Intracranial Integrity

What should the nurse teach parents when the child is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) to control seizures? a. The child should use a soft toothbrush and floss the teeth after every meal. b. The child will require monitoring of renal function while taking this medication. c. Dilantin should be taken with food because it causes gastrointestinal distress. d. The medication can be stopped when the child has been seizure free for 1 month.

ANS: A A side effect of Dilantin is gingival hyperplasia. Good oral hygiene will minimize this adverse effect. The child should have liver function studies because this anticonvulsant may cause hepatic dysfunction, not renal dysfunction. Dilantin has not been found to cause gastrointestinal upset. The medication can be taken without food. Anticonvulsants should never be stopped suddenly or without consulting the physician. Such action could result in seizure activity.

The parents of a young child report that their child sometimes stares blankly into space for just a few seconds and then gets very tired. The nurse anticipates that the child will be assessed for which seizure disorder? a. Absence b. Myoclonic c. Simple partial d. Tonic

ANS: A Absence seizures are more common in children and consist of brief (often just seconds) periods of loss of consciousness and blank staring, as though he or she is daydreaming. Myoclonic seizures are characterized by brief jerking or stiffening of the extremities, which may occur singly or in groups. Partial seizures are most often seen in adults. Tonic seizures are characterized by an abrupt increase in muscle tone, loss of consciousness, and autonomic changes lasting from 30 seconds to several minutes.

A mother reports that her child has episodes where he appears to be staring into space. This behavior is characteristic of which type of seizure? a. Absence b. Atonic c. Tonic-clonic d. Simple partial

ANS: A Absence seizures are very brief episodes of altered awareness. The child has a blank expression. Atonic seizures cause an abrupt loss of postural tone, loss of consciousness, confusion, lethargy, and sleep. Tonic-clonic seizures involve sustained generalized muscle contractions followed by alternating contraction and relaxation of major muscle groups. There is no change in level of consciousness with simple partial seizures. Simple partial seizures consist of motor, autonomic, or sensory symptoms

A nurse prepares a client for lumbar puncture (LP). Which assessment finding should alert the nurse to contact the health care provider? a. Shingles on the client's back b. Client is claustrophobic c. Absence of intravenous access d. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

ANS: A An LP should not be performed if the client has a skin infection at or near the puncture site because of the risk of infection. A nurse would want to notify the health care provider if shingles were identified on the client's back. If a client has shortness of breath when lying flat, the LP can be adapted to meet the client's needs. Claustrophobia, absence of IV access, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea have no impact on whether an LP can be performed.

The client with a migraine is lying in a darkened room with a wet cloth on the head after receiving analgesic drugs. What will the nurse do next? a. Allow the client to remain undisturbed. b. Assess the client's vital signs. c. Remove the cloth because it can harbor microorganisms. d. Turn on the lights for a neurologic assessment.

ANS: A At the beginning of a migraine attack, the client may be able to alleviate pain with analgesics and by lying down and darkening the room with a cool cloth on his or her forehead. If the client falls asleep, he or she should remain undisturbed until awakening. Assessing the client' vital signs will disturb the client unnecessarily. A cool cloth is helpful for the client with a migraine and does not present enough of a risk that it should be removed. Turning on the lights is not appropriate because light can cause the migraine to worsen.

A client was admitted this morning with an incomplete cervical spinal cord injury and is placed in a halo fixator. Halo fixation is used to reduce motion of the cervical spine. Which assessment finding will the nurse report immediately to the health care provider? a. A new-onset heart rate of 48 beats/min b. Mean arterial pressure of 90 mm Hg c. Pain level of 2 on a 0-10 pain scale d. Oxygen saturation of 95% on room air

ANS: A Bradycardia is a sign of spinal shock. This symptom is a result of the interruption of sympathetic nervous system stimulation associated with the cervical spinal neurons. A mean arterial pressure of 90 mm Hg and oxygen saturation of 95% indicate normal physiology and no concerning changes in airway or circulation. A pain level of 2 indicates pain that is well controlled at a value less than 4 on a 0 to 10 scale.

Latex allergy is suspected in a child with spina bifida. Appropriate nursing interventions include a. Avoiding using any latex product b. Using only nonallergenic latex products c. Administering medication for long-term desensitization d. Teaching family about long-term management of asthma

ANS: A Care must be taken that individuals who are at high risk for latex allergies do not come in direct or secondary contact with products or equipment containing latex at any time during medical treatment. Latex allergy is estimated to occur in 75% of this patient population. There are no nonallergic latex products. At this time, desensitization is not an option. The child does not have asthma. The parents must be taught about allergy and the risk of anaphylaxis.

Which change in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) indicates to the nurse that the client may have bacterial meningitis? a. Cloudy, turbid CSF b. Decreased white blood cells c. Decreased protein d. Increased glucose

ANS: A Cloudy, turbid cerebrospinal fluid is a sign of bacterial meningitis. Clear fluid is a sign of viral meningitis. Increased white blood cells and protein with decreased glucose are signs of of bacterial meningitis.

A nurse delegates care to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which statement should the nurse include when delegating care for a client with cranial nerve II impairment? a. "Tell the client where food items are on the breakfast tray." b. "Place the client in a high-Fowler's position for all meals." c. "Make sure the client's food is visually appetizing." d. "Assist the client by placing the fork in the left hand."

ANS: A Cranial nerve II, the optic nerve, provides central and peripheral vision. A client who has cranial nerve II impairment will not be able to see, so the UAP should tell the client where different food items are on the meal tray. The other options are not appropriate for a client with cranial nerve II impairment.

What is a sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in a 10-year-old child? a. Headache b. Bulging fontanel c. Tachypnea d. Increase in head circumference

ANS: A Headaches are a clinical manifestation of increased ICP in children. A change in the child's normal behavior pattern may be an important early sign of increased ICP. Bulging fontanels is a manifestation of increased ICP in infants. A 10-year-old child would have a closed fontanel. A change in respiratory pattern is a late sign of increased ICP. Cheyne-Stokes respiration may be evident. This refers to a pattern of increasing rate and depth of respirations followed by a decreasing rate and depth with a pause of variable length. By 10 years of age, cranial sutures have fused so that head circumference will not increase in the presence of increased ICP.

Which finding in an analysis of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is consistent with a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis? a. CSF appears cloudy. b. CSF pressure is decreased. c. Few leukocytes are present. d. Glucose level is increased compared with blood.

ANS: A In acute bacterial meningitis, the CSF is cloudy to milky or yellowish in color. The CSF pressure is usually increased in acute bacterial meningitis. Many polymorphonuclear cells are present in CSF with acute bacterial meningitis. The CSF glucose level is usually decreased compared with the serum glucose level.

