Large Animal Final

True or False: Nasal turbinate edema in horses is potentially life-threatening and should be immediately treated

True

All of the following statements about pigs are true except: a) males destined for market should be castrated by 2 weeks of ages b) in the U.S and Canada, barrows and stags cannot be marketed for meat c)scrotal hernias may be bilateral d) inguinal hernias have a hereditary etiology

b) in the U.S. and Canada, barrows and stags cannot be marketed for meat

To desensitize both horns for bovine dehorning surgery, how many total nerve blocks must be performed? a) six b) two c) four d) one e) three

b) two

True or False: Urinary catheterization of male camelids is easy and effective

False

True or False: As a rule of thumb, equine surgical procedures lasting longer than 1 hour should use inhalant anesthesia for the maintenance of general anesthesia rather than injectable drugs

True

True or False: Castration of the horse may be done with the patient either standing or recumbent

True

True or False: Following routine equine castration surgery in which the incision are left open healing of the incision is usually complete within 3-4 weeks after surgery

True

True or false: Camelids should be extubated after an anesthetic procedure when they begin chewing

True

True or false: In horses, intravenous fluid support during general anesthesia is recommended for any procedure lasting longer than 1 hour

True

Piglets are prone to anemia due to low levels of which of the following in sow's milk? a) sodium b) calcium c) iron d) magnesium

c) iron

Which of the following statements about Haemonchus contortus infestation is true? a) it affects only goats b) the Famacha card used in identifying infected animals evaluates the color of the oral mucus membranes c) it causes muscle lesions d) 20% of the flock harbors 80% of the worms

d) 20% of the flock harbors 80% of the worms

which of the following is a desirable respiratory rate for an adult ruminant under general anesthesia? a) 60 breaths per minute b) 6-10 breaths per minute c) 80 breaths per minutes d) 20-40 breaths per minute e) 1-2 breaths per minute

d) 20-40 breaths per minute

The meat withdrawl time for Xylazine is ______ days. a) 2 b) 15 c) 12 d) 5

d) 5

The preferred location for administering caudal epidural anesthesia in the equine is: a) directly over the most distal coccygeal vertebra b) foramen magnum c) lumbosacral space d) mid-sacrum e) first intercoccygeal space

e) first intercoccygeal space

Which of the following local anesthetics has a toxic dose of 13 mg/kg body weight in cattle? a) brutacaine b) lidocaine c) mepivacaine d) bupivacaine

b) lidocaine

The following statements about acepromazine, used to restrain horses during standing surgery, are true except: a) has delayed onset of action b) provides good analgesia c) lowers the seizure threshold d) may potentiate other preanesthetics e) tends to cause hypotension

b) provides good analgesia

Which of the following statements about recovery from general anesthesia in horses is true? a) when xylazine/ketamine is used for induction and maintenance; recovery often is violent. b) encourage the horse to stand as soon as possible c) supplemental oxygen is delivered at a rate of 15L/min d) the horse should be allowed solid foods before water to minimize the risk of aspiration

c) supplemental oxygen is delivered at a rate of 15 L/min

Which of the following statements about blood collection from the porcine cranial vena cava is true? a) large pigs are placed in lateral recumbency b) small pigs are placed in dorsal recumbency with the forelimbs pulled cranially c) venipuncture of the cranial vena allows for collection of large blood samples d) the approach with the needle is toward the left side of the vein

c) venipuncture of the cranial vena allows for collection of large blood samples

Which of the following would NOT be one of the four muscle compartments at greatest risk of developing compartment syndrome in horses? a) masseters b) triceps c) gluteals d) abdominals e) quadriceps

d) abdominals

A horse is placed in lateral recumbency for surgery under general anesthesia. To minimize the risk of developing compartment syndrome, the forelimbs should be positioned: a) with the upper forelimb pulled cranially b) with the lower forelimb pulled cranially c) the forelimb does not matter; the hindlimbs should be pulled cranially d) the forelimb does not matter; the hindlimbs should be pulled caudally

b) with the lower forelimb pulled cranially

Which of the following statements about blood collection from the porcine cranial vena cava is not true? a) the needle is inserted just lateral to the manubrium b) in adult pigs, a 4- to 4 1/2- inch needle is required c) accidentally hitting the vagus nerve can damage the sympathetic nerve supply to the heart d) accidentally hitting the phrenic nerve

c) accidentally hitting the Vagus nerve can damage the sympathetic nerve supply to the heart

