Industrial/Organizational Psychology

A series of meta-analyses by Eagly and her colleagues on gender differences in leadership found that: a. men and women differ significantly with regard to leadership style men and women do not differ significantly with regard to leadership style b. men and women differ significantly with regard to leadership style and women leaders are consistently evaluated less favorably than male leaders by superiors and co-workers c. men and women do not differ significantly with regard to leadership style but women leaders are consistently evaluated less favorably than male leaders by superiors and co-workers d. The meta-analyses conducted by Eagly et al. looked at gender differences in leadership style, leadership emergence, and leadership evaluation.

b. CORRECT Eagly and colleagues found little difference between men and women with regard to leadership style, emergence, or evaluation (e.g., A. H. Eagly and B. T. Johnson, Gender and leadership style: A meta-analysis, Psychological Bulletin, 108, 1990, 233-256).

A key distinguishing feature of "self-directed work teams" (SDWTs) is that: a. membership is voluntary b. employees are also owners of the company c. discussions and meetings are leaderless d. job rotation is mandatory

A SDWT is a highly-trained work team that is fully responsible for creating an entire work product. d. CORRECT In contrast to other types of work teams, workers in SDWTs are trained to perform a variety of tasks so that they are essentially interchangeable with other team members and can provide assistance to others.

A "mixed standard scale" attempts to overcome halo, leniency, and similar rater biases by: a. using a forced-choice format that pairs items with a similar level of social desirability b. requiring the rater to make comparisons between two or more employees on each job behavior c. presenting statements describing job behaviors in a way that obscures their order-of-merit d. anchoring each point on the rating scale with a specific description of job behavior

A mixed standard scale includes a number of items that describe either good, average, or poor performance and require the rater to rate the ratee on each item as either +, 0, or -(indicating that the ratee performs better, equal to, or worse than the behavior described in the item).a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.c. CORRECT Only this response describes a mixed standard scale. Items are arranged in a non-hierarchal way, which supposedly helps reduce rater biases.d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

"Criterion deficiency" is most likely to result in: a. high validity b. low validity c. high reliability d. low reliability

Criterion deficiency refers to the degree to which a criterion measure fails to measure all aspects of the ultimate (conceptual) criterion.a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.b. CORRECT A criterion measure can have high reliability but low validity - i.e., it can give consistent results but measure only some aspects of the ultimate criterion.c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

Equity theory predicts that a husband will feel best about his marriage if: a. he and his wife give and receive the same amount in their relationship b. he perceives that he and his wife give and receive the same amount in their relationship c. in terms of their relationship, his give/receive ratio is the same as or greater than the give/receive ratio of his wife d. in terms of their relationship, he perceives that his give/receive ratio is the same as the give/receive ratio of his wife

Equity theory is a cognitive theory of motivation that emphasizes the impact of the individual's beliefs about the equity of the situation in terms of inputs and outcomes. When a person perceives the situation to be equitable, he/she will be satisfied and motivated. d. CORRECT According to equity theory, a person compares his/her input/outcome ratio to that of others. If he/she perceives the ratios to be similar, this has positive effects on satisfaction and motivation.

According to Fiedler's contingency theory of leadership, a task motivated leader is most effective when his or her relations with subordinates are: a. very good b. very poor c. very good or very poor d. Moderate

Fiedler's theory predicts that task motivated (low LPC) leaders and relationship motivated (high LPC) leaders are most effective in different circumstances. One circumstance that determines the best leadership style is the nature of leader-member relations. c. CORRECT Task motivated leaders are most effective in extreme situations - that is, when leader-member relations are either very good or very poor. d. Incorrect Relationship motivated leaders are most effective in less extreme situations - e.g., when leader-member relations are moderate (between good and poor).

From the perspective of the situational leadership model, when an employee is both competent and confident, the best leadership style is: a. Selling b. Telling c. Participating d. delegating

Hersey and Blanchard's (1982) situational leadership model is based on the premise that a leader's style should match the "maturity level" of the employee, which is related to both ability and motivation.a. Incorrect A selling style is appropriate for employees who are moderate in maturity (are unable but willing or confident).b. Incorrect A telling leadership style is best for employees who are low in maturity (are both unable and unwilling or insecure).c. Incorrect A participative leadership style is most effective for employees who are moderate to high in maturity (are able but unwilling or insecure).d. CORRECT A delegating leadership style is appropriate for highly mature employees. When adopting this style, the leader is low in both relationship and task behavior.

Which of the following has been found to be true about job enrichment: a. it is less effective than job enlargement as a means of increasing job satisfaction and performance b. it increases job performance and, to a lesser degree, job satisfaction for most employees c. it increases job satisfaction but has no effect on job performance d. it has positive effects (at least for some employees) on both job satisfaction and job performance

Job enrichment involves redesigning a job to make it significantly different in terms of the variety of tasks, autonomy, and responsibility it provides. d. CORRECT Although research on job enrichment has had mixed results, in general, it has been found to result (at least for some employees) in less absenteeism, tardiness, and turnover, increased job satisfaction, and increased job performance, especially in terms of work quality.

According to John D. Krumboltz, career development and career choice are related primarily to: a. needs and drives b. early childhood experiences c. ego identity development d. social learning

Krumboltz proposes that career decisions are based on what the individual has learned.a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.d. CORRECT Krumboltz's emphasis is on social learning -- i.e., modeling and other aspects of the social environment. His theory is referred to as the Social Learning Theory of Career Decision Making (SLTCDM).

Maslow's theory of motivation predicts that needs are activated in a specific order, with lower level needs being aroused first. From lowest to highest level, Maslow's five needs are: a. safety, physiological, social, esteem, self-actualization b. existence, social, growth, esteem, self-actualization c. physiological, social, achievement, esteem, self-actualization d. physiological, safety, social, esteem, self-actualization

Maslow's theory distinguishes between five needs that emerge in a hierarchical fashion from lowest to highest. d. CORRECT These are Maslow's five needs, and they are arranged in order from lowest to highest.

A task-oriented leader is most effective when the work situation is characterized either by good leader-member relations, a structured task, and strong leader power or by moderately poor leader-member relations, an unstructured task, and weak leader power. This is predicted by: a. Fiedler's contingency theory b. Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model c. House's path-goal theory d. Vroom, Yetton, and Jago's normative model

Of the theories listed, only one predicts that a task-oriented leader is most effective in extreme (highly favorable and highly unfavorable) conditions.a. CORRECT Fielder proposed that low-LPC (task-oriented) leaders are most effective when the situation is either very favorable or very unfavorable in terms of the leader's ability to lead.

Which of the following individuals distinguishes between Steady State, Linear, Spiral, and Transitory Career Concepts: a. Super b. Holland c. Driver d. Krumboltz

Only one of the individuals listed in the responses emphasizes the role of the four Career Concepts in career decision-making.a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.c. CORRECT M. J. Driver distinguishes between the four Career Concepts listed in the question and describes them in terms of three dimensions: frequency of job change, direction of change, and type of change in job content [Career concepts and career management in organizations, in C. L. Cooper (Ed.), Behavioral problems in organizations (pp. 79-139), Englewood Cliffs, NJ, Prentice Hall, 1979].d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

Applicants for a job at the Acme Corporation are very upset by some of the items included in the company's Biographical Information Blank. They feel that the items are not work-related and therefore violate their privacy. Apparently, these items: a. lack content validity b. lack face validity c. are "unfair" d. are unreliable

Some of the items on the Biographical Information Blank appear to be unrelated to the requirements of the job. b. CORRECT Face validity refers to the extent to which a measure appears to measure what it is supposed to measure.

During the process of developing a training program, you evaluate its effects on trainee satisfaction and learning to determine what changes in the program are needed to achieve maximal effectiveness. This is an example of: a. needs assessment b. functional analysis c. summative evaluation d. formative evaluation

This question is a little vague, but it appears that the purpose of the evaluation is to make changes in the training program.a. Incorrect A needs assessment is conducted to determine training needs.b. Incorrect A functional analysis is used by behavioral psychologists to obtain information about a target behavior.c. Incorrect A summative evaluation is conducted to determine the outcomes of a program and is less geared toward guiding future changes than a formative evaluation.d. CORRECT Although the question isn't entirely clear, the evaluation sounds more like a formative one because its results will be used to make necessary changes in the program.

Vestibule training would be most useful: a. for teaching basic skills to unskilled workers b. when on-the-job training would be too dangerous c. when training costs must be kept to a minimum d. for teaching complex cognitive skills

Vestibule training is a type of off-the-job training that makes use of a physical replication or simulation of the actual job environment.a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.b. CORRECT A vestibule is especially useful when on-the-job training would be too dangerous.c. Incorrect Setting up a vestibule can be very costly, so the need to minimize costs would not be an indicator for this type of training.d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

The major disadvantage of a behaviorally anchored rating scale is that: a. it is highly susceptible to rater biases b. it requires considerable time and effort to develop c. it is lacking in content validity d. it doesn't provide adequate information for employee feedback and counseling

When using a behaviorally anchored rating scale, the rater rates an employee on a continuum that is anchored by critical incidents.a. Incorrect Although a behaviorally anchored rating scale may not be as successful at reducing rater biases as its proponents claim, it isn't "highly susceptible" to rater biases.b. CORRECT This is the primary problem with this type of rating scale. The development of a behaviorally anchored rating scale is a team effort that involves both managers and subordinates.c. Incorrect The method of developing this type of scale helps ensure that it has adequate content validity.d. Incorrect An advantage of behavioral anchors (critical incidents) is that they provide an employee with specific information about his/her strengths and weaknesses.

The Americans with Disabilities Act: a. does not address the issue of drug testing b. permits drug testing only after a job offer has been made c. permits drug testing before or after a job offer has been made d. prohibits drug testing until after a job applicant has been hired and there is reason to suspect drug use

a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.c. CORRECT Although ADA permits only post-offer, pre-employment medical exams, it explicitly excludes drug testing as a medical exam. In other words, drug testing is not prohibited at any time during pre-employment or employment.d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

Roe, Holland, and Brill share in common an emphasis on the role of ___________ in career choice: a. Aptitude b. Personality c. social pressure d. vocational interests

Familiarity with even one of the theorists listed in the question would have helped you choose the correct response. b. CORRECT Holland, for example, proposes that the best career choice is the career that provides a match between the individual's personality characteristics (e.g., conventional, artistic) and the characteristics of the work environment.

When using a Behaviorally-Anchored Rating Scale (BARS), scale points are "anchored" with: a. empirically-derived weights b. job dimensions c. criterion outcomes d. critical incidents

In a Behaviorally-Anchored Rating Scale (BARS), the points on the scale are "anchored" with descriptions of specific job behaviors. d. CORRECT Another name for behavioral anchors is critical incidents.

When applying Bandura's social learning theory to training in the workplace, you would use which of the following techniques: a. vestibule training b. job rotation c. behavioral modeling d. miniature job training

Knowing that Bandura's research linked learning to observation would have enabled you to select the correct answer to this question.a. Incorrect Vestibule training involves the use of a simulation of the actual work environment.b. Incorrect Job rotation involves "rotating" through several different jobs.c. CORRECT Bandura's social learning theory suggests that behavioral modeling would be an effective job training technique.d. Incorrect Miniature job training involves providing a job applicant with some training to determine if he/she will benefit from it.

Which of the following individuals has proposed that organizational culture acts, at least in part, as a defense mechanism that helps organizational members avoid uncertainty and anxiety: a. Herbert Simon b. Edgar Schein c. Leon Festinger d. Geert Hofstede

Knowing that Edgar Schein has written extensively on organizational culture would have helped you choose the correct answer to this question.a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.b. CORRECT In his book Organizational Culture and Leadership (1992), Schein describes the basic assumptions that underlie an organization's culture as cognitive defense mechanisms.

Recent surveys suggest that an employee's mental and physical health is most related to: a. Pay b. the work environment c. work involvement d. job security

Perhaps because of widespread layoffs and downsizing, job security has become an increasingly important factor in the mental health of workers. d. CORRECT This was the result of K. Kuhnert's survey of over 200 employees (described in M. Schanback, Stress and Job Security, Psychology Today, May, 1987). The more permanent the employees thought their position was, the greater their physical and mental well-being.

