Lower Extremity Evaluation Final Exam Review
Improper care of a thigh contusion leading to incomplete absorption of the hematoma, which later produces formation similar to cartilage or bone, is called: A. myositis ossificans traumatic B. Osteopyrexia C. Osteomyelitis D. Myositis dessicans
A. Myositis ossificans traumatica
pain that subsides during activity usually indicates a(n): A. chronic condition B. acute muscular spasm C. stress fracture D. appendicitis attack
A. chronic condition
When an athlete walks into the ATR you notice that he/she is walking with the toe in. This could be a result of: A. femoral anteversion B. femoral retroversion C. hip flexor contracture D. ITB contracture
A. femoral anteversion
Which of the following malalignments causes hypermobile patella? A. genu recurvatum B. genu varum C. genu valgum D. extension lag
A. genu recuvatum
Which of the following is the most common direction for the patella to sublux? A. laterally B. superiorly C. medially D. inferiorly
A. laterally
Injuries to/inflammation of the patellofemoral joint can cause sensations of locking, catching, and/or giving way. What other injury has these same symptoms? A. meniscal tear B. fibular head instability C. OCD D. MCL sprain
A. meniscal tear
When doing passive range-of-motion to an injured athlete's knee, the athletic trainer feels a springy block at the end of the knee extension. This may indicate: A. meniscal tear B. torn ligament C. hamstring spasm D. fractured patella
A. meniscal tear
Which force is the most disruptive to the collateral knee ligaments? A. tension B. compression C. shearing D. rotation
A. tension
All but which of the following tests are used to identify intervertebral disc lesions? A. tension sign B. Beevors' sign C. Femoral nerve stretch test D. Milgram's sign
A. tension sign
When an athlete has an isolated Anterior Talofibular Ligament sprain, which stress test(s) would be positive? I. Anterior drawer II. Inversion talar tilt in neutral III. Inversion talar tilt in plantarflexion IV. Eversion-external rotation
Anterior Drawer and Inversion talar tilt in plantar flexion
An outside hitter on the volleyball team landed on an opponent's foot after blocking the ball. The athlete states that she heard and felt a "pop" in her left ankle. She also says that her ankle turned so far that it felt like the outside of her left ankle was touching the floor. She is unable to bear weight and is complaining of pain throughout her entire left ankle and below her left knee. What injury (injuries) are possible based on this athlete's mechanism of injury? I. anterior talofibular ligament sprain II. Deltoid ligament sprain III. Fibular fracture IV. Medial malleolus fracture
Anterior talofibular ligament sprain, fibular fracture, and medial malleolus fracture
Which of the following comments may lead you to think the patient is suffering from condramalacia ? A. "my knee hurts all the time" B. "when i walk up and down stairs, my kneecap feels like it is grinding" C. "my knee hurts when I sleep" D. "my knee hurts when I straighten out my leg"
B. "when I walk up and down stairs, my kneecap feels like it is grinding"
what special test is used to place a rotator stress on the SI joint by forcing one hip into hyperextension? A. patrick test B. gaelenson's test C. Ely's test D. Fabere Sign
B. Gaelenson's test
A runner reports to you with lateral leg pain and point tenderness over the femoral condyle about 2-3 centimeters above the lateral joint line. The pain occasionally radiates distally to the tibia or proximally up the thigh. What structure could be involved with this injury? A. vastus lateralis B. IT band C. Rectus Femoris D. Lateral collateral ligament
B. IT band
Which of the following muscles does NOT form part of the pes anserine muscle group? A. Gracilis B. Semimembranosus C. Sartorius D. Semitendinosus
B. Semimembranosus
Which of the following occurs at the insertion of the patellar tendon into the inferior pole and is caused by a stress fracture or avulsion due to repetitive forces? A. Osgood-Schlatter disease B. Sinding-larsen-Johansson disease C. Patellofemoral bursitis D. Synovial plica
B. Sinding-larsen-Johansson disease
