Local Procedures Practice Test
SELLS MEDIUM has an altitude restriction of: A. 10,000 MSL to FL190 B. 12,000 MSL up to but not including FL180 C. FL180 to FL330 D. FL180 to FL510
A. 10,000 MSL to FL190
Student controllers will demonstrate awareness of factor traffic no later than __________ NM, and provide point outs no later than __________ NM. A. 15 / 10 B. 15 / 15 C. 30 / 10 D. 20 / 15
A. 15 / 10
The altitude restrictions for SELLS LOW are: A. 3,000 AGL or 6,000 MSL, whichever is higher, to 9,000 B. 10,000 MSL up to but not including FL180 C. Surface to 10,000 MSL D. 12,000 MSL up to but not including FL180
A. 3,000 AGL or 6,000 MSL, whichever is higher, to 9,000
All crewmembers will be on scope NLT __________ minutes prior to airspace or sim start time for all live and DTOC missions and NLT __________ prior to the start of locally generated sims. A. 30, 15 B. 45, 30 C. 60, 45 D. 30 ,10
A. 30, 15
If the controller loses both radar and IFF for __________ with no expected time of return, they will transmit at SL/IOR direction. A. > 30 Seconds / MIDNIGHT B. < 30 Seconds / MIDNIGHT C. > 45 Seconds / SUNRISE D. < 45 Seconds / MOONRISE
A. > 30 Seconds / MIDNIGHT
What documents will be used when reconstructing and debriefing a mission? A. AFTTP 3-3.CRC, Att. 3 and AFTTP 3-3.IPE Ch.6 B. AFMAN 13-1, vol. 2 and AFMAN 13-1, vol. 1 C. AFI 11-215, AFI 36-2903, and the UCMJ D. All the above
A. AFTTP 3-3.CRC, Att. 3 and AFTTP 3-3.IPE Ch.6
The __________ will provide a brief to crews __________ minutes prior to scheduled airspace / event time. A. OC / 15 B. DO / 45 C. EPT / 30 D. WD / 60
A. OC / 15
The __________ is responsible for coordinating with external airspace agencies; deconflicting, allocating, and tracking the status of VENOM equipment; and documenting these activities on the OC log, forms 4145, 4146, and Daily Activity Log (DAL). A. Operations Coordinator (OC) B. Equipment Checkout Team (ECT) C. Maintenance Operation Center (MOC) D. Weapons Simulation Technician (WST)
A. Operations Coordinator (OC)
Crew members will setup their equipment IAW AFTTP 3-3.CRC, starting with: A. Radios / CIP B. Discovery Chat C. J Chat D. Magnifier
A. Radios / CIP
TRUE or FALSE: At any time while on position, controllers will provide a point-out to the fighters of any traffic within the assigned airspace using BRAA. A. TRUE B. FALSE
A. TRUE
TRUE or FALSE: If the crew must egress the TOC or CSP, they will meet in the parking lot by the volleyball courts. SL/IOR will conduct a headcount and report accountability to the OC who will report the status to the DO. A. TRUE B. FALSE
A. TRUE
TRUE or FALSE: If the local altimeter is MORE than 29.92, pilots will NOT descend below 190 / 230 MSL in YARNELL. A. TRUE B. FALSE
A. TRUE
TRUE or FALSE. VENOM will operate as Tactical Monitor (TACMON) for all live missions. A. True B. False
A. True
TRUE or FALSE: The assist position can be performed by any qualified CRC crew member. A. True B. False
A. True
The ABM/WD will make a recommendation to the blue air flight lead and if no acknowledgement after two calls, ABM/WD will set the appropriate deconfliction measure. A. True B. False
A. True
The purpose of the crew debrief is to identify overall crew/mission DFPs/LPs. A. True B. False
A. True
The GLADDEN / BAGDAD airspace is divided into five airspaces named: A. W, Y, X, U, V B. A, B, C, D, E C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 D. T, U, V, W, X
A. W, Y, X, U, V
The Equipment Checkout Team (ECT) is composed of all of the following EXCEPT: A. WD B. ICT C. WST D. OC
A. WD
F-22s, F-35s and their adversaries will use a __________ range for block adherence and separation of aircraft. A. 10 NM B. 15 NM C. 20 NM D. 25 NM
B. 15 NM
In a double AN/TYQ-23A configuration, how many operator workstations are available in the Tactical Operations Center (TOC)? A. 18 B. 36 C. 24 D. 9
B. 36
The floor for U / W / Y (GLADDEN / BAGDAD) airspace is: A. 3,000 MSL or 1,000 AGL B. 7,000 MSL (5,000 AGL) C. 10,000 MSL D. 2,000 MSL
B. 7,000 MSL (5,000 AGL)
Who is responsible for delegation and accomplishment of all SOT deliverables, to include the mission overlay, profile with M2/M3 plan, and a BC3 ATO manager file? A. WD B. AST C. ICT D. EPT
B. AST
The altitude restriction for BAGDAD ATCAA is: A. 11,000 MSL to FL 800 B. FL 180 to FL 280 C. FL 180 to FL 330 D. FL 180 to FL 510
B. FL 180 to FL 280
This type of stranger/non-player is defined as a civil air traffic inside the lateral and +/- 1K feet of the vertical confines of the airspace, or within 5 NM of the lateral confines on a converging heading. A. Non-Player B. Factor Stranger C. Stranger Danger! D. Non-Factor Stranger
B. Factor Stranger
What document will be used to accomplish Fidelity Checks? A. TADIL-F B. Luke OTL C. AF Form 4145 D. 607 ACS Employment Standards