Abraham Maslow derived his need hierarchy theory from: a. his experiences as a clinical psychologist b. empirical research in organizations c. a review of the literature d. psychodynamic theory

During his work as a clinical psychologist, Maslow noticed that people are motivated by different needs.a. CORRECT Maslow derived his theory about the need hierarchy and self-actualization from his observations of therapy clients, work with college students, and study of people he believed to be highly productive (e.g., Abraham Lincoln, Thomas Jefferson, Eleanor Roosevelt).

Which of the following best describes the impact of pay on motivation from the perspective of equity theory: a. pay is important only to the extent that it helps satisfy the employee's most prepotent need b. an employee's perception about the fairness of pay is more important than the absolute amount of pay c. an employee's perception regarding the link between performance and pay influences the impact of pay on motivation d. pay is an insignificant contributor to an employee's level of motivation

Equity theory predicts that motivation and performance are related to a comparison of one's own input/outcome ratio to the ratio of workers performing a similar job.a. Incorrect Prepotent needs are not addressed by equity theory.b. CORRECT The employee's perceptions about input and outcomes (e.g., pay) are most important.c. Incorrect This sounds more like expectancy theory.d. Incorrect Equity theory does not predict that pay is insignificant.

In terms of initiating structure and consideration, the two core dimensions of leadership, research in organizations suggests that: a. consistent with gender stereotypes, female leaders are higher in consideration, while male leaders are higher in initiating structure b. contrary to gender stereotypes, female leaders are higher in initiating structure, while males are higher in consideration c. contrary to gender stereotypes, males and females do not differ substantially in terms of consideration or initiating structure d. contrary to gender stereotypes, males are higher than females in both consideration and initiating structure

A considerable body of research has addressed the core dimensions of leadership and, more recently, gender differences on these dimensions. c. CORRECT Although male and female leaders differ in terms of decision-making style, overall, their leadership styles do not show consistent discrepancies.

According to Fielder's contingency model of leadership, a low LPC leader focuses on: a. task motivation b. relationship motivation c. satisficing factors d. hygiene factors

According to Fiedler, leaders who describe their least preferred coworker in unfavorable terms are considered task-oriented. They focus on successful completion of the task. However, a high LPC leader describes the least preferred coworker in more pleasant terms, and are considered relationship-oriented. A high LPC leader would focus on maintaining good interpersonal relationships.a. CORRECT See explanation above.

An assumption underlying the notion of "groupthink" is that: a. pressures toward uniformity limit task effectiveness b. increasing cohesiveness results in more extreme decisions c. excessive pressures toward conformity produce reactance d. lack of familiarity with task demands leads to maintenance of the status quo

According to Janis (1972, 1982), groupthink results when groups become excessively cohesive.a. CORRECT Groupthink is characterized by a decrease in willingness to consider divergent points of view, resulting in inappropriate decisions and actions (although not necessarily more extreme ones).

According to Fiedler's (1984) contingency theory of leadership, task-oriented leaders are most effective when the work situation is _______________ with regard to the leader's sense of certainty, predictability, and control over his/her employees: a. moderate in favorableness b. very high in favorableness c. very low in favorableness d. very high or very low in favorableness

Fiedler's theory distinguishes between low-LPC (task-oriented) and high-LPC (person-oriented) leaders. d. CORRECT Fiedler concluded that low-LPC leaders are most effective in extreme situations, i.e., in situations that are very high or very low in favorableness.

In recent years there has been an increase in the number of elderly employees in organizations. When working with these employees, it is important to keep in mind that: a. elderly employees often have cognitive and sensory deficits that interfere with their job performance b. elderly employees can be expected to have increased rates of absenteeism due to health problems c. elderly employees are usually not as dependable as younger employees d. elderly employees learn best when training is presented at a slower pace

Although elderly employees may have special needs, in general, they are very productive workers.a. Incorrect Although elderly employees may display some minor deficits, these deficits are usually counterbalanced by favorable factors such as increased effort.b. Incorrect Elderly employees actually have a lower rate of absenteeism than younger employees.c. Incorrect Elderly individuals have been found to be more dependable than younger employees.d. CORRECT To maximize learning, training for elderly employees should be presented at a slower pace and should emphasize active learning.

Job evaluation is to wages as needs assessment is to: a. Benefits b. Selection c. vocational choice d. Training

For the exam, you want to be able to distinguish between job analysis, job evaluation, and needs analysis. d. CORRECT A needs analysis (or assessment) is conducted in organizations to dentify training needs and determine the appropriate content for training programs.

An organizational psychologist conducts a(n) _________ to determine the relative worth of a job compared to other jobs. a. utility analysis b. needs assessment c. performance appraisal d. job evaluation

For the exam, you want to be familiar with several "vocabulary words" that describe important activities in organizational settings.a. Incorrect Utility refers to the feasibility of a measure, often in terms of its costs.b. Incorrect A needs assessment (analysis) is conducted to identify training needs.c. Incorrect A performance appraisal is an assessment of an employee's job performance.d. CORRECT Job evaluations are conducted for the purpose of establishing the worth of a job so that an appropriate wage can be defined for that job.

In the context of Holland's theory of vocational choice, a high degree of differentiation: a. reflects an uncommon or unusual pattern of interests b. reflects a common pattern of interests c. increases the predictability of the person-environment interaction d. decreases the predictability of the person-environment interaction

Holland used the term differentiation to describe the extent to which a person has clearly defined interests. A person who scores high on one of his interest scales and low on all other scales is highly differentiated. c. CORRECT According to Holland, the importance of a good "fit" between a person's interests and the characteristics of the job is most important for those who are highly differentiated.

One criticism of BARS is that: a. it requires raters to indicate the kinds of behaviors they would expect of ratees rather than the behaviors that they have actually observed b. it requires raters to recall the frequency of critical behaviors over an extended period of time in the past c. there is too much ambiguity with regard to the performance dimensions being measured d. it overemphasizes the subjective features of job performance

Behaviorally-anchored rating scales present raters with specific behavioral statements related to different levels of job performance.a. CORRECT A characteristic of BARS is that the behavioral anchors are worded in terms of what could be expected rather than what actually occurred.b. Incorrect This better describes the problem with behavioral observation scales (BOS).c. Incorrect The anchors are very specific, so this isn't a problem.d. Incorrect This isn't a problem associated with BARS.

Research has shown that membership in a cohesive (versus noncohesive) group is associated with: a. greater productivity and reduced absenteeism and turnover b. reduced absenteeism and turnover and, in some situations, greater productivity c. greater productivity but no significant impact on absenteeism and turnover d. in the long run, reduced productivity and increased absenteeism and turnover

Group cohesiveness has been linked to a number of benefits and liabilities.a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.b. CORRECT Group cohesiveness has been consistently linked to reduced absenteeism and turnover by the research, but its association with productivity is moderated by a number of factors (e.g., the group's norms regarding productivity).

According to Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model, a "telling" leader will respond to an employee who is low in both ability and motivation by: a. recommending that the employee receive additional training b. having the employee participate in goal-setting c. providing the employee with close supervision and specific instructions d. setting easy goals for the employee and providing external incentives

Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model distinguishes between four leadership styles. According to these authors, the best style is the one that matches the employee's ability and motivation. c. CORRECT A telling leadership style is optimal for employees who are low in both ability and motivation. It involves providing close supervision and specific instructions.

Herzberg's two-factor theory predicts that, if a worker's job is redesigned so that she has less autonomy and responsibility but is also given a raise in salary, the worker will be: a. Dissatisfied b. neither satisfied nor dissatisfied c. Satisfied d. both satisfied and dissatisfied

Herzberg's two-factor theory distinguishes between hygiene and motivator factors.a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.b. CORRECT Herzberg's theory predicts that motivator factors produce satisfaction when they are present, while hygiene factors produce dissatisfaction when they are not adequate. Consequently, if the worker's job is redesigned so that it produces fewer motivator factors (e.g., less autonomy and responsibility) and more adequate hygiene factors (pay), the worker will be neither satisfied nor dissatisfied.c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

According to Herzberg's "two-factor theory," a disgruntled blue-collar worker is most likely to say he is satisfied with his job if he is: a. given a raise b. given fewer tasks to do c. put on a piece-rate pay system d. given more responsibility

Herzberg's two-factor theory divides job components into two types: hygiene factors and motivator factors.a. Incorrect For Herzberg, money is a hygiene factor and, consequently, can produce dissatisfaction when it is perceived to be inadequate but does not contribute to satisfaction or motivation, even when it is perceived to be adequate.b. Incorrect From Herzberg's perspective, this would not lead to greater satisfaction.c. Incorrect This is not consistent with two-factor theory.d. CORRECT According to two-factor theory, satisfaction and motivation are increased by providing an employee with motivator factors; i.e., with greater responsibility, autonomy, challenge, etc.

A person is most likely to be happy in a job that involves working with tools and objects, requires physical strength, and provides regular feedback in the form of practical results if his/her highest score is on the __________ subscale of Holland's personality/job environment theme scale: a. Investigative b. Mechanical c. Conventional d. Realistic

Holland distinguishes between six personality/job environment types.a. Incorrect A person who scores high on investigative has scientific, mathematical, analytic, or scholarly interests or skills.b. Incorrect Mechanical is not one of Holland's themes.c. Incorrect A person who scores high on conventional has interests or skills in keeping records, organizing data, attending to detail, or following through on others' instructions.d. CORRECT A person who scores highest on realistic enjoys or does well in technical, physical, mechanical, and/or outdoor activities.

Kahneman and Tversky's (1979) notion of __________ predicts a tendency for a loss of a particular magnitude to seem more aversive to an individual than a gain of the same magnitude seems attractive: a. status quo bias b. endowment effect c. loss aversion d. gain/loss theory

Kahneman and Tversky's notion of loss aversion is part of their cumulative prospect theory and refers to the tendency to weigh losses more heavily than gains.a. Incorrect The status quo bias refers to the tendency to maintain the status quo because the disadvantages of changing are perceived to be greater than the advantages.b. Incorrect The endowment effect refers to the tendency for the value of a good to increase for an individual when it becomes part of the individual's endowment (one of his/her possessions).c. CORRECT According to Kahneman and Tversky's notion of loss aversion, people experience losses more intensely than gains of the same magnitude and, consequently, are unlikely to take risks. See D. Kahneman & A. Tversky (1979), Prospect theory: An analysis of decisions under risk, Econometrika, 47, 263-291.d. Incorrect Gain/loss theory predicts that a complement will be valued more by a person when it comes from a critic than from someone who has bestowed compliments in the past.

According to Herbert Simon, "bounded discretion": a. is due to limited cognitive ability b. ensures that the optimal alternative is chosen c. limits a decision-maker's choices d. reduces a leader's effectiveness in ambiguous situations

Knowing that Simon is most associated with the bounded rationality (administrative) model of decision-making would have helped you choose the correct response to this question. c. CORRECT Bounded discretion refers to limitations on a decision-maker's choices created by social, legal, moral, and organizational factors.

Research on Total Quality Management suggests that, when it fails, this is often because: a. the manager didn't adapt his/her style to the demands of the situation b. the employees were not given adequate training c. the employees were not sufficiently involved in problem-solving and decision-making d. the manager often had to "satisfice" rather than "optimize" because of limited resources

Knowing that TQM emphasizes employee involvement would have helped you choose the correct response to this question. c. CORRECT TQM is a theory of management that emphasizes customer satisfaction, employee involvement, and continuous change. Studies looking at TQM failures have found that, despite the goal of commitment to employee involvement, employees often do not participate fully in problem-solving and decision-making. See, e.g., A. J. Dubrin, Fundamentals of Organizational Behavior, Cincinnati, OH, South-Western College Publishing, 1997.

