Interpartum
The physician asks the nurse the frequency of a laboring client's contractions. The nurse assesses the client's contractions by timing from the beginning of one contraction to?
To the beginning of the next contraction. This is the way to determine the frequency of the contractions
A nurse explains the purpose of effleurage to a client in early labor. The nurse tells the client that effleurage is?
Light stroking of the abdomen to facilitate relaxation during labor and provide tactile stimulation to the fetus. Effleurage is a specific type of cutaneous stimulation involving light stroking of the abdomen and is used before a transition to promote relaxation and relieve mild to moderate pain. Effleurage provides tactile stimulation to the fetus.
A laboring client is to have a pudendal block. The nurse plans to tell the client that once the block is working she?
May lose the ability to push. A pudendal block provides anesthesia to the perineum.
A client who is gravies 1, para 0, is admitted in labor. Her cervix is 100% effaced, and she is dilated to 3cm. Her fetus is at +1 station. The nurse is aware that the fetus' head is?
Below the ischial spines. A station of +1 indicates that the fetal head is 1 cm below the ischial spines.
A nurse is caring for a client in labor and is monitoring the fetal heart rate patterns. The nurse notes the presence of episodic accelerations on the electronic fetal monitor tracing. Which of the following actions is most appropriate?
Document the findings and tell the mother that the monitor indicates fetal well-being. Accelerations are transient increases in the fetal heart rate that often accompany contractions or are caused by fetal movement. Episodic accelerations are thought to be a sign of fetal-well being and adequate oxygen reserve.
A client is admitted to the birthing suite in early active labor. The priority nursing intervention on the admission of this client would be?
Auscultating the fetal heart. Determining the fetal well-being supersedes all other measures. If the FHR is absent or persistently decelerating, immediate intervention is required.
A nurse is caring for a client in the second stage of labor. The client is experiencing uterine contractions every 2 minutes and cries out in pain with each contraction. The nurse recognizes this behavior as?
Fear of losing control. Pains, helplessness, panicking, and fear of losing control are possible behaviors in the 2nd stage of labor.
Which measure would be least effective in preventing postpartum hemorrhage?
Massage the fundus every hour for the first 24 hours following birth. The fundus should be massaged only when boggy or soft. Massaging a firm fundus could cause it to relax. • Options A, B, and D are all effective measures to enhance and maintain contraction of the uterus and to facilitate healing.
A multiparous client who has been in labor for 2 hours states that she feels the urge to move her bowels. How should the nurse respond?
Perform a pelvic examination. A complaint of rectal pressure usually indicates a low presenting fetal part, signaling imminent delivery. The nurse should perform a pelvic examination to assess the dilation of the cervix and station of the presenting fetal part.
A nurse is monitoring a client in labor who is receiving Pitocin and notes that the client is experiencing hypertonic uterine contractions. List in order of priority the actions that the nurse takes: A. Stop of Pitocin infusion B. Perform a vaginal exam C. Reposition the client D. Check the client's blood pressure and heart rate E. Admin oxygen by face mask at 8 to 10 L/min
A, D, B, E, C. If uterine hypertonicity occurs, the nurse immediately will intervene to reduce uterine activity and increase fetal oxygenation. The nurse would stop the Pitocin infusion and increase the rate of the nonadditive solution, check maternal BP for hyper or hypotension, position the woman in a side-lying position, and administer oxygen by snug face mask at 8-10 L/min. The nurse then would attempt to determine the cause of the uterine hypertonicity and perform a vaginal exam to check for prolapsed cord.
A nurse is reviewing the record of a client in the labor room and notes that the nurse midwife has documented that the fetus is at (-1) station. The nurse determines that the fetal presenting part is?
1 cm above the ischial spine. Station is the relationship of the presenting part to an imaginary line drawn between the ischial spines, is measured in centimeters, and is noted as a negative number above the line and a positive number below the line. At -1 station, the fetal presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines.
Fetal presentation refers to which of the following descriptions?
Fetal body part that enters the maternal pelvis first. Presentation is the fetal body part that enters the pelvis first; it's classified by the presenting part; the three main presentations are cephalic/occipital, breech, and shoulder. • Option B: The relationship of the presenting fetal part to the maternal pelvis refers to fetal position. • Option C: The relationship of the long axis to the fetus to the long axis of the mother refers to fetal lie; the three possible lies are longitudinal, transverse, and oblique.