B. Luke OTL
VENOM integrates with fighter units at: A. Luke, Ground Control, and Kadena B. Luke, Holloman, and Davis-Monthan C. Mt. Home, Hill, and Tinker D. Eglin, Tyndall, and Robins
B. Luke, Holloman, and Davis-Monthan
The _____ is the Net Time Reference (NTR) for Barry M. Goldwater Range (BMGR) operations. A. 607 ACS (VENOM) B. Range Management Office (OVERLORD) C. Range Training Officer (QUICKDRAW) D. White Sands Missile Range (WSMR)
B. Range Management Office (OVERLORD)
The altitude restriction for BMGR A / B / C / D / E is: A. 9K MSL and below B. 10K MSL to FL800 C. 10K MSL to FL510 D. 18K MSL to FL450
C. 10K MSL to FL510
The ATC radars located at Humboldt, Seligman, and Ajo are ARSR-4 radars capable of interrogating modes? A. 1, 2, & C B. 1, 3, & C C. 2, 3, & C D. 2, 3, & 4
C. 2, 3, & C
The __________ will be used to enter airspace assignments (CGRS boxes & keypads) and FSCMs (ROZs, HOTWALLS, and GOALPOSTS). A. Fuel Management Tool (FMT) B. Air Tasking Order (ATO) C. Airspace Management Tool (AMT) D. CRC Simulation Package (CSP)
C. Airspace Management Tool (AMT)
The altitude restriction for GLADDEN ATCAA is: A. 11,000 MSL to FL 800 B. FL 180 to FL 280 C. FL 180 to FL 330 (Max 510) D. FL 180 to FL 450
C. FL 180 to FL 330 (Max 510)
The altitude restriction for AIR-TO-AIR HIGH is: A. 10K MSL to FL 510 B. 10K MSL to FL 810 C. FL200 to FL 800 D. 12K MSL to FL 510
C. FL200 to FL 800
SELLS ATCAA has an altitude restriction of: A. FL200 to FL280 B. FL200 to FL330 C. FL200 to FL510 D. FL200 to FL810
C. FL200 to FL510
What is the call sign of the MQ-1 Predator that operates Monday-Sunday at FL190 along the US/Mexican border with a Mode 3 Code of 44XX? A. IFR B. LATN C. OMAHA D. VFR
C. OMAHA
The red controller will __________ deadman symbology upon red regeneration. A. reset B. make pending C. delete D. make hostile
C. delete
Immediate air strike requests will be input as __________ J3.5, IAW AFTTP 3-3.IPE, Ch. 5. A. friendly B. suspect C. hostile D. neutral
C. hostile
VENOM Scheduling (DOO) will send an email to relevant fighter POCs, VENOM cadre supporting the mission, and the 607 ACS/Live Mission Coordination org box to establish initial contact NLT __________ the duty day prior. A. 0900L B. 1600L C. 1400L D. 1200L
D. 1200L
For control in the Wiley, WSMR, and Talon airspaces Venom uses MSCT data derived from ATC radars and data links. The ATC radars are located at: A. Eagle Peak, West Mesa, Stallion B. Holloman, Oscura, Elephant C. Roswell D. All the above
D. All the above
When recovering from W / Y / U aircraft will exit via __________ and V / X aircraft will exit via __________. A. TANKZ @ 11,500 or 13,500 MSL B. TANKZ @ 10,500 or 12,500 MSL C. TANKZ @ 9,500 or 11,500 MSL D. Both A and B
D. Both A and B
The floor of the YARNELL ATCAA is __________, while the floor of the YARNELL Eastern Shelf is __________. A. FL 230 / 9K MSL B. FL 280 / FL 300 C. FL 330 / FL 180 D. FL 180 / FL 220
D. FL 180 / FL 220
The altitude restrictions for OUTLAW / JACKAL ATCAA are: A. Surface to 10,000 MSL B. Surface to 15,500 MSL C. Surface up to but not including FL 180 D. FL180 to FL510
D. FL180 to FL510
How many ARC-210 radios are installed on the MQ-9 UAS? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
a. 1
When sending a J28.2 to an F-16C, what is the character limit per line? a. 20 b. 28 c. 34 d. 45
a. 20
The ICT is responsible to the ______ for establishing and maintaining TDLs and monitoring data link effectiveness. a. Air Surveillance Technician (AST) b. Joint Interface Control Officer (JICO) c. Mission Commander (MC) d. Section Lead (SL)
a. Air Surveillance Technician (AST)
Which order is a command given to units to stop firing, do not open fire. Missiles in flight will continue to intercept; continue to track? a. CEASE FIRE b. WPNS FREE c. CEASE ENGAGE d. HOLD FIRE
a. CEASE FIRE
The _______ recognizes and controls the effects of EA while maintaining the radar's presentation and emissions using the AN/TPS-75 system displays, EP functions, and switch actions. a. Electronic Protection Technician (EPT) b. Air Surveillance Technician (AST) c. Interface Control Technician (ICT) d. Surveillance Technician (ST)
a. Electronic Protection Technician (EPT)
Which scope scan pattern process includes the leading edge of friendlies plus the leading edge of adversaries plus histories plus 15 to 20 NM? a. Frame The Fight b. Timeline Access c. Rubber Band Zoom d. AOR Sanitization
a. Frame The Fight
________ is defined as a contact identified as enemy upon which clearance to fire is authorized in accordance with theater rules of engagement. a. Hostile b. Bandit c. Bogey d. Neutral
a. Hostile
________ provides assessments of threat capabilities and intentions to the commander, staff, and deployed personnel. a. Intelligence support b. Notifications and warning c. Situational reporting d. Battle Management Command and Control
a. Intelligence support