As described by Krumboltz (1996), career counseling involves: a. assessing the individual's self-concept and then identifying careers that match his/her self-concept b. helping the individual transition from the anticipation/preoccupation phase to the implementation phase of career development c. instilling an attitude of self-development in the individual so that he/she can adapt to changing work requirements in the future d. helping the individual successfully accomplish the tasks of his/her current stage of career development

Krumboltz's approach to career counseling is based on social learning theory.a. Incorrect This sounds more like Super's theory.b. Incorrect This sounds more like the theory of Tiedeman and O'Hara.c. CORRECT In contrast to many other career development theories, Krumboltz's theory does not focus on matching individual characteristics to the characteristics of the job or organization. Instead, he argues that the purpose of career counseling is to help the individual develop attitudes and skills that will enable him/her to adapt to changing work requirements.d. Incorrect This sounds more like Super's theory.

Studies investigating the relationship between job performance and job satisfaction indicate that: a. correlations between job satisfaction and performance are positive, and coefficients are usually moderate to high b. correlations between satisfaction and performance are usually negative, although negative coefficients are usually low c. correlations between job satisfaction and performance are usually positive, although coefficients are usually low d. correlations between job satisfaction and performance are negative, and negative coefficients are usually quite high

Contrary to what might be expected, a strong positive relationship between job satisfaction and performance has not been supported by the research.a. Incorrect While correlations between job satisfaction and performance are usually positive, coefficients are not usually large.b. Incorrect Correlations between job satisfaction and performance are usually positive, not negative.c. CORRECT Correlations between job satisfaction and performance are usually positive but small. Vroom (1964), for example, reported an average correlation coefficient of .14.d. Incorrect Correlations between job satisfaction and performance are usually positive, not negative.

When ratings on a criterion measure are biased by predictor performance or other extraneous variable, this is referred to in the literature as: a. criterion irrelevance b. criterion unreliability c. criterion contamination d. criterion deficiency

Criterion contamination occurs when a criterion measure is "contaminated" by an extraneous variable.a. Incorrect Relevance refers to the measure's significance in terms of the ultimate criterion.b. Incorrect A criterion measure is unreliable when scores are affected to a large degree by measurement error.c. CORRECT Contamination often occurs when a rater's knowledge of a ratee's predictor performance biases ratings on the criterion measure.d. Incorrect A criterion is deficient when it does not measure important aspects of the ultimate criterion.

According to Maslow's need hierarchy theory, once a person's physiological needs have been satisfied, that person will be motivated by his/her __________ needs: a. Social b. Safety c. Existence d. Esteem

Maslow's need hierarchy theory predicts that humans have five basic needs that emerge in a hierarchical order. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The five needs, in order, are: physiological, safety, social, esteem, and self-actualization. Need hierarchy theory predicts that physiological needs are the first needs to act as motivators; once they are satisfied, safety needs become the source of motivation; and so on. c. Incorrect Existence is not one of the needs identified by Maslow.d. Incorrect Esteem needs are not motivators until physiological, safety, and social needs have been satisfied.

According to Maslow's theory of motivation, when a person's prepotent need is ungratified: a. the person becomes less motivated b. the person may "regress" to a lower-level need c. the ungratified need continues to be a primary motivator d. the ungratified need continues to be a primary motivator only when there is a good chance that it will eventually be satisfied

Maslow's theory predicts that only ungratified needs motivate behavior and that progression through the need hierarchy always goes from lower-order needs to higher-order needs.a. Incorrect This is the opposite of what Maslow's theory predicts.b. Incorrect This is predicted by Alderfer's ERG theory, not Maslow's theory.c. CORRECT According to Maslow, an ungratified need is the primary source of motivation.d. Incorrect This isn't predicted by Maslow's theory.

The best conclusion that can be drawn about biodata as a selection technique is that: a. it is the best predictor of organizational behavior for entry level managers, middle-level managers, and nonmanagers b. it is a very good predictor of some aspects of organizational behavior, but additional research is needed to clarify which aspects it is best for predicting c. it is a very good predictor of organizational behavior only when an applicant is applying for a job that is similar to his/her previous jobs d. it is a poor predictor for nonmanagers but an accurate predictor of some aspects of organizational behavior for managerial-level applicants

Most of the reviews of the literature have found that biodata is a good predictor, with some experts regarding it second only to cognitive measures. However, a close inspection of the research reveals that it is a good predictor in some situations but not as accurate as other predictors in other situations.a. Incorrect Although biodata is generally considered an accurate predictor, it is an overstatement to label it the "best" predictor.b. CORRECT The accuracy of biodata seems to depend on the criterion. For example, there is evidence that it is a very good predictor of training success. However, other predictors have been found to be better predictors of actual job performance for certain types of jobs. Consequently, this is the best response of those given. Despite the large amount of existing research on biodata, there is a need for additional studies that clarify the circumstances in which it is the optimal predictor.c. Incorrect Biodata includes background information that is not directly related to previous employment, so this is not true.d. Incorrect Biodata has been found useful for both managerial and nonmanagerial employees.

In a police department, the usual rotating 8-hour shift of the officers is replaced by a fixed 12-hour compressed shift. Most likely, this change will have which of the following effects: a. decrease productivity and satisfaction b. decrease productivity but increase satisfaction c. increase productivity but decrease satisfaction d. increase satisfaction but have little or no effect on productivity

Questions on the effectiveness of work schedules are difficult to answer since the research on this issue has produced inconsistent results. However, a good generalization is that innovative work schedules have a greater impact on attitudes than on productivity (especially objective measures of productivity). d. CORRECT This is the best overall conclusion and the one that was reached in a recent meta-analysis of research on the compressed work week. [B. Baltes et al., Flexible and compressed workweek schedules: A meta-analysis of their effects on work-related criteria, Journal of Applied Psychology, 1999, 84(4), 496-513.]

Theories of career choice and development can be categorized in terms of four basic types. The theories of Tiedeman and O'Hara (1963) and Tiedeman and Miller-Tiedeman (1984) are examples of the __________ approach: a. Developmental b. trait-oriented c. reinforcement-based d. Personality

S. H. Osipow distinguishes between the four types of theories listed in the responses to this questions (Convergence in theories of career choice and development, Journal of Vocational Behavior, 36, 1990, 122-131).a. CORRECT The vocational identity theory proposed by Tiedeman and colleagues is classified as a developmental approach. (Super's theory also represents this approach.)b. Incorrect Parson's (1939) and Holland's (1988) theories are trait-oriented approaches.c. Incorrect Krumboltz's (1979) social learning theory is classified by Osipow as a reinforcement-based approach.d. Incorrect Roe's (1984) theory emphasizes the role of personality.

Kirkpatrick (1983) identifies four levels of rigor in the evaluation of training programs. According to his model, which of the following represents the highest level of evaluation: a. reaction criteria b. results criteria c. behavioral criteria d. learning criteria

Several experts have addressed the issue of training program evaluation and place the various methods in a hierarchical order. One of these hierarchies is offered by D. L. Kirkpatrick (Four steps to measuring training effectiveness, Personnel Administration, 28(11), 19-25, 1983), who distinguishes between four levels: reaction criteria, learning criteria, behavioral criteria, and, at the top, results criteria.a. Incorrect Trainees' impressions of and reactions to the training program are considered the "lowest" level of rigor.b. CORRECT Measures indicating the contribution of training to the organization's objectives are at the top of Kirkpatrick's hierarchy. These measures include cost and turnover reductions, increases in overall productivity, and increases in profits.c. Incorrect Behavioral criteria are second to the top and include measures of an individual trainee's on-the-job performance. (Note that some experts consider measures of transfer-of-training to be the "highest" level of evaluation.)d. Incorrect Learning criteria are the second level and include written exams and performance tests given at the end of training.

In organizations, frame-of-reference training is used to: a. reduce accidents b. improve team productivity c. help leaders adopt a more participative style d. increase rater accuracy

Training of raters has been found to be the most effective way of reducing rater biases. d. CORRECT Certain types of training seem to be more effective than others. Frame-of-reference training is particularly useful. It involves familiarizing raters with the multidimensional nature of job performance and with the actual content of each performance dimension (see H. J. Bernardin and B. Pence, Effects of rater training: Creating new response sets and decreasing accuracy, Journal of Applied Psychology, 1980, 65, 60-66).

In the context of employee selection, use of the technique known as _________ involves specifying a range of scores on a test that are considered equivalent for selection purposes and then considering applicants who obtain scores within that range: a. Ranking b. Banding c. utility analysis d. multiple hurdles

a. Incorrect As a selection procedure, ranking involves using a point system to rank applicants in terms of the various job requirements. b. CORRECT Banding is used to increase diversity and reduce adverse impact in the workplace. When using this technique, a range of test scores that are considered equivalent for selection purposes are specified and other job-related and/or diversity factors are then used to select among applicants who obtain scores within that range. c. Incorrect Utility analysis is not an employee selection procedure. d. Incorrect The multiple hurdle technique is a selection procedure that requires an applicant to pass two or more tests or other procedures sequentially.

High levels of group cohesiveness are associated with both positive and negative consequences. In terms of productivity, high group cohesiveness: a. is always associated with lower levels of group productivity b. is always associated with higher levels of group productivity c. is associated with higher levels of group productivity only when management is indifferent or hostile to the group d. is associated with higher levels of group productivity only when management is supportive of the group

d. CORRECT One of the factors that moderates the relationship between group cohesiveness and group productivity is management supportiveness. Perhaps not surprisingly, high management support is associated with high levels of productivity for cohesive groups, while management hostility is associated with low productivity for cohesive groups. See, e.g., A. Tziner and Y. Vardi, Effects of command style and group cohesiveness on the performance effectiveness of self-selected tank crews, Journal of Applied Psychology, 1982, 67, 769-775.

Which of the following selection techniques is the best predictor of turnover: a. Interview b. personality test c. general mental ability test d. Biodata

Studies on predictor accuracy have found that different predictors correlate most highly with different outcomes.d. CORRECT Of the predictors listed, biodata has the highest correlation with turnover. See N. Schmitt et al., Metaanalyses of validity studies published between 1964 and 1982 and the investigation of study characteristics, Personnel Psychology, 1984, 37(5), 407-422.

According to Donald Super, "career maturity" refers to: a. the final stage of career development b. the ability to accomplish the tasks of each stage of career development c. the ability to make realistic career choices d. the acquisition of skills needed to successfully perform one's chosen job

Super proposes that career development involves several stages. b. CORRECT Career maturity refers to successful accomplishment of the tasks of each stage of career development.

According to Super's lifespan model of career development, a major task of the ________ stage is to update one's skills through training: a. Growth b. Disengagement c. Exploration d. Maintenance

Super's (1980) model of career development distinguishes between five stages: growth (ages 4-13), exploration (14-24), establishment (ages 25-44), maintenance (ages 45-65), and disengagement (ages 65+). a. Incorrect A primary task for the initial growth stage is to develop an understanding of the meaning and purpose of work. b. Incorrect A primary task of the final disengagement phase is to gradually separate from paid employment. c. Incorrect The tasks of the exploration phase include becoming aware of one's abilities and interests and learning about the different types of work. d. CORRECT During the maintenance stage, the primary tasks are staying competitive with younger workers by obtaining necessary training and developing plans for retirement.

In his theory of career development, Donald Super uses which of the following to pictorially depict the various roles that a person participates in during the course of his/her life: a. Rainbow b. Arch c. Ladder d. Web

Another distant galaxy question! Unless you're a vocational counselor, you're probably unfamiliar with this aspect of Super's work.a. CORRECT Super uses five figures to illustrate and integrate aspects of career development. The Life Career Rainbow illustrates the various roles people play (e.g., student, parent, worker). See D. Super, A life span, life perspective on convergence, in M. L. Savikas et al. (eds.), Convergence in Career Development Theories: Implications for Science and Practice, Palo Alto, Coo Books, 1994.b. Incorrect The arch illustrates the personal and environmental factors that determine one's career path.c. Incorrect The ladder depicts the stages in Super's career development model.d. Incorrect The web illustrates the bases of career maturity.