A nurse is performing an assessment of a client who is scheduled for a cesarean delivery. Which assessment finding would indicate a need to contact the physician?
Fetal heart rate of 180 beats per minute: A normal fetal heart rate is 120-160 beats per minute. A count of 180 beats per minute could indicate fetal distress and would warrant physician notification. By full term, a normal maternal hemoglobin range is 11-13 g/dL as a result of the hemodilution caused by an increase in plasma volume during pregnancy.
A maternity nurse is preparing to care for a pregnant client in labor who will be delivering twins. The nurse monitors the fetal heart rates by placing the external fetal monitor?
So that each fetal heart rate is monitored separately. In a client with a multi-fetal pregnancy, each fetal heart rate is monitored separately.
A nurse is caring for a client in labor who is receiving Pitocin by IV infusion to stimulate uterine contractions. Which assessment finding would indicate to the nurse that the infusion needs to be discontinued?
A fetal heart rate of 90 beats per minute. A normal fetal heart rate is 120-160 BPM. Bradycardia or late or variable decelerations indicate fetal distress and the need to discontinue to Pitocin. The goal of labor augmentation is to achieve three good-quality contractions in a 10-minute period.
Parents can facilitate the adjustment of their other children to a new baby by?
Having the children choose or make a gift to give to the new baby upon its arrival home. Special time should be set aside just for the other children without interruption from the newborn. Someone other than the mother should carry the baby into the home so she can give full attention to greeting her other children. Children should be actively involved in the care of the baby according to their ability without overwhelming them.
A nurse is caring for a client in labor. The nurse determines that the client is beginning in the second stage of labor when which of the following assessments is noted?
The cervix is dilated completely: The second stage of labor begins when the cervix is dilated completely and ends with the birth of the neonate.
When monitoring the fetal heart rate of a client in labor, the nurse identifies an elevation of 15 beats above the baseline rate of 135 beats per minute lasting for 15 seconds. This should be documented as?
An acceleration. An acceleration is an abrupt elevation above the baseline of 15 beats per minute for 15 seconds; if the acceleration persists for more than 10 minutes it is considered a change in baseline rate. A tachycardic FHR is above 160 beats per minute.
After doing Leopold's maneuvers, the nurse determines that the fetus is in the ROP position. To best auscultate the fetal heart tones, the doppler is placed where?
Below the umbilicus on the right side. Fetal heart tones are best auscultated through the fetal back; because the position is ROP (right occiput presenting), the back would be below the umbilicus and on the right side.
The breathing technique that the mother should be instructed to use as the fetus' head is crowning is?
Blowing. Blowing forcefully through the mouth controls the strong urge to push and allows for a more controlled birth of the head.
When examining the fetal monitor strip after the rupture of the membranes in a laboring client, the nurse notes variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate. The nurse should?
Change the client's position. Variable decelerations usually are seen as a result of cord compression; a change of position will relieve pressure on the cord.
A nurse in the delivery room is assisting with the delivery of a newborn infant. After the delivery of the newborn, the nurse assists in delivering the placenta. Which observation would indicate that the placenta has separated from the uterine wall and is ready for delivery?
Changes in the shape of the uterus. Signs of placental separation include lengthening of the umbilical cord, a sudden gush of dark blood from the introitus (vaginal), a firmly contracted uterus, and the uterus changing from a discoid (like a disk) to a globular (like a globe) shape. The client may experience vaginal fullness, but not severe uterine cramping.
The nurse should realize that the most common and potentially harmful maternal complication of epidural anesthesia would be?
Hypotension. Epidural anesthesia can lead to vasodilation and a drop in blood pressure that could interfere with adequate placental perfusion. The woman must be well hydrated before and during epidural anesthesia to prevent this problem and maintain an adequate blood pressure. • Option A: Headache is not a side effect since the spinal fluid is not disturbed by this anesthetic as it would be with a low spinal (saddle block) anesthesia; • Option B is an effect of epidural anesthesia but is not the most harmful. • Option C: Respiratory depression is a potentially serious complication.
A client arrives at the hospital in the second stage of labor. The fetus' head is crowning, the client is bearing down, and the birth appears imminent. The nurse should?
