IT 370 Final Exam

15. Which of the following packets will be allowed according to the iptables rule that follows? iptables -A INPUT -i eth1 -s 192.168.0.0/24 -j DROP A. A packet from 192.168.1.6/24 B. A packet from 192.168.0.6/24 C. A packet from 192.168.0.1/24 D. A packet from 192.168.0.240/24

A. A packet from 192.168.1.6/24 This rule set blocks all incoming traffic sourced from the 192.168.0.0/24 network, which is from 192.168.0.1-192.168.0.255. (subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 = /24)

Which of the following uses three sets of backup tapes? A. GFS B. Tower of Hanoi C. FIFO D. LIFO

A. GFS GFS, GrandFather, Father, Son. In this scheme, three sets of backups are defined. Most often these three definitions are daily, weekly, and monthly.

Which of the following statements is true with regard to troubleshooting? A. Make one change at a Ume B. if multiple users are involved, the source is likely their local computers C. you should always try to replicate the issue in the production environment D. always assume the cabling Is good

A. Make one change at a Ume When you make multiple changes at a time, those changes might interact with one another and make the picture even muddier.

Which of the following devices can also provide web caching services? A. Proxy firewall B. Packet fitering firewall C. Stateful firewall D. Host-based firewall

A. Proxy firewall The proxy firewall can also offer web caching, should the same request be made again, and can increase the efficiency of data delivery.

Which of the following services uses port number 22? A. SFTP B. NTP C. HTTP D. HTTPS

A. SFTP Secure File Transfer Protocol over SSH, or SFTP, is a version of FTP that is encrypted by SSH. Since it operates over an SSH session and SSH uses port 22, SFTP uses port 22.

Which of the following is true of the requirements to use SSL on a website? A. The web server must have a certi7cate. B. The client must have a certi7cate. C. The web server and the client must have a certi7cate. D. Neither the web server nor the client must have a certi7cate.

A. The web server must have a certi7cate. SSL is related to a PKI in that a certificate is required on the server end and optionally can be used on the client end of an SSL communication.

Which of the following is a true of server backplanes? A. They can be a single point of failure B. They provide data and control signal connectors for CPU C. Backplane failure are common D. You could implement redundant backplanes

A. They can be a single point of failure Backplanes are advantageous in that they provide data and control signal connectors for the hard drives. They also provide the interconnect for the front I/O board, power and locator buttons, and system/component status LEDs. Unfortunately, this creates a serious single point of failure because if the backplane fails, we lose communication with the servers to which it is connected.

Which of the following is required to be supported to perform an open file backup? A. VSS B. BAA C. OUI D. EUI-64

A. VSS Back programs that use the Windows Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS) can back up open files. However, you should know that when you back up open files in this manner, changes that may have been made to the file while it was open and the backup job was proceeding will not be present in the backup of the open file and will not be recorded until the next backup

Which of the following starts by using a pre-selected minimal set of drivers and startup programs? A. clean boot B. safe mode C. diagnostic boot D. core mode

A. clean boot When you start the server in clean boot, it starts by using a pre-selected minimal set of drivers and startup programs, and because the computer starts with a minimal set of drivers, some programs may not work as you expected.

What file is used by Linux to mount partitions on boot? A. fstab B. grub C. filo D. remount

A. fstab fstab (File System Table) is a file used by Linux operating systems to mount partitions on boot.

Which of the following do you edit to affect a DNS suffix search list in Linux? A. resolv.conf B. suffix.lst C. search.lst D. resolv.sfx

A. resolv.conf In a Linux environment, creating a DNS suffix search list can be done by editing a file called resolv.conf, which is located at/etc/resolv.conf.

Which command ensures the system files are all intact? A. sfc /scannow B. Bootrec /Rebuild Bed C. BOOTREC IFIXBOOT D. BOOTREC IFIXMBR

A. sfc /scannow To ensure the system files are all intact execute the following command at the command prompt sfc /scannow

Which of the following is not a FQDN (Fully Qualified Domain Name)? A. tmcmillan B. tmcmillan.acme.com C. ws5.ajax.com D. smitht.smithcorp.com

A. tmcmillan Fully qualified domain names (FQDN) identify the host and the location of the hostname in the DNS namespace of the organization. It consists of at least two parts and perhaps more. All FQDNs will have a hostname and a domain name.