Driver's (1979) notion of "career concept" refers to an individual's: a. work-related values b. career-related identity c. work-related personality characteristics d. career decisions

"Career concept" is a key concept in M. J. Driver's theory of career management in organizations [Career concepts and career management in organizations, in C. L. Cooper (ed.), Behavioral problems in organizations (pp. 79-139), Englewood Cliffs, NJ, Prentice-Hall, 1979]. d. CORRECT As defined by Driver, career concept refers to an individual's career decisions, which vary along three dimensions: frequency of job change; direction of change; and type of change in job content. Driver distinguishes between four different career concepts - steady state, linear, spiral, and transitory.

When a "leaderless group discussion" is used alone or as a component of an assessment center, it is most helpful for: a. developing communication and problem-solving skills in team members b. identifying ways for improving the ability of the team to achieve its production goals c. identifying or developing a manager's leadership skills d. evaluating a manager's skills with regard to organization and planning

A leaderless group discussion is a simulation technique that is often used as part of an assessment center. Leaderless group discussions and other simulations are frequently included in management development programs. c. CORRECT Assessment centers are used for the hiring, promotion, and training of managerial-level employees. A leaderless group discussion (as part of an assessment center or alone) provides information about a manager's communication, decision-making, and leadership skills.

Which of the following would be LEAST useful for eliminating the halo effect, the central tendency bias, and other rater biases from performance ratings: a. paired comparison b. Likert scale c. forced distribution d. Ranking

A major problem with subjective rating scales is that they are susceptible to rater biases and thus may not provide accurate information about an employee's job performance. However, biases can be controlled by using certain types of subjective rating scales.a. Incorrect The paired comparison method requires the rater to compare each employee with each other employee and, therefore, does eliminate response biases.b. CORRECT Likert-type scales and other graphic rating scales are very susceptible to rater biases, especially when the dimensions of job behavior being rated are very global.c. Incorrect The forced distribution is a method of controlling rater biases.d. Incorrect Like the paired comparison and forced distribution methods, ranking is a "relative" technique and helps reduce rating biases.

The three components of a needs assessment are: a. microsystem, macrosystem, and exosystem b. unfreezing, changing, refreezing c. worker satisfaction, worker performance, and organizational effectiveness d. organization analysis, task analysis, and person analysis

A needs assessment is conducted in organizations to determine training needs. a. Incorrect These are systems in Bronfenbrenner's ecological model. b. Incorrect These are the stages in Lewin's model of planned change. c. Incorrect These are not the components of a needs assessment. d. CORRECT The systems approach to needs assessment involves three types of analysis - organization, task/job, and person.

A needs assessment ordinarily consists of three components. These are: a. evaluative, formative, and summative analysis b. job, person, and organizational analysis c. unfreezing, changing, and refreezing d. knowledge, skills, and abilities

A needs assessment is conducted in organizations to determine training needs. b. CORRECT A comprehensive needs assessment includes an analysis of the job requirements, the people performing the job, and the goals of the organization.

Research on the application of goal-setting theory to groups (versus individuals) suggests that: a. individual goals are more effective than group goals b. individual goals and groups goals are equally effective regardless of the type of task c. performance feedback plus group goals is more effective than either of these alone d. performance feedback plus group goals is no more effective than either of these alone

A number of studies have been conducted on the effectiveness of goal-setting theory for group productivity.a. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true. Especially for interdependent tasks, group goals are more effective than individual goals.b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.c. CORRECT The research has found that a combination of specific goals with performance feedback is the optimal situation for both groups and individuals.d. Incorrect See explanation for response "c."

An industrial-organizational psychologist will most likely apply the concept of "identical elements" originally proposed by Thorndike and Woodworth (1901) to which of the following: a. job redesign b. employee selection c. criterion development d. employee training

According to Thorndike and Woodworth (1901), transfer of training is maximized when there are identical elements in the learning and performance settings. (Knowing that Thorndike conducted research in the area of learning would have helped you choose the correct response to this question even if you were unfamiliar with the notion of identical elements.) d. CORRECT Research on Thorndike and Woodworth's theory has supported the importance of providing identical elements for transfer of training.

In a study designed to evaluate the correlates of achievement motivation, a psychologist would be likely to find that, in comparison to people with a low need for achievement, people with a high need for achievement will prefer which of the following kinds of tasks: a. tasks of low difficulty b. tasks of moderate difficulty c. tasks of high difficulty d. tasks representing a range of difficulty levels

Achievement-oriented people tend to prefer moderate to moderately difficult tasks.a. Incorrect You probably could have eliminated this response on the basis of common sense. People who are achievement-oriented would not get too much gratification from success on easy tasks.b. CORRECT This might not be the answer you'd guess if you're totally unfamiliar with the research on this topic, but, in fact, it is the correct answer.c. Incorrect Somewhat surprisingly, it is people with a low need for achievement who choose more difficult tasks.d. Incorrect If you had eliminated answer "a" for the correct reason, that should have helped you eliminate this answer too since tasks of varying difficulty levels would include easy tasks.

A new selection test is apparently having an adverse impact on females. To determine if the adverse impact is being caused by "unfairness," you would check: a. the predictor scores obtained by males and females b. the slopes of the regression lines for males and females c. to see if the language used in the test is biased d. to see if the measure of job performance is biased

Adverse impact can be the result of several factors including differential validity and unfairness.a. CORRECT As defined by the EEOC, unfairness occurs when the validity coefficients and criterion performance for two groups are similar but members of the groups perform differently on the predictor.b. Incorrect The slopes of the regression lines would be useful for determining if adverse impact is due to differential validity.

If the court determines that a selection procedure is having an adverse impact, a company: a. can no longer use the procedure b. can use the procedure if there is evidence that the adverse impact represents "fair discrimination" c. can use the procedure only if there is evidence that it is job-related d. can use the procedure only if there is evidence that it is valid and there are no alternative procedures

Adverse impact is occurring when a selection procedure is having a negative effect on members of a protected minority group. d. CORRECT When the court has determined that a selection technique is having an adverse impact, it is up to the company to prove that continued use of the technique is a "business necessity." This involves showing evidence of the procedure's validity and of a lack of alternative measures that would have less adverse impact.

In their meta-analysis of the research on the impact of flextime on job outcomes, Baltes et al. (1999) found that this schedule has the greatest impact on: a. Productivity b. job satisfaction c. Absenteeism d. self-rated performance

Although the meta-analysis by B. Baltes and colleagues showed that flextime has beneficial effects on a variety of job outcomes, its impact is much stronger for some outcomes than others [Flexible and compressed workweek schedules: A meta-analysis of their effects on work-related outcomes, Journal of Applied Psychology, 84(4), 1999, 496-513].a. Incorrect Baltes et al. obtained a mean weighted effect size of .45 for flextime and productivity.b. Incorrect These authors obtained an effect size of .15 for flextime and satisfaction (which is actually lower than the effects reported in earlier studies).c. CORRECT The largest effect size - .93 - was obtained for flextime and absenteeism.d. Incorrect The lowest effect size - .04 - was obtained for flextime and self-rated job performance.

Which of the following theories of leadership provides a leader with a decision tree to help him or her decide whether an autocratic, consultative, or group decision-making style is optimal given the characteristics of the situation? a. Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model b. Graen's leader-member exchange model c. House's path-goal theory d. Vroom and Yetton's leader-participation model

Although three of the theories listed in the responses propose that the best leader style depends on the characteristics of the situation, only one includes a decision tree to help leaders pick the best style.a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.d. CORRECT The Vroom-Yetton-Jago model distinguishes between autocratic, consultative, and group decision-making leader styles and proposes that the best one depends on certain characteristics of the situation including time constraints, the importance of subordinate commitment to the decision, and the structure of the task. The model includes a decision-tree to help leaders choose the optimal style for their situation.

In an organization, an assessment center is most likely to include which of the following: a. a measure of psychomotor ability b. a lie detector c. a "vestibule" d. an "in-basket test"

An assessment center is a comprehensive technique used most often for the selection, promotion, or placement of managerial-level employees.a. Incorrect Since assessment centers are used for the promotion of managerial-level employees, they are not likely to include psychomotor tests.b. Incorrect This is not commonly found in an assessment center.c. Incorrect A vestibule is a facsimile of a real environment. Vestibules are used for training purposes and are most commonly associated with production-type jobs (e.g., a vestibule might be a facsimile of an actual assembly line).d. CORRECT Assessment centers incorporate a variety of techniques including situational tests such as the in-basket test.

As defined in the EEOC Uniform Guidelines, "unfairness" is a problem when: a. groups have consistently different scores on the predictor b. groups have consistently different scores on the criterion c. the predictor has significantly different validity coefficients for different groups d. the predictor is equally invalid for all groups

As defined in the EEOC Uniform Guidelines, "unfairness" is a problem when: groups have consistently different scores on the predictor groups have consistently different scores on the criterion the predictor has significantly different validity coefficients for different groups the predictor is equally invalid for all groups Unfairness is one of the possible causes of adverse impact.a. CORRECT A test is "unfair" when it has a similar validity coefficient for members of two (or more) groups and members of the groups have similar criterion performance, but members of one group consistently score lower on the predictor than members of the other group(s). In this situation, if the same predictor cutoff is used for all individuals, there may be adverse impact for members of the low-scoring group. c. Incorrect This describes differential validity.

Decentralization is preferable to centralization when an organization: a. is operating in a highly competitive and constantly changing environment b. is operating in a predictable market and methods of production are relatively stable c. is experiencing a slow rate of growth and has a strong-willed leader d. has little competition

As its name implies, in a decentralized organization, power is delegated throughout the organization. In contrast, in centralized organizations, power is primarily in the hands of one person or a few people.a. CORRECT Because decentralized organizations are more flexible, they are more effective than centralized organizations for adapting to change and meeting the need to make frequent and quick decisions.b. Incorrect Centralized organizations tend to be better in this situation.c. Incorrect The "strong-willed leader" should have helped you eliminate this as a possible correct answer.d. Incorrect When the market and the organization are relatively stable, there is a tendency for an organization to become more centralized.

Which of the following is the most commonly used criterion-measure in organizational settings: a. supervisor ratings b. standardized performance tests c. quantitative measures of production d. assessment centers

Criterion measures are measures of job performance. Although some jobs lend themselves to direct (objective) measures, most require that subjective measures be used.a. CORRECT Supervisor ratings continue to be the most frequently used methods for assessing employees, probably because they are the easiest and quickest way of evaluating employees.b. Incorrect Performance tests are more likely to be used as predictors than criteria.c. Incorrect Quantitative indices (e.g., number of units produced) are unavailable for many jobs.d. Incorrect These are costly in terms of time and money and are used only in large organizations for the purpose of managerial placements and promotions.

A transactional leader is least likely to agree with which of the following statements: a. employee behavior is goal directed and employees will act rationally to achieve their goals b. contingent rewards are effective for motivating good performance c. the best idea for a boss is to adopt a laissez-faire leadership style d. each employee will function best if he/she is viewed as an individual and is given personal attention

Current literature on leadership in organizations often distinguishes between transactional and transformational leaders.a. Incorrect This is characteristic of transactional leaders. See, e.g., H. L. Tosi et al., Managing Organizational Behavior, Cambridge, MA: Blackwell Business, 1994.b. Incorrect Transactional leaders use rewards and punishments to control and modify the behaviors of their subordinates.c. Incorrect This is also consistent with the transactional leadership style.d. CORRECT This is more consistent with the managerial philosophy of transformational leaders.

Which of the following is specifically excluded as a "disability" in the Americans with Disabilities Act: a. HIV/AIDS b. learning disabilities c. Transvestism d. Alcoholism

Disability is defined in the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) as "a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more of the major life activities" of an individual. a. Incorrect HIV/AIDS is included as a disability.b. Incorrect Learning disabilities are included in the definition of disability.c. CORRECT The ADA lists several conditions that do not qualify as disabilities. These include transvestism, exhibitionism, gender identity disorder not resulting from a physical impairment, compulsive gambling, kleptomania, and use of illegal drugs.d. Incorrect Alcoholism and drug addiction are included as disabilities. However, if these conditions interfere with the individual's job performance, an employer is allowed to take disciplinary action as long as it is tied to the person's performance and not to his/her alcohol or other legal drug use.

