KIN 540 Midterm
When conducting a lifestyle evaluation, evidence shows a strong relationship between diet, physical activity levels, stress management and which of the following? a. behavioral patterns b. educational level c. socioeconomic status d. genetics
a. behavioral patterns
Which of the following is not a measure of body composition? a. body mass index b. fat mass c. fat free mass d. body fat percentage
a. body mass index
Which of the following is not a major sign or symptom suggestive of cardiovascular and pulmonary disease? a. bradycardia b. syncope c. orthopnea d. ankle edema
a. bradycardia
Which of the following is incorrect regarding hydraulic machines? a. can only provide eccentric resistance b. incorporate fluid-filled (oil or water) pistons c. resistance can be increased by performing the movement quicker d. there are no external plates or weight stacks
a. can only provide eccentric resistance
Which of the following is said to be a direct measure of body fatness? a. hydrostatic weighing b. autopsy c. skinfold assessments d. bioelectrical impedance (BIA)
b. autopsy
Which of the following is incorrect regarding the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire for Everyone (PAR-Q+)? a. cost effective b. determines the risk for cardiovascular disease c. easy to administer d. identifies individuals who require additional screening
b. determines the risk for cardiovascular disease
Which of the following is an example of internal load? a. distance covered b. exercise RPE c. load lifted d. number of sprints
b. exercise RPE
A client has a 1RM bench press of 300 lbs while weighing 200 lbs. What is their relative strength score? a. 1.5 b. 1.5 c. 0.66 d. 300 lbs
a. 1.5
Evidence suggests that complications from exercise testing are which of the following? a. 6 per 10,000 b. 60 per 10,000 c. 600 per 10,000 d. 6,000 per 10,000
a. 6 per 10,000
Which of the following is true regarding the 12-minute Run/Walk Test? a. based on total distance traveled b. based on heart rate c. carried out at a predetermined speed d. lasts 10 minutes
a. based on total distance traveled
Which of the following grips is used for the barbell shoulder press exercise? a. closed, pronated b. closed, supinated c. closed, neutral d. open, alternated
a. closed, pronated
Which of the following is an advantage of machine-based training? a. enhanced ability to target specific muscle groups b. greater activation of stabilizer muscles c. improved muscle activation patterns in athletic movements d. stronger carryover to sport performance
a. enhanced ability to target specific muscle groups
Which of the following terms is used to refer to the range of motion around a joint or a series of joints? a. flexibility b. laxity c. dynamic stability d. stiffness
a. flexibility
Which of the following is incorrect regarding kettlebells? a. have an equal weight distribution b. are highly versatile c. allow for a variety of exercises in minimal space d. have various sizes of hand grips
a. have an equal weight distribution
Which of the following is a negative risk factor for CVD? a. high HDL b. high LDL c. high blood pressure d. high resting heart rate
a. high HDL
Which of the following is incorrect regarding norm-referenced standards? a. lets the client know whether the performance met a health standard b. used to compare the performance of an individual against the performance of others c. a personal trainer should be able to interpret the test results for clients and educate them on the relative value of their scores d. clients may have no interest in knowing how poorly they performed compared with others
a. lets the client know whether the performance met a health standard
Which of the following is not part of a formative evaluation? a. made upon completion of a training period b. takes place before a program begins c. includes subjective observations d. they offer the personal trainer opportunities to formulate or plan a program
a. made upon completion of a training period
Which of the following is incorrect regarding multiple spotters? a. more than 2 spotters are never necessary b. it is common to use one spotter at each end of the bar during the front or back squat exercise c. multiple spotters must perfectly synchronize when and how much they assist the client d. if the load is beyond the personal trainer?s ability to handle effectively, an additional spotter must be used
a. more than 2 spotters are never necessary
1 MET is equal to an oxygen consumption of 3.5 ml ù kg?1 ù min?1 and is an estimate of a person?s oxygen consumption at ___________ a. rest b. at lactate threshold c. at submaximal exercise intensity d. at maximal exercise intensity
a. rest
Which of the following is incorrect regarding individuals with Type II diabetes? a. they require insulin injections b. their disease is characterized by hyperglycemia c. their tissues are insensitive to insulin d. their condition requires ongoing medical attention and warrants precautions
a. they require insulin injections
Which of the following describes the performance of a forced repetition? a. with help from another person b. involuntarily c. reluctantly d. after muscular failure
a. with help from another person
For men and women respectively, which of the following loads should be used for the YMCA bench press test? a. 40 pounds (18.2 kg) and 15 pounds (6.8 kg) b. 80 pounds (36.4 kg) and 35 pounds (15.9 kg) c. 95 pounds (43.2 kg) and 45 pounds (20.5 kg) d. 135 pounds (61.4 kg) and 65 pounds (29.5 kg)
b. 80 pounds (36.4 kg) and 35 pounds (15.9 kg)
Which of the following is incorrect regarding testing in the heat and humidity? a. high ambient temperatures in combination with high humidity impedes physical endurance performance b. a period of acclimatization to higher temperatures (and humidity) is not necessary for testing in an area with seasonal fluctuations in temperatures c. geographic areas that experience high temperatures along with high humidity may not be suitable for outdoor tests to assess aerobic endurance d. high heat and humidity and cold weather exposure need to be considered in the selection of assessments