A nurse obtains a focused health history for a client who is suspected of having bacterial meningitis. Which question should the nurse ask? a. "Do you live in a crowded residence?" b. "When was your last tetanus vaccination?" c. "Have you had any viral infections recently?" d. "Have you traveled out of the country in the last month?"

ANS: A Meningococcal meningitis tends to occur in multiple outbreaks. It is most likely to occur in areas of high-density population, such as college dormitories, prisons, and military barracks. A tetanus vaccination would not place the client at increased risk for meningitis or protect the client from meningitis. A viral infection would not lead to bacterial meningitis but could lead to viral meningitis. Simply knowing if the client traveled out of the country does not provide enough information. The nurse should ask about travel to specific countries in which the disease is common, for example, sub-Saharan Africa.

The most common problem of children born with a myelomeningocele is a. Neurogenic bladder b. Intellectual impairment c. Respiratory compromise d. Cranioschisis

ANS: A Myelomeningocele is one of the most common causes of neuropathic (neurogenic) bladder dysfunction among children. Risk of intellectual impairment is minimized through early intervention and management of hydrocephalus. Respiratory compromise is not a common problem in myelomeningocele. Cranioschisis is a skull defect through which various tissues protrude. It is not associated with myelomeningocele.

After teaching a client with a spinal cord injury, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which client statement indicates a correct understanding of how to prevent respiratory problems at home? a. "I'll use my incentive spirometer every 2 hours while I'm awake." b. "I'll drink thinned fluids to prevent choking." c. "I'll take cough medicine to prevent excessive coughing." d. "I'll position myself on my right side so I don't aspirate."

ANS: A Often, the person with a spinal cord injury will have weak intercostal muscles and is at higher risk for developing atelectasis and stasis pneumonia. Using an incentive spirometer every 2 hours helps the client expand the lungs more fully and prevents atelectasis. Clients should drink fluids that they can tolerate; usually thick fluids are easier to tolerate. The client should be encouraged to cough and clear secretions. Clients should be placed in high-Fowler's position to prevent aspiration.

The nurse should expect a child who has frequent tension type of headaches to describe headache pain as a. "There is a rubber-band squeezing my head." b. "It's a throbbing pain over my left eye." c. "My headaches are worse in the morning and get better later in the day." d. "I have a stomachache and a headache at the same time."

ANS: A The child who has tension type of headaches may describe the pain as a bandlike tightness or pressure, tight neck muscles, or soreness in the scalp. A common symptom of migraines is throbbing headache pain, typically on one side of the eye. A headache that is worse in the morning and improves throughout the course of the day is typical of ICP. Abdominal pain may accompany headache pain in migraines.

A nurse assesses a client and notes the client's position as being stiff with arms bent toward the body, with clenched fists and legs held out straight. The wrists and fingers are bent and held on the chest. How should the nurse document this finding? a. Decorticate posturing b. Decerebrate posturing c. Atypical hyperreflexia d. Spinal cord degeneration

ANS: A The client is demonstrating decorticate posturing, which is seen with interruption in the corticospinal pathway. This finding is abnormal and is a sign that the client's condition has deteriorated. The physician, the charge nurse, and other health care team members should be notified immediately of this change in status. Decerebrate posturing consists of external rotation and extension of the extremities. Hyperreflexes present as increased reflex responses. Spinal cord degeneration presents frequently with pain and discomfort.

A nurse assesses a client who demonstrates a positive Romberg's sign with eyes closed but not with eyes open. Which condition does the nurse associate with this finding? a. Difficulty with proprioception b. Peripheral motor disorder c. Impaired cerebellar function d. Positive pronator drift

ANS: A The client who sways with eyes closed (positive Romberg's sign) but not with eyes open most likely has a disorder of proprioception and uses vision to compensate for it. The other options do not describe a positive Romberg's sign.

When a 2-week-old infant is seen for irritability, poor appetite, and rapid head growth with observable distended scalp veins, the nurse recognizes these signs as indicative of a. Hydrocephalus b. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) c. Cerebral palsy d. Reye's syndrome

ANS: A The combination of signs is strongly suggestive of hydrocephalus. SIADH would not manifest in this way. The child would have decreased urination, hypertension, weight gain, fluid retention, hyponatremia, and increased urine specific gravity. The manifestations of cerebral palsy vary but may include persistence of primitive reflexes, delayed gross motor development, and lack of progression through developmental milestones. Reye's syndrome is associated with an antecedent viral infection with symptoms of malaise, nausea, and vomiting. Progressive neurologic deterioration occurs.

The client is admitted with bacterial meningitis. Which nursing intervention is the highest priority for this client? a. Assessing neurologic status at least every 2 to 4 hours b. Decreasing environmental stimuli c. Managing pain through drug and nondrug methods d. Strict monitoring of hourly intake and output

ANS: A The most important nursing intervention for clients with meningitis is the accurate monitoring and recording of their neurologic status, vital signs, and vascular assessment. The client's neurologic status and vital signs should be assessed at least every 4 hours, or more often if clinically indicated. The priority for care is to monitor for early neurologic changes that may indicate increased intracranial pressure (ICP), such as decreased level of consciousness (LOC). Decreasing environmental stimuli is helpful for the client with bacterial meningitis but is not the highest priority. Clients with bacterial meningitis report severe headaches requiring pain management, but this is the second-highest priority. Assessing fluid balance while preventing overload is not the highest priority.

A nurse assesses clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which clients should the nurse identify as at risk for secondary seizures? (Select all that apply.) a. A 26-year-old woman with a left temporal brain tumor b. A 38-year-old male client in an alcohol withdrawal program c. A 42-year-old football player with a traumatic brain injury d. A 66-year-old female client with multiple sclerosis e. A 72-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

ANS: A, B, C Clients at risk for secondary seizures include those with a brain lesion from a tumor or trauma, and those who are experiencing a metabolic disorder, acute alcohol withdrawal, electrolyte disturbances, and high fever. Clients with a history of stroke, heart disease, and substance abuse are also at risk. Clients with multiple sclerosis or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease are not at risk for secondary seizures.

A client with a history of seizures is placed on seizure precautions. What emergency equipment will the nurse provide at the bedside? Select all that apply. a. Oropharyngeal airway b. Oxygen c. Nasogastric tube d. Suction setup e. Padded tongue blade

ANS: A, B, D An oropharyngeal airway, oxygen, and suction setup are provided to help manage hypoxia that occurs during repeated muscle contraction as well as the potential compromised airway from oral injury or emesis during a seizure. Do not force implements such as a tongue blade or nasogastric tube into a client's mouth or nose during a seizure because these devices are more likely to cause injury with no client benefit.