This J-series message is used by airborne JUs to provide network status, identification, positional information, and relative navigation information. This message also provides air surveillance Precise Participant Location and Identification (PPLI). a. J2.2 b. J3.5 c. J12.0 d. J28.2
a. J2.2
Which Joint Range Extension Application Protocol (JREAP) uses communication links that are multi-participant satellite communication networks? a. JREAP A b. JREAP B c. JREAP C d. JREAP D
a. JREAP A
On a Personnel Recovery (PR) 15-Line Execution Brief, which line # is the condition of the survivor? a. Line 4 b. Line 12 c. Line 1 d. Line 15
a. Line 4
Which of the following links is a half-duplex, netted, secure data link that requires a Net Control Station (NCS) and Participating Units (PU) to operate? a. Link 11 b. Link 11B c. Link 16 d. Link 22
a. Link 11
Informative call that contact cannot be targeted due to EA or radar indications of jamming of A/A beyond visual range (BVR) employment. a. METALLICA b. MILLER TIME c. NEGLECT d. PACMAN
a. METALLICA
What is used as the official record of events that occurred during either in-garrison or real world contingency operations? a. Operations Logbook b. Operations Read File c. AF Form 4146, Mission Briefing Guide d. Mission crew briefing
a. Operations Logbook
According to AFI 11-214, what will the ABM/WD accomplish during check-out, as conditions permit? a. Provide recovery instructions including base status and weather, copy and relay inflight reports, assist in Minimum Risk (Safe Passage) procedures b. Request debrief comments, obtain final fuel, and pass RTB clearance c. Pass final shots, kills, and Mode IV results d. Log aircraft "Fence Out" on AF Form 0-96
a. Provide recovery instructions including base status and weather, copy and relay inflight reports, assist in Minimum Risk (Safe Passage) procedures
________ is a time line adjustment in minutes, always referenced from the original preplanned mission execution time line. a. Rolex b. Slip c. Words d. AWOL
a. Rolex
When a pilot calls ________, he/she is reporting leaving a specific engagement and may or may not reenter. a. SEPARATE b. SLIDE c. BUG OUT d. SCRAM
a. SEPARATE
The ______ phase is comprised of Joint and multinational operations inclusive of normal and routine military activities and various interagency activities are performed to dissuade or deter potential adversaries to assure or solidify relationships with friends and allies. a. Shape b. Deter c. Seize Initiative d. Dominate
a. Shape
For air to surface missions, _________ is a brevity term meaning ROE, PID, coordination of forces, and commander's guidance requirements on the referenced target/track have been satisfied. Target or track correlation, CDE, and clear field of fire must be accomplished prior to employing ordnance/fires. a. TARGET b. INVESTIGATE c. SMACK d. INSPECT
a. TARGET
______ ceases all tactical maneuvering with the terminating aircraft or within a specific portion of a larger scenario. a. TERMINATE b. KNOCK-IT-OFF c. PICTURE d. BEADWINDOW
a. TERMINATE
A proper STROBE response to "RAMBO 1, STROBE 360" is; "RAMBO 1, STROBE RANGE 37, TWENTY-FIVE THOUSAND, HOT, HOSTILE, LEAD GROUP" a. TRUE b. FALSE
a. TRUE
TRUE or FALSE. If the controller cannot correlate a group along the spiked aircraft's azimuth or sub cardinal direction, the controller will respond with CLEAN along the provided bearing, and provide a standard threat call or BOGEY DOPE call to the nearest group. a. TRUE b. FALSE
a. TRUE
TRUE or FALSE: MC/SL certified ABMs may control one side of a mission (4v4 or less) and still perform MC/SL duties. a. TRUE b. FALSE
a. TRUE
________ is a near real time, text based, multi-participant means of communicating and allows for predominantly jam-free communications, similar to radio voice communications, over military networks. a. Tactical Chat b. Text Messaging c. Facebook d. USAF Google
a. Tactical Chat
Which of the following is the purpose of an Altitude Reservation (ALTRV)? a. To facilitate the mass movement of aircraft or other special user requirements b. To alert non-military and non-participating military IFR pilots to areas in which pilot training operations are occurring c. To prevent VFR traffic from flying at specific altitudes d. To segregate military from non-military aircraft on an as-needed basis
a. To facilitate the mass movement of aircraft or other special user requirements
Parent/Deployed Operations Group Commander may waive all or any part of a crew rest period. a. True b. False
a. True
TRUE or FALSE. Aircrew must check in "with exceptions" if there are deviations. a. True b. False
a. True