Which commands are used on a router to identify the path taken to a destination network? (Choose two.) A. traceroute B. tracert C. ipconfig/trace D. trace

A. traceroute B. tracert The tracert command (called traceroute in Linux and Unix) is used to trace the path of a packet through the network on routers

What is the code number of a destination unreachable message when it indicates the destination host is unreachable? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

B. 1 It will appear as a destination unreachable message (this is a group of message types that all have code numbers) with a code number of 1.

Which of the following addresses is used to test the functionality of the NIC? A 0.0.0.0 B. 127.0.0.1 C. 255.255.255.255 D. 0.0.0.1

B. 127.0.0.1 Ensure that the NIC is functional and the TCP/IP protocol is installed and functional by pinging the loopback address 127.0.0.1.

Which of the default mask of a Class B network? A 255.0.0.0 B. 255.255.0.0 C. 255.255.255.0 D. 255.255.255.255

B. 255.255.0.0 The default masks are: A 255.0.0.0 B 255.255.0.0 C 255.255.255.0

What file attribute is used to communicate to the backup system whether a particular file has changed since the last backup? A. Read only B. Archive C. System D. Hidden

B. Archive The archive bit is used to communicate to the backup system whether a particular file has changed since the last backup. When the archive bit is cleared (0), it communicates that the file has been backed up already and has not changed since. When the bit is on (1), it communicates that the file has changed since the last backup and should be backed up again.

Which of the following features can administrators use to create smaller networks called subnets, by manipulating the subnet mask of a larger classless or major network? A. NAT B. CIDR C. DHCP D.DNS

B. CIDR To allow for the creation of smaller networks that operate better, the concept of classless routing, or Classless Interdomain Routing (CIDR), was born.

Which snapshot type is taken every time a user enters data or changes data and it only includes the changed data? A. Site to site B. Copy-on-write C. Array-based D. Split mirror

B. Copy-on-write This type of snapshot is taken every time a user enters data or changes data, and it only includes the changed data. Although it allows for very rapid recovery from a loss of data, it requires you to have access to all previous snapshots during recovery.

You have two devices that are connected to the same switch with IP addresses in the same network. After placing the two devices in separate VLANs, they can no longer ping one another. At what layer of the OSI model are the VLANs providing separation? A. Network B. Data link C. Session D. Transport

B. Data link Devices in different VLANs usually have IP addresses in different IP subnets. However, even if they have IP addresses in the same subnet, communication cannot occur without routing—if they reside in different VLANs—because VLANs separate devices at Layer 2, or the Data Link layer, of the OSI model.

What can be the result of low humidity? A. corrosion B. ESD C. RFI D. EMI

B. ESD It is a balancing act keeping humidity at the right level since low humidity causes ESD and high humidity causes moisture condensation.

Which of the following is the IPv6 prefix of an auto configured address? A. 127.0.0.1 B. FE80:: C. ::1 D. FEC0:

B. FE80:: When autoconfiguration is used, the first hextet will always be FE80::. The rest of the address will be derived from the MAC address of the device.

Which of the following provides a mechanism to access and query directory services systems? A. TACACS B. LDAP C. TACACS+ D. RADIUS

B. LDAP Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a protocol that provides a mechanism to access and query directory services systems.

At what layer of the OSI model are devices in different VLANs separated? A Layer 1 B. Layer 2 C. Layer4 D. Layer 7

B. Layer 2 Even if we assign devices in different VLANs with IP addresses in the same subnet, they will not be able to communicate because they are also separated at Layer 2.

Which of the following would not be a cause of an inability to connect to the Internet? A. IP address of the computer B. MAC address of the computer C. Default gateway addr&llll of the computer D. DNS server address of the computer

B. MAC address of the computer This issue can have a number of sources, including - The IP configuration of the user's computer - The IP configuration of the users default gateway or router - The IP configuration of any routers that stand between the gateway and the Internet - The DNS server - The ISP - The DHCP server

Which of the following should be the same on all devices in the same subnet? A. IPaddrass B. Subnet mask C. Hostname D. FQDN

B. Subnet mask Sometimes an incorrect mask will prevent all communication, but in some cases it results in successful connections locally but not remotely (outside the local subnet). The subnet mask value should be the same mask used on the router interface connecting to the local network.