A nurse delegates care for an older adult client to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which statements should the nurse include when delegating this client's care? (Select all that apply.) a. "Plan to bathe the client in the evening when the client is most alert." b. "Encourage the client to use a cane when ambulating." c. "Assess the client for symptoms related to pain and discomfort." d. "Remind the client to look at foot placement when walking." e. "Schedule additional time for teaching about prescribed therapies."

ANS: A, B, D The nurse should tell the UAP to schedule activities when the client is normally awake, encourage the client to use a cane when ambulating, and remind the client to look where feet are placed when walking. The nurse should assess the client for symptoms of pain and should provide sufficient time for older adults to process information, including new teaching. These are not items the nurse can delegate.

A nurse assesses a client who is experiencing a cluster headache. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to find? (Select all that apply.) a. Ipsilateral tearing of the eye b. Miosis c. Abrupt loss of consciousness d. Neck and shoulder tenderness e. Nasal congestion f. Exophthalmos

ANS: A, B, E Cluster headache is usually accompanied by ipsilateral tearing, miosis, rhinorrhea or nasal congestion, ptosis, eyelid edema, and facial sweating. Abrupt loss of consciousness, neck and shoulder tenderness, and exophthalmos are not associated with cluster headaches.

A nurse assesses a client with a brain tumor. Which newly identified assessment findings should alert the nurse to urgently communicate with the health care provider? (Select all that apply.) a. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 8 b. Decerebrate posturing c. Reactive pupils d. Uninhibited speech e. Diminished cognition

ANS: A, B, E The nurse should urgently communicate changes in a client's neurologic status, including a decrease in the Glasgow Coma Scale score, abnormal flexion or extension, changes in cognition or speech, and pinpointed, dilated, and nonreactive pupils.

A nurse plans care for a client with a halo fixator. Which interventions should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Tape a halo wrench to the client's vest. b. Assess the pin sites for signs of infection. c. Loosen the pins when sleeping. d. Decrease the client's oral fluid intake. e. Assess the chest and back for skin breakdown.

ANS: A, B, E A special halo wrench should be taped to the client's vest in case of a cardiopulmonary emergency. The nurse should assess the pin sites for signs of infection or loose pins and for complications from the halo. The nurse should also increase fluids and fiber to decrease bowel straining and assess the client's chest and back for skin breakdown from the halo vest.

A 14-year-old girl is in the intensive care unit after a spinal cord injury 2 days ago. Nursing care for this child includes (select all that apply) a. Monitoring and maintaining systemic blood pressure b. Administering corticosteroids c. Minimizing environmental stimuli d. Discussing long-term care issues with the family e. Monitoring for respiratory complications

ANS: A, B. E Spinal cord injury patients are physiologically labile, and close monitoring is required. They may be unstable for the first few weeks after the injury. Corticosteroids are administered to minimize the inflammation present with the injury. Spinal cord injury is a catastrophic event. Discussion regarding long-term care should be delayed until the child is stable.

A nurse is caring for a client with meningitis. Which laboratory values should the nurse monitor to identify potential complications of this disorder? (Select all that apply.) a. Sodium level b. Liver enzymes c. Clotting factors d. Cardiac enzymes e. Creatinine level

ANS: A, C Inflammation associated with meningitis can stimulate the hypothalamus and result in excessive production of antidiuretic hormone. The nurse should monitor sodium levels for early identification of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone. A systemic inflammatory response (SIR) can also occur with meningitis. A SIR can result in a coagulopathy that leads to disseminated intravascular coagulation. The nurse should monitor clotting factors to identify this complication. The other laboratory values are not specific to complications of meningitis.

A nurse evaluates the results of diagnostic tests on a client's cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Which fluid results alerts the nurse to possible viral meningitis? (Select all that apply.) a. Clear b. Cloudy c. Increased protein level d. Normal glucose level e. Bacterial organisms present f. Increased white blood cells

ANS: A, C, D In viral meningitis, CSF fluid is clear, protein levels are slightly increased, and glucose levels are normal. Viral meningitis does not cause cloudiness or increased turbidity of CSF. In bacterial meningitis, the presence of bacteria and white blood cells causes the fluid to be cloudy.

A nurse should expect which cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) laboratory results on a child diagnosed with bacterial meningitis? Select all that apply. a. Elevated white blood count (WBC) b. Decreased protein c. Decreased glucose d. Cloudy in color e. Increase in red blood cells (RBC)

ANS: A, C, D The CSF laboratory results for bacterial meningitis include elevated WBC counts, cloudy or milky in color, and decreased glucose. The protein is elevated and there should be no RBCs present. RBCs are present when the tap was traumatic.

A nurse cares for a client who is experiencing status epilepticus. Which prescribed medication should the nurse prepare to administer? a. Atenolol (Tenormin) b. Lorazepam (Ativan) c. Phenytoin (Dilantin) d. Lisinopril (Prinivil)

ANS: B Initially, intravenous lorazepam is administered to stop motor movements. This is followed by the administration of phenytoin. Atenolol, a beta blocker, and lisinopril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor, are not administered for seizure activity. These medications are typically administered for hypertension and heart failure.

A nurse assesses a client who experienced a spinal cord injury at the T5 level 12 hours ago. Which manifestations should the nurse correlate with neurogenic shock? (Select all that apply.) a. Heart rate of 34 beats/min b. Blood pressure of 185/65 mm Hg c. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr d. Decreased level of consciousness e. Increased oxygen saturation

ANS: A, C, D Neurogenic shock with acute spinal cord injury manifests with decreased oxygen saturation, symptomatic bradycardia, decreased level of consciousness, decreased urine output, and hypotension.

A nurse assesses a client who recently experienced a traumatic spinal cord injury. Which assessment data should the nurse obtain to assess the client's coping strategies? (Select all that apply.) a. Spiritual beliefs b. Level of pain c. Family support d. Level of independence e. Annual income f. Previous coping strategies

ANS: A, C, D, F Information about the client's preinjury psychosocial status, usual methods of coping with illness, difficult situations, and disappointments should be obtained. Determine the client's level of independence or dependence and his or her comfort level in discussing feelings and emotions with family members or close friends. Clients who are emotionally secure and have a positive self-image, a supportive family, and financial and job security often adapt to their injury. Information about the client's spiritual and religious beliefs or cultural background also assists the nurse in developing the plan of care. The other options do not supply as much information about coping.

A nurse plans care for a client with epilepsy who is admitted to the hospital. Which interventions should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Have suction equipment at the bedside. b. Place a padded tongue blade at the bedside. c. Permit only clear oral fluids. d. Keep bed rails up at all times. e. Maintain the client on strict bedrest. f. Ensure that the client has IV access.