TRUE or FALSE. Procedural control methods depend on adherence to published procedures with real-time changes directed by the controlling agency based on mission requirements, weather, and competing/conflicting requirements. a. True b. False
a. True
True or False. The MQ9 is Link 16 capable? a. True b. False
a. True
During Air-to-Air training the engagement begins when opposing aircraft initiate visual maneuvers against each other. The _______ participating aircraft determines the maneuvering category. a. altitude of the lowest b. flight lead of blue forces c. altitude of the highest d. flight lead of red forces
a. altitude of the lowest
What is the loiter time of a MQ-9 Reaper at altitude with minimal winds? a. 10-12 hours b. 14-17 hours c. 19-22 hours d. 30-40 hours
b. 14-17 hours
Track symbology will be maintained within ______NM of present radar data, with the vector stick indicating the appropriate aircraft heading. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5
b. 2
When sending a J28.2 to an A-10C, what is the character limit per line? a. 20 b. 28 c. 34 d. 45
b. 28
HIGH is a brevity term meaning CONTACT is greater than _______. a. 30,000 ft MSL b. 40,000 ft MSL c. 42,000 ft MSL d. 45,000 ft MSL
b. 40,000 ft MSL
Which mode 3 code indicates a hijack emergency? a. 7400 b. 7500 c. 7600 d. 7700
b. 7500
Crew rest is free time and includes time for meals, transportation and rest. This time must include an opportunity for at least ______ hours of uninterrupted sleep. a. 12 hours b. 8 hours c. 1.5 hours d. 6 hours
b. 8 hours
The ________ is the primary control agency of the theater air control system for execution of air power in direct support of land operations. a. AOC b. ASOC c. CRC d. AWACS
b. ASOC
When is the LOWDOWN to be is passed? a. 10 minutes prior to PUSH b. At the briefed time, and at initial check-in for late players c. 5 minutes prior to ROLL CALL d. 10 minutes after CHECK-IN
b. At the briefed time, and at initial check-in for late players
Joint Range Extension Application Protocol (JREAP) ________ is commonly used with full-duplex serial data communications. The communication networks can be local, or they can use long haul transmission media such as secure telephone circuits. a. A b. B c. C d. D
b. B
When a pilot uses the term ________, it is a request for information on indicated or closest GROUP in BRAA format (with appropriate fill-ins). a. PICTURE b. BOGEY DOPE c. CLEAN d. BLIND
b. BOGEY DOPE
______ is defined as positively identified as an enemy in accordance with theater identification criteria. The term does not necessarily imply direction or authority to engage. a. Hostile b. Bandit c. Bogey d. Neutral
b. Bandit
The Continuum of Control is grouped into five levels, they are: a. Unlimited, restricted, non-maneuvering, limited, and controlled b. Close, Tactical, Broadcast, Advisory, Autonomous c. Level 5, level 4, level 3, level 2, and level 1 d. Close, Tactical, Unlimited, Broadcast, Advisory
b. Close, Tactical, Broadcast, Advisory, Autonomous
Which form is used at the battalion level and above to submit air support requests when automated request systems are not available? a. DD Form 1990, Joint Tactical Air Strike Request (JTAR) b. DD Form 1972, Joint Tactical Air Strike Request (JTAR) c. DD Form 1990, Air Strike Request (ASR) d. DD Form 1972, Air Strike Request (ASR)
b. DD Form 1972, Joint Tactical Air Strike Request (JTAR)
The intent of the _______ phase is to deter undesirable adversary action by demonstrating the capabilities and resolve of the joint force. a. Shape b. Deter c. Seize Initiative d. Dominate
b. Deter
The _______ will ensure personnel are trained, and procedures in place when required to provide immediate forensic reconstruction of media related to flight safety or critical mission events. a. Mission Commander (MC) b. Director of Operations (DO) c. Air Surveillance Technician (AST) d. Operations Coordinator (OC)
b. Director of Operations (DO)
Site Support is responsible for all of the following duties EXCEPT: a. Ensures personnel services to include medical, food/water, fitness, billeting are met b. Ensuring the integration of C4I systems with a CRC c. Facilitates protocol, public affairs, criminal investigations, administrative supply and transportation issues Facilitates the unit transition to steady state operations
b. Ensuring the integration of C4I systems with a CRC
The read file portion of the _______ centralizes significant, time sensitive issues and procedures that are disseminated to operations personnel. a. Operations Logbook b. Flight Crew Information File (FCIF) c. 4145, Daily Activity Log d. 4146, Mission Briefing Guide
b. Flight Crew Information File (FCIF)
Do not conduct communications jamming on frequency. a. Primary Air-to-Air b. Guard / any predesignated safety c. Primary Air-to-Surface d. SEAD VHF
