marketing polylearn quizzes
Students of marketing often overlook or underestimate the importance of place in the marketing mix simply because A. it happens behind the scenes. B. the product itself is so much more important. C. it occurs after making pricing decisions. D. no one is directly in charge of place decisions. E. it conflicts with promotion.
A. it happens behind the scenes.
If many consumers in the marketplace are familiar with a brand and what it stands for and have an opinion about the brand, the brand has considerable A. integration. B. equity. C. depth. D. awareness. E. extension.
D. awareness
As part of her company's SWOT analysis, Valerie is assessing the company's internal environment, including A. the economy. B. demographics. C. competition. D. strengths and weaknesses. E. opportunities and threats.
D. strengths and weaknesses.
On the basis of the research it has gathered on consumer perceptions, the tests it has conducted, and competitive considerations, the XYZ firm confirms its target market (or markets) and decides how its product will be positioned. Then the firm finalizes the remaining marketing mix variables for the new product, including the marketing budget for the first year. This process illustrates A. the company's evaluation of results. B. beta testing. C. alpha testing. D. the product launch. E. premarket demonstrations.
D. the product launch.
________ offer a limited assortment of general merchandise at very low prices. A. Category specialists B. Off-price retailers C. Discount stores D. Department stores E. Extreme-value retailers
E. Extreme-value retailers (small, full-line discount stores)
Which of the following groups has never lived without easy access to the Internet and other digital technologies? A. Generation Y B. Baby Boomers C. Generation X D. Generation W E. Generation Z
E. Generation Z
Firms use a differentiated targeting strategy because A. it is easier than mass marketing. B. banks are more willing to extend credit to companies with this strategic approach. C. it is better than focusing on individual or small groups of potential customers. D. most market segments are too small to be profitable. E. it helps obtain a bigger share of the market
E. it helps obtain a bigger share of the market
T/F: The three elements of the consumer's immediate environment are the company, competition, and corporate partners.
True
Nearly what percentage of U.S. adults now recycle their soda bottles and newspapers?
50%
Creative locations, such as kiosks at the baggage claim in airports or small booths in grocery stores, represent Starbucks' effort to improve its offering on which dimension of the marketing mix? A. place B. price C. promotion D. product E. perception
A. Place
Full-line discount, category specialist, and specialty stores are all types of ________ retailers. A. general merchandise B. limited demand C. price sensitive D. food E. special appeal
A. general merchandise (all general merchandise retailers that may carry a wide range of products)
The strategic marketing planning process A. is not always sequential. B. is frequently used in reverse. C. forces marketing managers to think rationally. D. begins with establishing specific, measurable outcomes. E. is a five-step process that should always be completed in order.
A. is not always sequential. (It suggests that managers follow a set sequence when they make strategic decisions, but actual planning processes can move back and forth among these steps.)
Which ethnic group tends to be not only more affluent and suburban than previously thought, but also younger, with 47 percent between the ages of 18 and 49 years?
African American
A product is ________ that can be offered through a voluntary marketing exchange. A. the combination of a firm's marketing mix B. anything of value to consumers C. the brand associations D. a tangible item E. the category depth
B. anything of value to consumers
Commercial research firms such as IRI, the National Purchase Diary Panel, and Nielsen are sources of A. data mining. B. public data. C. syndicated data. D. primary data. E. internal secondary data.
C. syndicated data. (secondary data that can be purchased from firms that collect it.)
________ is another term for private-label brands. A. Manufacturer's brands B. Off brands C. Experiential brands D. National brands E. Store brands
E. Store brands
A relational orientation is based on the philosophy that buyers and sellers develop A. a marketing value transaction focus. B. a price-value comparison matrix. C. a complete understanding of one another's needs. D. supply chain synergy. E. a long-term relationship.
E. a long-term relationship.
A ________ refers to the use of the same brand in a different product line. A. co-brand B. product mix extension C. brand license D. line extension E. brand extension
E. brand extension
The complete set of all products offered by a firm is called its Select one: A. product breadth. B. product line depth. C. product categories. D. product line. E. product mix
E. product mix
T/F: A disadvantage to using secondary data is that they might not be precisely relevant to the information needed.