ANS: A, D, F Oxygen and suctioning equipment with an airway must be readily available. The bed rails should be up at all times while the client is in the bed to prevent injury from a fall if the client has a seizure. If the client does not have an IV access, insert a saline lock, especially for those clients who are at significant risk for generalized tonic-clonic seizures. The saline lock provides ready access if IV drug therapy must be given to stop the seizure. Padded tongue blades may pose a danger to the client during a seizure and should not be used. Dietary restrictions and strict bedrest are not interventions associated with epilepsy. The client should be encouraged to eat a well-balanced diet and ambulate while in the hospital.

The nurse has received report on a group of clients. Which client requires the nurse's attention first? a. Adult who is lethargic after a generalized tonic-clonic seizure b. Young adult who has experienced four tonic-clonic seizures within the past 30 minutes c. Middle-aged adult with absence seizures who is staring at a wall and does not respond to questions d. Older adult with a seizure disorder who has a temperature of 101.9° F (38.8° C)

ANS: B This client is experiencing status epilepticus, which is a medical emergency and requires immediate intervention. The others are not medical emergencies and do not require immediate attention.

A nurse is teaching a client who experiences migraine headaches and is prescribed a beta blocker. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Take this drug only when you have prodromal symptoms indicating the onset of a migraine headache." b. "Take this drug as ordered, even when feeling well, to prevent vascular changes associated with migraine headaches." c. "This drug will relieve the pain during the aura phase soon after a headache has started." d. "This medication will have no effect on your heart rate or blood pressure because you are taking it for migraines."

ANS: B Beta blockers are prescribed as prophylactic treatment to prevent the vascular changes that initiate migraine headaches. Heart rate and blood pressure will also be affected, and the client should monitor these side effects. The other responses do not discuss appropriate uses of the medication.

The female client with newly diagnosed migraine is being discharged with a prescription for sumatriptan (Imitrex). Which comment by the client indicates an understanding of the nurse's discharge instructions? a. "Sumatriptan should be taken as a last resort." b. "I must report any chest pain right away." c. "Birth control is not needed while taking sumatriptan." d. "St. John's wort can also be taken to help my symptoms."

ANS: B Chest pain must be reported immediately with the use of sumatriptan. Sumatriptan must be taken as soon as migraine symptoms appear. Remind the client to use contraception (birth control) while taking the drug because it may not be safe for women who are pregnant. Triptans should not be taken with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) or St. John's wort, an herb used commonly for depression.

What is the priority nursing intervention for the child with ascending paralysis as a result of Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)? a. Immunosuppressive medications b. Respiratory assessment c. Passive range-of-motion exercises d. Anticoagulant therapy

ANS: B Children with rapidly progressing paralysis are treated with intravenous immunoglobulins for several days. Administering this infusion is not the nursing priority. Airway is always the number one priority. Special attention to respiratory status is needed because most deaths from GBS are attributed to respiratory failure. Respiratory support is necessary if the respiratory system becomes compromised and muscles weaken and become flaccid. The child with GBS is at risk for complications of immobility. Performing passive range-of-motion exercises is an appropriate nursing intervention, but not the priority intervention. Anticoagulant therapy may be initiated because the risk of pulmonary embolus as a result of deep vein thrombosis is always a threat. This is not the priority nursing intervention.

Which term is used when a patient remains in a deep sleep, responsive only to vigorous and repeated stimulation? a. Coma b. Stupor c. Obtundation d. Persistent vegetative state

ANS: B Coma is the state in which no motor or verbal response occurs to noxious (painful) stimuli. Stupor exists when the child remains in a deep sleep, responsive only to vigorous and repeated stimulation. Obtundation describes a level of consciousness in which the child is arousable with stimulation. Persistent vegetative state describes the permanent loss of function of the cerebral cortex.

A child with a head injury sleeps unless aroused, and when aroused responds briefly before falling back to sleep. What should the nurse chart for this child's level of consciousness? a. Disoriented b. Obtunded c. Lethargic d. Stuporous

ANS: B Disoriented refers to lack of ability to recognize place or person. Obtunded describes an individual who sleeps unless aroused and once aroused has limited interaction with the environment. An individual is lethargic when he or she awakens easily but exhibits limited responsiveness. Stupor refers to requiring considerable stimulation to arouse the individual.

A nurse plans care for a client who has a hypoactive response to a test of deep tendon reflexes. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? a. Check bath water temperature with a thermometer. b. Provide the client with assistance when ambulating. c. Place elastic support hose on the client's legs. d. Assess the client's feet for wounds each shift.

ANS: B Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes and loss of vibration sense can impair balance and coordination, predisposing the client to falls. The nurse should plan to provide the client with ambulation assistance to prevent injury. The other interventions do not address the client's problem.

The nurse is teaching the client newly diagnosed with migraine about trigger control. Which statement made by the client demonstrates good understanding of the teaching plan? a. "I can still eat Chinese food." b. "I must not miss meals." c. "It is okay to drink a few wine coolers." d. "I need to use fake sugar in my coffee."

ANS: B Missing meals is a trigger for many people suffering from migraines. The client should not skip any meals until the triggers are identified. Monosodium glutamate (MSG)-containing foods such as Chinese food are a trigger for many people suffering from migraines and should be eliminated until the triggers are identified. Alcohol is a trigger for many people suffering from migraines and should be eliminated until the triggers are identified. Artificial sweeteners are a trigger for many people suffering from migraines and should be eliminated until the triggers are identified.

After a tonic-clonic seizure, it would not be unusual for a child to display a. Irritability and hunger b. Lethargy and confusion c. Nausea and vomiting d. Nervousness and excitability

ANS: B Neither irritability nor hunger is typical of the period after a tonic-clonic seizure. In the period after a tonic-clonic seizure, the child may be confused and lethargic. Some children may sleep for a period of time. Nausea and vomiting are not expected reactions in the postictal period. The child will more likely be confused and lethargic after a tonic-clonic seizure.

Which is the most effective way for the college student to minimize the risk for bacterial meningitis? a. Avoiding large crowds b. Getting the meningitis polysaccharide vaccine c. Taking a daily vitamin d. Taking prophylactic antibiotics

ANS: B People who live in highly populated areas, such as a college dorm, should get the meningitis polysaccharide vaccine (Menomune) to prevent infection. Avoiding large crowds is helpful but is not practical for the college student. Taking a daily vitamin is helpful but is not the best way to safeguard against bacterial meningitis. Taking prophylactic antibiotics is inappropriate because it leads to antibiotic-resistant strains of microorganisms.