Which of the following is most relevant to equity theory: a. Rosenthal effect b. social comparison theory c. drive theory d. the buffering hypothesis

Equity theory predicts that motivation is a function of the comparisons workers make between their own input/outcome ratio and those of workers doing similar jobs.a. Incorrect The Rosenthal effect is another name for the self-fulfilling prophecy effect, which isn't really relevant to equity theory.b. CORRECT According to equity theory, motivation is a result of our social comparisons.c. Incorrect Drive theory is also a theory of motivation but isn't as relevant to equity theory as social comparison theory.d. Incorrect The buffering hypothesis predicts that the perception of adequate social support buffers people against the negative effects of stress.

In the context of employee selection, use of the technique known as _________ involves specifying a range of scores on a test that are considered equivalent for selection purposes and then considering applicants who obtain scores within that range: a. Ranking b. Banding c. utility analysis d. multiple hurdles

Even if you are unfamiliar with the procedure being asked about by this question, you may have been able to make an "educated guess" by using the process of elimination. a. Incorrect As a selection procedure, ranking involves using a point system to rank applicants in terms of the various job requirements. b. CORRECT Banding is used to increase diversity and reduce adverse impact in the workplace. When using this technique, a range of test scores that are considered equivalent for selection purposes are specified and other job-related and/or diversity factors are then used to select among applicants who obtain scores within that range. c. Incorrect Utility analysis is not an employee selection procedure. d. Incorrect The multiple hurdle technique is a selection procedure that requires an applicant to pass two or more tests or other procedures sequentially.

One area of interest to industrial psychologists is the effects of rest breaks on productivity. For example, Bhatia and Murrell (1969) evaluated daily output figures after the introduction of rest breaks that reduced the total work time from eight to seven hours per day. Generally speaking, studies like the one conducted by Bhatia and Murrell have indicated that the introduction of rest breaks results in: a. a rise in daily output despite the fact that employees actually spend less time on the job b. a decrease in daily output due to reduced time on the job c. no significant change in productivity rates d. a decrease in productivity but an increase in job satisfaction

Even if you are unfamiliar with the research in this area, it makes sense that the less the fatigue, the greater the productivity. a. CORRECT Studies on the effects of rest breaks have indicated that such breaks actually increase productivity despite reduced time on the job, presumably due to decreased fatigue.b. Incorrect There is no evidence that rest breaks cause a decrease in output.c. Incorrect Rest breaks do appear to cause an increase in productivity.d. Incorrect Rest breaks do not decrease productivity.

One prediction of goal-setting theory is that difficult goals result in greater productivity than easy or ambiguous goals. With regard to task difficulty, the studies have shown that: a. the more complex the task, the stronger the link between goal difficulty and productivity b. the less complex the task, the stronger the link between goal difficulty and productivity c. the relationship between task complexity and productivity is curvilinear with the strongest link being between moderate goal complexity and productivity d. the relationship between task complexity and productivity is curvilinear with the strongest links being between low and high goal complexity and productivity

Even if you're not familiar with the research, it makes sense that goal-setting theory would apply better to simple tasks than difficult tasks, since performance on the latter would also depend on other factors in addition to the acceptance of difficult goals. b. CORRECT This is the conclusion reached by the developers of goal-setting theory. See R. F. Wood, E. A. Locke, and A. J. Mento, Task complexity as a moderator of goal effects: A meta-analysis, Journal of Applied Psychology, 1987, 72, 416-425.

Expectancy theory predicts that work motivation depends on three beliefs. These include all of the following except: a. Valence b. Instrumentality c. Expectancy d. Consideration

Expectancy theory is based on the assumption that motivation is a cognitive process involving three beliefs: expectancy, instrumentality, and valence.a. Incorrect Valence refers to the value the worker places on the outcomes of performance.b. Incorrect Instrumentality refers to the worker's beliefs regarding the likelihood that successful job performance will lead to certain outcomes. c. Incorrect Expectancy refers to the worker's beliefs about the likelihood that effort will lead to successful performance.d. CORRECT Consideration is not one of the beliefs identified by expectancy theory.

According to Fiedler's contingency model, leadership is most effective when the leader's style (task- or person-oriented) matches: a. level of employee "maturity" b. organizational goals c. degree of situational control d. role expectations Fiedler's contingency model distinguishes between two types of leaders - high-LPC and low-LPC. High LPC leaders are person-oriented and are concerned primarily with maintaining good interpersonal relationships, while low LPC leaders are task-oriented and are most concerned about successful task performance.

Fiedler's contingency model distinguishes between two types of leaders - high-LPC and low-LPC. High LPC leaders are person-oriented and are concerned primarily with maintaining good interpersonal relationships, while low LPC leaders are task-oriented and are most concerned about successful task performance. c. CORRECT Fiedler's contingency model predicts that task-oriented (low-LPC) leaders are most effective when the situation is extreme - that is, when the leader has either low or high situational control, while person-oriented (high-LPC leaders) are most effective when situational control is moderate. As defined by Fiedler, situational control is determined by three factors: leader-member relations, task-structure, and leader position power.

According to Fiedler's contingency model, which of the following is most important for maximizing a supervisor's ability to effectively lead his or her employees: a. each employee is highly motivated b. each employee is very proficient at his/her job c. the leader has good relationships with his/her employees d. the leader is highly experienced

Fiedler's contingency model identifies three characteristics of the work situation that influence a leader's ability to lead: leader-member relations, task structure, and the leader's position power. c. CORRECT Of the three situational characteristics, Fiedler considered leader-member relations to be most critical. According to Fiedler, factors that affect the quality of the relationship between the leader and members are the degree to which the leader perceives members to be similar to him/her and trusts and respects them and the degree to which members like, trust, and respect the leader and are loyal to him/her.

A low selection ratio and a moderate base rate are useful for: a. maximizing incremental validity b. reducing the likelihood of adverse impact c. increasing discriminant validity d. reducing measurement error

For the exam, you want to have the terms selection ratio and base rate linked to the concept of incremental validity.a. CORRECT A predictor is most likely to increase decision-making accuracy (i.e., have good incremental validity) when there are many applicants to choose from (a low selection ratio) and when the current technique produces a moderate number of correct decisions (moderate base rate).b. Incorrect Selection ratio and base rate are not directly related to adverse impact.c. Incorrect Discriminant validity refers to low correlations between measures that assess different traits. It is used as evidence of construct validity.d. Incorrect Selection ratio and base rate are not relevant to the extent of measurement error.

In Holland's typology of persons and job environments, a job categorized as __________ requires manual and mechanical competencies and interactions with machines, tools, and objects: a. Investigative b. Realistic c. Conventional d. Enterprising

Holland's RIASEC model distinguishes between six person/environment types - realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional.a. Incorrect An investigative job requires analytical, technical, scientific, and verbal competencies.b. CORRECT A realistic job requires the skills listed in this question. Carpenter and truck driver are examples of realistic jobs.c. Incorrect A conventional job requires clerical skills and an ability to meet precise standards of performance.d. Incorrect An enterprising job requires persuasion skills.

Holland's theory about the importance of matching a person's personality with his/her work environment predicts that a person with a realistic orientation will be most satisfied with job tasks that: a. are ambiguous and require some degree of creativity b. require manual or technical skills and concrete problem-solving c. require systematic manipulation and organization of data d. require introspection and intellectual problem-solving

Holland's six personality types are realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional ("RIASEC").a. Incorrect This type of job is appropriate for an artistic individual.b. CORRECT Realistic work requires mechanical, manual, and technical skills.c. Incorrect This type of job is suited to a person who is conventional.d. Incorrect This describes the investigative type.

From the perspective of Holland's approach to career choice and career counseling, a highly differentiated person: a. resembles one personality type and no other type b. has obtained a personality profile that is unusual or unique c. has scored highly on two personality types that are on opposite sides of the personality/occupational hexagon d. has vocational aspirations that belong in diverse RIASEC categories

Holland's theory distinguishes between six personality and occupational types - realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional ("RIASEC").a. CORRECT According to Holland, a person is highly differentiated when he/she obtains a high score on only one personality dimension. He also believed that a personality-occupational match is most accurate for predicting outcomes for those who are highly differentiated.

A police department is going to change the work schedule for its police officers. Rather than work a traditional five-day workweek, it will now allow its officers to work a four-day workweek. The research on a four-day workweek has found that it: a. increases productivity and has a positive effect on family life. b. increases productivity and has a negative effect on family life. c. decreases productivity and has a negative effect on family life. d. has little effect on productivity and a positive effect on family life

In the four-day workweek, the forty work hours in a traditional five-day workweek is divided into four days. d. CORRECT The compressed four-day workweek has little impact on job productivity, but may have beneficial effects at home.

A supervisor administers a test on the material covered in a training program to employees who have just completed the program in order to assess its effectiveness. Six months later, the same supervisor rates the employees on their job performance and correlates the two sets of scores. She obtains a correlation coefficient of .65. Most likely, the magnitude of the coefficient has been biased by which of the following: a. Shrinkage b. criterion contamination c. a contrast effect d. demand characteristics

In the situation described in this question, the same person is rating employees on the predictor and criterion.a. Incorrect Shrinkage is associated with cross-validation.b. CORRECT When knowledge of a person's performance on the predictor affects how he/she is rated on the criterion, criterion contamination has occurred and is likely to inflate the criterion-related validity coefficient. A coefficient of .65 is relatively high and may reflect criterion contamination.c. Incorrect The contrast effect occurs when the ability of previous interviewees or applicants affects how a subsequent interviewee or applicant is evaluated.d. Incorrect Demand characteristics are cues in the environment that inform research participants what behaviors are expected from them.

In an interview, a job applicant exhibits one or two very positive characteristics. These characteristics influence how the interviewer evaluates the applicant on other unrelated characteristics so that her overall impression is very favorable. This is an example of the: a. halo error b. contrast effect c. leniency bias d. fundamental attribution bias

In this situation, the interviewer's overall evaluation of the applicant has been influenced by one or two very positive characteristics.a. CORRECT This is best described as a positive halo error.b. Incorrect A contrast effect occurs when the evaluation of an applicant is affected by a previous applicant; e.g., if the previous applicant was very poor, a mediocre applicant is likely to be evaluated more favorably than he/she would if the previous applicant was very good.c. Incorrect A leniency bias is occurring when a rater tends to rate everyone highly.d. Incorrect The fundamental attribution bias refers to the tendency to attribute the behavior of others to dispositional (versus situational) factors.

The owner of a company has decided that, to determine how well employees are performing, employees will be watched while performing their jobs for a predetermined period of time. Based on the relevant research, you predict that the employees' performance during the period of observation will: a. be inhibited if the task is easy b. be inhibited if the task is complex c. be enhanced whether the task is easy or complex d. be inhibited whether the task is easy or complex

It has been found that, in certain circumstances, the presence of others inhibits task performance (social inhibition), while in other circumstances, the presence of others facilitates task performance (social facilitation).a. Incorrect When the task is simple or well-learned, the presence of others tends to enhance task performance.b. CORRECT The presence of others tends to inhibit performance when the task is complex or unfamiliar.

In mediation: a. the mediator considers the preferences of all involved parties but his/her decision or problem solution is binding b. the mediator makes a formal recommendation following a review of the facts, but the recommendation may or may not be accepted by the involved parties c. the mediator facilitates the flow of information between the involved parties and helps them progress toward an acceptable compromise d. the mediator provides the "final vote" that is needed to break a deadlock between the involved parties

Mediation is often distinguished from fact-finding and arbitration.a. Incorrect This sounds more like arbitration.b. Incorrect This sounds a more like fact-finding than mediation.c. CORRECT In mediation, a neutral third party (the mediator) uses various tactics to facilitate voluntary agreement between disputants. Mediators can make recommendations, but they have no formal power and cannot impose their solution or decision.d. Incorrect This does not describe the role of a mediator.