b. a period of acclimatization to higher temperatures (and humidity) is not necessary for testing in an area with seasonal fluctuations in temperatures
Which of the following is incorrect regarding HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act)? a. applies to personal and private health information b. a personal trainer does not need to follow HIPAA protocols c. health care providers are required by law to follow a national set of standards d. the personal trainer needs to develop a strategy to collect, organize, and store the vital information and materials obtained through the initial interview process
b. a personal trainer does not need to follow HIPAA protocols
Which of the following is incorrect regarding individuals using medication for high blood pressure (e.g., \gb\-blockers) a. the drugs may affect normal increases in heart rate b. heart rates can reliably be used to measure exercise intensity c. they may have trouble reaching training heart rates d. rate of percieved exertion may be most effective for measuring exercise intensity
b. heart rates can reliably be used to measure exercise intensity
If a client performs the same test twice in succession with two different individuals conducting the test and the scores are vastly different, the test is said to be low in which of the following? a. intrarater reliability b. interrater reliability c. test-retest reliability d. validity
b. interrater reliability
Which of the following is not a part of the SMART acronym for goal setting? a. specific b. motivation c. action oriented d. realistic
b. motivation
All of the following are points of contact with the bench or the floor when an athlete is in the five-point body contact position except? a. head b. right hand c. left foot d. buttocks
b. right hand
Which of the following factors is held constant during an accommodating resistance training exercise? a. external load b. speed of movement c. range of motion d. mechanical advantage
b. speed of movement
Which of the following is incorrect regarding gathering baseline data? a. they establish a baseline for future comparisons of improvement or rate of progress b. the personal trainer should conduct all tests available to them c. they provide assistance in clarification of short-, intermediate-, and long-term goals d. they help to identify of areas of potential injury or contraindications before program initiation,
b. the personal trainer should conduct all tests available to them
When preparing the client for a battery of fitness testing, the trainer should recommend a light snack or meal is consumed approximately how long before the test? a. 30 minutes b. 1 hour c. 2-4 hours d. fasted for a minimum of 8 hours
c. 2-4 hours
Obesity is defined as a value of greater than or equal to which of the following by body mass index (BMI)? a. 20 kg/m2 b. 25 kg/m2 c. 30 kg/m2 d. 35 kg/m2
c. 30 kg/m2
Which of the following would be the most appropriate amount of time following an initial test of strength to schedule a reassessment? a. 1 week b. 2 weeks c. 8 weeks d. 16 weeks
c. 8 weeks
Which of the following is incorrect regarding vital signs? a. includes heart rate b. includes blood pressure c. a personal trainer will only ever measure them in the rested state d. can be used to determine exercise intensity
c. a personal trainer will only ever measure them in the rested state
Which of the following grips is used for the hammer curl exercise? a. closed, pronated b. closed, supinated c. closed, neutral d. open, alternated
c. closed, neutral
The YMCA cycle ergometer test is a _______________. The strand-Rhyming Cycle Ergometer Test is a _________________. a. single-stage test; single-stage test b. single-stage test; multi-stage test c. multi-stage test; single-stage test d. multi-stage test; multi-stage test
c. multi-stage test; single-stage test
What is the most important principle underlying the client consultation? a. assess goals b. motivate the client c. screen participants for risk factors d. educate the client
c. screen participants for risk factors
Which of the following tests require the most practice and preparation for the personal trainer before they can reliably conduct the test? a. timed 1-mile test b. push up test c. skinfold measurements d. sit and reach
c. skinfold measurements
Which of the following is not a typical characteristic of a field test? a. cheap b. easy to administer c. uses specialized equipment d. an example includes a 1RM squat test
c. uses specialized equipment
Which of the following is incorrect regarding cardiovascular disease (CVD) and family history? a. CVD appears to have a genetic connection b. people with a documented family history are more susceptible to CVD c. CVD occurring in a first-degree male relative before 55 years of age is a risk factor for CVD d. CVD occurring in a second-degree female relative before 65 years of age is a risk factor for CVD
d. CVD occurring in a second-degree female relative before 65 years of age is a risk factor for CVD
What is the name given to the sounds of the blood acting against vessel walls heard through a stethoscope? a. Pavlov b. Chekhov c. Selye d. Korotkoff
d. Korotkoff
When spotting over-the-face barbell exercises, the personal trainer should grasp the bar with which type of grip? a. prone grip, outside of the client's grip b. supine, inside of the client's grip c. supine, outside of the client's grip d. alternate grip, inside of the client's grip
d. alternate grip, inside of the client's grip
Which of the following is incorrect regarding the use of instability devices? a. increase planes of motion b. can be used to increase core strength c. can be used to develop muscular endurance d. do not allow for the use of multi-joint exercises
d. do not allow for the use of multi-joint exercises
With regards to the valsava maneuver, the client is instructed to ____________ against a ____________ throat. a. inhale; open b. inhale; closed c. exhale; open d. exhale; closed
d. exhale; closed
If a test appears to measure what it is supposed to measure, it is said to have which of the following? a. reliability b. construct validity c. content validity d. face validity
d. face validity