A nurse assesses a client with a history of epilepsy who experiences stiffening of the muscles of the arms and legs, followed by an immediate loss of consciousness and jerking of all extremities. How should the nurse document this activity? a. Atonic seizure b. Tonic-clonic seizure c. Myoclonic seizure d. Absence seizure

ANS: B Seizure activity that begins with stiffening of the arms and legs, followed by loss of consciousness and jerking of all extremities, is characteristic of a tonic-clonic seizure. An atonic seizure presents as a sudden loss of muscle tone followed by postictal confusion. A myoclonic seizure presents with a brief jerking or stiffening of extremities that may occur singly or in groups. Absence seizures present with automatisms, and the client is unaware of his or her environment.

What should be the nurse's first action when a child with a head injury complains of double vision and a headache, and then vomits? a. Immobilize the child's neck. b. Report this information to the physician. c. Darken the room and put a cool cloth on the child's forehead. d. Restrict the child's oral fluid intake.

ANS: B Stabilizing the child's neck does not address the child's symptoms. Any indication of ICP should be promptly reported to the physician. This intervention may facilitate the child's comfort. It would not be the nurse's first action. The child's episode of vomiting does not necessitate a fluid restriction.

The Glasgow Coma Scale consists of an assessment of a. Pupil reactivity and motor response b. Eye opening and verbal and motor responses c. Level of consciousness and verbal response d. ICP and level of consciousness

ANS: B The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses eye opening, and verbal and motor responses. Pupil reactivity is not part of the Glasgow Coma Scale but is included in the pediatric coma scale. Level of consciousness and intracranial pressure are not a part of the Glasgow Coma Scale.

What is the most appropriate nursing action when a child is in the tonic phase of a generalized tonic-clonic seizure? a. Guide the child to the floor if standing and go for help. b. Turn the child's body on the side. c. Place a padded tongue blade between the teeth. d. Quickly slip soft restraints on the child's wrists.

ANS: B The child should be placed on a soft surface if he is not in bed; however, it is inappropriate to leave the child during the seizure. Positioning the child on his side will prevent aspiration. Nothing should be inserted into the child's mouth during a seizure to prevent injury to the mouth, gums, or teeth. Restraints could cause injury. Sharp objects and furniture should be moved out of the way to prevent injury.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a lumbar puncture (LP). Which complication of this procedure should alert the nurse to urgently contact the health care provider? a. Weak pedal pulses b. Nausea and vomiting c. Increased thirst d. Hives on the chest

ANS: B The nurse should immediately contact the provider if the client experiences a severe headache, nausea, vomiting, photophobia, or a change in level of consciousness after an LP, which are all signs of increased intracranial pressure. Weak pedal pulses, increased thirst, and hives are not complications of an LP.

A nurse witnesses a client begin to experience a tonic-clonic seizure and loss of consciousness. Which action should the nurse take? a. Start fluids via a large-bore catheter. b. Turn the client's head to the side. c. Administer IV push diazepam. d. Prepare to intubate the client.

ANS: B The nurse should turn the client's head to the side to prevent aspiration and allow drainage of secretions. Anticonvulsants are administered on a routine basis if a seizure is sustained. If the seizure is sustained (status epilepticus), the client must be intubated and should be administered oxygen, 0.9% sodium chloride, and IV push lorazepam or diazepam.

What finding should cause the nurse to suspect a diagnosis of spastic cerebral palsy? a. Tremulous movements at rest and with activity b. Sudden jerking movement caused by stimuli c. Writhing, uncontrolled, involuntary movements d. Clumsy, uncoordinated movements

ANS: B Tremulous movements are characteristic of rigid/tremor/atonic cerebral palsy. Spastic cerebral palsy, the most common type of cerebral palsy, will manifest with hypertonicity and increased deep tendon reflexes. The child's muscles are very tight and any stimuli may cause a sudden jerking movement. Slow, writhing, uncontrolled, involuntary movements occur with athetoid or dyskinetic cerebral palsy. Clumsy movements, loss of coordination, equilibrium, and kinesthetic sense occur in ataxic cerebral palsy.

An emergency department nurse cares for a client who experienced a spinal cord injury 1 hour ago. Which prescribed medication should the nurse prepare to administer? a. Intrathecal baclofen (Lioresal) b. Methylprednisolone (Medrol) c. Atropine sulfate d. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)

ANS: B Current standard of care is immobilization and steroids for spinal cord injuries. Methylprednisolone (Medrol) should be given within 8 hours of the injury. Clients who receive this therapy usually show improvement in motor and sensory function. The other medications are inappropriate for this client.

After administering a medication that stimulates the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system, the nurse assesses the client. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Decreased respiratory rate b. Increased heart rate c. Decreased level of consciousness d. Increased force of contraction e. Decreased blood pressure

ANS: B, D Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system initiates the fight-or-flight response, increasing both the heart rate and the force of contraction. A medication that stimulates the sympathetic nervous system would also increase the client's respiratory rate, blood pressure, and level of consciousness.

A nurse assesses a client with an injury to the medulla. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to find? (Select all that apply.) a. Loss of smell b. Impaired swallowing c. Visual changes d. Inability to shrug shoulders e. Loss of gag reflex

ANS: B, D, E Cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal), X (vagus), XI (accessory), and XII (hypoglossal) emerge from the medulla, as do portions of cranial nerves VII (facial) and VIII (acoustic). Damage to these nerves causes impaired swallowing, inability to shrug shoulders, and loss of the gag reflex. The other manifestations are not associated with damage to the medulla.

A nurse assesses a client who has encephalitis. Which manifestations should the nurse recognize as signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP), a complication of encephalitis? (Select all that apply.) a. Photophobia b. Dilated pupils c. Headache d. Widened pulse pressure e. Bradycardia

ANS: B, D, E Increased ICP is a complication of encephalitis. The nurse should monitor for signs of increased ICP, including dilated pupils, widened pulse pressure, bradycardia, irregular respirations, and less responsive pupils. Photophobia and headache are not related to increased ICP.

What nursing actions are indicated when the nurse is administering phenytoin (Dilantin) by the intravenous route to control seizures? Select all that apply. a. It must be given with D5 1/2NS. b. The child will require monitoring of therapeutic serum levels while taking this medication. c. Dilantin should be given with food because it causes gastrointestinal distress. d. It must be given in normal saline. e. It must be filtered.

ANS: B, D, E The child should have serum levels drawn to monitor for optimal therapeutic levels. In addition, liver function studies should be monitored because this anticonvulsant may cause hepatic dysfunction. The IV dose must be given in normal saline, not D5 1/2NS. The IV dose must be filtered. The IV dose must be given in normal saline, not D5 1/2NS. Dilantin has not been found to cause gastrointestinal upset, and since it is being given by the IV route, this is not a concern. The medication can be taken without food.

A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic headaches. Which statements about headache triggers should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. "Increase your intake of caffeinated beverages." b. "Incorporate physical exercise into your daily routine." c. "Avoid all alcoholic beverages." d. "Participate in a smoking cessation program." e. "Increase your intake of fruits and vegetables."