Support the perineum with the hand to prevent tearing and tell the client to pant. Gentle pressure is applied to the baby's head as it emerges so it is not born too rapidly. The head is never held back, and it should be supported as it emerges so there will be no vaginal lacerations. It is impossible to push and pant at the same time.
Four hours after a difficult labor and birth, a primiparous woman refuses to feed her baby, stating that she is too tired and just wants to sleep. The nurse should?
Take the baby back to the nursery, reassuring the woman that her rest is a priority at this time. Response 1 does not take into consideration the need for the new mother to be nurtured and have her needs met during the taking-in stage. The behavior described is typical of this stage and not a reflection of ineffective attachment unless the behavior persists. Mothers need to reestablish their own well-being in order to effectively care for their baby.
Which of the following fetal positions is most favorable for birth?
Vertex presentation. Vertex presentation (flexion of the fetal head) is the optimal presentation for passage through the birth canal. • Option B: Transverse lie is an unacceptable fetal position for vaginal birth and requires a C-section. • Option C: Frank breech presentation, in which the buttocks present first, can be a difficult vaginal delivery. • Option D: Posterior positioning of the fetal head can make it difficult for the fetal head to pass under the maternal symphysis pubis.
Due to a prolonged stage II of labor, the client is being prepared for an instrument-assisted birth. What information related to the mother and neonate's care must the nurse consider? 1. A vacuum extractor is safer than forceps because it causes less trauma to the neonate and the mother's perineum. 2. Using forceps will cause the neonate to develop a cephlahematoma. 4. Instrument-assisted births are very commonplace, especially in clients with epidurals. 3. Clients having instrument- assisted births are more likely to have postpartum hemorrhage.
A vacuum extractor is safer than forceps because it causes less trauma to the neonate and the mother's perineum.
A nurse is admitting a pregnant client to the labor room and attaches an external electoral fetal monitor to the client's abdomen. After attachment of the monitor, the initial nursing assessment is which of the following?
Assessing the baseline fetal heart rate. Assessing the baseline fetal heart rate is important so that abnormal variations of the baseline rate will be identified if they occur. Options 1 and 3 are important to assess, but not as the first priority
The nurse observes the client's amniotic fluid and decides that it appears normal, because it is?
Clear, almost colorless, and containing little white specks. By 36 weeks gestation, normal amniotic fluid is colorless with small particles of vernix caseosa present.
Upon completion of a vaginal examination on a laboring woman, the nurse records 50%, 6cm, -1. Which of the following is a correct interpretation of the data?
Fetal presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines. Station of - 1 indicates that the fetal presenting part is above the ischial spines and has not yet passed through the pelvic inlet. A station of zero would indicate that the presenting part has passed through the inlet and is at the level of the ischial spines or is engaged. • Options B and C: Progress of effacement is referred to by percentages with 100% indicating full effacement and dilation by centimeters (cm) with 10 cm indicating full dilation. • Option D: Passage through the ischial spines with internal rotation would be indicated by a plus station, such as + 1.
A nurse is caring for a client in labor and prepares to auscultate the fetal heart rate by using a doppler ultrasound device. The nurse most accurately determines that the fetal heart sounds are heard by?
Palpating the maternal radial pulse while listening to the fetal heart rate. The nurse simultaneously should palpate the maternal radial or carotid pulse and auscultate the fetal heart rate to differentiate the two. If the fetal and maternal heart rates are similar, the nurse may mistake the maternal heart rate for the fetal heart rate. Leopold's maneuvers may help the examiner locate the position of the fetus but will not ensure a distinction between the two rates.
A nurse assists in the vaginal delivery of a newborn infant. After the delivery, the nurse observes the umbilical cord lengthen and a spurt of blood from the vagina. The nurse documents these observations as signs of?
Placental separation. As the placenta separates, it settles downward into the lower uterine segment. The umbilical cord lengthens, and a sudden trickle or spurt of blood appears.
A nurse in the labor room is prepping to care for a client with hypertonic uterine dysfunction. The nurse is told that the client is experiencing uncoordinated contractions that are erratic in their frequency, duration, and intensity. The priority nursing intervention would be to?
Provide pain relief measures. Management of hypertonic labor depends on the cause. Relief of pain is the primary intervention to promote a normal labor pattern.
A client is admitted to the L&D suite at 36 weeks gestation. She has a hx of c-section and complains of severe abdominal pain that started less than 1 hour earlier. When the nurse palpates tetanic contractions, the client again complains of severe pain. After the client vomits, she states that the pain is better and then passes out. Which is the probable cause of her signs and symptoms?