When implementing CIDR, what configuration setting is manipulated to size the subnet as desired? A. IP address B. Subnet mask C. Default gateway D. Duplex

B. Subnet mask Using CIDR (Classless Inter-Domain Routing), administrators can create smaller networks called subnets by manipulating the subnet mask of a larger classless or major network ID. This allows you to create a subnet that is much closer in size to what you need, thus wasting fewer IP addresses and increasing performance in each subnet.

Which backup media type provides linear access to the data? A. CD B. Tape C. DVD D. External hard drive

B. Tape While younger technicians may be unfamiliar with the task of rewinding or fast-forwarding a music tape or cassette to access a particular song, it illustrates the way linear access works. A 4 song cannot be played until the tape head (reader) is positioned over the location where that song resides. Accessing data on a tape must be done the same way.

Which of the following has lost favor to SSH because it sends data—including passwords—in plain-text format? A. POP3 B. Telnet 5 C. RDP D. IMAP

B. Telnet 5 Telnet is a protocol that functions at the Application layer of the OSI model, providing terminal-emulation capabilities. Telnet runs on port 23, but has lost favor to SSH because Telnet sends data—including passwords—in plain-text format.

Which if the following is designed to replace the BIOS? A. EEPROM B. UEFI C. BCD D. GUID

B. UEFI UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) is a standard firmware interface for PCs, designed to replace BIOS.

When does a device use a DNS suffix search list? A. At all times B. When an unqualified hostname is encountered C. When an FQDN is encountered D. When the users select to use the list

B. When an unqualified hostname is encountered In many instances, users make references to unqualified hostnames when accessing resources. When this occurs, DNS needs to know how to handle these unqualified domain names. It is possible to configure a list of domain names called "suffixes" for the DNS to append to unqualified hostnames and the order in which they should be tried.

Which of the following is frequently the source of the error message Data_Bus_Error? A. motherboard B. memory C. CPU D. hard drive

B. memory The problem is frequently related to defective RAM, L2 RAM cache, or video RAM.

Which of the following events causes chip creep? A high humidity B. overheating C. dropping the device D. power surges

B. overheating Chip creep—the unseating of components—is one of the more common byproducts of a cycle of overheating and cooling of the inside of the system.

Replacing slots covers helps to prevent which event? A. corrosion B. overheating C. theft D. EMI

B. overheating Replacing slot covers is vital. Servers are designed to circulate air with slot covers in place or cards plugged into the ports. Leaving slots on the back of the computer open alters the air circulation and causes more dust to be pulled into the system.

Which of the following actions should be taken before making changes during troubleshooting? A reboot the computer in safe mode 11 B. perform a backup C. notify the user D. disable the antimalware

B. perform a backup You may find yourself attempting significant changes on a server in an attempt to locate and/or solve the issue. Be sure that you do a backup before you make any changes so that all your actions can be undone, if necessary

How should you use compressed air inside the case? A long sustained bursts B. short bursts C. hold can 12 inches away from the systsem D. hold the can upside down

B. short bursts You can remove dust and debris from inside servers with compressed air blown in short bursts. The short bursts are useful in preventing the dust from flying too far out and entering another machine, as well as in preventing the can from releasing the air in liquid form.

Which of the following is the port number for SMTP? A. 21 B. 161 C. 25 D. 20

C. 25 Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a protocol for sending email. SMTP uses port 25 by default.

What should the humidity be in the server room? A. 30% B. 40% C. 50% D. 80%

C. 50% Maintain the relative humidity at around 50 percent.

Which of the following is the loopback address in IPV6? A. 127.0.0.1 B. FE80:: C. ::1 D. FEC0:

C. ::1 In IPv6 the loopback address is all zeroes in every hextet except the last. Closing up the first seven hextets with a double colon results in ::, and the one in the last hextet results in ::1 after omitting the leading zeroes in the last hextet.