The shortage of mentors for women and members of culturally-diverse groups at the managerial level is likely to be of most concern for an advocate of: a. social learning theory b. contingency management theory c. need hierarchy theory d. LPC theory

Mentors not only provide support to their proteges but also act as models.a. CORRECT According to social learning theory, people learn from observing and interacting with others. Therefore, not having a "model" who is of the same gender or cultural background would be of concern to advocates of this theory.b. Incorrect Contingency management refers to the use of rewards and punishments to elicit desired behavior and is less relevant than social learning theory to the problem described in the question.c. Incorrect Need hierarchy theory predicts that people have five basic needs that arise in a hierarchical order. It is also less relevant than social learning theory to the problem addressed in the question.d. Incorrect LPC is associated with the work of Fiedler and refers to "least preferred co-worker." His theory of leadership is not relevant to this question.

Overtraining is most associated with: a. peak performance b. enhanced transfer of training c. a drug-like "high" d. decreased motivation and performance

Note that this question is asking about overtraining, not overlearning. The term overtraining appears in the sports psychology literature; overlearning is used in the learning and training literature.a. Incorrect This would be the best answer if the question were asking about overlearning.b. Incorrect This also better fits overlearning.c. Incorrect This is not associated with overtraining or overlearning.d. CORRECT In the sports psychology literature, overtraining (staleness) refers to excessive training and the resulting physical and psychological symptoms. The undesirable effects of overtraining include premature fatigue during exercise, reduced performance, emotional instability, decreased motivation, and increased susceptibility to infection.

Individuals high in need for achievement (nAch) ordinarily prefer moderately difficult goals and: a. are more likely than individuals low in nAch to be committed to moderately difficult goals when the goals have been self-set (versus assigned) b. are less likely than individuals low in nAch to be committed to moderately difficult goals when the goals have been self-set (versus assigned) c. are about equally committed to moderately difficult goals when they have been self-set or assigned d. are no different than individuals low in nAch in terms of commitment to moderately difficult goals that have been either self-set or assigned

One of the factors that affects commitment to goals is need for achievement.a. CORRECT J. R. Hollenbeck, C. R. Williams, and H. J. Klein (1989), for example, found that commitment to difficult goals was higher among individuals high in need for achievement, especially when the goals were self-set [An empirical examination of the antecedents of commitment to difficult goals, Journal of Applied Psychology, 74(1), 18-23].

According to the path-goal theory of leadership, a primary task of a leader is to help subordinates find the best path for attaining goals. In terms of leadership style, this theory proposes that: a. the best style (directive, supportive, participative, or achievement-oriented) depends on certain characteristics of the task and the subordinates b. the best style (directive, supportive, participative, or achievement-oriented) depends on the leader's experience, personality, and so on c. the best style is a participative one that allows employees to help set their own goals d. the best style is an achievement-oriented one that focuses on enhancing the skills and knowledge of subordinates so that they are better able to achieve their goals

Path-goal theory is classified as a contingency theory because it proposes that the best style depends on the nature of the situation.a. CORRECT According to path-goal theory, the best leadership style depends on certain characteristics of the task (e.g., level of ambiguity, structure) and of the workers (e.g., traits, abilities).b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.

The rotating shift is associated with a number of adverse consequences including fatigue, concentration, and performance errors. The negative effects can be reduced, however, when: a. the rotation is clockwise and weekly b. the rotation is clockwise and either rapid (every 3 days) or slow (every 3 weeks) c. the rotation is counterclockwise and weekly d. the rotation is counterclockwise and either rapid (every 3 days) or slow (every 3 weeks)

Several factors contribute to the impact of the rotating shift on worker health and performance. b. CORRECT There is evidence that the rotating shift has fewer negative consequences when the rotation is clockwise (morning, afternoon, night) and is either rapid or slow. Weekly rotations are generally most detrimental because they do not allow resynchronization of circadian rhythms (which slow rotations do) and are long enough to allow for the build up of a sleep deficit (which fast rotations do not do). See, e.g., O. Van Reeth, Sleep and circadian disturbances in shift work: Strategies for their management, Hormone Research, 49, 1998, 158-162.

According to Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model, a manager will be most effective with an employee who is low in both ability and motivation when the manager: a. provides specific instructions and closely supervises the employee's work b. encourages the employee to take responsibility for decision-making c. shares ideas with the employee and supports the employee's participation in decision-making d. makes decisions and acts as a supportive coach

Situational leadership theory proposes that, to be effective, managers must adopt a leadership style that matches the employee's maturity, which is determined by a combination of the employee's ability and motivation.a. CORRECT This describes a "telling" style, which, according to Hersey and Blanchard, is appropriate for employees who are low in both ability and motivation.b. Incorrect This describes a "delegating" style, which is best for employees who are high in both ability and motivation.c. Incorrect This is characteristic of the "participating" style, which is best for employees who are high in ability but low in motivation.d. Incorrect This is the "selling" style, which works best for employees who are low in ability but high in motivation.

A waiter is waiting on a group of professors from the local university. Being familiar with social loafing theory and desiring the largest tip possible, the waiter hopes that: a. each professor will leave his/her own tip b. the professors will contribute anonymously to a group tip c. the professors will discuss how much tip to leave d. one of the professors will volunteer to leave the tip for all of the professors

Social loafing is occurring when a person contributes less as group member than he/she would have contributed if acting alone.a. CORRECT The waiter will get the most money if each person leaves his/her own tip since this will discourage social loafing.

Social loafing is most likely to occur when: a. rewards are distributed on the basis of individual contributions to the group b. the group's goals are ambiguous rather than specific c. the group is highly cohesive e. the group is very large

Social loafing occurs when a worker puts forth less effort as a team member than he/she would have put forth working alone.a. Incorrect Providing individual rewards actually reduces social loafing. d. CORRECT A person is most likely to "loaf" when the group is large, which makes his/her individual contribution less obvious.esearch has shown that membership in a cohesive (versus noncohesive) group is associated with: greater productivity and reduced absenteeism and turnover reduced absenteeism and turnover and, in some situations, greater productivity greater productivity but no significant impact on absenteeism and turnover in the long run, reduced productivity and increased absenteeism and turnover

Research investigating the relationship between interest test scores and future occupational choice suggests that these tests have the highest predictive validity for: a. lower-class people b. middle-class people c. upper-class people d. lower-and upper-class people

Socioeconomic status is one factor that has been found to affect the predictive validity of interest inventories.a. Incorrect Lower-class people do not always have the opportunity to pursue occupations that coincide with their interests and frequently choose those jobs that provide the greatest pay and security.b. CORRECT Members of the middle-class usually have the greatest latitude when it comes to choosing an occupation and, therefore, are most likely to choose jobs that coincide with their interests.c. Incorrect Upper-class individuals often choose occupations on the basis of family tradition or societal expectations rather than interests.d. Incorrect See explanations above.

As defined by Donald Super, "career maturity": a. is achieved by most people by the time they reach their late 20s or early 30s b. is not fully achieved until mid-life or later c. refers to the individual's mastery of tasks at each developmental stage d. refers to the degree of match between the individual's "self-concept" and current occupational aspirations

Super's life space/life span theory includes a stage theory that encompasses the entire lifespan. The five stages are growth, exploration, establishment, maintenance, and disengagement.a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.c. CORRECT Each stage involves a set of developmental tasks, and mastery of those tasks represents career maturity. Career maturity prepares the individual to fulfill the life roles characteristic of the stage the person is in as well as for the tasks of the subsequent stage.d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

A primary assumption underlying the use of survey feedback as a method of organizational development is that: a. in order for change to occur, employees must understand the organization's current strengths and weaknesses b. in order for change to occur, barriers to openness and honesty between employees and management must be overcome c. the first step in producing change in an organization is to improve employee motivation and satisfaction d. the first step in producing change in an organization is to identify the nature of the organization's environment

Survey feedback involves collecting data about an organization, providing the information to employees in small group meetings, and then having employees analyze the identified problems and find solutions to them. a. CORRECT This is the primary assumption underlying the technique known as survey feedback. Consequently, it involves including employees in all steps of the process. b. Incorrect This sounds more like a premise of sensitivity training. c. Incorrect This better describes the premise underlying quality of work life programs. d. Incorrect This best describes an assumption of contingency theory.

When using the survey feedback method in an organization, the purpose of the feedback is to: a. inform individual employees about their individual areas of strength and weakness b. inform employees about their progress toward meeting organizational goals c. provide employees with information about the organization's strengths and weaknesses d. provide managers with information about employees' strengths and weaknesses

Survey feedback is an organizational development technique. c. CORRECT The rationale underlying the use of survey feedback is that, for organizational change to be effective, employees must be aware of the organization's current strengths and weaknesses. The technique entails collecting information about the organization (especially its problems) and providing that information to employees who then work together to identify solutions to the problems.

As predicted by the Taylor-Russell tables, the incremental validity of a selection test that has a validity coefficient of .50 will be the greatest when: a. the selection ratio is .05 and the base rate is .20 b. the selection ratio is .05 and the base rate is .50 c. the selection ratio is .95 and the base rate is .20 d. the selection ratio is .95 and the base rate is .50

The Taylor-Russell Tables provide information on a test's incremental validity for various combination of base rates, selection ratios, and validity coefficients. b. CORRECT A test with even a low or moderate validity coefficient can improve decision-making accuracy when the selection ratio is low (e.g., .05) and the base rate is moderate (near .50).

To use the Taylor-Russell tables to evaluate a new selection test, you need information about which of the following: a. predictor cutoff, criterion cutoff, and hit rate b. base rate, hit rate, and selection ratio c. base rate, selection ratio, and validity coefficient d. base rate, hit rate, and predictor cutoff

The Taylor-Russell tables are used to estimate a predictor's "positive hit rate." c. CORRECT To find an estimated hit rate using these tables, it is necessary to have three pieces of information: the base rate, the selection ratio, and the predictor's validity coefficient.

Which of the following is not a rater bias: a. severity error b. central tendency bias c. floor effect d. contrast effect

The accuracy of subjective rating scales is affected by the scale's susceptibility to rater biases.a. Incorrect Severity error is another name for the strictness error (or bias) and refers to the tendency to rate all ratees using the low end of the rating scale.b. Incorrect A rater is exhibiting the central tendency bias when he/she rates all ratees using the middle of a rating scale.c. CORRECT A floor effect is a characteristic of a measuring instrument (not a rater) and refers to the instrument's inability to distinguish between people who have low levels of whatever is being measured by the instrument. d. Incorrect A rater is exhibiting a contrast effect when his/her ratings of a ratee are affected by ratings given to another ratee.

Of the following, which is the best way to control the halo effect: a. train the raters b. use peer ratings c. make the results of assessments available to employees d. involve raters in the development of the rating scale

The assessment of employee performance often involves subjective measures, which are associated with rater biases. One such bias is the halo effect, which occurs when a rater's rating of an employee on one dimension of job performance affects his/her rating of the employee on other dimensions.a. CORRECT Training raters in the use of rating scales increases the accuracy of ratings, and research has demonstrated that comprehensive training can significantly reduce the halo effect. The halo effect and other rater biases can also be reduced with the use of multiple raters, ratings based on specific rather than global behaviors, and the use of certain types of scales, such as forced-choice and paired comparison scales.b. Incorrect Peer ratings, although they have been found to be good predictors of training success and subsequent promotions, have not been found to be an effective method of reducing the halo effect.c. Incorrect Making such results available to employees enhances employee acceptance of the appraisal process, but it does not help to reduce the halo effect.d. Incorrect This does not represent a direct method of decreasing the halo effect, although rater involvement in the entire rating process can increase a rater's motivation to fill out rating scales accurately and thoroughly.

The concepts of "job relatedness" and "business necessity" are associated with: a. adverse impact b. truth in testing c. comparable worth d. personnel training

The concepts of "job relatedness" and "business necessity" are associated with: adverse impact truth in testing comparable worth personnel training Job relatedness and business necessity are conditions that may permit the use of a selection procedure that is having an adverse impact for members of a protected group. a. CORRECT If a selection or other employment procedure is found to be having adverse impact, the employer may be able to continue using the procedure if he/she can demonstrate that it is job related and a business necessity. See, e.g., the Americans with Disabilities Act and the Federal Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures.