Uterine rupture. Uterine rupture is a medical emergency that may occur before or during labor. Signs and symptoms typically include abdominal pain that may ease after uterine rupture, vomiting, vaginal bleeding, hypovolemic shock, and fetal distress. With placental abruption, the client typically complains of vaginal bleeding and constant abdominal pain.
During the period of induction of labor, a client should be observed carefully for signs of?
Uterine tetany. Uterine tetany could result from the use of oxytocin to induce labor. Because oxytocin promotes powerful uterine contractions, uterine tetany may occur. The oxytocin infusion must be stopped to prevent uterine rupture and fetal compromise.
A nurse in the labor room is caring for a client in the active phases of labor. The nurse is assessing the fetal patterns and notes a late deceleration on the monitor strip. The most appropriate nursing action is to?
Administer oxygen via face mask: Late decelerations are due to uteroplacental insufficiency as the result of decreased blood flow and oxygen to the fetus during the uterine contractions. This causes hypoxemia; therefore oxygen is necessary. • Option A: The supine position is avoided because it decreases uterine blood flow to the fetus. The client should be turned to her side to displace pressure of the gravid uterus on the inferior vena cava. • Option D: An intravenous Pitocin infusion is discontinued when a late deceleration is noted.
An ultrasound is performed on a client at term gestation that is experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding. The results of the ultrasound indicate that an abruptio placenta is present. Based on these findings, the nurse would prepare the client for?
Delivery of the fetus. The goal of management in abruptio placentae is to control the hemorrhage and deliver the fetus as soon as possible. Delivery is the treatment of choice if the fetus is at term gestation or if the bleeding is moderate to severe and the mother or fetus is in jeopardy.
At 38 weeks gestation, a client is having late decelerations. The fetal pulse oximeter shows 75% to 85%. The nurse should?
Reposition the catheter, recheck the reading, and if it is 55%, keep monitoring. Adjusting the catheter would be indicated. Normal fetal pulse oximetry should be between 30% and 70%. 75% to 85% would indicate maternal readings.
A nurse in the postpartum unit is caring for a client who has just delivered a newborn infant following a pregnancy with placenta previa. The nurse reviews the plan of care and prepares to monitor the client for which of the following risks associated with placenta previa.
Hemorrhage. Because the placenta is implanted in the lower uterine segment, which does not contain the same intertwining musculature as the fundus of the uterus, this site is more prone to bleeding.
A client arrives at a birthing center in active labor. Her membranes are still intact, and the nurse-midwife prepares to perform an amniotomy. A nurse who is assisting the nurse-midwife explains to the client that after this procedure, she will most likely have what?
Increased efficiency of contractions. Amniotomy can be used to induce labor when the condition of the cervix is favorable (ripe) or to augment labor if the process begins to slow. Rupturing of membranes allows the fetal head to contact the cervix more directly and may increase the efficiency of contractions.
Labor is a series of events affected by the coordination of the five essential factors. One of these is the passenger (fetus). Which are the other four factors?
Passageway, contractions, placental position and function, psychological response. The five essential factors (5 P's) are passenger (fetus), passageway (pelvis), powers (contractions), placental position and function, and psyche (psychological response of the mother).
A nurse in the delivery room is performing a vaginal assessment on a pregnant client in labor. The nurse notes the presence of the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. Which of the following would be the initial nursing action?
Place the client in Trendelenburg's position. When cord prolapse occurs, prompt actions are taken to relieve cord compression and increase fetal oxygenation. The mother should be positioned with the hips higher than the head to shift the fetal presenting part toward the diaphragm. Oxygen at 8 to 10 L/min by face mask is delivered to the mother to increase fetal oxygenation. • Options B and D: The nurse should push the call light to summon help, and other staff members should call the physician and notify the delivery room. • Option C: No attempt should be made to replace the cord. The examiner, however, may place a gloved hand into the vagina and hold the presenting part off of the umbilical cord.
A pregnant client is admitted to the labor room. An assessment is performed and the nurse notes that the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are low, indicating anemia. The nurse determines that the client is at risk for which of the following?
Postpartum infections. Anemic women have a greater likelihood of cardiac decompensation during labor, postpartum infection, and poor wound healing. Anemia does not specifically present a risk for hemorrhage.