Medetomidine, which is used for its sedative effects during the preanesthetic period, is: a) an opioid agonist-antagonist b) a muscle relaxant c) an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist d) a benzodiazepine

c) an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist

Most camelids require hoof trimming about how often? a) it is not necessary to trim the hooves of camelids b) every other month c) annually d) every 6 months e) every other year

c) annually

All of the following statements about IM injections in cattle are false except a) for IM injections on calves, use a 16-18 ga needle b) keep IM injection sites separated by at least 2 inches c) because of the cost associated with injection site lesions, the trend is to avoid IM injections into the hindlegs d) limit the amount of medication injected per IM site to 20 mL

c) because of the costs associated with injection site lesions, the trend is to avoid IM injections into the hindlegs

Which of the following statements about general anesthetic risks in swine is not true? a) accumulated saliva can trigger a laryngospasm b) endotracheal intubation can result in laryngeal edema c) because of their size, hypoexemia has few consequences in adult swine d) Accumulated saliva can occlude the larynx

c) because of their size, hypoxemia has few consequences in adult swine

Which of the following local anesthetic procedures would not be used for a standing flank laparotomy in cattle? a) paravertebral block b) L block c) cornual nerve block d) field block

c) cornual nerve block

Induction of general anesthesia in horses may be safely performed with inhalant anesthetic gases: a) it can't be performed safely b) in adults c) in foals d) in ponies and small adult horses e) in draft horses

c) in foals

Serum blood chemistry levels for creatinine will _____ with kidney disease, and serum creatine kinase levels will ______ with muscle damage a) decrease, decrease b) increase, decrease c) increase, increase d) decrease, increase

c) increase, increase

Following routine equine castration surgery in which the incisions are left open, which of the following is not an expected finding? a) drainage from incisions b) mild swelling of the scrotum and prepuce c) intestine dropping down through the incision d) minimal hemorrhage for the first several hours

c) intestine dropping down through the incision

Which of the following statements about malignant hyperthermia in swine under general anesthesia is not true? a) clinical signs include muscle rigidity b) administering dantrolene is the only specific treatment c) its onset during the surgical procedure is gradual d) it is recognized by body temperature in excess of 107 degrees F

c) its onset during the surgical procedure is gradual

Intravenous regional anesthesia is used primarily for procedures on which area of the body? a) tail b) rumen c) legs d) head e) chest

c) legs

Which local anesthetic should NOT be used for intravenous regional anesthesia? a) bupivacaine b) lidocaine 2% without epinephrine c) lidocaine 2% with epinephrine d) mepivacaine 2%

c) lidocaine 2% with epinephrine

Which of the following is the most common complication during the anesthesia of camelids? a) anemia b) adrenal cortical depression c) nasal edema d) increased heart rate e) increased respirations

c) nasal edema

When performing a C-section, a sheep or goat is most commonly restrained in which position? a) set-up b) ventral c) right lateral d) dorsal e) left lateral

c) right lateral

The preferred patient positioning for a ruminant recovering from anesthesia would be which of the following? a) lateral b) standing up c) sternal d) dorsal e) cranial

c) sternal

Which of the following is the best position for recovery of camelids? a) on their back b) left lateral c) sternal d) right lateral e) sitting up

c) sternal

The preferred patient position for recovery from anesthesia in swine is which of the following? a) sitting up b) lateral recumbency c) sternal recumbency d) dorsal recumbency

c) sternal recumbency

In any given herd, _________ of the cows and heifers will test positive for subclinical mastitis. a) 90-95% b) 70-75% c) 30-35% d) 50-55%

a) 90-95%

Because it is less expensive and least toxic, which of the following local anesthetics is used most commonly in farm animals? a) lidocaine b) bupivacaine c) brutacaine d) mepivacaine