ANS: B, D, E Triggers for headaches include caffeine, smoking, and ingestion of pickled foods, so these factors should be avoided. Clients are taught to eat a balanced diet and to get adequate exercise and rest. Alcohol does not trigger chronic headaches but can enhance headaches during the headache period.

A nurse assesses an older client. Which assessment findings should the nurse identify as normal changes in the nervous system related to aging? (Select all that apply.) a. Long-term memory loss b. Slower processing time c. Increased sensory perception d. Decreased risk for infection e. Change in sleep patterns

ANS: B, E Normal changes in the nervous system related to aging include recent memory loss, slower processing time, decreased sensory perception, an increased risk for infection, changes in sleep patterns, changes in perception of pain, and altered balance and/or decreased coordination.

A nurse assesses a client who is experiencing an absence seizure. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Intermittent rigidity b. Lip smacking c. Sudden loss of muscle tone d. Brief jerking of the extremities e. Picking at clothing f. Patting of the hand on the leg

ANS: B, E, F Automatisms are characteristic of absence seizures. These behaviors consist of lip smacking, picking at clothing, and patting. Rigidity of muscles is associated with the tonic phase of a seizure, and jerking of the extremities is associated with the clonic phase of a seizure. Loss of muscle tone occurs with atonic seizures.

What is an appropriate nursing intervention for the child with a tension headache? a. Assess for an aura. b. Maintain complete bed rest. c. Administer pharmacologic headache relief measures. d. Assess for nausea and vomiting.

ANS: C An aura is associated with migraines but not with tension headaches. Complete bed rest is not required. Administration of pharmacologic techniques is appropriate to assist in the management of a tension headache. Nausea and vomiting are associated with a migraine but not with tension headaches.

A nurse is teaching a client with chronic migraine headaches. Which statement related to complementary therapy should the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Place a warm compress on your forehead at the onset of the headache." b. "Wear dark sunglasses when you are in brightly lit spaces." c. "Lie down in a darkened room when you experience a headache." d. "Set your alarm to ensure you do not sleep longer than 6 hours at one time."

ANS: C At the onset of a migraine attack, the client may be able to alleviate pain by lying down and darkening the room. He or she may want both eyes covered and a cool cloth on the forehead. If the client falls asleep, he or she should remain undisturbed until awakening. The other options are not recognized therapies for migraines.

A nurse is teaching a client with cerebellar function impairment. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching? a. "Connect a light to flash when your door bell rings." b. "Label your faucet knobs with hot and cold signs." c. "Ask a friend to drive you to your follow-up appointments." d. "Use a natural gas detector with an audible alarm."

ANS: C Cerebellar function enables the client to predict distance or gauge the speed with which one is approaching an object, control voluntary movement, maintain equilibrium, and shift from one skilled movement to another in an orderly sequence. A client who has cerebellar function impairment should not be driving. The client would not have difficulty hearing, distinguishing between hot and cold, or smelling.

The nurse is providing medication instructions for a client for whom phenytoin (Dilantin) has been requested for treatment of epilepsy. The nurse plans to instruct the client to avoid which beverage? a. Apple juice b. Grape juice c. Grapefruit juice d. Milk

ANS: C Citrus fruits, such as grapefruit juice, can interact with the metabolism of antiepileptic drugs. This interference can raise the blood level of the drug and cause the patient to develop drug toxicity.

The client admitted with cerebral edema suddenly begins to have a seizure while the nurse is in the room. What will the nurse do first? a. Administer phenytoin (Dilantin) b. Draw blood c. Assess the need for additional support d. Start an intravenous (IV) line

ANS: C Convulsive status epilepticus must be treated promptly and aggressively. After a quick assessment by the nurse, the health care provider must be notified immediately, and intubation by an anesthesiologist, nurse anesthetist, or respiratory therapist may be necessary. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is administered to prevent the recurrence of seizures, not to treat a seizure already under way. Drawing blood is not the priority in this situation. Starting an IV is not the priority in this situation.

A nurse plans care for an 83-year-old client who is experiencing age-related sensory perception changes. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? a. Provide a call button that requires only minimal pressure to activate. b. Write the date on the client's white board to promote orientation. c. Ensure that the path to the bathroom is free from equipment. d. Encourage the client to season food to stimulate nutritional intake.

ANS: C Dementia and confusion are not common phenomena in older adults. However, physical impairment related to illness can be expected. Providing opportunities for hazard-free ambulation will maintain strength and mobility (and ensure safety). Providing a call button, providing the date, and seasoning food do not address the client's impaired sensory perception.

A nurse assesses a client who has a history of migraines. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse identify as an early sign of a migraine with aura? a. Vertigo b. Lethargy c. Visual disturbances d. Numbness of the tongue

ANS: C Early warning of impending migraine with aura usually consists of visual changes, flashing lights, or diplopia. The other manifestations are not associated with an impending migraine with aura.

Which type of seizures involves both hemispheres of the brain? a. Focal b. Partial c. Generalized d. Acquired

ANS: C Focal seizures may arise from any area of the cerebral cortex, but the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes are most commonly affected. Partial seizures are caused by abnormal electric discharges from epileptogenic foci limited to a circumscribed region of the cerebral cortex. Clinical observations of generalized seizures indicate that the initial involvement is from both hemispheres. A seizure disorder that is acquired is a result of a brain injury from a variety of factors; it does not specify the type of seizure.

Nursing care of the infant who has had a myelomeningocele repair should include a. Securely fastening the diaper b. Measurement of pupil size c. Measurement of head circumference d. Administration of seizure medications

ANS: C Head circumference measurement is essential because hydrocephalus can develop in these infants. A diaper should be placed under the infant but not fastened. Keeping the diaper open facilitates frequent cleaning and decreases the risk for skin breakdown. Pupil size measurement is usually not necessary. Seizure medications are not routinely given to infants who do not have seizures.

A nurse asks a client to take deep breaths during an electroencephalography. The client asks, "Why are you asking me to do this?" How should the nurse respond? a. "Hyperventilation causes vascular dilation of cerebral arteries, which decreases electoral activity in the brain." b. "Deep breathing helps you to relax and allows the electroencephalograph to obtain a better waveform." c. "Hyperventilation causes cerebral vasoconstriction and increases the likelihood of seizure activity." d. "Deep breathing will help you to blow off carbon dioxide and decreases intracranial pressures."

ANS: C Hyperventilation produces cerebral vasoconstriction and alkalosis, which increases the likelihood of seizure activity. The client is asked to breathe deeply 20 to 30 times for 3 minutes. The other responses are not accurate.