A problem with establishing "comparable worth" is that: a. job evaluation techniques are not as useful for very complex jobs b. males and females may use different strategies to reach the same decision or solution c. the job evaluation techniques themselves may be gender-biased d. it is difficult to compare achievement across different domains

The doctrine of comparable worth extends "equal content" as a determinant of wages to "comparable worth." In others words, even if two jobs are different in terms of content, they should have the same salary as long as they involve similar processes and demands. Comparable worth became an issue because of the gender differences in wages.a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.c. CORRECT A difficulty in establishing comparable worth, at least according to some experts, is that the job evaluation techniques used to establish it may themselves be gender-biased. This issue continues to be debated in the literature.d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

Research on the effects of gender on goal-setting indicates that: a. goal-setting significantly increases the performance of both males and females when goals are participatively set or assigned b. goal-setting significantly increases the performance of both males and females only when goals are participatively set c. goal-setting significantly increases the performance of males but not females when goals are assigned but increases the performance of males and females when goals are participatively set d. goal-setting significantly increases the performance of females but not males when goals are assigned but increases the performance of males and females when goals are participatively set

The effects of gender on goal-setting are briefly discussed by E. A. Locke and G. P. Latham (A Theory of Goal-Setting and Task Performance, Englewood Cliffs, NJ: Prentice-Hall, 1990).a. CORRECT The few studies that have examined the effects of gender have found that, overall, goal-setting is equally effective for males and females.

Incentive/reward theory implies that which of the following is most important for ensuring worker motivation: a. clearly tying positive reinforcers to effective performance b. making jobs interesting, attractive, and satisfying c. explicitly linking individual goals to organizational goals d. allowing workers to identify their preferred benefits

The implications of incentive/reward and other motivational theories are summarized by R. A. Katzell and D. E. Thompson in Work motivation: Theory and practice, American Psychologist, 45(2), 1990, 144-153.a. Incorrect This is an implication of reinforcement theory, which is different from incentive/reward theory in its premises and implications.b. CORRECT Incentive/reward theory is broader than reinforcement theory and emphasizes the features of the job and work environment that maximize worker interest and satisfaction.c. Incorrect This is not a key implication of incentive/reward theory.d. Incorrect This is also not an implication of incentive/reward theory.

Incremental validity refers to the gain in hiring effective employees by using a predictor (e.g., a selection test) as opposed to not using it. The most important contributor to a predictor's incremental validity is its criterion-related validity coefficient: The higher the coefficient, the greater the validity. However, the incremental validity of a predictor is also affected by other factors. Specifically, a predictor will have the highest incremental validity when: a. the selection ratio is moderate and the base rate is high b. the selection ratio is low and the base rate is moderate c. the selection ratio is high and the base rate is moderate d. the selection ratio is moderate and the base rate is low

The incremental validity of a predictor is determined by several factors including the validity coefficient, the selection ratio, and the base rate.a. Incorrect See explanation for response "b".b. CORRECT A predictor will have the greatest incremental validity when the selection ratio is low (there are lots of applicants for the job) and when the base rate is moderate (the current selection technique is moderately accurate).c. Incorrect See explanation for response "b".

When using a ___________________, the rater is provided with a list of behavioral examples and asked to indicate whether the ratee's performance is equal to, worse than, or better than the performance described in each example: a. critical incident technique b. behavioral observation scale c. forced-choice method d. mixed standard scale

The mixed standard scale (Blanz and Ghiselli, 1971) was originally designed to reduce rater biases. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. (Although the mixed standard scale uses critical incidents, it is not the same as the "critical incident technique.") b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT When using the mixed standard scale, three critical incidents representing good, average, and poor performance for several dimensions of job performance are identified. They are then listed in the rating scale in a random order, and the rater indicates, for each incident, whether the rater's performance is equal to, worse than, or better than the described behavior.

An advantage of the "paired comparison" technique is that it: a. helps reduce certain rater/observer biases b. provides helpful information for employee feedback c. is less time-consuming to complete than other techniques d. is more acceptable to employees and supervisors than other methods

The paired comparison technique is a type of "relative" method for assessing performance that entails comparing an employee to other employees on predefined dimensions of job performance.a. CORRECT One advantage of relative measures is that they help reduce rater biases.b. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true.c. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true.d. Incorrect Employees tend to dislike relative measures because they do not want to be compared to other employees.

Research evaluating the predictive validity of structured interviews as hiring tools in organizations suggests that: a. structured interviews are the most valid predictors of performance across different jobs b. when used alone, structured interviews are no more valid as predictors of performance than unstructured interviews c. the validity of structured interviews as predictors of performance is increased when the interview includes both structured and unstructured items d. the validity of structured interviews as predictors of performance is increased when the interview is used in combination with a measure of general mental ability

The predictive validity of interviews and other selection techniques is summarized in Schmidt and Hunter's (1998) meta-analysis of the research. a. Incorrect The Schmidt and Hunter meta-analysis found that measures of general mental ability are the most valid predictors across different jobs. d. CORRECT L. Schmidt and J. E. Hunter report corrected validity coefficients of .51 and .38 for structured and unstructured interviews, respectively. They also report that the predictive validity of interviews is increased when an interview is combined with another selection procedure, especially a general mental ability test [The validity and utility of selection measures in personnel psychology: Practical and theoretical implications of 85 years of research findings, Psychological Bulletin, 1998, 124(2), 262-274].

In organizations, employee surveys are most often conducted to: a. determine the effects of an organization-wide intervention b. evaluate employee attitudes and opinions about an intervention c. identify employees who would benefit from an intervention d. allow employees to evaluate the job performance of their co-workers

The term "survey" is rather vague and refers to a variety of information-gathering techniques. However, in general, surveys are used to obtain information about respondents' feelings and opinions.a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.b. CORRECT Survey feedback is one example of the use of surveys in organizations. It is an organizational development (OD) strategy that involves obtaining information about employees' opinions about specific aspects of the organization and using this information to identify and correct problems.c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

Research on goal-setting theory has identified several factors that influence a worker's commitment to difficult goals. For example, research investigating the impact of a worker's need for achievement has found that: a. commitment to difficult goals is higher for self-set goals than for assigned goals only for those who are low in need for achievement b. commitment to difficult goals is higher for self-set goals than for assigned goals only for those who are high in need for achievement c. commitment to difficult goals is higher for self-set goals than for assigned goals regardless of level of need for achievement d. commitment to difficult goals is higher for assigned goals than for self-set goals regardless of level of need for achievement

The research has found an interaction between type of goal (assigned or self-set) and level of need for achievement. See, e.g., J. R. Hollenbeck, C. R. Williams, and H. J. Klein, An empirical examination of the antecedents of commitment to difficult goals, Journal of Applied Psychology, 74(1), 1989, 18-23. b. CORRECT Hollenbeck et al. found a strong positive relationship between commitment to difficult self-set goals and level of need for achievement, with commitment being greatest for those high in need for achievement. However, for assigned goals, there was only a very weak positive relationship between commitment and need for achievement. In addition, among those with a low need for achievement, commitment was higher for assigned goals than for self-set goals; while the opposite was true for those with a high need for achievement.

Group decisions tend to be better than decisions made by individuals when: a. the task requires a high degree of creativity b. the group is highly cohesive c. the group consists of members with complementary expertise d. the group has a directive leader

The research has shown that the effectiveness of group decision-making is affected by a number of factors (e.g., groupthink, the risky shift).a. Incorrect Individual decisions tend to be better than group decisions for tasks that require a high degree of creativity.b. Incorrect A high degree of cohesiveness can lead to groupthink.c. CORRECT Not surprisingly, groups are more effective when members have different skills and knowledge.d. Incorrect A directive leader can also lead to groupthink.

From the perspective of the situational leadership model, a "telling" leadership style is most effective when an employee is: a. low in ability and low in willingness b. low in ability and high in willingness c. high in ability and low in willingness d. high in ability and high in willingness

The situational leadership model distinguishes between four leadership styles and proposes that the optimal style depends on the employee's maturity level, which is determined by a combination of his/her ability and willingness to take responsibility.a. CORRECT Hersey and Blanchard recommend a telling style when the employee is low in both ability and willingness. Even if you're not familiar with the theory, it makes sense that this type of employee would need to be told what to do.b. Incorrect A selling style is best for this type of employee.c. Incorrect A participating style is best for employees high in ability and low in willingness.d. Incorrect A delegating style is optimal for this type of employee.

Feelings of emotional exhaustion, depersonalization, and low personal accomplishment are symptomatic of: a. chronic boredom b. low morale c. repeated role conflicts d. job burnout

The three symptoms listed have been identified as the core features of job burnout.a. Incorrect Chronic boredom ("underload") might induce symptoms similar to these, but this triad of symptoms has been specifically linked to burnout.b. Incorrect The research has not linked these symptoms to low morale, which may or may not be associated with burnout.c. Incorrect Role conflicts are a source of stress and are likely to produce unpleasant symptoms but these three have not been linked to role conflicts.d. CORRECT These are the three components of job burnout identified by S. E. Jackson, R. L. Schwab, and R. S. Schuler (Toward an understanding of the burnout phenomenon, Journal of Applied Psychology, 1986, 71, 630-540). (Note that an early manifestation of burnout is an increase in effort without an accompanying increase in productivity.)

Which of the following is not an example of an incentive plan: a. piecework plan b. merit pay c. gain-sharing d. flexible benefit plan

The use of incentive plans in organizations is based on the assumption that workers will be more productive if their pay and other rewards are a function of their actual output rather than the time they spend on the job.a. Incorrect When using a piecework plan, workers are paid for each unit they produce.b. Incorrect Merit pay is a type of incentive plan for mangers. It entails adding money to the manager's base pay on the basis of his/her performance.c. Incorrect Gain-sharing is also an incentive plan. It involves rewarding employees on the basis of the gains in organizational profits.d. CORRECT A flexible benefit plan (also known as a cafeteria benefit plan) gives employees greater control over and flexibility in the benefits they received. It does not tie rewards to performance.

In the development of a job performance measure, the "ultimate" criterion is: a. a criterion measure that has a perfect (or near perfect) correlation with the predictor b. a criterion measure that is unaffected by measurement error c. a construct that cannot actually be measured d. the actual measure of the empirically-identified conceptual criterion

There are several terms related to "criteria" that you should be familiar with for the exam. c. CORRECT An ultimate (conceptual) criterion is a construct that cannot be measured directly but, instead, is measured indirectly (e.g., "effective employee" would be the ultimate criterion, while "dollar amount of sales during a three-month period" would be the actual criterion).d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

To maximize the cueing function of feedback regarding goal achievement: a. internal and/or external rewards must be available when goals are achieved b. the feedback must be specific (rather than global) in nature c. the feedback should be outcome (versus process) oriented d. the level of behavior required to achieve the goal must be attainable

This is another example of the "distant galaxy" questions that occasionally appear on the licensing exam. Note that the best strategy for these questions is to use what you know and to avoid being enticed by responses that "sound impressive."a. Incorrect Rewards are important in goal achievement but are associated more with the motivating function of feedback than its cueing function.b. CORRECT Common sense probably suggests that this is the correct answer and, in fact, it is. Feedback is more effective when it is specific than when it is global or general.c. Incorrect To maximize its effectiveness, feedback should provide information about both outcome and process.d. Incorrect This is also important but, again, is more relevant to the motivating function of feedback. (D. A. Nadler, Feedback and Organizational Development: Using Data-Based Methods, Reading, MA: Addison-Wesley, 1977.)