a) lidocaine

How many upper incisors does a mature cow have? a) 0 b) 10 c) 4 d) 8 e) 6

a) 0

In preparation for standing surgery on lambs and kids that have begun consuming solid feedstuffs, food is withheld for _______ and water is withheld for ______ prior to surgery. a) 2-4 hrs, 0 hrs b) 2-4 hrs, 1 hr c) 6-8hrs, 1 hr d) 6-8 hrs, 0 hrs

a) 2-4 hrs, 0 hrsf

What is the maximum volume that can be administered subcutaneously in adult sheep and goats? a) 50mL b) 20mL c) 5mL d) 35mL

a) 50 mL

Which of the following statements about oral medication delivery to swine is not true? a) if an orogastric tube is inadvertently placed into the trachea, passage will be difficult b) most oral medications are delivered to groups of pigs in their water or feed c) placement of an oral speculum occurs when the pig vocalizes d) Piglets are given oral medication while standing

a) If an orogastric tube is inadvertently placed into the trachea, passage will be difficult

Which of the following statements about camelids is true? a) to aid in collecting a fecal sample, haltering and leading the animal to the dung pile encourages defecation b) when collecting a voided urine sample, gently placing a hand at the tail base facilitates the process c) as compared to ruminants, bladder catheterization of male camelids is relatively easy d) when performing abdominocentesis, the needle insertion point is directly to the right or left of the linea alba

a) to aid in collecting a fecal sample, haltering and leading the animal to the dung pile encourages defecation

The normal temperature of sheep and goats would be which of the following? a) 103-105 b) 101-104 c) 99-101 d) 100-102

b) 101-104

Camelids less than _____ kg can be placed on a small animal anesthetic machine a) 500 b) 200 c) 400 d) 300

b) 200

Which of the following statements about mastitis testing is true? a) changes in consistency of the samples used in the California mastitis test correspond to the milk's pH b) the California mastitis test is used on individuals to identify which quarters or halves of the udder are infected c) the California mastitis test is performed on the foremilk d) A milk cell counter provides direct quantification of the amount of mammary gland inflammation

b) The california mastitis test is used on individuals to identify which quarters or halves of the udder are infected.

All of the following statements about blood collection in camelids are true except: a) with the low neck jugular technique, occluding the vein leads to reliable vein distention b) arterial blood sampling in the low neck region is possible but difficult c) in the low neck region, the jugular vein and carotid artery are juxta positioned d) hematoma formation is more common in camelids than in other species

b) arterial blood sampling in the low neck region is possible but difficult

Which of the following statements is not true? a) improperly performed tail docking in sheep can lead to rectal prolapse b) castration of a goat will reduce "buck odor" and eliminate the self-urination behavior c) in the US, dairy goats cannot be registered if they have horns d) Meningitis is a possible consequence of dehorning goats with heat cautery

b) castration of a goat will reduct "buck odor" and eliminate the self-urination behavior

Which of the following would be a common occurrence during a subcutaneous injection in camelids? a) spitting b) kicking c) rearing d) crying e) fainting

b) kicking

If a standing surgery on a horse is performed on an elective vs. emergency basis, withhold grain for ______ and water for _______. a) 6hrs, 2hrs b) grain, hay and water should not be withheld c) 12 hrs, 0 hrs d) 12 hrs, 2hrs e) 6 hrs, 0hrs

c) 12 hrs, 0 hrs

The normal total protein value in llamas and alpacas is ________ g/dL. a) 1.8 to 3.7 b) 9.4 to 10.5 c) 5.8 to 7.0 d) 2.5 to 4.0

c) 5.8 to 7.0

An adult equine undergoes a surgical procedure under general anesthesia. After an uneventful induction and first hour of maintenance inhalant anesthesia, the heart rate and respiratory rate suddenly begin to rise. The mean arterial pressure also rises, and the anesthetist observes nystagmus. The patient is most likely experiencing: a) compartment syndrome b) dangerously deep anesthetic depth c) lightening of anesthetic depth d) malignant hyperthermia

c) lightening of anesthetic depth

Prior to a standing surgical procedure, a veterinarian performs a proximal paravertebral block on the right side of an animal. Several minutes later, the animal is observed to have a lateral spine/body curvature (scoliosis) towards its right side (body bowed with right side convex, left side concave). What is the appropriate course of action? a) an orogastric tube needs to be placed immediately due to gastric tympany b) the animal will have to be euthanized because the nerves have been permanently damaged by the anesthetic c) general anesthesia should be given because the standing position is no longer safe for the animal d) this is a normal and expected response to a proximal paravertebral block; no action is necessary e) emergency resuscitation should begin immediately

d) This is a normal and expected response to a proximal paravertebral block; no action is necessary