True
T/F: Convenience for the customer is seldom a factor for manufacturers when choosing a retail partner.
false
T/F: Retailers generally have no prior knowledge of the merchandise they will be receiving from suppliers in any particular shipment.
false
T/F: Retailers who advertise that they sell at wholesale prices are wholesalers.
false
__________ represents all the activities necessary to get the product to the right customer when that customer wants it. A. Place B. Social media C. Value cocreation D. Supply chain marketing E. Promotion
place
T/F: A product is anything that is of value to a consumer and can be offered through a voluntary marketing exchange.
true
T/F: Brands enable customers to quickly differentiate one firm or product from another.
true
T/F: Category specialists are also known as category killers.
true
T/F: Today, large retailers dictate to their suppliers what should be made.
true
________ segmentation is the most common basis of consumer market segmentation because these segments are easy to define and usually easy to reach. A. Behavioral B. Geographic C. Demographic D. Benefits E. Psychographic
C. Demographic
In a retail supply chain, the ________ records the purchase information and electronically sends it to the corporate office. A. VMI B. data warehouse C. POS terminal D. ASN E. UPC
C. POS terminal (The point-of-sale)
A firm's macroenvironment includes all of the following except A. culture. B. political/legal issues. C. competition. D. economics. E. demographics.
C. competition. (part of the immediate environment, not the macroenvironment.)
Four frequently used targeting strategies are the micromarketing, undifferentiated, differentiated, and ________ targeting strategies. A. global B. benefit-based C. concentrated D. economic E. geographic
C. concentrated
Introducing newly developed products or services to a market segment the company is not currently serving is called A. product development. B. market development. C. diversification. D. market penetration. E. product proliferation.
C. diversification.
A(n) ________ is a small group of people brought together for an intensive discussion of a topic. A. in-depth interview B. social media site C. focus group D. data mining session E. experiment
C. focus group
Differences in weather and climate create opportunities for A. concentrated targeting. B. demographic segmentation. C. geographic segmentation. D. benefit segmentation. E. psychographic segmentation.
C. geographic segmentation.
Marketing executives at Diet Pepsi want to analyze the number of Diet Coke customers who switch to its product when Diet Pepsi is offered at a deep discount. What data would likely show this information? A. scanner data B. internal secondary data C. primary panel data D. primary internal data E. secondary panel data
E. secondary panel data (Panel data are info collected from a group of consumers, organized into panels, over time. Data collected from panelists often include their records of what they have purchased (i.e., secondary data) as well as their responses to survey questions that the client gives to the panel firm to ask the panelists (i.e., primary data). Secondary panel data thus might show that when Diet Pepsi is offered at a deep discount, 80 percent of usual Diet Coke consumers switch to Diet Pepsi.)
To develop psychographic segments, the marketer must understand consumers' A. age, income, and education. B. buying patterns and behaviors. C. gender, race, and religion. D. disposable personal income, benefit perceptions, and alternative egos. E. self-values, self-concept, and lifestyles.
E. self-values, self-concept, and lifestyles.
Part of the social trend toward health and wellness is a concern about the increasing degree of obesity in the United States. Related to this, the text notes the increasing popularity of A. cooking shows on TV. B. flu shots. C. high-carbohydrate diets. D. juicing. E. yoga.
E. yoga
T/F: A mission statement describes the specific actions a firm will take to achieve its goals.
False
T/F: Approximately half of marketers use social media tools for their businesses.
False
T/F: As the children of the Baby Boomers, Generation X is the biggest cohort since the original postwar World War II boom.
False
T/F: Data that have been collected prior to the start of the current research project are considered primary data
False
T/F: Effectively managing supply chain relationships has a minimal effect on profitability
False
T/F: In the immediate environment, the competition has no effect on consumers.
False
T/F: Product penetration is one of the four major growth strategies.
False
T/F: The four Ps of the marketing mix include product, promotion, planning, and place.
False
T/F: When survey data are analyzed in depth to determine consumer attitudes toward a product, this is an example of sentiment mining.
False
During the ________ stage of the product life cycle, sales rise, profits rise rapidly, and there are a small but increasing number of competitors. A. growth B. introduction C. maturity D. decline E. leveling
A. growth
Which of the following is the third step in the marketing planning process? A. identify and evaluate opportunities B. implement marketing mix and allocate resources C. define the business mission D. evaluate using a matrix E. perform situation analysis
A. identify and evaluate opportunities (The steps, in order, are: (1) define the business mission, (2) perform a situation analysis, (3) identify and evaluate opportunities, (4) implement marketing mix and allocate resources, and (5) evaluate performance.)