Research on shiftwork suggests that: a. all tasks, regardless of complexity, are performed more efficiently and accurately on the day shift b. simple monotonous tasks are ordinarily performed equally well on day or night shifts c. complex mental tasks involving short-term memory may be performed better on night shifts than on day shifts d. performance on complex (vs. simple) tasks is most negatively affected by rotating shifts

This is one of the research results that is NOT consistent with what you might expect. b. Incorrect Simple monotonous tasks are generally performed better during the day.c. CORRECT There is some evidence that complex tasks involving short-term memory are actually performed better at night.d. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true: Complex tasks seem to be less negatively affected by rotating shifts than simple tasks. See R. Dipboye, et al., Understanding Industrial and Organizational Psychology, Harcourt Brace College Publ., Fort Worth, 1994.

Recent research on goal-setting in organizations has shown that all of the following are true except: a. providing feedback on goal achievement is a necessary but not sufficient condition for improved job performance b. overall, participation in goal setting is not as important as acceptance of goals c. employees who are told to "do their best" will usually exhibit lower levels of productivity than employees who are given difficult goals d. participation in goal-setting is more important for educationally-advantaged workers

This is one of those questions that would be difficult to answer without knowledge of the research. Note that this question is asking what is NOT true about goal-setting.a. Incorrect This is true. Providing feedback about goal achievement alone is not SUFFICIENT for maximizing performance. However, it is a NECESSARY part of a goal-setting program.b. Incorrect The key in goal-setting is acceptance of goals. Although participation in goal-setting can increase the likelihood of acceptance, it is not necessary.c. Incorrect This is true. Specific goals and moderately difficult goals promote the highest levels of productivity.d. CORRECT The research suggests the opposite. In one study, educationally-disadvantaged (and primarily Black) workers performed best when they participated in goal-setting, while educationally-advantaged (and predominantly White) workers did better under assigned goals. (See G. Latham and E. Locke, "Goal Setting: A Motivational Technique That Works," in M. L. Tushman, et al., The Management of Organizations, Grand Rapids: Harper & Row, 1989.)

Research on goal-setting theory suggests that monetary incentives: a. are irrelevant to goal achievement as long as the goals have been accepted by employees b. are irrelevant to goal achievement as long as the goals have been self-set by employees c. have a positive effect only if employees participate in determining the difficulty of the goals d. have a positive effect whether or not employees have been involved in goal-setting

This is one of those questions you probably could have answered correctly without being familiar with the research. d. CORRECT Monetary incentives seem to have a positive effect on goal achievement (especially when they are tied specifically to achievement) regardless of the circumstances. (Although some research suggests that monetary incentives can actually have a detrimental effect when goals are self-set, this isn't addressed by any of the answers, so this response is the best one. See M. Erez, et al., Effects of goal difficulty, self-set goals, and monetary rewards on dual task performance, Organizational Behavior and Human Decision Processing, 47, 247-269, 1990.)

A "culture-fair" predictor would most likely be considered fair if: a. members of the non-mainstream group consistently score lower on the predictor and lower on the criterion than members of the mainstream group b. members of the non-mainstream group consistently score lower on the predictor but higher on the criterion than members of the mainstream group c. members of the non-mainstream group consistently score higher on the predictor and lower on the criterion than members of the mainstream group d. members of the non-mainstream group consistently score lower on the predictor but the same on the criterion as the criterion group

This question is essentially a test of your reading ability. It is asking what constitutes a culture-fair test--the correct answer would be a test that does not discriminate unfairly against members of a particular cultural group.a. CORRECT The predictor seems to be accurately predicting criterion scores. Unfortunately, one group generally does not perform as well on the criterion as the other group. In other words, the discrimination in this case appears to be fair.b. Incorrect In this situation, the test is not accurately predicting the criterion scores for either group and this is to the disadvantage of the non-mainstream group.c. Incorrect The test, in this situation, is also not accurately predicting criterion scores for either group, but this time it is to the disadvantage of the mainstream group.d. Incorrect This is another situation in which the predictor is underestimating the performance of the non-mainstream group.

Tiedeman and O'Hara's (1963) model of career development emphasizes which of the following: a. basic interests b. basic instinctual needs c. personal identity d. locus of control

Tiedeman and O'Hara (1963) viewed career development as a process involving the acquisition of a personal vocational identity. c. CORRECT According to these authors, the achievement of a personal vocational identity involves balancing integration (being part of a career field) with differentiation (retaining individuality and uniqueness).

Tiedeman and O'Hara's (1963) model of career development emphasizes which of the following: a. basic interests b. basic instinctual needs c. personal identity d. locus of control

Tiedeman and O'Hara (1963) viewed career development as a process involving the acquisition of a personal vocational identity.a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.c. CORRECT According to these authors, the achievement of a personal vocational identity involves balancing integration (being part of a career field) with differentiation (retaining individuality and uniqueness).d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

An employer can refuse to hire older workers: a. only when there is a much larger proportion of younger than older applicants for the job b. when previous experience with an older worker has suggested that they cannot perform the job successfully c. when the employer hires older workers for other jobs in the company d. when younger age is clearly required by the nature of the job

Title VII and related legislation provides for exceptions to antidiscrimination requirements when discrimination is necessary for the normal operation of the business.a. Incorrect This is not an acceptable reason for not hiring older workers.b. Incorrect One or a few "bad experiences" would not be sufficient justification for not hiring older workers.c. Incorrect This is not considered an adequate remedy by antidiscrimination legislation.d. CORRECT Age discrimination is acceptable if age is clearly a "BFOQ" (bona fide occupational qualification). For instance, Disneyland would probably not get in trouble with the EEOC for hiring only younger men for the position of "Prince Charming."

A new job selection test with a validity coefficient of .30 will most likely improve decision-making accuracy when: a. the job applicant pool is very large b. the job applicant pool is very small c. the number of successful employees hired without the new test is very large d. the number of successful employees hired without the new test is very small

To answer this question, you have to know that a predictor's incremental validity is affected by the selection ratio and the base rate. a. CORRECT A predictor is most likely to increase decision-making accuracy when there are many applicants for each job. c. Incorrect A measure is most likely to have incremental validity when the base rate is moderate (versus low or high).

A transformational leader defines a goal to employees in a way that imbues the goal with meaning and purpose. This is referred to as: a. priming b. escalating commitment c. framing d. Positioning

Transformational leaders differ from transactional leaders in several ways. One way is that they motivate employees by giving goals added meaning by placing them in a larger context (e.g., the "good of society").a. Incorrect The term priming is used in several contexts. For example, in the field of learning and memory, it refers to unconscious cues that activate related associations (e.g., seeing the word "test" reminds you of the licensing exam even if you are not aware that you saw the word "test").b. Incorrect Escalating commitment refers to the tendency to continue with a previously chosen course of action even when it is not working.c. CORRECT Giving goals added meaning is referred to as framing. It is one of the characteristics of transformational leaders.d. Incorrect Positioning is a paradoxical technique used in family therapy. It involves helping the family see a symptom from a new perspective by exaggerating its severity.

From the perspective of Tuckman's (1965) model of group formation, an emphasis on fun, socializing, and enjoyment is characteristic of the __________ stage: a. Norming b. Forming c. Performing d. Storming

Tuckman (1965) distinguished between four stages of group development --forming, storming, norming, and performing. A fifth stage --adjourning -- was more recently added to the model.a. CORRECT The norming stage is characterized by worker agreement, congruence, and participation in social activities. It can become a "period of play" as the task becomes temporarily abandoned by workers.

Which of the following work shifts is likely to be associated with the least amount of job-related stress: a. permanent day shift b. permanent night shift c. rotating shifts d. compressed workweek with rotating shifts

Unfortunately, the research on work schedules is very inconsistent with different studies comparing different types of schedules and producing different results with regard to the outcomes associated with flextime, compressed workweek, rotating shifts, etc. a. CORRECT In one study, workers who were switched from rotating shifts to permanent day shifts showed significant increases in several measures of well-being [T. Akerstedt and L. Torsvall, Experimental changes in shift schedules: The effect on well-being, Ergonomics, 1978, 21(10), 849-856]. In a more recent study, workers on fixed and rotating shifts were compared and those on the fixed shift reported less stress and better work attitudes [M. Jamal and V. Baba, Shiftwork and department-type related to job stress, work attitudes, and behavioral intentions: A study of nurses, Journal of Organizational Behavior, 1992, 13(5), 449-464]. b. Incorrect Studies comparing day and night shifts have usually found the day shift to be associated with better outcomes. Apparently this is because, for most people, the night shift is inconsistent with the normal sleep-wake cycle.

The Taylor-Russell tables will indicate that a new selection test is most likely to be helpful in choosing job applicants who will be satisfactory employees when: a. the proportion of current employees who are considered satisfactory is less than 25% b. there are only a few job openings and many applicants for the job c. the majority of applicants have jobs skills in the moderate (average) range d. the test has adequate "differential validity"

Use of the Taylor-Russell tables estimates the percent of employees who will be satisfactory if a new selection technique is used, and requires three pieces of information - the test's validity coefficient, the selection ratio, and the base rate. a. Incorrect The proportion of current employees who are considered successful is the "base rate." A new selection test will be most useful when the base rate is moderate (around 50%). b. CORRECT All other things being equal, a new selection test will be most useful for selecting job applicants when the selection ratio is low (i.e., there are few jobs and many applicants). c. Incorrect This is not a factor that is considered when using the Taylor-Russell tables to evaluate the usefulness of a selection test. d. Incorrect This is not a factor that is considered when using the Taylor-Russell tables.

To determine the impact of a treatment on a patient's quality of life, you would conduct which of the following types of analyses: a. cost utility b. cost effectiveness c. cost analysis d. cost benefit

You may have been able to answer this question using the process of elimination since the names of the techniques listed in answers b, c, and d describe what the analysis entails. a. CORRECT A cost utility analysis is conducted to determine the effects of a specific treatment on a patient's quality of life and involves attributing monetary values to different quality of life indices. b. Incorrect Cost effectiveness analysis is used to determine the costs and patient benefits of different treatments to identify the treatment that produces the best benefits at the least cost. c. Incorrect A cost analysis is conducted to determine the appropriate allocation of funds. d. Incorrect A cost benefit analysis involves determining the relative costs and benefits of a particular treatment.

"Criterion contamination" occurs when a rater's knowledge of predictor scores affects how he/she assigns criterion scores. It can be eliminated by ensuring that the person who assigns criterion scores is ignorant of the predictor scores. The resulting elimination of criterion contamination would most likely have what effect on the predictor's criterion-related validity coefficient: a. increase its magnitude b. decrease its magnitude c. either increase or decrease its magnitude d. neither increase nor decrease its magnitude

When a rater's knowledge of the ratees' predictor scores affects his/her ratings of the ratees on the criterion measure (i.e., when the rater rates a ratee high on the criterion because the ratee has scored high on the predictor and vice-versa), an artificially strong relationship is created between the predictor and criterion.a. Incorrect See explanation for response "b".b. CORRECT Criterion contamination artificially inflates the correlation coefficient. Therefore, the elimination of criterion contamination would lower the coefficient.c. Incorrect See explanation for response "b".d. Incorrect See explanation for response "b".

To be consistent with the requirements of the Uniform Guidelines on Employee Procedures, when it is determined that a selection procedure is having an adverse impact, an employer must: a. stop using the procedure for making selection decisions b. use the procedure only in conjunction with other validated measures c. obtain the consent of each applicant before using the procedure d. validate that the procedure is job-related

When it is determined that a selection procedure is having an adverse impact, the employer cannot continue using it unless he/she can demonstrate that doing so is a business necessity. d. CORRECT An employer can show that continued use of the selection procedure is a business necessity by demonstrating that (a) the measure is valid by establishing its relationship to successful job performance and (b) there are no alternate methods that would have less adverse impact.

The predictions of goal-setting theory appear to be most accurate for: a. easy tasks and people high in need for achievement b. easy tasks and people low in need for achievement c. complex tasks and people high in need for achievement d. complex tasks and people low in need for achievement

While Edwin Locke (1968) considered his goal-setting theory to be applicable to all situations, the research suggests that it may apply better to certain tasks and certain people.a. CORRECT There is some evidence that the predictions of goal setting theory are more accurate for simple tasks and for people who are high in need for achievement (who are more likely to commit to goals).