True or False: Adult horses under general anesthesia should maintain a minimum respiratory rate of at least six breaths per minute

True

Which of the following statements about camelid recovery from general anesthesia is true? a) Nasal or laryngeal edema can develop during anesthesia and produce respiratory distress during recovery b) placing the patient in lateral recumbency helps vent any fermentation gas trapped in the first stomach compartment c) Camelids attempt to stand immediately after the effects of the anesthesia wear off d) unlike ruminants, camelids are extubated with the endotracheal tube cuff deflated

a) Nasal or laryngeal edema can develop during anesthesia and produce respiratory distress during

Which anesthetic inhalant gas is used at 4%-6% for induction and at 3%-4% for maintenance? a) Sevoflurane b) Isoflurane c) Nitrous oxide d) Halothane

a) Sevoflurane

In llamas, which of the following serum chemistry values increases with dehydration? a) albumin b) aspartate aminotransferase c) total bilirubin d) blood urea nitrogen

a) albumin

Which of the following statements about general anesthesia in sheep and goats is not true? a) an endotracheal tube with an internal diameter of 3-5mm is the appropriate size for adult small ruminants b) the heart rate for sheep and goats under general anesthesia should be between 80 to 150 bpm c) oxygen is administered for 1-2 minutes before the anesthetic gas is introduced d) in animals weighing less than 150lbs, face mask induction is possible

a) an endotracheal tube with an internal diameter of 3-5mm is the appropriate size for adult small ruminants.

All of the following statements about the use of local anesthetics in sheep and goats are true except a) because sheep and goats have a dual nerve supply to each horn, a cornual nerve block is administered at two sites per horn b) lidocaine should not be used in concentrations greater than 2% c) the L block is the most common form of local anesthesia used in sheep and goats d) The dose of local anesthetic used for a caudal epidural should not exceed 0.5mL to 1mL of 2% solution per 50kg body weight

a) because sheep and goats have a dual nerve supply to each horn, a cornual nerve block is administered at two sites per horn.

The preferred age for castration of swine is which of the following? a) before 2 weeks of age b) 2 years of age c) between 3 and 4 months of age d) 1 year of age

a) before 2 weeks of age

All of the following statements concerning camelids are true except: a) camelids are obligate nasal breathers b) determining the fibrinogen level prior to surgery is helpful c) nasal edema is the most common complication of general anesthesia in camelids d) when camelids are moderately sedated, they tend to lie down in sternal recumbency

a) camelids are obligate nasal reathers

Which of the following statements about ruminants under genral anesthesia is not true? a) distention of the rumen is preventable b) fasting of neonates is not recommended c) a cuffed endotracheal tube is used d) ruminants are prone to regurgitation during general anesthesia

a) distention of the rumen is preventable

Which of the following is false about general anesthesia in the foal? a) foals should be prevented from nursing for 12 hours before anesthesia b) foals are allowed to nurse until 30-60 minutes prior to surgery c) foals should be induced in the presence of the mare d) foals can be induced by face mask administration of gas anesthetics

a) foals should be prevented from nursing for 12 hours before anesthesia

Which of the following statements about general anesthesia in horses is true? a) hyperthermia is rare b) the corneal reflex is absent when the patient attains an adequate depth of anesthesia c) hypoventilation is a respiratory rate less than 12 breaths per minute in the adult horse d) bradycardia leads to increased cardiac output

a) hyperthermia is rare

Which of the following statements about pigs is not true? a) in male swine, growth of the maxillary canine teeth is pronounced, requiring tusk trimming b) growth of the canine teeth in female swine ceases after 2 years of age c) during a c-section for treatment of dystocia, fluid support is provided by IV catheterization of the auricular vein d) during a c-section for treatment of dystocia, fluid support is administered initially at a rate of 20-40 mL/kg/hr

a) in male swine, growth of the maxillary canine teeth is pronounced, requiring tusk trimming