b. Guard / any predesignated safety
For air to surface missions, __________ is a directive term to verify specified element(s) of ROE, PID, CDE, and/or coordination of forces on the referenced target/track. a. TARGET b. INVESTIGATE c. SMACK d. INSPECT
b. INVESTIGATE
This J-series message is used by JUs to assign mission, designate targets, and provide target information to non C2 platforms. a. J2.2 b. J12.0 c. J3.5 d. J28.2
b. J12.0
Which piece of equipment uses long haul communications equipment to route information between Link 16 terminals and other MIL-STD 3011 Link 16 protocols? a. AN/TSC-179 GMT SATCOM b. Joint Range Extension (JRE) c. Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) d. AN/TRC-215 Remote Radio Secure Voice System (RRSVS)
b. Joint Range Extension (JRE)
______ is used to cease all tactical maneuvering when safety of flight is a factor or when Desired Learning Objectives (DLO) are met or unattainable for an entire scenario. a. TERMINATE b. KNOCK-IT-OFF c. PITBULL d. BEADWINDOW
b. KNOCK-IT-OFF
When passing a CAS 9-line briefing, which items are mandatory read back items for aircrew? a. Line 3 (Distance), Line 4 (Elevation) and Restrictions b. Line 4 (Elevation), Line 6 (Target Location) and Restrictions c. Line 4 (Elevation), Line 8 (Location of Friendlies) and Remarks d. Line 6 (Target Location), Line 8 (Location of Friendlies) and Remarks
b. Line 4 (Elevation), Line 6 (Target Location) and Restrictions
What kind of airspace is used to separate non-hazardous military activities from IFR traffic outside of Class A airspace? a. Restricted Area b. Military Operations Area (MOA) c. Air Traffic Control Assigned Airspace(ATCAA) d. Military Training Route (MTR)
b. Military Operations Area (MOA)
The CRC ______ is the single point of contact for planning, tactical level coordination, and briefing/debriefing of tasked/completed missions. a. Commander b. Mission Planning Cell (MPC) c. Director of Operations (DO) d. Battle Staff Coordinator (BSC)
b. Mission Planning Cell (MPC)
________ is the code word used when an aircraft is in a defensive position and is maneuvering with reference to a threat. a. BREAK b. NOTCH c. SNAP d. OUT
b. NOTCH
________ is a method of airspace control relying on a combination of previously agreed and promulgated orders and procedures. a. Tactical Control b. Procedural Control c. Positive Control d. Electronic Control
b. Procedural Control
What document outlines specific Air Force guidance to compliment ALSA MTTPs on Tactical Chat? a. OPORD b. SPINS c. OPTASK LINK d. ATMO
b. SPINS
If video recordings of missions are made, the minimum classification of the tapes is _______. a. Classified b. Secret c. Top-Secret d. For Official Use Only
b. Secret
________ enables the maximum use of aircrew and ABM/WD, radar, communication, and Situational Awareness to accomplish the mission. a. Close Control b. Tactical Control c. Broadcast Control d. Advisory Control
b. Tactical Control
What is a J12.6 message? a. Mission Assignment b. Target/Sorting c. Controlling Unit Report d. Free Text
b. Target/Sorting
The AN/TPS-75 Radar Set includes which communication links? a. A telephone line b. UHF radio c. A six-channel troposcatter radio d. All of the above
b. UHF radio
Low altitude (LOWAT) applies to maneuvering . a. below 5,000 ft MSL (fixed wing) b. below 5,000 ft AGL (fixed wing) c. below Minimum Safe Altitude d. below 11-2MDS minimums
b. below 5,000 ft AGL (fixed wing)
Before the "FIGHTS-ON" call (or "vulnerability" start time) exercise directors, mission commanders, and ABM/WDs will notify and receive acknowledgment from all aircrews for any scenario changes affecting __________. a. the "VUL" time b. safety of flight (e.g. airspace changes, weather in working area, block changes, altimeter setting) c. ROE d. RTO working frequency
b. safety of flight (e.g. airspace changes, weather in working area, block changes, altimeter
Prior to establishing radio/radar/data link/visual contact (with RPA), manned aircraft will maintain a minimum of _______ feet vertical or _______ nm lateral separation from RPA's expected altitude block or orbit point. a. 2,000 / 3 b. 4,000 / 5 c. 1,000 / 5 d. 3,000 / 10
c. 1,000 / 5
The AN/TPS-75 Radar Set has a maximum range of ______ nautical miles and a maximum altitude of ______ feet. a. 250 / 85,000 b. 230 / 95,000 c. 240 / 95,500 d. 340 / 95,500
c. 240 / 95,500
C2 altitude capability can be off by _____ feet or more. a. 3,000 b. 4,000 c. 5,000 d. 6,000
c. 5,000
Which mode 3 code indicates a loss of radio communications? a. 7400 b. 7500 c. 7600 d. 7700
c. 7600
The ______ is the senior element of TACS and includes personnel and equipment of necessary disciplines to ensure the effective planning and conduct of component air and space operations. a. AWACS b. JSTARS c. AOC d. CRC
