeling.

A person was born with an underdeveloped cerebellum. What problem will they most likely experience? inability to distinguish a pen from a pencil without looking at it inability to sense temperature inability to make a decision inability to speak inability to walk I DON'T KNOW YET

inability to walk A person born with an underdeveloped cerebellum will have problems walking. The cerebellum evaluates sensory inputs and motor outputs of voluntary muscle movements. Essentially, the cerebellum ensures that an intended motion is ending up where it should end up. None of us think about how much to lift up a leg to take a step, but the cerebellum processes that sensory input from receptors that sense leg position and ensures that the leg is in the right position to take a proper step. A nonfunctioning cerebellum would cause problems for any type of voluntary movement. A person would not be able to feed themselves since your hands cannot easily aim for the mouth if the cerebellum is not functioning. The ability to speak deals with the cerebral cortex, specifically an area called Broca's area. The ability to make decisions resides in the frontal lobe of the brain. The ability to sense temperatures resides in the parietal lobe. The ability to distinguish a pen from a pencil resides in an association area of the parietal lobe. all of the lobes of the brain, along with white matter and some nuclei, make up the cerebrum. Be careful not to confuse cerebellum with cerebrum.

What is the purpose of myelin? insulate the cell body wrap around the node of Ranvier increase velocity of neural impulse conduction remove the neurotransmitter insulate the dendrites

increase velocity of neural impulse conduction Myelin increases velocity of neural impulse conduction. Myelin is a fatty protein that covers the axons of certain neurons. It doesn't cover the whole axon, but it covers a segment, leaves a region uncovered, and covers the next segment. The unmyelinated regions are called nodes of Ranvier. The nodes are where the sodium and potassium channels are concentrated. Action potential transmission is faster on myelinated than unmyelinated axons since the action potentials are proprogated only on the nodes and not the full length. The transmission of action potentials on myelinated axons is known as saltatory propagations, which means jumping transmissions since the action potential seems to jump from node to node. Dendrites and cell bodies are never covered with myelin. They have neurotransmitter receptors that need to remain uncovered, and they do not producte action potentials. Only axons produce action potentials. The nodes of Ranvier are the unmyelinated regions of the axon. They are the areas where sodium and potassium channels are located. If these areas were myelinated, then the axon would be impermeable to ion movement due to the myelin wrapping around it. Enzymes such as acetylcholinesterase remove the neurotransmitter.

The stapes makes contact with the ____________ and the _____________. tympanic membrane; incus incus; round window malleus; oval window incus; oval window malleus; round window I DON'T KNOW YET

incus; oval window The stapes makes contact with the incus and oval window. The malleus, incus, and stapes are commonly called the hammer, anvil, and stirrup. Knowing these common names will help you understand the order of structures. A hammer hits the anvil; thus this gives you the first two bones of the middle ear. The remaining bone is the stapes, the third bone. While oval window and round window sound as though they can be used interchangeably, each has a different shape, location, and function. The oval window is oval in shape and transmits vibrations from the stapes to the cochlea. The round window, as its name implies, is round in shape. It transmits vibrations from the cochlea to the middle ear. The pressure waves created by the stapes on the oval window are relieved by the corresponding jutting out of the round window. Essentially, it works like this: Stapes presses against the oval window, and the oval window presses against liquid in the cochlea. The liquid in the cochlea presses against the round window. The malleus makes contact with the tympanic membrane and the incus. The stapes makes contact with the incus and oval window. Draw out these structures to help remember their correct order.

Directly after repolarization, what is the charge and ion distribution? inside negative with more sodium ions and outside positive with more potassium ions inside negative with more calcium ions and outside positive with more potassium ions inside negative with more potassium ions and outside positive with more sodium ions inside positive with more sodium ions and outside negative with more potassium ions inside positive with more potassium ions and outside negative with more sodium ions I DON'T KNOW YET

inside negative with more sodium ions and outside positive with more potassium ions Directly after repolarization, the charge and ion distribution is the following: Inside negative with more sodium ions and outside positive with more potassium ions. To answer this question, you need to go through the steps of the action potential (AP). Recall that depolarization occurs before repolarization. Depolarization involves sodium ions entering the cell. Repolarization involves the opening of potassium channels, causing a big loss of positively charged potassium ions out of the cell. Thus, at this point, there is more sodium inside and more potassium outside. The loss of the positively charged potassium ions from inside the cell makes the inside of the cell relatively more negative than the outside. Repolarization involves the loss of potassium ions from inside the cell; hence, the inside should have less potassium ions, not more. While repolarization results in more potassium on the outside and the previous depolarization step results in more sodium on the inside, the charge distributions are wrong. The loss of potassium ions makes the inside more negative as compared to the outside. The inside is more positive only after depolarization. Repolarization makes the inside more negative again. Repolarization involves the loss of potassium ions from inside the cell; hence, there will be less potassium inside than outside. Depolarization and repolarization involve sodium and potassium ions. Calcium ions do not play a role in these processes.