In the past, ________ controlled supply chains. A. manufacturers B. wholesalers C. distributors D. government agencies E. retailers
A. manufacturers (not anymore tho)
Which of the following is NOT one of the four major growth strategies marketers typically utilize? A. segment development B. market development C. diversification D. market penetration E. product development
A. segment development (The four are market penetration, market development, product development, and diversification.)
Higher-income consumers visiting ________ feel like they are on a treasure hunt, searching for a bargain. Select one: A. services retailers B. extreme-value retailers C. category specialist stores D. department stores E. big-box retailers
B. extreme-value retailers (Higher-income consumers are patronizing these stores for the thrill of the hunt.)
Traditionally, marketing activities have been divided into product, price, place, and promotion. Select the term that best describes the four Ps. A. marketing plan B. marketing implementation C. marketing mix D. marketing era E. marketing channel
C. marketing mix
When conducting a SWOT analysis, in what phase of the strategic marketing process is an organization presently engaged? A. control B. implementation C. planning D. segmentation E. metrics
C. planning (SWOT analysis is part of the planning phase.)
After reviewing the existing data on seasonal spending by his company's customers, Marvin decided he needed new information collected to address his research questions. Marvin will need ________ data to address the questions in his marketing research study. A. secondary B. syndicated C. primary D. mined E. warehoused
C. primary (Bc existing secondary data do not answer his questions, Marvin may need to collect primary data.)
If a new product concept gets positive evaluations from potential customers during concept testing, the next step for a firm is A. launching of the product. B. reverse engineering. C. product development. D. brainstorming. E. market testing.
C. product development.
________ is when vendors ship merchandise prepackaged in the quantity required for each store to the distribution center. A. Quick response B. Checking C. Horizontal merchandising D. Cross-docking E. Combination warehousing
D. Cross-docking
The first step in the STP process is to A. identify the segmentation methods to be used. B. produce a list of strengths and weaknesses of the firm's past marketing strategies. C. develop a marketing mix, so that an appropriate segment can later be identified. D. establish the overall strategy or objectives. E. select target markets.
D. establish the overall strategy or objectives. (The first step in the segmentation, targeting, and positioning process is to articulate the vision or objectives of the company's marketing strategy clearly.)
During the ________ stage of the product life cycle, sales peak and profits begin to decline as competition becomes intense. A. leveling B. growth C. introduction D. maturity E. decline
D. maturity
A ________ is a group of associated items that consumers tend to use together or think of as part of a group of similar products. A. brand extension B. product mix C. product mix breadth D. product line E. line extension
D. product line
All of the following are benefits of new product development to a firm except A. keeping up in a market with short product life cycles where sales come mostly from new products. B. satisfying the changing needs of current and new customers. C. avoiding market saturation from products that have been on the market for a long time. D. reducing the costs of production. E. creating diversification and reducing risk.
D. reducing the costs of production.
Getting merchandise floor-ready entails A. selective checking. B. intensive cross-docking. C. distributing and dispatching. D. ticketing and marking E. vertical supply chain wholesaling.
D. ticketing and marking. (Floor-ready refers to merchandise that is ready to be placed on the selling floor.)
Kellogg's marketing communications about its Special K cereal appeal almost exclusively to women. This is an example of ________ segmentation. A. psychographic B. behavioral C. benefits D. geographic E. demographic
E. demographic
Firms can measure the success of a new product by all of the following factors except A. satisfactory sales and profits. B. satisfaction of its technical requirements. C. customer acceptance. D. satisfactory performance. E. fewer competitors in the market.
E. fewer competitors in the market.
The difference between a firm's immediate marketing environment and its macroenvironment is that the macroenvironment A. is internal. B. has fewer components. C. is easier to control. D. is easier to understand. E. is external.
E. is external.
T/F: Entrepreneurs are people who organize, operate, and assume the risk of a business venture.
True
T/F: Positioning strategies generally focus either on how the product benefits the consumer or on how it is better than competitors' products.
True
T/F: A distribution center and a fulfillment center are one and the same.
false
T/F: A product label is just a required sticker on a package.
false
T/F: Fashion trends tend to experience short product life cycles.
true
T/F: Film studios use sophisticated marketing analytics, such as bioanalytics, to track audiences' physical reactions to films.
true
T/F: The failure rate for new products is high.
true
T/F: STP refers to segmentation, testing, and promotion.
False (segmentation, targeting, and positioning.)
How is consumer panel data collected during the test marketing phase of a new product introduction? A. Panelists scan their receipts on a home scanning device. B. Consumers voluntarily go to a website to record their preferences. C. Focus groups are held in key markets. D. Panelists complete a questionnaire about the product. E. Stores provide sales data to companies.