Lack of hip extension with knee flexion greater than 45 degrees is indicative of iliopsoas tightness, the special test to confirm this is: A. Ober's test B. Thomas Test C. 90-90 straight leg test D. Trendelenburgs Test
B. Thomas Test
Which test can be used as a clinical evaluation tool for the presence of osteochondral defects on the knee's articular surface? A. Thessaly test B. Wilson's test C. Ober's test D. Jerk tests
B. Wilson's Test
If the drawer test with the lower leg internally rotated and tibia pulled anteriorly indicates possible damage to: A. medial collateral ligament and posterolateral capsule B. Anterior cruciate ligament and anterolateral capsule C. Lateral collateral ligament and posteromedial capsule D. Anterior cruciate ligament and anteromedial capsule
B. anterior cruciate ligament and anterolateral capsule
To measure anatomical discrepancy of leg length, measurements are taken between the medial malleoli and the: A. greater trochanter B. anterior superior iliac spine C. umbilicus D. anterior inferior iliac spine
B. anterior superior superior iliac spine
Which of the following activities would be most difficult if the PCL was torn? A. forward running B. backward running C. side shuffle D. knee extension
B. backward running
What is a classic procedure used to determine whether an individual is malingering during the performance of functional and special tests? A. waddell signs B. hoover test C. oswestry disability index D. visual analog scale
B. hoover test
The nerve that innervates the hip adductors is the: A. common peroneal nerve B. obturator nerve C. femoral nerve D. tibial nerve
B. obturator nerve
What is the special test called that is performed by using a blunt object or fingernail that is run across the anterior tibial anterior medial crest of a patient who has suffered an acute head or spine injury to check for an upper motor neuron lesion or spinal cord trauma? A. babinski test B. oppenheim test C. spurling test D. thomas test
B. oppenheim test
Tightness of the ___ can compress the sciatic nerve leading to sciatica. A. sartorius muscle B. piriformis muscle C. iliopsoas muscle D. rectus femoris muscle
B. piriformis muscle
A synovial fold that can cause snapping in the joint a(n): A. meniscal tear B. plica C. fat pad D. osteochondritis
B. plica
The peroneal and tibial nerves are branches of the _____ nerve A. axillary nerve B. sciatiac nerve C. long thoracic nerve D. femoral nerve
B. sciatic nerve
Which of the following is not a sign for a fractured femur? A. thigh deformity B. swelling of soft tissues C. loss of function D. hip internally rotated
B. swelling of soft tissues
How many vertebrae comprise the spinal column? A. 23 B. 30 C. 33 D. 35
C. 33
Which fracture(s) often accompany severe Deltoid Ligament sprains? I. Syndesmosis II. Medial Malleolus III.Proximal tibia IV. Fibula
C. II & IV
An avascular necrosis of the femoral head seen in children 3 to 12 years of age is called: A. osteopryoxymia B. osteomyelitis dessicans C. Legg-Perthes disease D. Femoral epiphysitis
C. Legg-Perthes disease
In a posterior hip dislocation the hip typically rests in what position? A. adducted and externally rotated B. abducted and externally rotated C. adducted and internally rotated D. abducted and internally rotated
C. adducted and internally rotated
Which of the following is NOT one of the four muscles that make up the quadriceps femoris muscle group? A. vastus lateralis B. vastus medialis C. biceps femoris D. vastus intermedius
C. biceps femoris
Progressive degeneration of the articular cartilage on the posterior patella is called: A. patellaritis B. Osteochondritis dissecans C. Chondromalacia patella D. Osgood-Schlatter's disease
C. chondromalacia patella
During the Lachman test, what position is the knee in? A. fully extended B. flexed at 90 degrees C. flexed at 20 degrees D. flexed at 45 degrees
C. flexed at 20 degrees
The Kendall and Thomas tests determine the extent of: A: referred pain down the sciatic nerve from lordotic conditions B. abductor weakness C. flexion contractures D. posterior pelvic tilt
C. flexion contractures
The patrick test detects pathological conditions of the: A. IT band B. True leg-length discrepancy C. Hip and sacroiliac joint D. Flexion contractures
C. hip and sacroiliac joint