c. AOC
The Sensor Operations Team (SOT) is comprised of the following: a. AST and WDs b. AST and OC c. AST, EPTs and ICTs d. STs and ABMs
c. AST, EPTs and ICTs
Which of the following is an airspace in which a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity is conducted? a. Altitude Reservation (ALTRV) b. Air Traffic Control Assigned Airspace(ATCAA) c. Alert Area d. Military Training Route (MTR)
c. Alert Area
______ is an informative or directive call to execute launch-and-decide tactics with the intent to maneuver into the visual arena. a. RAYGUN b. SKATE c. BANZAI d. CHEAPSHOT
c. BANZAI
______ is defined as an air CONTACT whose identity is unknown. a. Hostile b. Bandit c. Bogey d. Neutral
c. Bogey
The ________ ensures AF Form 4145, Daily Activity Log or locally generated equivalent forms are readily available to meet training and operational requirements in support of CRC daily operations prior to the start of mission operations. a. Commander b. Battle Staff Coordinator(BSC) c. Director of Operations (DO) d. Assistant Director of Operations (ADO)
c. Director of Operations (DO)
Which is a fire control order used to direct or authorize units or weapons systems to fire on a designated target? a. XFR CONT b. WPNS FREE c. ENGAGE d. WPNS TIGHT
c. ENGAGE
In a CAS 9-Line, Line 8 is location of friendlies. Which format should friendly locations be passed in? a. MGRS b. Lat/Long c. From target, cardinal direction and distance in meters d. From CP, bearing and range
c. From target, cardinal direction and distance in meters
_______. is defined as "[A/A] Any number of air CONTACTs within 3 nm in azimuth and range of each other" or "[AIR/MAR] Any number of surface CONTACTs within 1 nm of each other" a. HIT b. FLIGHT c. GROUP d. CONTACT
c. GROUP
A Mode 3 code of 7700 identifies which of the following types of aircraft emergencies. a. Loss of Communications emergency b. Hijack emergency c. General emergency d. Fire emergency
c. General emergency
During ________, NLT 10 nm (15 nm for F-22/F-35), GCI/AWACS (or the RTO as long as all players are tracking), will make a "Check Blocks" call. a. All missions b. VFR conditions c. IMC intercepts d. Split wars
c. IMC intercepts
________ is a code word meaning an aircraft will establish visual contact with the cockpit of a track of interest (TOI), attempt communications, and report all observations of activity. a. INVESTIGATE b. TARGET c. INSPECT d. HEADBUTT
c. INSPECT
This J-series message is used to exchange information on air tracks. a. J0.0 b. J2.2 c. J3.2 d. J3.5
c. J3.2
This J-series message is used to exchange tactical information on land points and land tracks. a. J2.2 b. J3.2 c. J3.5 d. J12.0
c. J3.5
Which Joint Range Extension Application Protocol (JREAP) that transmits Tactical Data Link messages over Internet Protocol networks such as Secret Internet Protocol Router Network (SIPRNET)? a. JREAP A b. JREAP B c. JREAP C d. JREAP D
c. JREAP C
Transmit when situations develop that meet KNOCK-IT-OFF criteria as a result of communication jamming. a. TERMINATE b. CEASE BUZZER c. KNOCK-IT-OFF d. FREEZE
c. KNOCK-IT-OFF
________ is a request for the tactical ground picture in an area of interest. TAC C2 should correlate all factor ground systems using the BULLSEYE format. a. STAKE b. SKINNY c. LOWDOWN d. SHOPPING
c. LOWDOWN
Which of the following links is a frequency-hopping, jam-resistant, high- capacity link? a. Link 11 b. Link 11 B c. Link 16 d. Link 22
c. Link 16
________ is a brevity term meaning "no radar warning receiver indications." a. CLEAN b. BLIND c. NAKED d. SILENT
c. NAKED
Which CRC duty certification directly oversees the Site Support section which is the direct link between the UCC and the mission crews? a. Commander b. Interface Control Technician (ICT) c. Operations Coordinator (OC) d. Air Surveillance Technician (AST)
c. Operations Coordinator (OC)
A ______ is a briefed maneuver to minimize closure on the threat or geographical boundary with the intent to reengage. a. NOTCH b. BEAM c. PUMP d. FLANK
c. PUMP
________ is a method of airspace control relying on the positive identification, tracking and direction of aircraft within a given airspace. a. Tactical Control b. Procedural Control c. Positive Control d. Electronic Control
c. Positive Control
BRAA display can be modified under the ______ menu. a. Tracks--->Sensors b. Features--->Bearing and Range Grid c. Preferences--->Pointers d. System---> Details
c. Preferences--->Pointers
Updated WORDS should be followed by a ______: a. LOWDOWN b. SKINNY c. ROLLCALL d. ROLEX
c. ROLLCALL
In a Communications Jamming environment, transmissions required for safety will be prefaced with ________. a. BREAK, BREAK b. ALL PLAYERS, STANDBY c. SAFETY, SAFETY d. CEASE COMMUNICATIONS
c. SAFETY, SAFETY