Which structure regulates the amount of light entering the eye? cornea ciliary body pupil iris sclera I DON'T KNOW YET

iris The iris regulates the amount of light entering the eye. The iris is a colored muscular structure that surrounds the pupil. The iris opens up, allowing more light in when there is insuffiencient light but closes up when light is too bright. The pupil is the opening in the iris that light passes through. The iris changes its shape, thereby changing the size of the pupil. The ciliary body is a muscular structure that attaches to the lens. The ciliary body is involved with changing the shape of the lens to enable it to focus light rays onto the fovea. The sclera is the whites of the eye. It provides structure support and serves as an attachment site for muscles that aid in eyeball movement. The cornea is the clear front portion of the eye.

Receptors least likely to adapt are ____________. thermoreceptors chemoreceptors touch receptors pressure receptors joint receptors I DON'T KNOW YET

joint receptors Joint receptors are least likely to adapt. Adaptation occurs when a continuous sensation is ignored by the nervous system. Joint receptors sense body position and continuously send signals to the brain. If the joint receptors adapted, then a person walking would most likely trip since the receptors are no longer sending signals to the brain conveying information about leg position. Thermoreceptors sense temperature and quickly adapt. Hot water seems to cool off quickly, but this is more of an issue of adaptation than the water losing heat. Chemoreceptors sense odors, and they quickly adapt. A good example is a person adapting to an odor in a room that others do notice once they enter the room. Touch and pressure receptors both quickly adapt. Adaption of touch receptors account for a person no longer feeling the clothing he or she is wearing. Pressure receptors no longer respond to the pressure of sitting down.

Which organ stores fat-soluble vitamins and recycles worn-out red blood cycles? gall bladder stomach pancreas spleen liver I DON'T KNOW YET

liver The liver stores fat-soluble vitamins and recycles worn-out red blood cells. The liver truly is a multi-tasker for the body. It stores vitamins A, D, E, and K. It has macrophages that destroy red blood cells and goes about recycling the iron found in hemoglobin. The liver also detoxifies poisons, such as alcohol. It synthesizes plasma proteins, including clotting factors and albumin. It converts glucose to glycogen and then breaks it back down when sugar levels go down. The liver also does numerous other biochemical reactions. The spleen is part of the lymphatic system. It recycles red blood cells like the liver, but it doesn't store fat-soluble vitamins, detoxify poisons, or synthesize plasma proteins or glycogen. The stomach acts as a temporary reservoir for food and slowly empties its contents into the small intestines. The stomach also functions to start protein digestion and secrete intrinsic factor that aids in vitamin B12 absorption. The pancreas has both endocrine and exocrine functions. It releases the hormones glucagon and insulin that both work to keep blood glucose levels at a homeostatic setpoint. The pancreas also secretes enzymes that digest lipids, proteins, and carbohydrates. Lastly, it releases the bicarbonate ion, which is a weak base that functions to neutralize stomach acid. Many organs do multiple functions, but the liver seems to do the most types of varied jobs to keep the body functioning.

Increased levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH) are characterized by ____________. Graves' disease Addison's disease Cushing's syndrome decreased activity of osteoclasts and increased activity of osteoblasts loss of bone density I DON'T KNOW YET

loss of bone density Increased levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH) are characterized by loss of bone density. The parathyroid gland releases PTH when blood calcium ion levels decline. PTH activates osteoclasts, which will break down bone to release calcium ions into the bloodstream. Neural and muscular tissues rely on calcium ions to function properly. Graves' disease is an autoimmune disorder that results in the release of excessive amounts of thyroid hormone. Addison's disease is due to a lack of aldosterone. Decreased activity of osteoclasts and increased activity of osteoblasts characterize increased levels of calcitonin. Calcitonin's function is to lower blood calcium ion levels, while PTH's function is to elevate blood calcium ion levels. Cushing's syndrome is due to excess glucocorticoids.