What is the space where the spinal nerve roots exit the vertebral column called? A. pars interarticularis B. Neural arch C. Intervertebral foramen D. Foreman magnum
C. intervertebral column
In managing a hamstring strain, which of the following should be avoided? A. immediately applying an ice pack B. Use compression by an elastic wrap C. Stretch by ballistic movements D. Use eccentric exercise in muscle rehabilitation
C. stretch by ballistic movement
A congenital or acquired spasm of the sternocleidomastoid muscle that causes rotation of the chin opposite the side of the tilt is commonly referred to as what condition? A. stenosis B. scoliosis C. torticultis D. spondylolithesis
C. torticultis
If the Q angles measures ___ degrees in a 20 yo female it is considered excessive and can lead to a pathological condition in the patella. A. 0 B. 5 C. 10 D. 15
D. 15
The Iliofemoral ligament prevents excessive: A. Hip extension B. Hip flexion C. Hip adduction D. Hip hyperextension
D. Hip hyperextension
A positive Hughston's posterior drawer test with the lower leg internally rotated indicates possible damage to: A. ACL and posteromedial capsule B. ACL and posterolateral capsule C. PCL and anterolateral capsule D. PCL and posterolateral capsule
D. PCL and posteromedial capsule
Which of the following in NOT true when considering Q angle? A. The Q angle typically decreased as the knee is flexed B. Taller people tend to have lower Q angles than shorted people C. The Q angle helps quantify the line of pull of the quadriceps and the patellar tendon D. The Q angle is the relationship between the long axis of the patella and the tibia tuberosity
D. The Q angle is the relationship between the long axis of the patella and the tibia tuberosity
Which of the following tests does not test for IT band tightness and inflammation of the bursa overlying the lateral femoral condyle? A. Renne's test B. Ober's test C. Nobel's test D. Thompson's test
D. Thompson's test
Which of the following can be an indication of the cervical compression test? A. narrowing of the intervertebral foramen B. degeneration of the facet joints C. irritation of the dural sheath surrounding the spinal cord in the cervical level D. all of the above
D. all of the above
According to Cyriax, the following tissues are considered inert tissues except: A. ligaments B. fascia C. muscles D. bones
D. bones
The spinal column plays a role in protection and ROM. The ____ segment has the greatest ROM and the ___ segment offers the greatest protection. A. lumbar; thoracic B. cervical; lumbar C. thoracic; cervical D. cervical; thoracic
D. cervical; thoracic
Which bursa is located between the patellar tendon and the tibia? A. prepatellar bursa B. suprapatellar bursa C. subcutaneous infrapatellar bursa D. deep infrapatellar bursa
D. deep infrapatellar bursa
Which of the following in NOT a documented special test to identify trauma to the posterolateral corner of the knee and/or PLRI? A. dynamic posterior shift test B. External rotation (dial) test C. Reverse-pivot shift test D. internal rotation recurvatum test
D. internal rotation recurvatum test
The deep tendon reflex for L4 can be elicited at which tendon? A. achilles B. biceps C. triceps D. patellar
D. patellar
The tibial nerve innervates all of the following except the: A. long head of the biceps femoris B. Semitendinosus C. Semimembranosus D. Short head of the biceps femoris
D. short head of the biceps femoris
A condition found mostly in boys between the ages of 10 and 17 that produces hip and knee pain during passive and active motion is: A. Legg-Perthes disease B. Osteitis pubis C. Snapping hip phenomenon D. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
D. slipped capital femoral epiphysis
A condition found mostly in boys between the ages of 10 to 17 that produces hip and knee pain during passive and active motion is: A. Legg-Perthes disease B. Osteitis pubis C. snapping hip phenomenon D. slipped capital femoral epiphysis
D. slipped capital femoral epiphysis
A gymnast reports to the athletic trainer with a complaint of low back pain, which has been present for approximately 1 week. After being sent to the doctor for evaluation, a "scottie dog" defect is seen on x-ray. This finding confirms which condition? A. fractured transverse process of a vertebra B. fractured demifacet of a vertebra C. spondylolisthesis D. spondylolysis