During the _______ phase the Joint Force Commanders (JFC) seek to seize the initiative through the application of appropriate joint force capabilities. a. Shape b. Deter c. Seize Initiative d. Dominate
c. Seize Initiative
To obtain higher fidelity data on picture dimensions, number of contacts and stacks, what picture building mechanic should WD/ABMs utilize? a. Time Line Assess b. Frame The Fight c. Spot Light Zoom d. Ranged Roll Over
c. Spot Light Zoom
An activity that neutralizes, destroys, or temporarily degrades surface-based enemy air defenses by destructive and/or disruptive means describes which mission? a. Air Interdiction (AI) b. Close Air Support (CAS) c. Suppression of Enemy Air Defense (SEAD) d. Destruction of Enemy Air Defense (DEAD)
c. Suppression of Enemy Air Defense (SEAD)
When calling "TERMINATE", anchor position _______. Use amplifying information if necessary (altitude, type of aircraft, and geographical feature). a. with latitude and longitude coordinates b. with UTM coordinates c. geographically or with a bullseye reference d. relative to the E-3
c. geographically or with a bullseye reference
SLOW is a target with a ground speed of _____-_____ knots. a. 50 / 350 b. 50 / 150 c. 100 / 300 d. 100 / 250
d. 100 / 250
When sending a J28.2 to an F-15E, what is the character limit per line? a. 20 b. 28 c. 34 d. 45
d. 45
Which piece of equipment provides a 3-dimensional, 360 degree view of the airspace? a. AN/TYQ-23A b. AN/TSC-147 JM c. AN/MJQ-1612 TQG d. AN/TPS 75 Radar Set
d. AN/TPS 75 Radar Set
During exercises, exercise directors and mission commanders can use which of the following for separation of aircraft: a. Time b. Space (assigning specific geographical areas of flight) c. Altitude blocks d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Use "TERMINATE" when safety of flight is not a factor and in the following cases: a. Reaching BINGO fuel b. Exceeding area boundaries c. Training rules or other limits met d. All of the above
d. All of the above
What additional information may be provided by the controlling agency/aircrews as required? a. Available Air-to-Air armament b. Available Air-to-Surface armament c. Fuel Status d. All of the above
d. All of the above
When controlling F-16s, at "REDEC" range (45 nm or as briefed), the first to recognize the separation of 45 nm from the closest committed F-16 to the closest adversary group will ________. a. call "45 MILES" b. REDEC each group within targeting depth c. REDEC early enough to end transmission at 45 nm d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Which of the following requirements apply to authorized carriage of live Air-to- Air missiles for other than WSEP firing: a. Aircrew will make a "WEAPONS SAFE" call upon initial check-in, and before each setup following a KIO or terminate b. Do not use the terms "HOSTILE" or "KILL" at any time unless acknowledging a kill call c. Maximum maneuvering category is LIMITED d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Aircraft may not transit or enter the altitude or altitude block of any adversary unless at least one of the following conditions apply. a. All adversaries are beyond 10 nm (15nm for F-22/F-35) b. Tally is established on all aircraft in the group of interest and no conflict with other groups within 10 nm exists, or Not Tally with all adversaries within 10 nm but not a conflict (i.e. no collision potential) based on SA. c. Verbally confirm adversary's hard altitude and maintain required vertical separation d. Any of the above are correct
d. Any of the above are correct
During air-to-air training missions, the ABM/WD will advise aircrew ________. a. bearing, range, heading and altitude (if available) of previously unreported aircraft within 10 miles that are a potential hazard b. when any aircraft approaches within 10 nm c. when they approach airspace boundaries (3nm for fighters and 5nm for nonfighters) or as directed by the ATC agency d. Both a and c
d. Both a and c
The ________ is a ground-based mobile radar while _______ is an airborne radar system. a. AWACS, CRC b. JSTARS, CRC c. AOC, AWACS d. CRC, AWACS
d. CRC, AWACS
Use Terminate procedures when safety of flight is not a factor and in the following cases EXCEPT: a. Reaching BINGO fuel b. DLOs are met or unattainable for a local engagement within a larger scenario c. Exceeding area boundaries d. Communications jamming occurs
d. Communications jamming occurs
________ is a brevity term meaning RWR indication of surface threat in search mode. a. NAILS b. SINGER c. MUD d. DIRT
d. DIRT
The _______ phase focuses on breaking the enemy's will for organized resistance or, in noncombat situations, control of the operational environment. a. Shape b. Deter c. Seize Initiative d. Dominate
d. Dominate