The circadian cycle is believed to be influenced by which hormone? melatonin erythropoietin atrial natriuretic hormone renin-Angtiotensin system cholecystokinin I DON'T KNOW YET

melatonin Circadian cycles, or rhythms, appear to be influenced by melatonin. Melatonin is released by the pineal gland, which is located within the brain. Levels of melatonin are influenced by the amount of light a person is exposed to. Melatonin levels go up in the dark and back down during daylight. These cycles go over 24-hour periods that impact sleep and feeding activities. Cholecystokinin is a hormone released by the small intestines and controls pancreatic, stomach, and gall bladder secretions. Atrial natriuretic hormone is released by the heart and functions to lower blood pressure. The renin-angtiotensin system is released by the kidneys and liver and functions to raise blood pressure. Erythropoietin is released by the kidneys and functions to stimulate red blood cell production in the red bone marrow. Each of these hormones have fairly specific functions, such as raising blood pressure. However, melatonin appears to control timing of various biological processes.

Which of the following represents the correct sequence in which structures involved in lipid absorption are formed? See Section 14.11 (Page) micelles, triglycerides, chylomicrons micelles, chylomicrons, triglycerides chylomicrons, micelles, triglycerides triglycerides, chylomicrons, micelles

micelles, triglycerides, chylomicrons Micelles are formed first, then triglycerides are reformed, and chylomicrons are formed last.

Pick the incorrect association. sensory neuron: connects to an interneuron dendrites: short and numerous axons: typically long in length motor neuron: connects to sensory receptor motor neuron: release acetylcholine I DON'T KNOW YET

motor neuron: connects to sensory receptor Motor neurons do not connect to sensory receptors. Motor or efferent neurons control effectors, which include muscle and glands. Motor neurons turn muscles on and cause them to contract or cause glands to secrete. Dendrites are short branching extensions that come from the cell body. Dendrites receive sensory input from sensory receptors or from other neurons. Motor neurons contain long axons, which can run the length of a leg, and only branch at their ends. The end of the axons release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, which is used to turn skeletal muscles on. Sensory neurons connect to a sensory receptor and to an interneuron, which evaluates the sensory input and decides whether to turn a motor neuron on, off, or leave it alone.

Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a demyelinating disease that causes disfunction of which type of cell? motor neurons Schwann cells interneurons sensory neurons oligodendrocytes

oligodendrocytes

Which two hormones are released by the posterior pituitary? follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH) glucagon and insulin calcitonin and parathyroid hormone (PTH) aldosterone and thyroid hormone I DON'T KNOW YET

oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone are both released by the posterior pituitary. The posterior pituitary, sometimes called the neurohypophysis, is a direct extension of the hypothalamus. The cell bodies of neurosecretory cells (neurons) are found in the hypothalamus, and the axons extend into the posterior pituitary. The cell bodies synthesize oxytocin and ADH, which then travel down the axons and are stored in the posterior pituitary. An appropriate stimulus causes the posterior pituitary to secrete the hormones into the blood. Glucagon and insulin are antagonistic hormones that are both released by the pancreas. Aldosterone is released by the adrenal cortex, while the thyroid gland releases thyroid hormone. Calcitonin is released by the thyroid gland, while the parathyroid glands release PTH. FSH and LH are both released by the anterior pituitary. Oxytocin and ADH are different from the rest of the hormones since they are not produced by the structure that secretes them.

Which enzyme is not made by the pancreas? pepsin carboxypeptidase lipase amylase chymotrypsin I DON'T KNOW YET

pepsin Pepsin is not made by the pancreas. Pepsin is made by chief cells in the stomach. The pepsin is initially made in an inactive form called pepsinogen. The pepsinogen is turned into pepsin by HCl. The pepsin functions to start protein digestion. Chymotrypsin and carboxypeptidase are both enzymes that function to break down proteins. They are released from the pancreas in an inactive form to prevent self-digestion of the pancreas. Chymotrypsin and carboxypeptidase continue protein digestion that pepsin started. Eventually enzymes in the microvilli will complete protein digestion. Lipase is an enzyme produced by the pancreas and functions to digest lipids. Pancreatic amylase continues starch digestion initially started by salivary amylase.