A. Panelists scan their receipts on a home scanning device.
At the end of a brainstorming session, participants are often asked to A. vote on the best ideas. B. defer to management for the final decision. C. identify the worst ideas. D. propose one more new idea each. E. identify which ideas each person proposed.
A. vote on the best ideas.
Which of the following is a social trend listed in the text? A. economic concerns B. health and wellness C. technological advances D. thrift E. environmental legislation
B. health and wellness
In a(n) ________ marketing channel, one or more intermediaries work with manufacturers to provide goods and services to customers. A. vertical B. indirect C. horizontal D. direct E. simple
B. indirect (Whereas a direct marketing channel uses no intermediaries)
For a segmentation strategy to be successful, the customers in the segment must react similarly and positively to the firm's marketing mix. In other words, the market segment must be A. perceptive. B. responsive. C. reachable. D. substantial. E. identifiable.
B. responsive.
Which of the following defines a value proposition? A. a display of the position of products or brands in the consumer's mind B. the unique value that a product or service provides to customers C. an advertisement that talks about value D. a special discount offer dropping the price E. the one feature that will prompt a customer to buy the product
B. the unique value that a product or service provides to customers
A marketing research project often begins with a review of the relevant ________ data. A. primary B. unfocused C. secondary D. quantitative E. structured
C. secondary (Projects often start with a review of relevant secondary data in order to obtain preliminary insights quickly and at minimal cost)
Which of the following is a core aspect of marketing? A. setting prices lower than all competitors B. increasing the company's profit C. satisfying as many needs as possible D. making product, place, promotion, and price decisions E. creating a product that everyone will want to buy
D. making product, place, promotion, and price decisions
Which of the following is true with regard to mobile advertising? A. Within just a couple of years, the mobile advertising market will be equal to that of the digital advertising market. B. Within just a couple of years, mobile advertising will be a smaller market than digital advertising. C. The approach and marketing plan of mobile advertising is the same as the approach and marketing plan of digital advertising. D. Companies no longer advertise using mobile marketing. E. Within just a couple of years, mobile advertising will be a bigger market than digital advertising
E. Within just a couple of years, mobile advertising will be a bigger market than digital advertising
Retailing is defined as the set of business activities that A. focuses on transactions, but not relationships. B. separates wholesaling from manufacturing. C. occurs only in brick-and-mortar space. D. focuses on a firm's core values. E. add value to products and services sold to consumers for their personal or family use.
E. add value to products and services sold to consumers for their personal or family use.
All of the following are activities carried on in a distribution center except A. coordinating outbound transportation. B. coordinating inbound transportation. C. getting merchandise floor ready. D. receiving, checking, storing, and cross-docking merchandise. E. distributing paychecks and paystubs for retail employees
E. distributing paychecks and paystubs for retail employees
For a brand name to be effective, it needs to be A. a visual image containing human characters. B. associated with a sports or movie superstar. C. a catchy, tongue-twisting phrase. D. generic, so it can be applied to as many products as possible. E. easy for consumers to recognize and remember.
E. easy for consumers to recognize and remember.
During which phase of the marketing planning process does a firm engage in segmentation, targeting, and positioning? A. planning phase B. control phase C. strategy phase D. implementation phase E. identify and evaluate opportunities phase
E. identify and evaluate opportunities phase
A major disadvantage of primary data collection is A. it cannot be tailored to meet specific research needs. B. it does not offer behavioral insights that can be obtained from secondary data. C. it can be accessed only through syndicated databases or unstructured data mines. D. it is too general to meet researcher's and manager's needs. E. it requires more sophisticated training and experience to design the study and collect data
E. it requires more sophisticated training and experience to design the study and collect data
The amount of time between the recognition that an order needs to be placed and the arrival of the needed merchandise at the seller's store to be available for sale is referred to as A. supply chain conflict time. B. quick time. C. an advanced shipping notice. D. float time. E. lead time.
E. lead time.
Retailers use ________ to communicate with or sell to consumers through wireless handheld devices. A. social media advertising B. virtual media C. share of wallet tactics D. cooperative advertising E. mobile commerce
E. mobile commerce
A(n) ________ is a document used by a forklift driver indicating how much of each item to get from specific storage areas. A. bill of lading B. certificate of origin C. warehouse receipt D. RFID tag E. pick ticket
E. pick ticket