D. spondylolysis
patellar tendinopathies most often have an insidious onset and are common in all but which of these activities? A. high jump B. cross country runners C. weightlifting D. swimming
D. swimming
The anterior cruciate ligament is most vulnerable to injury when: A. the knee is varus and the tibia is internally rotated B. the knee is varus and the tibia is externally rotated C. the knee is valgus and the tibia is internally rotated D. the knee is valgus and the tibia is externally rotated
D. the knee is valgus and the tibia is externally rotated
Which of the following tests does not test for iliotibial band tightness and inflammation of the bursa overlying the lateral femoral condyle? A. Renne's test B. Nobel's test C. Ober's test D. Thompson's test
D. thompson's test
A 21 yo male soccer player is complaining of pain on the back of his heel. The pain increases with activity and diminishes with rest. His soccer shoes rub against the back of his heel when he plays and this also bothers him. Based on his limited history, what injury(ies) are you most suspicious of? I. Achilles tendonitis II. Tarsal tunnel syndrome III. Gastrocnemius strain IV. retrocalcaneal bursitis
I & IV: Achilles tendonitis & retrocalcaneal bursitis
The most common site for stress fractures of the femur is the femoral A. head B. shaft C. neck D. condyles
Neck
Ankle fracture tests:
Squeeze test, bump test
From question #3 what would you expect to find during you evaluation if the athlete had retrocalcaneal bursitis? a. "pump bump" (secondary to irritation from improperly fitting shoes) b. decreased dorsiflexion PROM c. positive Thompson test d. there is no way to evaluate this injury
a. "pump bump" (secondary to irritation from improperly fitting shoes)
How many intervertebral disks are found along the spinal column? a. 23 b. 21 c. 25 d. 27
a. 23
Which myotome is being tested when an athlete is asked to flex the hip while short sitting? a. L1 & L2 b. L2 & L3 c. L3 & L4 d. L4 & L5
a. L1 & L2
Which dermatome is innervated by the femoral cutaneous nerve? a. L3 b. L4 c. L5 d. S1
a. L3
Pain that subsides during activity usually indicates a(n): a. chronic condition b. stress fracture c. acute musclar spasm d. appendicitis attack
a. chronic condition
Hyperextension of the MTP joint and flexion of the PIP & DIP joints of the great toe is called: a. claw toe b. paronychia c. hammer toe d. turf toe
a. claw toe
From question #3 what would you expect to find during you evaluation if the athlete had achilles tendonitis? a. crepitus on palpation b. positive homan test c. positive thomas test d. there is no way to evaluate this injury
a. crepitus on palpation
From question #15, what would you expect to find during your evaluation if the athlete had a metatarsal stress fracture? a. dull pain over the fracture site b. DVT c. positive Mulder's sign d. hallux rigidus
a. dull pain over the fracture site
The primary function of the anterior longitudinal ligament is to limit what spinal motion? a. extension b. lateral flexion c. rotation d. flexion
a. extension
The main bearer of weight in the foot is the ray between: a. first cuneiform and first metatarsal b. first cuneiform and second metatarsal c. second cuneiform and first metatarsal d. second cuneiform and second metatarsal
a. first cuneiform and first metatarsal
When determining a treatment and rehabilitation program, which evaluation should be used as a baseline? a. initial evaluation b. re-evaluation c. discharge evaluation d. all of the above
a. initial evaluation
The plane that separates the body into right and left halves is: a. midsagittal b. coronal c. transverse d. frontal
a. midsagittal
A blow to the fibular head can contuse the: a. peroneal nerve b. sciatic nerve c. saphenous nerve d. tibial nerve
a. peroneal nerve
What bones form the ankle joint? a. tibia, fibula, talus b. tibia, navicular, fibula c. tibia, fibula, calcaneus d. talus, calcaneus, fibula e. talus, navicular, calcaneus
a. tibia, fibula, talus
What is the function of the intervertebral discs? a. to serve as shock absorbers of longitudinal forces b. all of the above c. to increase the ROM available to the spinal column d. to serve as shock absorbers or rotational forces
all of the above.