There are measurably more synthetic ________ in conventional foods when compared to organic foods. vitamins pesticides citric acid carbohydrates

pesticides

Umami is a ____________. type of visual pigment found in photoreceptors primary taste type of cell embedded in the cupula material that otoliths are embedded in type of olfactory receptor I DON'T KNOW YET

primary taste Umami is one of the five primary tastes. The other primary tastes include salty, sweet, sour, and bitter. These are called primary tastes because it is believed that all flavors are based on some combination of these tastes. All taste buds are capable of responding to these five flavors. Rhodopsin is a type of visual pigment found in the photoreceptors known as rods. Visual pigments undergo changes when exposed to light. Otoliths are embedded in a gelatinous material. Lith means stone, and these stones are found in the vestibule of the inner ear. Olfactory receptors are found in the mucus of the upper nasal cavity. Hair cells are embedded in the cupula of the semicircular canals. Science has many words that are not normally used, such as umami, cupula, otoliths, and rhodopsin. Please use the index or glossary to look up the meaning of these words. This will empower you to master the material.

Lacking gastrin will affect ____________. lipid digestion bile secretion protein digestion saliva secretion starch digestion I DON'T KNOW YET

protein digestion A lack of gastrin will affect protein digestion. Gastrin is a hormone produced by the stomach and targets the stomach to release HCl and pepsinogen. Pepsinogen is an inactive enzyme that is converted to pepsin by HCl. Pepsin functions in protein catabolism. It is important to note that the pancreas also produces enzymes that digest proteins; hence protein digestion will not be as efficient but can still occur due to the presence of the pancreatic enzymes. Starch digestion occurs due to the presence of salivary and pancreatic amylase. The thought of food, smell of food, and presence of food in the mouth stimulates the release of saliva, which contains salivary amylase. Cholecystokinin (CCK) targets the pancreas to release pancreatic amylase. Lipid digestion is a two-step process. The first step involves the emulsification of fat by bile. The second step involves the catabolism of fats and oils to fatty acids and glycerol. CCK targets the gall bladder to release bile and targets the pancreas to release pancreatic lipase, which catabolizes fats and oils. The absence of gastrin will not affect starch or lipid digestion, but it will affect protein digestion.

Which one of the following diseases is caused by a virus that is introduced to the body through the skin and travels along sensory neurons to the brain? Alzheimer's disease Parkinson's disease meningitis epilepsy rabies

rabies

What is the function of interneurons? provide structural support for other neurons connect sensory receptors control effector organs produce myelin receive sensory input and control motor output I DON'T KNOW YET

receive sensory input and control motor output Interneurons receive sensory input and control motor output. Interneurons, also known as association neurons, synapse with sensory neurons and motor neurons. Interneurons function to take sensory input from sensory neurons and "decide" whether to turn a motor neuron on, off, or leave it alone. Interneurons are found in the central nervous system (CNS), which includes the brain and spinal cord. Motor neurons or efferent neurons are the neurons synapsing with the muscle. They are known as efferent since signals are going away from the CNS. Sensory, or afferent, neurons are the neurons that connect to sensory receptors. They are known as afferent neurons since they are sending impulses to the CNS. Glial cells produce myelin and provide support for neurons.

What is the function of the thalamus? stores memories receives sensory information controls heart rate controls voluntary movement involved with left and right cerebral hemisphere communication I DON'T KNOW YET

receives sensory information The thalamus receives sensory information. A good way to remember the thalamus is to think of it as the post office of the brain. A post office receives all of the mail and then sorts it so the right mail goes to the right home. All sensory input, except for olfaction, goes through the thalamus, and the neural connections of the thalamus ensure that a touch on your foot is sent to the portion of your parietal lobe that functions to discern a touch on your foot. Every inch of your body is wired to go to a specific portion of the parietal lobe for sensation detection and perception. The medulla of the brainstem controls heart rate. The medulla has portions controlled by the sympathetic nervous system that will increase the heart rate, while other portions are under parasympathetic control and decrease the heart rate. The hippocampus and amygdala of the limbic system deal with memory storage. The corpus callosum, which is a tract of white matter, connects the left and right cerebral hemispheres. Thus, the thalamus is important for sensory functions since all sensory input goes through it and then sends the sensory input to appropriate brain regions for further processing.