Which of the following features will assign a host with an address in the 169.254.x.x range with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0? A. NAT B.DHCP C. APIPA D.SSID

C. APIPA Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a TCP/IP feature Microsoft added to its operating systems. If a DHCP server cannot be found, the clients automatically assign themselves an IP address, somewhat randomly, in the 169.254.x.x range with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0

Which of the following can read the individual commands of the protocols that are being served? A. Stateful firewall B. Packet filtering firewall C. Application-level proxy D. Host-based firewall

C. Application-level proxy The proxy function can occur at either the application level or the circuit level. Application-level proxy functions read the individual commands of the protocols that are being served. This type of server is advanced and you must know the rules and capabilities of the protocol used.

Which of the following must match when adding drives to a set of existing drives? A. Speed B. Capacity C. Architecture D. Vendor

C. Architecture While it is possible to use mismatched drives, you should have a clear understanding of the implications of each type of mismatch. The only requirement set in stone is that they be of the same architecture.

Which of the following site types contains only electrical and communications wiring, air conditioning, plumbing, and raised flooring? A. Mirrored B. Warm C. Cold D. Hot

C. Cold A cold site is a leased facility that contains only electrical and communications wiring, air conditioning, plumbing, and raised flooring. No communications equipment, networking hardware, or computers are installed at a cold site until it is necessary to bring the site to full operation.

Which server could be the source of an inability to connect to a local host by name? A. NAT server B. SQL server C. DNS server D. Web server

C. DNS server If this is not possible, it is a name resolution issue or a DNS issue.

Using which of the following protocols can expose your switches to a switch spoofing attack? A. SSL B. VTP C. DTP D. STP

C. DTP Switch ports can be set to use a protocol called Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) to negotiate the formation of a trunk link. If an access port is left configured to use DTP, it is possible for a hacker to set their interface to spoof a switch and use DTP to create a trunk link. If this occurs, the hacker can capture traffic from all VLANs. To prevent this, disable DTP on all switch ports.

Which of the following behaviors affects a WLAN but not a wired LAN? A. Collisions B. CRC failures C. Interference D. DNS issues

C. Interference On a wireless network, cordless phones, microwave ovens, and other wireless networks can interfere with transmissions. Also, users who stray too far from the access point can experience a signal that comes and goes.

Which is the only security zone in which PII should be located? A. DMZ B. Extranet C. Intranet D. Public cloud

C. Intranet Personally identifiable information (PII)—information that can be used to identify an employee or customer and perhaps steal their identity—should only be located in secure zones and never in the DMZ or the extranet or in public clouds.

In which operating system is iptables used? A. Windows B. Sun Solaris C. Linux D. Novel

C. Linux On Linux-based systems, a common host-based firewall is iptables, replacing a previous package called ipchains. It has the ability to accept or drop packets.

What type of encryption does PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol) use? A. AES B. IPsec C. MPPE D. Triple DES

C. MPPE In VPN operations, tunneling protocols wrap around or encapsulate the original packet when this process occurs. PPTP will encrypt the result using Microsoft Point-to-Point Encryption (MPPE).

Which of the following parts of a MAC address identify the manufacturer of the interface? A. UAA B. BAA C. OUI D. EUI-64

C. OUI Each part of this address communicates information. The left half of the address is called the organizationally unique identifier (OUI). The right half is called the universally administered address (UAA). Together they make a globally unique MAC address.

Which of the following replication methods is the most expensive? A. Bare metal B. Full C. Site to site D. Server to server

C. Site to site Site to site (sometimes called network-based replication) uses Fibre Channel switches to replicate from one site to another. It is also likely the most expensive solution.

Using which pair of configurations will result in a crossover cable? A. T568A and T568A B. T568B and T658B C. T568A and T568B D. T568A and a completely reversed wiring pattern

C. T568A and T568B If the same standard is used on each end, the cable will be a straight-through cable, and if a different standard is used on either end, it will be a crossover cable. If one end is completely reversed, it results in a rollover cable.