Late deceleration patterns are noted when assessing the monitor tracing of a woman whose labor is being induced with an infusion of Pitocin. The woman is in a side-lying position, and her vital signs are stable and fall within a normal range. Contractions are intense, last 90 seconds, and occur every 1.5 to 2 minutes. The nurse's immediate action would be to?
Stop the Pitocin. Late deceleration patterns noted are most likely related to alteration in uteroplacental perfusion associated with the strong contractions described. The immediate action would be to stop the Pitocin infusion since Pitocin is an oxytocin which stimulates the uterus to contract. • Option A: The woman is already in an appropriate position for uteroplacental perfusion. • Option C: Elevation of her legs would be appropriate if hypotension were present. • Option D: Oxygen is appropriate but not the immediate action.
A client in labor is transported to the delivery room and is prepared for a cesarean delivery. The client is transferred to the delivery room table, and the nurse places the client in the (what position?)
Supine position with a wedge under the right hip: Vena cava and descending aorta compression by the pregnant uterus impedes blood return from the lower trunk and extremities. This leads to decreasing cardiac return, cardiac output, and blood flow to the uterus and the fetus. The best position to prevent this would be side-lying with the uterus displaced off of abdominal vessels. Positioning for abdominal surgery necessitates a supine position; however, a wedge placed under the right hip provides displacement of the uterus.
Perineal care is an important infection control measure. When evaluating a postpartum woman's perineal care technique, the nurse would recognize the need for further instruction if the woman?
Uses the peri bottle to rinse upward into her vagina. The peri bottle should be used in a backward direction over the perineum. The flow should never be directed upward into the vagina since debris would be forced upward into the uterus through the still-open cervix.
When making a visit to the home of a postpartum woman one week after birth, the nurse should recognize that the woman would characteristically?
Vacillate between the desire to have her own nurturing needs met and the need to take charge of her own care and that of her newborn. One week after birth the woman should exhibit behaviors characteristic of the taking-hold stage as described in option C. This stage lasts for as long as 4 to 5 weeks after birth. • Options A and B are characteristic of the taking-in stage, which lasts for the first few days after birth. • Option D reflects the letting-go stage, which indicates that psychosocial recovery is complete.
A maternity nurse is preparing for the admission of a client in the 3rd trimester of pregnancy that is experiencing vaginal bleeding and has a suspected diagnosis of placenta previa. The nurse reviews the physician's orders and would question which order?
Obtain equipment for a manual pelvic examination. Manual pelvic examinations are contraindicated when vaginal bleeding is apparent in the 3rd trimester until a diagnosis is made and Placental previa is ruled out. Digital examination of the cervix can lead to maternal and fetal hemorrhage. • Option A: A diagnosis of placenta previa is made by ultrasound. • Option B: External fetal monitoring is crucial in evaluating the fetus that is at risk for severe hypoxia. • Option D: The H/H levels are monitored, and external electronic fetal heart rate monitoring is initiated.
A maternity nurse is caring for a client with abruptio placenta and is monitoring the client for disseminated intravascular coagulopathy. Which assessment finding is least likely to be associated with disseminated intravascular coagulopathy?
Swelling of the calf in one leg. DIC is a state of diffuse clotting in which clotting factors are consumed, leading to widespread bleeding. Swelling and pain in the calf of one leg are more likely to be associated with thrombophlebitis. • Options B, C, and D: Platelets are decreased because they are consumed by the process; coagulation studies show no clot formation (and are thus normal to prolong); and fibrin plugs may clog the microvasculature diffusely, rather than in an isolated area. The presence of petechiae, oozing from injection sites, and hematuria are signs associated with DIC.
A nurse is assessing a pregnant client in the 2nd trimester of pregnancy who was admitted to the maternity unit with a suspected diagnosis of abruptio placentae. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect to note if this condition is present?
Uterine tenderness/pain. In abruptio placentae, acute abdominal pain is present. Uterine tenderness and pain accompany placental abruption, especially with a central abruption and trapped blood behind the placenta. The abdomen will feel hard and board like on palpation as the blood penetrates the myometrium and causes uterine irritability. Observation of the fetal monitoring often reveals increased uterine resting tone, caused by failure of the uterus to relax in an attempt to constrict blood vessels and control bleeding.