An athlete who has been identified as having planus feet may be more susceptible to what type of fracture? a. bimalleolar fracture b. Jones fracture c. fibular stress fracture d. tibial stress fracture
b. Jones fracture
Which of the following conditions occurs when one area of the talus bone does not fuse with the rest of the talus during growth? a. tarsal collition b. Os trigonum syndrome c. Osgood trigonum d. Tenosynovitis
b. Osgood trigonus syndrome
Movement away from the midline of the body is called: a. flexion b. abduction c. pronation d. valgus
b. abduction
Which ligament is most likely involved in a "high ankle sprain?" a. anterior proximal tibiofibular ligament b. anterior distal tibiofibular ligament c. posterior proximal tibiofibular ligament d. posterior distal tibiofibular ligament
b. anterior distal tibifibular ligament
A condition that occurs when the tissue fluid pressure has increased because of the confines of the fascia and/or bone resulting in compression of the muscles, nerves, and blood vessels called: a. shin splints b. compartment syndrome c. tibial periostitis d. plantar fasciitis
b. compartment syndrome
Following multiple ankle sprains over the course of the year, the AT detects some weakness of the invertors and evertors of an athlete's ankle. Which of the following muscles does not invert the ankle? a. tibialis posterior b. extensor digitorum longus c. flexor digitorum longus d. flexor hallucis longus
b. extensor digitorum longus
Which test would be most accurately assess medial joint pain on the ankle? a. external rotation test in dorsiflexion b. external rotation test in plantarflexion c. kleiger's test in dorsiflexion d. talar tilt stress test in inversion
b. external rotation test in plantarflexion
What quick test can be performed to check if the nerve root L5 is intact? a. have the patient flex hip b. have patient extend his or her great toe c. negative Thompson test d. have the patient flex his or her knee
b. have patient extend his or her great toe
what is the classic procedure used to determine whether an individual is malingering during the performance of functional and special tests? a. waddell sign b. hoover test c. oswestry disability index d. visual analog scale
b. hoover test
From question #15, the athlete with tarsal coalition would be expected to have which type of foot? a. rigid pes planus b. hypermobility of talocrural joint c. rigid pes cavus d. ADD of forefoot
b. hypermobility of talocrural joint
An overactive reflex is termed: a. areflexia b. hyperreflexia c. hyporeflexia d. relaxation
b. hyperreflexia
Which vein is sometimes visible anterior to medial malleolus? a. tibial vein b. long saphenous vein c. short saphenous vein d. dorsal pedal artery
b. long saphenous vein
From question #15, what would you expect to find during your evaluation if the athlete had Morton's neuroma? a. pain on palpation between the fourth and fifth metatarsal heads b. pain on palpation between the third and fourth metatarsal heads c. history of a blow to the arch d. positive Tinel's sign
b. pain on palpation between the third and fourth metatarsal heads
Which of the following is an abnormal end feel? a. bone-to-bone b. springy block c. capsular feel d. soft tissue approximation
b. springy block
You refer an athlete to the team orthopedist to rule out a Jones fracture. The physician calls you to confirm that the athlete does have a fifth metatarsal fracture but not a Jones fracture. In what case would the fifth metatarsal fracture not be a Jones fracture? a. the fracture is a transverse fracture b. the fracture is more than 1 cm from the proximal diaphysis of the fifth metatarsal c. the fracture is an avulsion fracture d. the fracture is non-displaced e. the fracture is where the bone changes shape and direction
b. the fracture is more than 1 cm from the proximal diaphysis of the fifth metatarsal
An athlete may have a fibular shaft fracture but still be able to pass functional tests because: a. the fibula serves primarily as a site for muscle attachment b. the majority of weight bearing forces is transmitted to the body through the talus c. the muscles attaching to the fibula act to splint the fracture site d. the fibula is enclosed deep within the lateral compartment