The client is admitted into the emergency department with frontal-temporal pain, preceded by a visual disturbance. The client is upset and thinks it is a stroke. What does the nurse suspect may be occurring? a. Stroke b. Tension headache c. Classic migraine d. Cluster headache

ANS: C Migraine symptoms include frontotemporal pain and can sometimes be preceded by an aura, which can be manifested by visual disturbances. Cluster headaches occur in the oculotemporal area without an aura and a tension headache can feel like a band around the forehead.

A nurse teaches an 80-year-old client with diminished touch sensation. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Place soft rugs in your bathroom to decrease pain in your feet." b. "Bathe in warm water to increase your circulation." c. "Look at the placement of your feet when walking." d. "Walk barefoot to decrease pressure ulcers from your shoes."

ANS: C Older clients with decreased sensation are at risk of injury from the inability to sense changes in terrain when walking. To compensate for this loss, the client is instructed to look at the placement of her or his feet when walking. Throw rugs can slip and increase fall risk. Bath water that is too warm places the client at risk for thermal injury. The client should wear sturdy shoes for ambulation.

The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client with migraine headaches. Which of these foods or food additives may trigger a migraine headache? a. Salt b. Sugar c. Tyramine d. Glutamine

ANS: C Only tyramine has been consistently linked to the onset and severity of migraines. Its action is related to altering the vasoreactivity of cerebral blood vessels. Salt intake may cause fluid retention and a headache, but it is not associated with migraines. Sugar has not been demonstrated to cause migraines. Glutamine is used as a nutrition supplement and has no association with migraines.

A nurse is caring for a client with paraplegia who is scheduled to participate in a rehabilitation program. The client states, "I do not understand the need for rehabilitation; the paralysis will not go away and it will not get better." How should the nurse respond? a. "If you don't want to participate in the rehabilitation program, I'll let the provider know." b. "Rehabilitation programs have helped many clients with your injury. You should give it a chance." c. "The rehabilitation program will teach you how to maintain the functional ability you have and prevent further disability." d. "When new discoveries are made regarding paraplegia, people in rehabilitation programs will benefit first."

ANS: C Participation in rehabilitation programs has many purposes, including prevention of disability, maintenance of functional ability, and restoration of function. The other responses do not meet this client's needs.

A nurse assesses a client with a spinal cord injury at level T5. The client's blood pressure is 184/95 mm Hg, and the client presents with a flushed face and blurred vision. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Initiate oxygen via a nasal cannula. b. Place the client in a supine position. c. Palpate the bladder for distention. d. Administer a prescribed beta blocker

ANS: C The client is manifesting symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia. Common causes include bladder distention, tight clothing, increased room temperature, and fecal impaction. If persistent, the client could experience neurologic injury. Precipitating conditions should be eliminated and the physician notified. The other actions would not be appropriate.

A nurse cares for a client with a spinal cord injury. With which interdisciplinary team member should the nurse consult to assist the client with activities of daily living? a. Social worker b. Physical therapist c. Occupational therapist d. Case manager

ANS: C The occupational therapist instructs the client in the correct use of all adaptive equipment. In collaboration with the therapist, the nurse instructs family members or the caregiver about transfer skills, feeding, bathing, dressing, positioning, and skin care. The other team members are consulted to assist the client with unrelated issues.

What is the best response to a father who tells the nurse that his son "daydreams" at home and his teacher has observed this behavior at school? a. "Your son must have an active imagination." b. "Can you tell me exactly how many times this occurs in one day?" c. "Tell me about your son's activity when you notice the daydreams." d. "He is probably overtired and needs more rest."

ANS: C This response does not address the child's symptoms or the father's concern. This behavior is consistent with absence seizures, which can occur one after the other several times a day. Determining an exact number of absence seizures is not as useful as learning about behavior before the seizure that might have precipitated seizure activity. The daydream episodes are suggestive of absence seizures, and data about activity associated with the daydreams should be obtained. This response ignores both the child's symptoms and the father's concern about the daydreaming behavior.

A recommendation to prevent neural tube defects is the supplementation of a. Vitamin A throughout pregnancy b. Multivitamin preparations as soon as pregnancy is suspected c. Folic acid for all women of childbearing age d. Folic acid during the first and second trimesters of pregnancy

ANS: C Vitamin A does not have a relation to the prevention of spina bifida. Folic acid supplementation is recommended for the preconceptual period, as well as during the pregnancy. The widespread use of folic acid among women of childbearing age is expected to decrease the incidence of spina bifida significantly. Folic acid supplementation is recommended for the preconceptual period, as well as during the pregnancy.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from the implantation of a vagal nerve stimulation device. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess as common complications of this procedure? (Select all that apply.) a. Bleeding b. Infection c. Hoarseness d. Dysphagia e. Seizures

ANS: C, D Complications of surgery to implant a vagal nerve stimulation device include hoarseness (most common), dyspnea, neck pain, and dysphagia. The device is tunneled under the skin with an electrode connected to the vagus nerve to control simple or complex partial seizures. Bleeding is not a common complication of this procedure, and infection would not occur during the recovery period.

A nurse assesses a client with paraplegia from a spinal cord injury and notes reddened areas over the client's hips and sacrum. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Apply a barrier cream to protect the skin from excoriation. b. Perform range-of-motion (ROM) exercises for the hip joint. c. Re-position the client off of the reddened areas. d. Get the client out of bed and into a chair once a day. e. Obtain a low-air-loss mattress to minimize pressure.

ANS: C, E Appropriate interventions to relieve pressure on these areas include frequent re-positioning and a low-air-loss mattress. Reddened areas should not be rubbed because this action could cause more extensive damage to the already fragile capillary system. Barrier cream will not protect the skin from pressure wounds. ROM exercises are used to prevent contractures. Sitting the client in a chair once a day will decrease the client's risk of respiratory complications but will not decrease pressure on the client's hips and sacrum.

A nurse assesses a client's recent memory. Which client statement confirms that the client's recent memory is intact? a. "A young girl wrapped in a shroud fell asleep on a bed of clouds." b. "I was born on April 3, 1967, in Johnstown Community Hospital." c. "Apple, chair, and pencil are the words you just stated." d. "I ate oatmeal with wheat toast and orange juice for breakfast."

ANS: D Asking clients about recent events that can be verified, such as what the client ate for breakfast, assesses the client's recent memory. The client's ability to make up a rhyme tests not memory, but rather a higher level of cognition. Asking clients about certain facts from the past that can be verified assesses remote or long-term memory. Asking the client to repeat words assesses the client's immediate memory.