The vitreous humor fills the main chamber of the eye. Which one of the following structures of the eye does vitreous humor come in direct contact with? cornea choroid iris retina sclera

retina

The fovea is located in the ____________. ciliary body cornea retina choroid sclera I DON'T KNOW YET

retina The fovea is located in the retina, which is the sensory layer of the eye. The fovea has the highest concentration of photoreceptors for detecting color. Light causes these cells to produce neural impulses that eventually go to the brain. The lens focuses light onto the fovea to produce a sharp image. The choroid is in the middle layer of the eye. It has blood vessels to supply nutrients to the rest of the eye. The sclera is part of the outer eye layer. It is a very tough layer (scler means hard) that muscles attach to that cause the eyeball to move. It also protects the eyeball. The cornea is the clear front portion of the eye. Light initially travels through the cornea as it enters the eye. The ciliary body contains muscles that change the shape of the lens to enable light to be focused on the fovea, which is a tiny pit in the retina.

Please put in the correct order, starting once light hits the retina and photoreceptors are activated. sclera, choroid, pigment layer, cone, bipolar cell, ganglion cell, optic nerve ganglion cell layer, bipolar cell, rod, pigment layer, choroid, optic nerve rod, bipolar cell, ganglion cell, optic nerve, occipital lobe cornea, pupil, vitreous humor, retina, optic nerve, visual cortex rod, cone, ganglion cell, optic nerve, occipital lobe I DON'T KNOW YET

rod, bipolar cell, ganglion cell, optic nerve, occipital lobe Rod, bipolar cell, ganglion cell, optic nerve, occipital lobe is the correct order once light hits the retina. The key is to start with photoreceptors, which are the rod and cones. The rods turn light energy into a neural impulse. The signal then goes to bipolar cells, which has an axon and just one dendrite emerging from the cell body. The signal next goes to the ganglion cells. All of the axons of the ganglion cells form a bundle called the optic nerve (cranial nerve II). The optic nerve then travels to the brain, and the information is then processed in the visual area of the occipital lobe. While cones are also a photoreceptor, one photoreceptor is not directly wired to another photoreceptor. Thus, rods don't connect to cones; they connect to a bipolar cell. Cornea, pupil, vitreous humor, retina, optic nerve, and visual cortex shows the correct order for light traveling into the eye, but this question states to start with the photoreceptor. Ganglion cell layer, bipolar cell, rod, pigmented layer, choroid, optic nerve shows the order of cells and structures that light would encounter if it was to hit the retina and be able to keep traveling through other layers of the eye. Again, you need to start with a rod or cone, which are photoreceptors, not with the sclera, which is the white of the eye and functions in structural support.

Rhodopsin is located in the ____________. sclera rods ciliary body vitreous humor cones I DON'T KNOW YET

rods Rhodopsin is located in the rods. Rhodopsin is a pigment that is very sensitive to light, which accounts for the sensitivity of rods to low amounts of light. Light causes changes in rhodopsin, and biochemical pathways are activated that ultimately caus a neural impulse to be created. The cones detect color and have a different pigment called photopsins. The sclera is a tough structure made of connective tissue that functions to maintain eyeball shape and serves as an attachment sight for muscles that move the eyeball. The ciliary body is a muscular structure that works to change the shape of the lens in order to focus light onto the fovea. Vitreous humor is a jelly-like substance made mostly of water and some other materials that function to maintain the shape of the eye and keep the retina attached to the choroid. Only rods and cones have visual pigments that interact with light, and it is only rods that have rhodopsin. Possibly use the fact that rods and rhodopsin both start with the letter "r" as a trick to remember this information.

Semicircular canals function in ____________. sound amplification static position rotational movement sound perception sound reception I DON'T KNOW YET

rotational movement Semicircular canals function in rotational movement. These three canals are fluid-filled structures that detect motion of the head, such as moving the head to say no. They also detect whole body motion associated with acceleration and deacceleration. Sound amplification is produced by the three tiny bones in the middle ear (malleus, incus, and stapes). These bones collectively are known as the ossicles. The vestibule functions in static position, which detects the position of the head relative to the ground. While both the semicircular canals and vestibule detect equilibrium, it is the semicircular canals that detect changes in motion. The vestibule detects position. The cochlea functions in sound reception. The hair cells in the organ of Corti change vibrations into electrical impulses. The impulses travel to the temporal lobe, where sound perception occurs.