b. the majority of the weight bearing forces is transmitted to the body through the talus
An athlete may have a fibular shaft fracture but still able to pass functional tests because: a. the fibular serves primarily as a site for muscle attachment b. the majority of weight bearing forces are transmitted to the body through the talus c. the muscles attaching to the fibula act to splint the fracture sit d. the fibula is enclosed deep within the lateral compartment
b. the majority of weigh bearing forces are transmitted to the body through the talus
The anterior compartment is compromised of which muscles? a. gastrocnemius & soleus b. tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, and extensor hallucis longus c. gastrocnemius, tibialis posterior, flexor digiti minimi brevis, and flexor hallucis longus d. tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, and flexor hallicus longus
b. tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, and extensor hallucis longus
Which of the following is not a part of the deltoid ligament? a. anterior tibiotalar ligament b. tibiofibular ligament c. tibionavicular ligament d. tibiocalcaneal ligament
b. tibiofibular ligament
The normal range for toe flexion is: a. 75 degrees b. 50 degrees c. 35 degrees d. 15 degrees
c. 35 degrees
Sever's disease is traction apophysitis at the: a. peroneus brevis insertion on the base of the fifth metatarsal b. tibialis posterior insertion on the naviuclar c. achilles tendon insertion on the calcaneus d. extensor hallicus longus insertion on the great toe
c. achilles tendon insertion on the calcaneus
When an athlete has a medial ankle sprain, that athletic trainer must also suspect: a. vascular damage b. torn cartilage c. an avulsion fracture d. that an extreme amount of swelling will take place e. a ruptured joint capsule
c. an avulsion fracture
A common injury in the lower leg of athletes who run downhill for an extended period of time is : a. retrocalcaneal bursitis b. posterior tibialis tendinitis c. anterior tibialis tendinitis d. peroneal tendinitis
c. anterior tibialis tendinitis
What is the first cervical vertebra commonly called? a. axis b. atlanto c. atlas d. axial
c. atlas
The menisci are attached to the tibial plateau by what structure? a. arcuate ligament b. collateral ligaments c. coronary ligaments d. cruciate ligaments
c. coronary ligaments
What is the alternate name for the syndesmosis between the tibia and fibula? a. subtalar ligament b. calcaneofibular ligament c. cural interosseous ligament d. anterior distal tibiofibular ligament
c. cural interosseous ligament
From question #3 what would you expect to find during your evaluation if the athlete had a gastrocnemius strain? a. decreased plantar flexion strength with the knee flexed b. decreased plantar flexion strength with the tibia internally rotated c. decreased plantar flexion strength with the knee extended d. decreased plantar flexion strength with the femur internally rotated
c. decreased plantar flexion strength with the knee extended
A patient is able to extend the leg (knee extension) against gravity but cannot overcome any other resistance. The grade for this MMT is: a. Normal (5/5) b. Good (4/5) c. Fair (3/5) d. Poor (2/5)
c. fair (3/5)
What is the normal end-feel for plantarflexion of the talocural joint? a. soft b. empty c. firm d. hard
c. firm
A diminished reflex is termed: a. areflexia b. hyperreflexia c. hyporeflexia d. relaxation
c. hyporeflexia
Which of the following describes the first sacral vertebra failing to unite with the remainder of the sacrum? A. lamination b. sacralization c. lumbarization d. delamination
c. lumbarization
If an athlete has an infection in the body the most likely to identify this would be: a. bone b. tendon c. lymph nodes d. abdomen
c. lymph nodes
A painful condition involving partial or complete separation of a piece of articular cartilage or subchondral bone is: a. chondromalcia b. Osgood-Schlatter disease c. Osteochondritis dissecans d. Larsen-Johansson disease