A child is brought to the emergency department in generalized tonic-clonic status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse expect to be given initially in this situation? a. Clorazepate dipotassium (Tranxene) b. Fosphenytoin (Cerebyx) c. Phenobarbital d. Lorazepam (Ativan)

ANS: D Clorazepate dipotassium (Tranxene) is indicated for cluster seizures. It can be given orally. Fosphenytoin or Phenobarbital can be given intravenously as a second round of medication if seizures continue. Lorazepam (Ativan) or diazepam (Valium) is given intravenously to control generalized tonic-clonic status epilepticus and may also be used for seizures lasting more than 5 minutes.

The nurse is administering the intake assessment for a newly admitted client with a history of seizures. The client suddenly begins to seize. What does the nurse do next? a. Documents the length and time of the seizure b. Forces a tongue blade in the mouth c. Restrains the client d. Positions the client on the side

ANS: D Turning the client on the side during a generalized tonic-clonic or complex partial seizure is indicated because he or she may lose consciousness. Documenting the length and time of seizures is important, but not while the seizure is occurring. Forcing a tongue blade in the mouth and restraining the client can cause damage.

After teaching a client who is diagnosed with new-onset status epilepticus and prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin), the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "To prevent complications, I will drink at least 2 liters of water daily." b. "This medication will stop me from getting an aura before a seizure." c. "I will not drive a motor vehicle while taking this medication." d. "Even when my seizures stop, I will continue to take this drug."

ANS: D Discontinuing antiepileptic drugs can lead to the recurrence of seizures or status epilepticus. The client does not need to drink more water and can drive while taking this medication. The medication will not stop an aura before a seizure.

A nurse cares for a client who is experiencing deteriorating neurologic functions. The client states, "I am worried I will not be able to care for my young children." How should the nurse respond? a. "Caring for your children is a priority. You may not want to ask for help, but you have to." b. "Our community has resources that may help you with some household tasks so you have energy to care for your children." c. "You seem distressed. Would you like to talk to a psychologist about adjusting to your changing status?" d. "Give me more information about what worries you, so we can see if we can do something to make adjustments."

ANS: D Investigate specific concerns about situational or role changes before providing additional information. The nurse should not tell the client what is or is not a priority for him or her. Although community resources may be available, they may not be appropriate for the client. Consulting a psychologist would not be appropriate without obtaining further information from the client related to current concerns.

Which change in status should alert the nurse to increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in a child with a head injury? a. Rapid, shallow breathing b. Irregular, rapid heart rate c. Increased diastolic pressure with narrowing pulse pressure d. Confusion and altered mental status

ANS: D Respiratory changes occur with ICP. One pattern that may be evident is Cheyne-Stokes respiration. This pattern of breathing is characterized by increasing rate and depth, then decreasing rate and depth, with a pause of variable length. Temperature elevation may occur in children with ICP. Changes in blood pressure occur, but the diastolic pressure does not increase, nor is there a narrowing of pulse pressure. The child with a head injury may have confusion and altered mental status, a change in vital signs, retinal hemorrhaging, hemiparesis, and papilledema.

What is the most appropriate nursing response to the father of a newborn infant with myelomeningocele who asks about the cause of this condition? a. "One of the parents carries a defective gene that causes myelomeningocele." b. "A deficiency in folic acid in the father is the most likely cause." c. "Offspring of parents who have a spinal abnormality are at greater risk for myelomeningocele." d. "There may be no definitive cause identified."

ANS: D The exact cause of most cases of neural tube defects is unknown. There may be a genetic predisposition, but no pattern has been identified. Folic acid deficiency in the mother has been linked to neural tube defect. There is no evidence that children who have parents with spinal problems are at greater risk for neural tube defects. The etiology of most neural tube defects is unknown in most cases. There may be a genetic predisposition or a viral origin, and the disorder has been linked to maternal folic acid deficiency; however, the actual cause has not been determined.

How should the nurse explain positioning for a lumbar puncture to a 5-year-old child? a. "You will be on your knees with your head down on the table." b. "You will be able to sit up with your chin against your chest." c. "You will be on your side with the head of your bed slightly raised." d. "You will lie on your side and bend your knees so that they touch your chin."

ANS: D The knee-chest position is not appropriate for a lumbar puncture. An infant can be placed in a sitting position with the infant facing the nurse and the head steadied against the nurse's body. A side-lying position with the head of the bed elevated is not appropriate for a lumbar puncture. The child should lie on her side with knees bent and chin tucked in to the knees. This position exposes the area of the back for the lumbar puncture.

After teaching a client newly diagnosed with epilepsy, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I will wear my medical alert bracelet at all times." b. "While taking my epilepsy medications, I will not drink any alcoholic beverages." c. "I will tell my doctor about my prescription and over-the-counter medications." d. "If I am nauseated, I will not take my epilepsy medication."

ANS: D The nurse must emphasize that antiepileptic drugs must be taken even if the client is nauseous. Discontinuing the medication can predispose the client to seizure activity and status epilepticus. The client should not drink alcohol while taking seizure medications. The client should wear a medical alert bracelet and should make the doctor aware of all medications to prevent complications of polypharmacy.

Which statement by an adolescent indicates an understanding about factors that can trigger migraine headaches? a. "I should avoid loud noises because this is a common migraine trigger." b. "Exercise can cause a migraine. I guess I won't have to take gym anymore." c. "I think I'll get a migraine if I go to bed at 9 PM on week nights." d. "I am learning to relax because I get headaches when I am worried about stuff."

ANS: D Visual stimuli, not auditory stimuli, are known to be a common trigger for migraines. Exercise is not a trigger for migraines. The adolescent needs regular physical exercise. Altered sleep patterns and fatigue is a common migraine trigger for migraine headaches. Going to bed at 9 PM should allow an adolescent plenty of sleep to prevent fatigue. Stress can trigger migraines. Relaxation therapy can help the adolescent control stress and headaches. Other precipitating factors in addition to stress include poor diet, food sensitivities, and flashing lights.

An emergency room nurse initiates care for a client with a cervical spinal cord injury who arrives via emergency medical services. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assess level of consciousness. b. Obtain vital signs. c. Administer oxygen therapy. d. Evaluate respiratory status.

ANS: D The first priority for a client with a spinal cord injury is assessment of respiratory status and airway patency. Clients with cervical spine injuries are particularly prone to respiratory compromise and may even require intubation. The other assessments should be performed after airway and breathing are assessed.

A nurse prepares to provide perineal care to a client with meningococcal meningitis. Which personal protective equipment should the nurse wear? (Select all that apply.) a. Particulate respirator b. Isolation gown c. Shoe covers d. Surgical mask e. Gloves

ANS: D, E Meningeal meningitis is spread via saliva and droplets, and Droplet Precautions are necessary. Caregivers should wear a surgical mask when within 6 feet of the client and should continue to use Standard Precautions, including gloves. A particulate respirator, an isolation gown, and shoe covers are not necessary for Droplet Precautions.