Regarding compartment syndrome while the horse is under general anesthesia: a) its risks can be minimized by keeping the MAP above 70 mmHg b) it is serious, but long-lasting effects are uncommon in healthy horses c) its incidence can be reduced by pulling the lower hindlimb forward d) it begins with collapse of the arteries supplying the muscle compartment

a) its risk can be minimized by keeping the MAP above 70 mmHg

Horses are almost always placed in which recumbency for recovery from general anesthesia? a) lateral b) sternal c) dorsal d) ventral

a) lateral

All of the following statements about necropsy in ruminants are true except a) postmortem tympany is rare b) ruminants have a gallbladder c) the kidneys are multilobulated d) finding metal objects in the reticulum is not unusual

a) postmortem tympany is rare

Which of the following statements about intramuscular injections sites is true? a) the lateral cervical muscles are not used for IM injection in show goats b) when using the gluteal muscles for IM injection, a needle at least 2 inches long must be used c) the gluteal region in sheep and goats is well muscled and often used for IM injections d) the longissimus muscle is the most common site for IM injection in sheep and goats

a) the lateral cervical muscles are not used for IM injection in show goats

Regarding urine collection in cattle: a) when catching a voided sample, the initial stream is most representative of the animal's urogenital status b) cystocentesis is possible in calves c) Male cattle can be encouraged to urinate by titillating d_)bladder catheterization in males is virtually impossible because of the suburethral diverticulum.

b) cystocentesis is possible in calves

An animal that has had its horns surgically removed is properly referred to as which of the following? a) scurred b) dehorned c) castrated d) polled

b) dehorned

All of the following statements about injection techniques in swine are true except: a) IV injections and fluid therapy in larger pigs are given in the lateral auricular vein b) fluids administered intraperitoneally to piglets should be hypertonic c) burred needles can cause scar tissue d) IM injections are administered in the dorsal neck muscles

b) fluids administered intraperitoneally to piglets should be hypertonic

Which of the following statements is not true concerning camelids? a) the absence of jaw tone indicates the appropriate time for intubation b) upon endotracheal intubation, feed material can enter the airway c) during general anesthesia, the body should elevated, allowing the head to slope d) camelid eyes are sensitive to opthalmic ointments, and they should not be used during general anesthesia

d) camelid eyes are sensitive to opthalmic ointments, and they should not be used during general anesthesia

a method of castration performed without incising the skin is referred to as which of the following? a) open castration b) occult castration c) inguinal castration d) closed castration

d) closed castration

All horses experience reduced respiratory function under general anesthesia. Which patient position produces the greatest compromise of respiratory function? a) left lateral b) sternal c) right lateral d) dorsal e) cranial

d) dorsal recumbency

Which of the following statements about preanesthetic drug use in cattle is not true? a) xylazine can cause hyperglycemia, which leads to increased urine output b) acepromazine has a tendency to produce hypotension c) anticholinergic drugs are not used to reduce saliva production d) most of the drugs have been approved for use in food animals

d) most of the drugs have been approved for use in food animals

Which of the following statements about pigs is not true? a) many feeder pig operations do not accept pigs with tails b) use of the universal ear notching system is required c) tail biting can cause paralysis of the hindlimbs d) piglets are born with four needle teeth

d) piglets are born with four needle teeth (they have 8)

Caesarean section surgery in swine is performed with the sow in which position? a) standing b) sitting up c) held upside down d) recumbent

d) recumbent

Which of the followign statements about pigs is true? a) umbilical hernias in swine are uncommon b) cryptorchidism in swine is uncommon c) umbilical hernias usually are recognized within a few days after birth d) surgical correction of a hernia is called herniorrhaphy

d) surgical correction of a hernia is called herniorrhaphy