c. osteochondritis dissecans
From question #15, what would you expect to find during you evaluation if the athlete had plantar fasciitis? a. decreased dorsiflexion strength b. Feiss' line c. pain on palpation of the medial calcaneal tubercle d. tight deep posterior compartment musculature
c. pain on palpation of the medial calcaneal tubercle
An athlete has received a blow to the anterior knee and has diffuse extra-articular swelling and cannot perform a quad set. What injury do you suspect? A. anterior cruciate tear B. posterior cruciate tear C. patellar fracture D. popliteal bursitis
c. patellar fracture
Foot drop may be indicative of what pathology? a. tibial nerve injury b. plantar fasciitis c. peroneal nerve injury d. dorsal pedal artery impairment
c. peroneal nerve injury
_____ subluxation can be overlooked or confused with an ankle sprain because it also gives a feeling of instability and pain over the lateral malleolus a. subtalar joint b. syndesmosis c. peroneal tendon d. tibialis posterior tendon
c. peroneal tendon
Sciatic nerve dysfuntions symptoms can result commonly from a muscle spasm of which of the following? a. gluteus maximus b. sartorius c. piriformis d. gluteus medius
c. piriformis
Which position is most advantageous for palpating the dome of the talus a. dorsiflexion and inversion b. plantarflexion and eversion c. plantarflexion and inversion d. dorsiflexion and eversion e. dorsiflexion without inversion or eversion
c. plantarflexion and inversion
Several overuse injuries to the medial aspect of the foot and leg have been attributed to: a. excessive heel contact b. prolonged supination c. prolonged pronation d. running on the toes
c. prolonged pronation
Several overuse injuries to the medial aspect of the foot and leg have been attributed to: a. excessive heel contact b. prolonged supination c. prolonged pronation d. running on the toes
c. prolonged pronation
Excessive ______ is often associated with chronic achilles tendon injury, plantar fasciitis, and medial tibial stress syndrome. a. inversion b. eversion c. pronation d. supination
c. pronation
what is the primary flexor of the spine? a. transverse abdominis b. internal oblique c. rectus abdominis d. external oblique
c. rectus abdominis
Spasm or tightness of what muscle can cause thoracic outlet syndrome? a. splenius cervicis b. splenius capitis c. scalenes d. longus colli
c. scalenes
Because the medial and lateral condyles of the femur differ somewhat in size, shape, and orientation, the tibia rotates laterally on the femur during the last few degrees of extension. This action is the: a. loose packed position b. gliding c. screw home mechanism d. tibial shift
c. screw home mechanism
An example of a normal bone-to-bone endpoint is found when: a. the knee is fully flexed b. the hip is fully flexed c. the elbow is fully extended d. the shoulder is completely abducted
c. the elbow is fully extended
In an effort to accurately assess the extent of a musculoskeletal injury, it is vitally important to know: a. the athlete's medical history b. the conditions of the playing field c. the mechanism of the injury d. pre-existing congenital conditions
c. the mechanism of injury
what is the muscle group that is formed by the semispinalis, multifidis, and the rotator muscles? a. iliocostalis b. longissimus c. transversospinal group d. erector spinae group
c. transverospinal group
The normal ROM for dorsiflexion of the ankle is a. 5 degrees b. 10 degrees c. 15 degrees d. 20 degrees
d. 20 degrees
The SI dermatome contains which of he following structures a. knee b. lateral thigh c. medial calf d. 5th toe
d. 5th toe
A crushing injury to the deep peroneal nerve causes the muscle(s) in which compartment will be weakened? a. lateral compartment b. posterior compartment c. medial compartment d. anterior compartment
d. anterior compartment
If an athlete steps in a hole and the ankle is forced into dorsiflexion, which ligament is involved? a. anterior talofibular b. interosseous membrane c. calcaeofibular d. anterior tibiofibular
d. anterior tibiofibular