A laboring client is in the first stage of labor and has progressed from 4 to 7cm in cervical dilation. In which of the following phases of the first stage does cervical dilation occur most rapidly? A. Preparatory phase B. Latent phase C. Active phase D. Transition phase
Active phase. Cervical dilation occurs more rapidly during the active phase than any of the previous phases. The active phase is characterized by cervical dilation that progresses from 4 to 7 cm. • Options A and B: The preparatory, or latent, phase begins with the onset of regular uterine contractions and ends when rapid cervical dilation begins. • Option D: Transition is defined as cervical dilation beginning at 8 cm and lasting until 10 cm or complete dilation.
A nurse is beginning to care for a client in labor. The physician has prescribed an IV infusion of Pitocin. The nurse ensures that which of the following is implemented before initiating the infusion?
Continuous electronic fetal monitoring. Continuous electronic fetal monitoring should be implemented during an IV infusion of Pitocin.
Which of the following observations indicates fetal distress? A. Fetal scalp PH of 7.14 B. Fetal heart rate of 144 BPM C. Acceleration of fetal heart rate with contractions D. Presence of long-term variability
Fetal scalp pH of 7.14. A fetal scalp pH below 7.25 indicates acidosis and fetal hypoxia.
A nurse is assigned to care for a client with hypertonic uterine dysfunction and signs of a slowing labor. The nurse is reviewing the physician's orders and would expect to note which of the the following prescribed treatments for this condition?
Oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. Therapeutic management for hypotonic uterine dysfunction includes oxytocin augmentation and amniotomy to stimulate a labor that slows.
A nurse is monitoring a client in active labor and notes that the client is having contractions every 3 minutes that last 45 seconds. The nurse notes that the fetal heart rate between contractions is 100BPM. Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate?
Notify the physician or nurse midwife. A normal fetal heart rate is 120-160 beats per minute. Fetal bradycardia between contractions may indicate the need for immediate medical management, and the physician or nurse-midwife needs to be notified.
A nurse is monitoring a client in labor. The nurse suspects umbilical cord compression if which of the following is noted on the external monitor tracing during a contraction?
Variable decelerations. Variable decelerations occur if the umbilical cord becomes compressed, thus reducing blood flow between the placenta and the fetus. • Option A: Early decelerations result from pressure on the fetal head during a contraction. • Option C: Late decelerations are an ominous pattern in labor because it suggests uteroplacental insufficiency during a contraction. • Option D: Short-term variability refers to the beat-to-beat range in the fetal heart rate.
A nurse in a labor room is assisting with the vaginal delivery of a newborn infant. The nurse would monitor the client closely for the risk of uterine rupture if which of the following occurred?
Forceps delivery. Excessive fundal pressure, forceps delivery, violent bearing down efforts, tumultuous labor, and shoulder dystocia can place a woman at risk for traumatic uterine rupture. Hypotonic contractions and weak bearing down efforts do not alone add to the risk of rupture because they do not add to the stress on the uterine wall.
A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client experiencing dystocia and includes several nursing interventions in the plan of care. The nurse priories the plan of care and selects which of the following nursing interventions as the highest priority?
Monitoring fetal heart rate. The priority is to monitor the fetal heart rate.
A laboring client complains of low back pain. The nurse replies that this pain occurs most when the position of the fetus is?
Occiput posterior. A persistent occiput posterior position causes intense back pain because of fetal compression of the sacral nerves. Occiput anterior is the most common fetal position and does not cause back pain.
A laboring client has external electronic fetal monitoring in place. Which of the following assessment data can be determined by examining the fetal heart rate strip produced by the external electronic fetal monitor?
Oxygenation. Oxygenation of the fetus may be indirectly assessed through fetal monitoring by closely examining the fetal heart rate strip. Accelerations in the fetal heart rate strip indicate good oxygenation, while decelerations in the fetal heart rate sometimes indicate poor fetal oxygenation.
Which of the following findings meets the criteria of a reassuring FHR pattern?
Variability averages between 6 - 10 BPM. Variability indicates a well-oxygenated fetus with a functioning autonomic nervous system. • Option A: FHR should accelerate with fetal movement. • Option B: Baseline range for the FHR is 120 to 160 beats per minute. • Option C: Late deceleration patterns are never reassuring, though early and mild variable decelerations are expected, reassuring findings.