Found in fruit and honey, ________ sugars are composed of at most two sugar units linked together.

simple

Excitatory neurotransmitters encourage the generation of new electrical impulses by which one of the following? stimulating saltatory conduction stimulating depolarization of presynaptic neurons inhibiting postsynaptic neurons from repolarizing inhibiting presynaptic neurons from depolarizing stimulating depolarization of postsynaptic neurons

stimulating depolarization of postsynaptic neurons

Where does protein digestion begin? small intestine stomach esophagus large intestine mouth I DON'T KNOW YET

stomach Protein digestion begins in the stomach. While mechanical digestion of all foods begins in the mouth, proteins are partially broken down in the stomach by the action of an enzyme called pepsin. Enzymes in the small intestines will eventually complete protein digestion. The mouth starts mechanical digestion of all foods. It releases salivary amylase that starts starch digestion. Enzymes from the pancreas are released into the small intestines, and these enzymes will eventually complete protein digestion. The large intestine does not have any enzymes to digest nutrients. The main job of the large intestines is to absorb electrolytes and water until fecal materials have a proper consistency for elimination. The esophagus lacks enzymes and functions just to bring materials from the mouth to the stomach.

Which organ has an oblique layer of muscle? small intestines esophagus stomach rectum large intestines I DON'T KNOW YET

stomach The stomach has an oblique layer of muscle in addition to the longitudinal and circular layers of smooth muscle. The oblique layer allows the muscularis to produce motions beyond the typical peristaltic motions found in other regions of the GI tract. This oblique layer produces forceful contractions that help to mechanically break down food. The teeth begin the mechanical break down of food, and the stomach completes it using churning motions produced by the oblique layer. Food in the stomach is liquefied by the time it reaches the small intestines. The rest of the GI tract, which includes the esophagus, small intestines, large intestines, and the rectum, has just two layers of the muscularis. The two layers are smooth muscle with one layer running lengthwise with the tube and the other encircling the tube. The two layers work together to propel food in one direction, using a motion known as peristalsis. Only the stomach is involved with mechanical digestion; hence the other regions do not need an oblique layer to produce a churning motion.

What is the function of cholecystokinin? targets the stomach to release pepsin neutralizes stomach acid targets the pancreas to release enzyme rich secretions emulsifies fats causes the defecation reflex I DON'T KNOW YET

targets the pancreas to release enzyme rich secretions Cholecystokinin targets the pancreas to release enzyme rich secretions. Cholecystokinin (CCK) is another hormone produced by cells in the duodenum. The stimulus for CCK release is chyme that is rich with fat and proteins. CCK causes the pancreas to release an enzyme-rich secretion that includes pancreatic lipase, carboxypeptidase, trypsin, and chymotrypsin. The first enzyme breaks down lipids, while the last three are enzymes that catabolize proteins. CCK also causes the gall bladder to contract to release bile. Lastly, it inhibits stomach motility and secretion. Gastrin targets the stomach to release pepsin. Gastrin is a hormone produced by the stomach and actually targets the stomach to release pepsinogen and HCl. Bile is produced by the liver and is stored in the gall bladder. Bile functions to emulsify fats, which essentially helps to break down large lipid droplets into smaller droplets, which can then be chemically digested by parncreatic lipase. The defecation reflex is controlled by the autonomic nervous system and does not involve hormones. Stomach acid is neutralized by bicarbonate, which is released by the pancreas due to the hormone secretin. We see from these examples that both neural and hormonal controls influence digestion. The same organ, in this case the pancreas, can be influenced by multiple hormones.

Which of the following is the best example of perception? tasting a hint of orange in chocolate seeing an object close up hearing a sound being aware of a stimulus feeling an object in your hand I DON'T KNOW YET

tasting a hint of orange in chocolate The best example of perception is tasting a hint of orange in chocolate. Perception is how an individual interprets a particular sensation. A sensation is being aware of a change in the environment. The perception puts a meaning to what that sensation actually is. Detecting a taste in your mouth is a sensation. The ability to identify it as orange is a perception. Being aware of a stimulus produces a sensation. Receptors produce neural impulses from changes in the environment. These impulses are processed by sensory areas of the brain which detect the sensation. Signals are then relayed to association areas that perceive the sensation. Feeling an object, seeing an object and hearing a sound are sensations. Stating you feel a quarter in your hand, you smell a sweet odor, or hear a loud sound are all perceptions.