Immediately care of acute anterior compartment syndrome involves all of the following but: a. physician referral b. rest c. cryotherapy d. compression
d. compression
An athlete has sustained an ankle dislocation. Which pulse should be palpated to determine involvement of vascular structures? a. posterior tibial b. saphenous c. plantar pedal d. dorsal pedal e. fibular
d. dorsal pedal
With excessive dorsiflexion and inversion, the talus is thrust laterally and can: a. disrupt the tibiofibular syndesmosis b. fracture the medial malleolus c. dislocate the transverse tarsal joint d. fracture the lateral malleolus
d. fracture the lateral malleolus
According to Cyriax, if muscle is strong and painless upon contraction is has a. a minor lesion b. a complete rupture c. a gross lesion d. normal muscle
d. normal muscle
The deep tendon reflex for L4 can be elicited at which tendon? a. achilles b. biceps c. triceps d. patellar
d. patellar
Which of the following muscles allows for internal rotation of the tibia? a. biceps femoris b. gastrocnemius c. vastus medialis d. popliteus
d. popliteus
From question #6 what would you expect to find during your evaluation if the athlete had tarsal tunnel syndrome? a. decreased tibialis anterior strength b. pes cavus c. drop foot d. positive Tinel sign
d. positive tinel sign
A soccer player lacking a shin guard has sustained a traumatic blow to the lower leg. He is unable to dorsiflex and invert the ankle. Which of the following conclusions would you make? a. the athlete has sustained an injury to the lateral compartment, so integrity of the peroneal artery should be assessed b. the athlete has sustained an injury to the anterior compartment, so integrity of the peroneal artery should be assessed c. the athlete has sustained an injury to the superficial posterior compartment, so integrity of the posterior tibial artery should be assessed d. the athlete has sustained an injury to the anterior compartment, so integrity of the anterior tibial artery should be assessed.
d. the athlete has sustained an injury to the anterior compartment, so integrity of the the anterior tibial artery should be assessed
The ____ nerve innervates the superficial posterior compartment of the leg. a. deep peroneal b. superficial peroneal c. saphenous d. tibial
d. tibial
An athlete who has been identified as having planus feet may be more susceptible to what type of fracture? a. bimalleolar fracture b. Jones fracture c. fibular stress fracture d. tibial stress fracture
d. tibial stress fracture
Which of the following demonstrated the order of bony palpation from proximal to distal? a. peroneal tubercle, cuboid, third cuneiform, styloid process at base of fifth metatarsal b. sinus tarsi, dome of the talus, second cuneiform, styloid process at base of fifth metatarsal c. medial calcaneal tubercle, first cuneiform, navicular tubercle, first metatarsal, medial sesamoid of the great toe d. calcaneus, talar head, navicular, sustentaculum tali, sinus tarsi, first cuneiform e. calcaneus, sustentaculum tali, talar head, navicular tuberosity, first cuneiform
e. calcaneus, sustentaculum tali, talar head, navicular tuberosity, first cuneiform
Lateral ligament injury tests:
inversion talar tilt, anterior drawer
Medial ligament injury
kleiger's test, eversion talar tilt
which ligament forms the posterior margin of the vertebral canal? a. interspinous ligament b. supraspinous ligament c. ligamentum flavum d. ligamentum nuchae
ligamentum flavum
Repeated stress on the pubic symphysis and adjacent bony structures by the pull of muscles in the area causes: A. osteomyelitis B. pubic apophysitis C. osteitis pubis D. osteochondrosis
osteitis pubis
A 32 yo female recreational runner has pain along the bottom of her foot. The pain has been present for about a month and is worst in the morning. The athlete reports that she has very flat feet and denies any recent changes in her training schedule. Based on this limited history what injury(ies) are you most suspicious of? I. plantar fasciitis II. tarsal coalition III. metatarsal stress fracture IV. morton's neuroma
plantar fasciitis & metatarsal stress fracture