Which of the following is used to manage storage in Windows Server 2012 R2 at the command line? A. fdisk B. format C. diskpart D. fstab

C. diskpart In Windows Server 2012 R2, the diskpart command is used to manage storage from the command line.

What file do you edit in Linux to configure the Ethernet 6 interface to be used in a NIC team? A. ifcfg-eth1 B. ifcfg-bond0 C. ifcfg-eth6 D. ifcfg-bond1

C. ifcfg-eth6 To configure Ethernet 6 to be used as a slave by a NIC team, open the ifcfg-eth6 file and edit it as follows. In this case, the NIC team will be created and identified as bond0. # vi /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-eth1 DEVICE="eth1" TYPE=Ethernet ONBOOT="yes" BOOTPROTO="none" USERCTL=no MASTER=bond0 SLAVE=yes

Which if the following occurs when an application is issued some memory to use and does not return the memory? A. Kernel panic B. BSOD C. memory leak D. mantrap

C. memory leak Memory leaks occur when an application is issued some memory to use and does not return the memory and any temporary file to the operating system after the program no longer needs it.

Which of the following is used to test a power supply? A. POST card B. toner probe C. multimeter D. ESD strap

C. multimeter With one basic multimeter, you can measure voltage, current, and resistance (some will even measure temperature).

Which if the following need not be matched correctly? A. multiple CPUs B. multiple memory modules C. multiple network cards D. multiple power supplies

C. multiple network cards While other items require careful matching, it is not required of network cards.

What is typically the solution if an integrated component does bad.? A. replace the component B. replace the socket C. replace the motherboard D. disable the component

C. replace the motherboard Onboard components (also called integrated components) are those that are built into the motherboard. Unfortunately, when these components fail, a replacement of the motherboard is usually required.

Which of the following is an APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) address? A. 168.254.3.3 B. 172.16.5.9 C. 192.168.5.9 D. 169.254.5.6

D. 169.254.5.6 Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a TCP/IP feature Microsoft added to their operating systems. If a DHCP server cannot be found and the clients are configured to obtain IP addresses automatically, the clients automatically assign themselves an IP address, somewhat randomly, in the 169.254.x.x range with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0.

Which of the following is not a private IP address? A. 10.0.0.5 B. 172.16.5.9 C. 192.168.5.9 D. 172.32.63

D. 172.32.63 The Class B range of private IP addresses is from 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255.

Which is the category of cable required for 10 Gbps transmissions? A. CAT 3 B. CAT 5 C. CAT 5e D. CAT 6

D. CAT 6 CAT6 transmits data at speed up to 10 Gbps, has a minimum of 250 MHz of bandwidth, and specifies cable lengths up to 100 meters (using CAT6a).

When the default gateway address is incorrect on the router, which connections will succeed? A. From a local device to a remote device B. From a remote device to a local device C. From a local device to the Internet D. From a local device to a local device

D. From a local device to a local device If the computers cannot connect to the default gateway (which will be the case if the gateway is incorrect), it will be confined to communicating with devices on the local network.

What are you hiding when you disable SSID broadcast? A. MAC address of the AP B. IP address of the AP C. Hostname of the AP D. Network name

D. Network name The service set identifier (SSID) is used as a both a network name and in some cases the magic word that allows access to the network.

Which of the following would Joe use to encrypt a message that only Sally could decrypt? A. Joe's private key B. Sally's private key C. Joe's public key D. Sally's public key

D. Sally's public key To provide encryption, the data is encrypted with the receiver's public key, which results in cipher text that only his private key can decrypt

You receive a destination unreachable message with no source IP address. Where is it coming from? A. A remote router B. A remote DNS server C. A local DNS server D. The local router

D. The local router If the message comes with no source IP address, the message is coming from the local router (the default gateway of the sender). If it has the source IP address of the sender, then it is another router in the path.

Which of the following is NOT a source of slow hard drive performance? A fragmentation B. lack of memory C. Improper data cables D. excessive interrupts

D. excessive interrupts Excessive interrupts effect the CPU, not the disk system.

Which of the following is a short term voltage drop? A. blackout B. surge C. brownout D. sag

D. sag A sag is a short-term voltage drop.

What command is used on a router to identify the routes of which the router is aware? A. ip route B. show route C. route print D. show ip route

D. show ip route The show ip route command can be used to identify the routes of which the router is aware.