Severing the corpus callosum would likely result in which of the following? the inability to distinguish sound stimuli from touch stimuli the misdirection of visual stimuli to the temporal lobe of the brain the disruption of the ability to interpret language the hemispheres of the brain operating completely independently the inability to regulate body temperature

the hemispheres of the brain operating completely independently

The gastrointestinal tract is composed of __________. See Section 14.1 (Page) the accessory organs of the digestive system the blood vessels and nerves that supply the digestive system the hollow organs of the digestive system all the organs of the digestive system

the hollow organs of the digestive system The hollow organs of the digestive system form the gastrointestinal tract, a hollow tube that runs from the mouth to the anus.

What causes sodium to enter the cell once threshold is reached? active transport a greater amount of sodium inside the cell the sodium ion concentration gradient exocytosis sodium-potassium pump I DON'T KNOW YET

the sodium ion concentration gradient The sodium ion concentration gradient causes sodium ions to enter the cell once threshold is reached. Recall that the resting membrane potential has more sodium on the outside of the cell. The cell membrane is normally impermeable to the passage of ions. With an appropriate stimulus, sodium gates open up and they allow sodium ions to travel through them. The gate is just an embedded protein that spans the entire membrane from the extracellular surface to the intracellular surface. The concentration gradient causes the diffusion of sodium from outside the cell to inside the cell. The sodium-potassium pump uses ATP energy to actively pump sodium out of the cell during the process of active transport. Concentration gradients always involve the diffusion of materials from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. If more sodium was inside the cell, then it would leave the cell, not enter it. Exocytosis is the process that vesicles use to release neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft.

Receptors are classified according to __________. See Section 12.1 (Page) their location in the body how easily they generate an action potential their ability to adapt to continuous stimuli the type of stimulus energy they convert

the type of stimulus energy they convert Receptors convert the energy of a stimulus into another type of energy, and this is the basis of classification.

Please put in the correct order the anatomy of a reflex arc involving your hand encountering a hot object. thermoreceptor, ventral root, interneuron, dorsal root, biceps brachii thermoreceptor, dorsal root, motor root, interneuron, biceps brachii biceps brachii, ventral root, interneuron, dorsal root, thermoreceptor thermoreceptor, interneuron, dorsal root, ventral root, biceps brachii thermoreceptor, dorsal root, interneuron, ventral root, biceps brachii I DON'T KNOW YET

thermoreceptor, dorsal root, interneuron, ventral root, biceps brachii The following is the correct order for the structures involved in a reflex arc: Thermoreceptor, dorsal root, interneuron, ventral root, biceps brachii. A reflex arc deals with a predictable pattern of behavior based on how the nervous system is wired. It involves the spinal cord and bypasses the brain to save time in a possible body-damaging situation. If you touch something hot, the withdrawal reflex occurs in which the body flexes away from the heat. The movement occurred because of the reflex arc, not because of the brain. The reflex arc always starts off with with a sensory receptor. This is what initially detects the stimulus. In this case, a thermoreceptor senses heat. The signal then travels to the dorsal root, which functions only with sensory input and then goes to an interneuron. The interneuron, or association neuron, evaluates the sensory input and synapses with a motor neuron. The axons of the motor neuron are in the ventral root. The ventral root becomes part of a spinal nerve which synapses with the effector; in this case, the biceps brachii. The receptor sends signals to the dorsal root, not the ventral root. While both are roots, their locations and functions are distinctly different. Dorsal roots deal with sensation, while ventral roots always deal with motor control. The effector never starts a reflex arc; it always ends it since the goal is to move out of the way. The muscle will not move unless there was sensory input to activate the motor neuron. The interneuron comes after the dorsal root, not before. Hence, the interneuron is in between the sensory and motor neurons. Since the interneuron comes between the sensory and motor neurons, it cannot come after the motor neuron. The job of the motor neurons is to synapse with the effector.

Which hormone is produced by the hypothalamus? thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) thyroid hormone (TH) thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) cortisol thymopoietin I DON'T KNOW YET

thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone is produced by the hypothalamus. The hypothalamus makes a variety of hormones, including TRH. One of the functions of the hypothalamus is to regulate the activity of the pituitary gland. It does this by producing releasing hormones (RH) and inhibiting hormones (IH) that reach the anterior pituitary through the bloodstream. RH promote the anterior pituitary to secrete a particular homone. For example, TRH causes the anterior pituitary to secrete TSH. IH stops the anterior pituitary from secreting a hormone; for example, inhibitory hormones stop the anterior pituitary from releasing growth hormones. TSH is produced and secreted by the anterior pituitary. TH is produce and secreted by the thyroid gland. Thymopoietin is produced and secreted by the thymus. Cortisol is produced and secreted by the adrenal cortex. While it may seem like many facts to remember, understanding which hormone is secreted by which gland helps medical professionals to figure out which gland may be malfunctioning based on inappropriate levels of a hormone in the blood.