Which order is an emergency fire control order to stop firing on a designated target, to include destruction of missiles in flight? a. ASSIGN b. CEASE FIRE c. HEADS UP d. HOLD FIRE
d. HOLD FIRE
This J-series message provides the location and type of an emergency that requires search and rescue a. J2.2 b. J3.5 c. J12.0 d. J3.1
d. J3.1
If a previously undetected or unreported group appears inside the targeting range and outside the THREAT range, it is named a ______. a. New Group b. Faded Group c. Pop-up Threat d. Pop-up Group
d. Pop-up Group
A _______ call indicates an interrogated GROUP/radar contact that lacks all of the ATO (or equivalent) identification, friend or foe/selective identification feature modes and codes required for the ID criteria. a. DIAMONDS b. CLEAN c. SWEET d. SPADES
d. SPADES
_______ is an informative call that voice deception is being employed. a. BUZZER b. CHATTERMARK c. SNOOZE d. SPOOFING
d. SPOOFING
_______ is an inner GROUP formation with the trailer displaced approximately 45 degrees behind the leader. a. ECHELON b. OFFSET c. BEARING d. SWEPT (with sub-cardinal direction)
d. SWEPT (with sub-cardinal direction)
The _______ phase is required when there is no fully functional, legitimate civil governing authority present for the Area of Operations (AO). a. Deter b. Seize Initiative c. Dominate d. Stabilize
d. Stabilize
The _______ is responsible for detection, initiation, identification, and maintenance for all tracks within the BMA? a. Electronic Protection Technician (EPT) b. Interface Control Technician(ICT) c. Air Surveillance Technician(AST) d. Surveillance Technician (ST)
d. Surveillance Technician (ST)
If the minutes of the actual transmission time is an odd number, what value should be used to find the code on the transmission authentication table? a. The sum of all the numerals in the actual transmission table b. The number that stands for the transmission time rounded up to the next even number c. The actual transmission time plus one number d. The actual transmission time minus one number
d. The actual transmission time minus one number
Who should TAC C2 pass updated WORDS to when they change? a. UCC b. ICC c. MOC d. WOC
d. WOC
Which order dictates that units fire only at targets positively identified as HOSTILE IAW current ROE? a. WPNS FREE b. ENGAGE c. INVES/INTRG d. WPNS TIGHT
d. WPNS TIGHT
During check-in, the ABM, WD, FAC(A), ASOC and JTAC will accomplish the following: a. Authentication (as required) b. Indicate negative/positive radar contact (if applicable), and IFF/SIF status of "SOUR" or "SWEET" c. Provide a brief to include location of friendly forces, civilians and no fire areas d. all of the above
d. all of the above
PAINT is a brevity term meaning _______. a. any AAI/APX interrogation return b. any IFF/SIF return c. a raw radar return d. an interrogated GROUP/radar contact that is responding with any of the specified identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature modes and correct codes established for the ID criteria.
d. an interrogated GROUP/radar contact that is responding with any of the specified identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature modes and correct codes established for the ID criteria.
NAILS (direction) is a brevity term meaning: ________. a. receiving strobes b. [A/S] 2.75-inch flechette rockets c. [A/A] radar warning receiver indication of AI radar in search d. both B and C
d. both B and C
The correct response expected by participating aircraft hearing a "KNOCK-IT-OFF" is . a. immediately works 90 degrees out of the fight / reset CAP b. acknowledge with callsign and cease tactical maneuvering/end scenario c. deconflict flight paths, and address any problems/issues d. both B and C
d. both B and C
During check-out, aircrew will contact the controlling agency with ________. a. weather b. callsign, location, and recovery base or recovery request c. mission results and intelligence d. both b and c
d. both b and c
Broadcast control is a means for ABM/WDs to support air operations in a covert or saturated environment. ABM/WDs provide ______ communications primarily to pass target information to multiple missions by referencing a designated location. a. directive b. comparative c. tactical d. informative
d. informative
According to AFI 11-214, when conducting training missions in a designated airspace, avoiding lateral spill-outs is a responsibility; avoiding vertical spill-outs is a(n) responsibility. a. joint aircrew and ABM/WD / joint aircrew and ABM/WD b. ABM/WDs / ABM/WD c. pilot-aircrew / ABM/WD d. joint aircrew and ABM/WD / aircrew
d. joint aircrew and ABM/WD / aircrew
What criteria must be met for an aircraft to enable the HFF mutation for High Fast Flyer? a. ≥350kts and ≤40,000ft b. ≤600kts and ≥25,000ft c. ≥700kts and ≤40,000ft d. ≥600kts and ≥40,000ft
d. ≥600kts and ≥40,000ft