A 55 year-old man goes to the doctor with complaints of excessive urination, thirst, fatigue, blurry vision, and a tingling in his hands and feet. What endocrine disorder is this man most likely suffering from? See Section 13.10 (Page) hypogonadism type 2 diabetes hyperthyroidism type 1 diabetes

type 2 diabetes Hyperthyroidism causes hyperactivity and agitation, not fatigue. Hypogonadism may present with fatigue, but its main symptoms in adults involve low sex drive and sperm counts. Type 2 diabetes usually occurs in adults over age 40, and symptoms are caused by excess glucose in urine and tissue damage from abnormal metabolism of glucose.

Pick the receptor that is most likely to be activated by a mosquito. Ruffini corpuscle Pacinian corpuscle Merkel cell unencapsulated dendritic ending pain receptor I DON'T KNOW YET

unencapsulated dendritic ending A mosquito is most likely to activate an unencapsulated dendritic ending. This is the best answer since these endings wrap around hair follicles, and a mosquito walking on your skin will bump into strands of hair and activate these receptors. This is important since many insects transmit disease when they drink our blood. Being aware of the mosquito allows us to swat at them. The bite of a mosquito is not painful; thus a pain receptor will not be activated. However, a bee sting would have activated a pain receptor. Ruffini corpuscles sense continuous pressure. A mosquito is too light to activate those types of receptors. Pacinian corpuscles detect strong pressure, which will not be activated by a mosquito. While Merkel cells sense light touch, these receptors are located at the bottom of the epidermis, and the mosquito most likely not create enough pressure to turn those receptors on. The unencapsulated dendritic endings of the hair will most likely be stimulated by a mosquito.

Which food group occupies the largest portion on the USDA "MyPlate"? fruits grains dairy vegetables proteins

vegetables

While working in a human physiology lab, you see some scanning electron micrographs. One of the images taken inside the ear has little pebble-like structures. Where did this specimen most likely come from? Semicircular canal cochlea tongue middle ear vestibule I DON'T KNOW YET

vestibule The image most likely came from the vestibule. The vestibule functions in static position and linear (moving forward) acceleration. It does this by the use of otoliths ("oto" means ear and "lith" means stone) embedded in a gel-like material. Tilting the head or moving straight causes the otoliths to move, and this in turn stimulates hair cells, causing them to create action potentials. The surface of the tongue has various types of projections called papillae. Some are shaped like mushrooms, others are pointed, and others are round and flat. They contain taste buds, which are groupings of cells with taste hairs pointing out of the taste bud. The semicircular canal has a dome-like structure called a cupula. The cochlea appears as a snail, not pebbles. The middle ear has three tiny bones with distinct shapes, not general generic stone-like structures.

A person has poor wound healing. What vitamin are they probably lacking in their diet? vitamin C riboflavin niacin vitamin D biotin I DON'T KNOW YET

vitamin C A lack of vitamin C will account for poor wound healing. Vitamin C is necessary to form collagen, an important part of the matrix found in connective tissues. Without collagen, connective tissues are weak and break easily. Wounds are healed by the formation of new connective tissues. A person will also experience bleeding due to blood vessels breaking. People who have vitamin C deficiencies develop the disease called scurvy. It is preventable by eating a diet rich in vegetables and fruits, especially citrus fruits. A person with a biotin deficiency will suffer from dermatitis, which presents itself as scaly, red skin usually associated with the face. A lack of biotin does not impact central nervous system development. A person suffering from a riboflavin deficiency will present with skin lesions around the mouth. Vitamin D is required for proper calcium absorption in the intestines. Without vitamin D, there will be a lack of calcium, and this will impact the skeletal system. Children will experience rickets, which is a deformity of the bones, typically found in the lower limbs, due to improper calcification. The weight of the body causes the bones to partially bend. A lack of niacin results in pellagra, which causes a dermatitis of the skin, digestive problems, and nervous system disorders. Proper nutrition to ensure all essential vitamins are provided is just as important for an adult as well as a developing fetus. A lack of vitamin C results in scurvy, which can be corrected with adequate intake of vitamin C.